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Question 1
Correct
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What can lead to the development of pellagra?
Your Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Pellagra, a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin B3, can be brought on by alcohol consumption as it hinders the absorption of the vitamin. In developed countries, alcoholism is the primary culprit behind cases of pellagra.
Pellagra: A Vitamin B3 Deficiency Disease
Pellagra is a disease caused by a lack of vitamin B3 (niacin) in the body. The name pellagra comes from the Italian words pelle agra, which means rough of sour skin. This disease is common in developing countries where corn is a major food source, of during prolonged disasters like famine of war. In developed countries, pellagra is rare because many foods are fortified with niacin. However, alcoholism is a common cause of pellagra in developed countries. Alcohol dependence can worsen pellagra by causing malnutrition, gastrointestinal problems, and B vitamin deficiencies. It can also inhibit the conversion of tryptophan to niacin and promote the accumulation of 5-ALA and porphyrins.
Pellagra affects a wide range of organs and tissues in the body, so its symptoms can vary. The classic symptoms of pellagra are known as the three Ds: diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Niacin deficiency can cause dementia, depression, mania, and psychosis, which is called pellagra psychosis. The most noticeable symptom of pellagra is dermatitis, which is a hyperpigmented rash that appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin. This rash is usually symmetrical and bilateral, and it is often described as Casal’s necklace when it appears on the neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 2
Correct
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A child presents with a simple phobia. What is the most appropriate treatment?
As an AI language model, I cannot provide medical advice of diagnose medical conditions. It is important to consult a licensed healthcare professional for proper evaluation and treatment. However, some common treatments for simple phobias in children may include cognitive-behavioral therapy, exposure therapy, and relaxation techniques. The specific treatment plan will depend on the individual needs and preferences of the child and their healthcare provider's recommendations.Your Answer: Graded exposure
Explanation:Understanding Specific Phobia: Diagnosis, Course, and Treatment
A specific phobia is a type of anxiety disorder characterized by an intense fear of anxiety about a particular object of situation that is out of proportion to the actual danger it poses. This fear of anxiety is evoked almost every time the individual comes into contact with the phobic stimulus, and they actively avoid it of experience intense fear of anxiety if they cannot avoid it. Specific phobias usually develop in childhood, with situational phobias having a later onset than other types. Although most specific phobias develop in childhood, they can develop at any age, often due to traumatic experiences.
Exposure therapy is the current treatment of choice for specific phobias, involving in-vivo of imaging approaches to phobic stimuli of situations. Pharmacotherapy is not commonly used, but glucocorticoids and D-cycloserine have been found to be effective. Systematic desensitization, developed by Wolpe, was the first behavioral approach for phobias, but subsequent research found that exposure was the crucial variable for eliminating phobias. Graded exposure therapy is now preferred over flooding, which is considered unnecessarily traumatic. Only a small percentage of people with specific phobias receive treatment, possibly due to the temporary relief provided by avoidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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What is the recommended safe amount of alcohol to consume during pregnancy, as stated by the UK Department of Health?
Your Answer: No amount of alcohol is considered safe at any point in pregnancy
Explanation:Pregnancy and Alcohol
The advice on safe drinking levels during pregnancy varies, but the most recent recommendation is to abstain from alcohol completely. According to NICE, pregnant women of those planning a pregnancy should avoid alcohol altogether to minimize risks to the fetus. This aligns with the UK Chief Medical Officers’ Alcohol Guidelines Review from 2016. It is recommended to follow this guideline to ensure the safety of the developing baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has been referred to clinic by her GP. She has been dressing as a man since her early 20s, and has always kept this a secret from her family. She reports that she wishes to be a man and that she is very uncomfortable with her female sex. She states that she would like gender reassignment surgery.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Transsexualism
Explanation:Transsexualism is a condition where an individual desires to live and be accepted as a member of the opposite sex, often accompanied by discomfort with their own biological sex and a desire for gender reassignment treatment. This desire is usually present from an early age, before puberty.
Fetishistic transvestism involves wearing clothes of the opposite sex primarily for sexual arousal. The individual experiences a strong desire to remove the clothing once sexual arousal subsides.
Dual role transvestism involves wearing clothes of the opposite sex to temporarily experience membership of the opposite sex, without any desire for a permanent sex change of sexual arousal.
Egodystonic sexual orientation refers to an individual who wishes their gender identity of sexual orientation were different due to associated psychological and behavioral disorders. They may seek treatment to change it.
Voyeurism is a recurring tendency to observe people engaging in sexual of intimate behavior, such as undressing, without their knowledge. This behavior often leads to sexual excitement and masturbation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the nature of the hypothesis that a researcher wants to test regarding the effect of a drug on a person's heart rate?
Your Answer: Two-tailed alternative hypothesis
Correct Answer: One-tailed alternative hypothesis
Explanation:A one-tailed hypothesis indicates a specific direction of association between groups. The researcher not only declares that there will be a distinction between the groups but also defines the direction in which the difference will occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 6
Correct
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What medication should be avoided when a patient is already taking clozapine?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:It is important to avoid carbamazepine due to its potential to cause agranulocytosis. Additionally, Sulpiride and lamotrigine can be effective in augmenting treatment for individuals with clozapine-resistant schizophrenia. Valproate is commonly prescribed as a preventative measure against seizures when clozapine is being used.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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What is the truth about the psychiatric impacts of treatments for multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer: Mania occurs more frequently than depression from corticosteroid use
Explanation:Psychiatric Consequences of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. It is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions in the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. MS presents with diverse neurological signs, including optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.
Depression is the most common psychiatric condition seen in MS, with a lifetime prevalence of 25-50%. The symptoms of depression in people with MS tend to be different from those without MS. The preferred diagnostic indicators for depression in MS include pervasive mood change, diurnal mood variation, suicidal ideation, functional change not related to physical disability, and pessimistic of negative patterns of thinking. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for depression in patients with MS.
Suicide is common in MS, with recognized risk factors including male gender, young age at onset of illness, current of previous history of depression, social isolation, and substance misuse. Mania is more common in people with MS, and mood stabilizers are recommended for treatment. Pathological laughing and crying, defined as uncontrollable laughing and/of crying without the associated affect, occurs in approximately 10% of cases of MS. Emotional lability, defined as an excessive emotional response to a minor stimulus, is also common in MS and can be treated with amitriptyline and SSRIs.
The majority of cases of neuropsychiatric side effects from corticosteroids fit an affective profile of mania and/of depression. Psychotic symptoms, particularly hallucinations, are present in up to half of these cases. Glatiramer acetate has not been associated with neuropsychiatric side-effects. The data regarding the risk of mood symptoms related to interferon use is conflicting.
In conclusion, MS has significant psychiatric consequences, including depression, suicide, mania, pathological laughing and crying, emotional lability, and neuropsychiatric side effects from treatment. Early recognition and treatment of these psychiatric symptoms are essential for improving the quality of life of individuals with MS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old lady attends clinic for a medication review. She has been established on lithium carbonate, once daily, for prophylaxis of recurrent depression for several years and has had stable levels. She also suffers from ankylosing spondylitis for which she has been prescribed celecoxib for many years. Her lithium level was checked three days prior to her appointment and was 0.6 mmol/L.
When should her next lithium levels be checked?Your Answer: In two weeks
Correct Answer: In three months
Explanation:Patients taking lithium should be cautious when using celecoxib, an NSAID that has the potential to elevate lithium levels.
Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 9
Correct
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If you anticipate that a drug will result in more side-effects than a placebo, what would be your estimated relative risk of side-effects occurring in the group receiving the drug?
Your Answer: >1
Explanation:Disease Rates and Their Interpretation
Disease rates are a measure of the occurrence of a disease in a population. They are used to establish causation, monitor interventions, and measure the impact of exposure on disease rates. The attributable risk is the difference in the rate of disease between the exposed and unexposed groups. It tells us what proportion of deaths in the exposed group were due to the exposure. The relative risk is the risk of an event relative to exposure. It is calculated by dividing the rate of disease in the exposed group by the rate of disease in the unexposed group. A relative risk of 1 means there is no difference between the two groups. A relative risk of <1 means that the event is less likely to occur in the exposed group, while a relative risk of >1 means that the event is more likely to occur in the exposed group. The population attributable risk is the reduction in incidence that would be observed if the population were entirely unexposed. It can be calculated by multiplying the attributable risk by the prevalence of exposure in the population. The attributable proportion is the proportion of the disease that would be eliminated in a population if its disease rate were reduced to that of the unexposed group.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 10
Correct
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What type of therapy utilizes a reformulation letter?
Your Answer: Cognitive analytic therapy
Explanation:In CAT, the process of reformulation holds great significance. By session 5, the patient is typically provided with a reformulation letter that narrates their life story, highlighting how their current coping mechanisms were developed in response to their early experiences. Additionally, CAT involves the creation of goodbye letters.
Understanding Cognitive Analytic Therapy
Cognitive Analytic Therapy (CAT) is a form of therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches. It is a brief therapy that typically lasts between 16-24 sessions. Developed by Anthony Ryle, CAT aims to identify the useful parts of psychotherapy and make it more efficient. It also aims to create a therapy that can be easily researched.
CAT focuses on identifying key issues early on and conceptualizing them as repeated unsuccessful strategies. These strategies are categorized into traps, dilemmas, and snags. Traps are flawed thinking patterns that result in a vicious cycle of negative assumptions and actions. Dilemmas occur when a person believes their choices are restricted to opposite actions, neither of which is satisfactory. Snags are thinking patterns that restrict actions due to a perception of potential harm of failure.
CAT follows a procedural sequence model, where the problem is appraised, options are discussed, a plan is created and put into place, and consequences are evaluated. The therapist often summarizes the problem and plan in a letter to the client.
CAT also identifies reciprocal role procedures (RRPs), which are patterns observed in the way we related to others. These patterns are visually presented using a sequential diagrammatic reformulation. For example, a client who rebelled against a stern, dominating father may be dismissive of therapy because they see the therapist as a demanding authority figure.
Overall, CAT is a useful therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches to identify and address maladaptive patterns. Its procedural sequence model and use of RRPs make it an efficient and effective therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 11
Correct
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What is the approximate occurrence rate of depression after giving birth?
Your Answer: 10%
Explanation:Perinatal Depression, Baby Blues, and Postpartum Depression
Perinatal depression, also known as postpartum depression, is a common mood disorder experienced by new mothers after childbirth. The term baby blues is used to describe the emotional lability that some mothers experience during the first week after childbirth, which usually resolves by day 10 without treatment. The prevalence of baby blues is around 40%. Postpartum depression, on the other hand, refers to depression that occurs after childbirth. While neither DSM-5 nor ICD-11 specifically mention postpartum depression, both diagnostic systems offer categories that encompass depression during pregnancy of in the weeks following delivery. The prevalence of postpartum depression is approximately 10-15%.
Various factors have been shown to increase the risk of postnatal depression, including youth, marital and family conflict, lack of social support, anxiety and depression during pregnancy, substance misuse, previous pregnancy loss, ambivalence about the current pregnancy, and frequent antenatal admissions to a maternity hospital. However, obstetric factors such as length of labor, assisted delivery, of separation of the mother from the baby in the Special Care Baby Unit do not seem to influence the development of postnatal depression. Additionally, social class does not appear to be associated with postnatal depression.
Puerperal psychosis, along with severe depression, is thought to be mainly caused by biological factors, while psychosocial factors are most important in the milder postnatal depressive illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the primary cause for young children being referred to mental health services in England?
Your Answer: ADHD
Correct Answer: Conduct disorder
Explanation:Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders
Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.
ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).
The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.
The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.
NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 13
Correct
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A team of investigators aimed to explore the perspectives of experienced psychologists on the use of cognitive-behavioral therapy in treating anxiety disorders. They randomly selected a group of psychologists to participate in the study.
To enhance the credibility of their results, they opted to employ two researchers with different expertise (a clinical psychologist and a social worker) to conduct interviews with the selected psychologists. Furthermore, they collected data from the psychologists not only through interviews but also by organizing focus groups.
What is the approach used in this qualitative study to improve the credibility of the findings?Your Answer: Triangulation
Explanation:Triangulation is a technique commonly employed in research to ensure the accuracy and reliability of results. It involves using multiple methods to verify findings, also known as ‘cross examination’. This approach increases confidence in the results by demonstrating consistency across different methods. Investigator triangulation involves using researchers with diverse backgrounds, while method triangulation involves using different techniques such as interviews and focus groups. The goal of triangulation in qualitative research is to enhance the credibility and validity of the findings by addressing potential biases and limitations associated with single-method, single-observer studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A new medication is being developed to treat hypertension in elderly patients. Several different drugs are being considered for their efficacy in reducing blood pressure. Which study design would require the largest number of participants to achieve a significant outcome?
Your Answer: Equivalence trial
Correct Answer: Superiority trial
Explanation:Since a superiority trial involves comparing a new drug with an already existing treatment that can also reduce HbA1c levels, a substantial sample size is necessary to establish a significant distinction.
Study Designs for New Drugs: Options and Considerations
When launching a new drug, there are various study design options available. One common approach is a placebo-controlled trial, which can provide strong evidence but may be deemed unethical if established treatments are available. Additionally, it does not allow for a comparison with standard treatments. Therefore, statisticians must decide whether the trial aims to demonstrate superiority, equivalence, of non-inferiority to an existing treatment.
Superiority trials may seem like the obvious choice, but they require a large sample size to show a significant benefit over an existing treatment. Equivalence trials define an equivalence margin on a specified outcome, and if the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs falls within this margin, the drugs are assumed to have a similar effect. Non-inferiority trials are similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to fall within the equivalence margin. These trials require smaller sample sizes, and once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior, larger studies may be conducted to demonstrate superiority.
It is important to note that drug companies may not necessarily aim to show superiority over an existing product. If they can demonstrate that their product is equivalent of even non-inferior, they may compete on price of convenience. Overall, the choice of study design depends on various factors, including ethical considerations, sample size, and the desired outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 15
Correct
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A study looks into the effects of alcohol consumption on female psychiatrists. A group are selected and separated by the amount they drink into four groups. The first group drinks no alcohol, the second occasionally, the third often, and the fourth large and regular amounts. The group is followed up over the next ten years and the rates of cirrhosis are recorded.
What is the dependent variable in the study?Your Answer: Rates of liver cirrhosis
Explanation:Understanding Stats Variables
Variables are characteristics, numbers, of quantities that can be measured of counted. They are also known as data items. Examples of variables include age, sex, business income and expenses, country of birth, capital expenditure, class grades, eye colour, and vehicle type. The value of a variable may vary between data units in a population. In a typical study, there are three main variables: independent, dependent, and controlled variables.
The independent variable is something that the researcher purposely changes during the investigation. The dependent variable is the one that is observed and changes in response to the independent variable. Controlled variables are those that are not changed during the experiment. Dependent variables are affected by independent variables but not by controlled variables, as these do not vary throughout the study.
For instance, a researcher wants to test the effectiveness of a new weight loss medication. Participants are divided into three groups, with the first group receiving a placebo (0mg dosage), the second group a 10 mg dose, and the third group a 40 mg dose. After six months, the participants’ weights are measured. In this case, the independent variable is the dosage of the medication, as that is what is being manipulated. The dependent variable is the weight, as that is what is being measured.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 16
Correct
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NICE recommends which treatment as the initial approach for opioid detoxification?
Your Answer: Buprenorphine
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for opioid detoxification is methadone of buprenorphine.
Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 17
Correct
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What does testamentary capacity refer to?
Your Answer: Ability to make a will
Explanation:The term used to refer to the individual who creates a will is the testator, which is why the ability to create a will is known as testamentary capacity (derived from the Latin word testator).
Testamentary Capacity
Testamentary capacity is a crucial aspect of common law that pertains to a person’s legal and mental ability to create a will. To meet the requirements for testamentary capacity, there are four key factors that a testator must be aware of at the time of making the will. These include knowing the extent and value of their property, identifying the natural beneficiaries, understanding the disposition they are making, and having a plan for how the property will be distributed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 18
Correct
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With which condition are raised liver function tests most commonly associated?
Your Answer: Valproate
Explanation:Biochemical Changes Associated with Psychotropic Drugs
Psychotropic drugs can have incidental biochemical of haematological effects that need to be identified and monitored. The evidence for many of these changes is limited to case reports of information supplied by manufacturers. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition summarises the important changes to be aware of.
One important parameter to monitor is ALT, a liver enzyme. Agents that can raise ALT levels include clozapine, haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine, mirtazapine, moclobemide, SSRIs, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and valproate. On the other hand, vigabatrin can lower ALT levels.
Another liver enzyme to monitor is ALP. Haloperidol, clozapine, olanzapine, duloxetine, sertraline, and carbamazepine can raise ALP levels, while buprenorphine and zolpidem (rarely) can lower them.
AST levels are often associated with ALT levels. Trifluoperazine and vigabatrin can raise AST levels, while agents that raise ALT levels can also raise AST levels.
TSH levels, which are associated with thyroid function, can be affected by aripiprazole, carbamazepine, lithium, quetiapine, rivastigmine, sertraline, and valproate (slightly). Moclobemide can lower TSH levels.
Thyroxine levels can be affected by dexamphetamine, moclobemide, lithium (which can raise of lower levels), aripiprazole (rarely), and quetiapine (rarely).
Overall, it is important to monitor these biochemical changes when prescribing psychotropic drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 19
Correct
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What is the most effective way to distinguish between dementia and delirium?
Your Answer: Fluctuating consciousness
Explanation:The primary distinction between delirium and dementia is the variability of consciousness levels.
Delirium (also known as acute confusional state) is a condition characterized by a sudden decline in consciousness and cognition, with a particular impairment in attention. It often involves perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep-wake cycle impairment. Delirium typically develops over a few days and has a fluctuating course. The causes of delirium are varied, ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a brief onset, early disorientation, clouding of consciousness, fluctuating course, and early psychomotor changes. Delirium can be classified into three subtypes: hypoactive, hyperactive, and mixed. Patients with hyperactive delirium demonstrate restlessness, agitation, and hyper vigilance, while those with hypoactive delirium present with lethargy and sedation. Mixed delirium demonstrates both hyperactive and hypoactive features. The hypoactive form is most common in elderly patients and is often misdiagnosed as depression of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 20
Correct
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A teenage boy is brought to the clinic by his father. The father is worried about his son's frequent use of alcohol, but the son does not see it as a problem and thinks his father is being too strict. Based on the stages of change model, what stage is the son currently in?
Your Answer: Pre-contemplation
Explanation:The person is presently in the precontemplation stage of change as they are not contemplating any changes. At this stage, individuals may not be aware of any issues that require modification.
Stages of Change Model
Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.
The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.
The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 21
Correct
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A 25-year-old female attends clinic with her partner due to problems with anxiety. During the consultation the partner states that since they moved in together six months ago, he has heard her vomiting in the toilet. The lady admits to this but says she only does this after episodes where she loses control of her eating and eats far more food than she should. The partner comments that what she thinks is a large amount is actually more like a normal portion. She estimates that this happens a couple of times a week. She states that she is very insecure about her weight and can get quite obsessive about checking the calorie content of foods. A physical examination reveals a BMI of 20. Further questioning reveals only a mild anxiety disorder which has been present for approximately two months and is related to stress at work.
Which of the following diagnoses is most suggested?:Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Based on the information provided, the most likely diagnosis is bulimia nervosa. Anorexia nervosa is not applicable as the individual’s BMI is not significantly low (less than 18.5). Binge eating disorder is also not applicable as the individual engages in compensatory behaviors such as induced vomiting. It is important to note that binge eating episodes can be either objective of subjective, but the key feature is the loss of control overeating.
Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.
Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.
It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 22
Correct
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Which therapy includes the sequential diagrammatic reformulation as a component?
Your Answer: Cognitive analytic therapy
Explanation:Understanding Cognitive Analytic Therapy
Cognitive Analytic Therapy (CAT) is a form of therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches. It is a brief therapy that typically lasts between 16-24 sessions. Developed by Anthony Ryle, CAT aims to identify the useful parts of psychotherapy and make it more efficient. It also aims to create a therapy that can be easily researched.
CAT focuses on identifying key issues early on and conceptualizing them as repeated unsuccessful strategies. These strategies are categorized into traps, dilemmas, and snags. Traps are flawed thinking patterns that result in a vicious cycle of negative assumptions and actions. Dilemmas occur when a person believes their choices are restricted to opposite actions, neither of which is satisfactory. Snags are thinking patterns that restrict actions due to a perception of potential harm of failure.
CAT follows a procedural sequence model, where the problem is appraised, options are discussed, a plan is created and put into place, and consequences are evaluated. The therapist often summarizes the problem and plan in a letter to the client.
CAT also identifies reciprocal role procedures (RRPs), which are patterns observed in the way we related to others. These patterns are visually presented using a sequential diagrammatic reformulation. For example, a client who rebelled against a stern, dominating father may be dismissive of therapy because they see the therapist as a demanding authority figure.
Overall, CAT is a useful therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches to identify and address maladaptive patterns. Its procedural sequence model and use of RRPs make it an efficient and effective therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 23
Correct
-
What conclusion did the POTS study draw about treating OCD in children?
Your Answer: Children with OCD should begin treatment with the combination of CBT plus an SSRI of CBT alone
Explanation:The recommended treatment for children and adolescents with OCD is either a combination of CBT and a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor of CBT alone, according to the study’s findings.
POTS Study: Combination of CBT and Sertraline Best for Treating Pediatric OCD
The Pediatric OCD Treatment Study (POTS I) was the first randomized trial in pediatric OCD to compare the efficacy of sertraline, OCD-specific cognitive behavioral treatment (CBT), their combination, and a placebo control condition in treating children and adolescents with clinically significant OCD. The study took place in the United States and involved 112 participants who were randomly assigned to receive CBT alone, sertraline alone, combined CBT and sertraline, of a placebo for 12 weeks.
The study found that all three active treatments (CBT alone, sertraline alone, and combined treatment) were significantly more effective than the placebo. The combined treatment was found to be the most effective, with a remission rate of 53.6%, followed by CBT alone (39.3%) and sertraline alone (21.4%). The study also found that combined treatment was less susceptible to setting-specific variations than CBT and sertraline alone.
The study concluded that children and adolescents with OCD should begin treatment with the combination of CBT plus a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor of CBT alone. The three active treatments were found to be acceptable and well-tolerated, with no evidence of treatment-emergent harm to self of others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 24
Correct
-
Which vitamin is administered for the treatment of the Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
Your Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.
The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.
Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 25
Incorrect
-
What is the cut-off score on the SCOFF questionnaire that suggests a probable case of anorexia or bulimia?
Your Answer: 4
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:The SCOFF Questionnaire for Screening Eating Disorders
The SCOFF questionnaire is a tool used to screen for eating disorders. It consists of five questions that aim to identify symptoms of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questions include whether the individual makes themselves sick because they feel uncomfortably full, worries about losing control over how much they eat, has recently lost more than one stone in a three-month period, believes themselves to be fat when others say they are too thin, and whether food dominates their life.
A score of two or more positive responses indicates a likely case of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questionnaire has a sensitivity of 84.6% and specificity of 98.6% when two or more questions are answered positively. This means that if a patient responds positively to two of more questions, there is a high likelihood that they have an eating disorder. The negative predictive value of the questionnaire is 99.3%, which means that if a patient responds negatively to the questions, there is a high probability that they do not have an eating disorder.
Overall, the SCOFF questionnaire is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to quickly screen for eating disorders and identify individuals who may require further assessment and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
-
Which statement accurately describes the epidemiology of violence among individuals with a mental illness?
Your Answer: The vast majority of people with mental disorder are violent
Correct Answer: People with mental disorders are more likely to be violent than community controls
Explanation:The Relationship Between Mental Disorder and Violence: Epidemiological Findings
Epidemiological studies have revealed that individuals with mental disorders are more likely to exhibit violent behavior compared to those without mental disorders. However, substance misuse is a significant contributing factor to violence in both groups. Other factors such as gender, age, past history of violence, and socio-economic status have a more significant impact on the risk of violence than the presence of a mental disorder. Comorbid personality disorders also increase the risk of violence independently. The increased risk of violence is partly due to active psychotic symptoms, and threat/control override symptoms such as persecutory delusions, delusions of control, and passivity phenomena are particularly important. It is essential to note that the vast majority of individuals with mental disorders are not violent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 27
Correct
-
Which of the options below is not included in the DSM-5 criteria for diagnosing attention deficit hyperactivity disorder?
Your Answer: Often loses temper
Explanation:ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)
ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.
NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.
Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 28
Correct
-
After a hospitalization for mania, a female patient with a history of hepatitis C presents with abnormal liver function. Which medication would be appropriate for long-term management of her mania?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs
Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:
Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride
Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)
Mood stabilizers: Lithium
Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 29
Correct
-
What is the recommended management approach for Wernicke's encephalopathy that is accompanied by petechial hemorrhages?
Your Answer: Intravenous vitamin B1
Explanation:Standard practice should be followed when petechial hemorrhages are observed in an MRI of a patient with Wernicke’s, as they are a typical characteristic of the disease.
Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.
The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.
Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 30
Incorrect
-
What is the correct approach to treating tardive dyskinesia?
Your Answer: Benzhexol is the only licenced treatment for tardive dyskinesia
Correct Answer: Reduction of the antipsychotic may worsen tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:Tardive Dyskinesia: Symptoms, Causes, Risk Factors, and Management
Tardive dyskinesia (TD) is a condition that affects the face, limbs, and trunk of individuals who have been on neuroleptics for months to years. The movements fluctuate over time, increase with emotional arousal, decrease with relaxation, and disappear with sleep. The cause of TD remains theoretical, but the postsynaptic dopamine (D2) receptor supersensitivity hypothesis is the most persistent. Other hypotheses include the presynaptic dopaminergic/noradrenergic hyperactivity hypothesis, the cholinergic interneuron burnout hypothesis, the excitatory/oxidative stress hypothesis, and the synaptic plasticity hypothesis. Risk factors for TD include advancing age, female sex, ethnicity, longer illness duration, intellectual disability and brain damage, negative symptoms in schizophrenia, mood disorders, diabetes, smoking, alcohol and substance misuse, FGA vs SGA treatment, higher antipsychotic dose, anticholinergic co-treatment, and akathisia.
Management options for TD include stopping any anticholinergic, reducing antipsychotic dose, changing to an antipsychotic with lower propensity for TD, and using tetrabenazine, vitamin E, of amantadine as add-on options. Clozapine is the antipsychotic most likely to be associated with resolution of symptoms. Vesicular monoamine transporter type 2 (VMAT2) inhibitors are agents that cause a depletion of neuroactive peptides such as dopamine in nerve terminals and are used to treat chorea due to neurodegenerative diseases of dyskinesias due to neuroleptic medications (tardive dyskinesia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 31
Correct
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A 16-year-old male shows resistance towards consuming meals that are made for him. What would be the most indicative of a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer: She achieves high grades at school
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is a disorder characterized by an abnormal perception of body image. However, there are other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. This test aims to assess your knowledge of differential diagnoses and features that may indicate an alternative diagnosis.
Patients with anorexia nervosa often feel well despite others’ concerns about their appearance. They may also be highly motivated and successful in their academic of professional pursuits. However, the absence of delusions about food being poisoned may suggest a different diagnosis, such as a psychotic illness.
Heavy drinking is another factor that may indicate a different diagnosis, such as alcoholism. On the other hand, if the patient is secretly abusing laxatives, this would support a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa rather than the use of anabolic agents.
In summary, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with symptoms of anorexia nervosa. Factors such as delusions, heavy drinking, of the use of anabolic agents may suggest a different underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 32
Correct
-
What is the best course of action for a pregnant patient who regularly attends clinic for moderate to severe depression and is taking paroxetine, but is unwilling to consider psychological options?
Your Answer: Continue the paroxetine
Explanation:If the patient’s depression history was only mild to moderate, NICE would suggest considering stopping paroxetine and using facilitated self-help. However, since the patient’s depression history is more severe, it would not be wise to discontinue antidepressant treatment. The Maudsley recommends continuing with the same antidepressant if it is effective, except for MAOIs, to prevent relapse. Although some studies have linked paroxetine to cardiac malformations, other studies have not replicated this finding and have implicated other SSRIs. While paroxetine may increase the likelihood of neonatal withdrawal effects compared to alternatives with a longer half-life, these effects are typically mild and self-limiting.
Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 33
Correct
-
In accordance with the laws of England and Wales, when does an individual become accountable for their actions?
Your Answer: 10
Explanation:As of December 2021, the age of criminal responsibility in Scotland is 12, while in England and Wales it remains at 10.
Criminal Responsibility and Age Limits
To be found guilty of a crime, it must be proven that a person committed the act (actus reus) and had a guilty mind (mens rea). In England and Wales, children under the age of 10 cannot be held criminally responsible for their actions and cannot be arrested or charged with a crime. Instead, they may face other punishments such as a Local Child Curfew of a Child Safety Order. Children between the ages of 10 and 17 can be arrested and taken to court, but are treated differently from adults and may be dealt with by youth courts, given different sentences, and sent to special secure centers for young people. Young people aged 18 are treated as adults by the law.
Not Guilty by Reason of Insanity and Other Defenses
A person may be found not guilty by reason of insanity if they did not understand the nature of quality of their actions of did not know that what they were doing was wrong. Automatism is a defense used when the act is believed to have occurred unconsciously, either from an external cause (sane automatism) of an internal cause (insane automatism). Diminished responsibility is a defense used only in the defense of murder and allows for a reduction of the normal life sentence to manslaughter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 34
Correct
-
A woman is worried about her 55 year old husband who has been experiencing unusual movements and has become anxious and depressed. She remembers that his father had a similar issue and eventually developed dementia. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Huntington's disease
Explanation:Psychiatric and Behavioural Symptoms of Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a condition that affects individuals with a triad of symptoms, including motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. While the symptoms typically begin in the third and fourth decades of life, individuals with a high number of CAG repeats may experience symptoms before the age of 20, known as juvenile Huntington’s disease.
The psychiatric symptoms of Huntington’s disease can include depression, apathy, dementia, psychosis, anxiety, mania, sexual dysfunction, and even suicide. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life and require appropriate treatment. Advances in psychiatric treatment have been made to address these symptoms and improve the overall well-being of individuals with Huntington’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 35
Incorrect
-
A young woman with bipolar disorder discovers she is expecting a baby. She has been on lithium medication for several years. What recommendations would you make in this situation?
Your Answer: Continue on an increased dose of lithium
Correct Answer: Withdraw the lithium over a 4 week period and offer an antipsychotic
Explanation:The preferred course of action would be to gradually discontinue the use of lithium and introduce an antipsychotic medication to prevent the onset of a relapse.
Bipolar Disorder in Women of Childbearing Potential
Prophylaxis is recommended for women with bipolar disorder, as postpartum relapse rates are high. Women without prophylactic pharmacotherapy during pregnancy have a postpartum relapse rate of 66%, compared to 23% for women with prophylaxis. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with bipolar disorder, according to NICE Guidelines (CG192) and the Maudsley. Women taking valproate, lithium, carbamazepine, of lamotrigine should discontinue treatment and start an antipsychotic, especially if taking valproate. If a woman with bipolar disorder is taking lithium and becomes pregnant, she should gradually stop lithium over a 4 week period and start an antipsychotic. If this is not possible, lithium levels must be taken regularly, and the dose adjusted accordingly. For acute mania, an antipsychotic should be considered. For mild depressive symptoms, self-help approaches, brief psychological interventions, and antidepressant medication can be considered. For moderate to severe depressive symptoms, psychological treatment (CBT) for moderate depression and combined medication and structured psychological interventions for severe depression should be considered.
Reference: Wesseloo, R., Kamperman, A. M., Munk-Olsen, T., Pop, V. J., Kushner, S. A., & Bergink, V. (2016). Risk of postpartum relapse in bipolar disorder and postpartum psychosis: a systematic review and meta-analysis. The American Journal of Psychiatry, 173(2), 117-127.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 36
Incorrect
-
What is the probability that a person who tests negative on the new Mephedrone screening test does not actually use Mephedrone?
Your Answer: 172/175
Correct Answer: 172/177
Explanation:Negative predictive value = 172 / 177
Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 37
Correct
-
A 30 year old man is referred to a psychiatrist by his GP who is concerned that he had had some memory loss. He attends with his wife who tells you that she has noticed that her husband has recently become quite clumsy and quick to temper. Select the most likely diagnosis.
Huntington's disease
77%
Vascular dementia
2%
CADSIL
12%
Parkinson's disease
2%
Binswanger's disease
7%
Previous Exam Question
The young age of the man makes a diagnosis of Parkinson's, frontotemporal dementia and vascular dementia unlikely. Both CADSIL and Huntington's tend to present in the fourth decade. CADSIL generally presents with stroke, memory impairment, migraine, and severe mood disturbances. The man's motor impairment (clumsiness), along with emotional disturbance, and memory problems all point to a diagnosis of Huntington's disease.Your Answer: Huntington's disease
Explanation:Given the man’s young age, it is unlikely that he has Parkinson’s, frontotemporal dementia, of vascular dementia. Additionally, both CADSIL and Huntington’s disease typically manifest in the fourth decade of life. However, CADSIL is characterized by stroke, severe mood disturbances, memory impairment, and migraines, while Huntington’s disease is marked by motor impairment (clumsiness), emotional disturbance, and memory problems. Based on these symptoms, it is more likely that the man has Huntington’s disease.
Psychiatric and Behavioural Symptoms of Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a condition that affects individuals with a triad of symptoms, including motor, cognitive, and psychiatric symptoms. While the symptoms typically begin in the third and fourth decades of life, individuals with a high number of CAG repeats may experience symptoms before the age of 20, known as juvenile Huntington’s disease.
The psychiatric symptoms of Huntington’s disease can include depression, apathy, dementia, psychosis, anxiety, mania, sexual dysfunction, and even suicide. These symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life and require appropriate treatment. Advances in psychiatric treatment have been made to address these symptoms and improve the overall well-being of individuals with Huntington’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 38
Correct
-
What is a true statement about opioid detoxification?
Your Answer: Ultra-rapid detoxification is associated with serious adverse events
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for opioid detoxification is methadone of buprenorphine.
Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 39
Correct
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What is the least useful factor to consider when evaluating a patient's appropriateness for psychological therapy?
Your Answer: Patients level of intelligence
Explanation:Having a higher level of intelligence does not guarantee a more successful outcome when undergoing psychological therapy.
Factors Predicting Favorable Outcome for Psychotherapy
There are several factors that can predict a favorable outcome for psychotherapy, indicating that a patient is suitable for this type of treatment. One of the most important factors is the patient’s capacity to form a therapeutic relationship with the therapist. This means that the patient is able to establish a trusting and collaborative relationship with the therapist, which is essential for effective therapy.
Another important factor is the patient’s motivation to change. Patients who are motivated to change are more likely to engage in therapy and to make progress towards their goals. This motivation can come from a variety of sources, such as a desire to improve their quality of life, reduce symptoms of mental illness, of improve their relationships with others.
Psychological mindedness is also an important factor in predicting a favorable outcome for psychotherapy. This refers to the patient’s ability to understand and reflect on their own thoughts, feelings, and behaviors, as well as those of others. Patients who are psychologically minded are more likely to benefit from therapy because they are able to engage in self-reflection and gain insight into their own experiences.
Finally, good ego strength is another factor that predicts a favorable outcome for psychotherapy. Ego strength refers to the patient’s ability to cope with stress and adversity, and to maintain a sense of self-worth and self-esteem. Patients with good ego strength are better able to tolerate the emotional challenges of therapy and to make progress towards their goals. Overall, these factors can help clinicians identify patients who are likely to benefit from psychotherapy and tailor their treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 40
Correct
-
For which of the following research areas are qualitative methods least effective?
Your Answer: Treatment evaluation
Explanation:While quantitative methods are typically used for treatment evaluation, qualitative studies can also provide valuable insights by interpreting, qualifying, of illuminating findings. This is especially beneficial when examining unexpected results, as they can help to test the primary hypothesis.
Qualitative research is a method of inquiry that seeks to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. There are different approaches to qualitative research, such as ethnography, phenomenology, and grounded theory, each with its own purpose, role of the researcher, stages of research, and method of data analysis. The most common methods used in healthcare research are interviews and focus groups. Sampling techniques include convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, snowball sampling, and case study sampling. Sample size can be determined by data saturation, which occurs when new categories, themes, of explanations stop emerging from the data. Validity can be assessed through triangulation, respondent validation, bracketing, and reflexivity. Analytical approaches include content analysis and constant comparison.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 41
Correct
-
What is a true statement about eating disorders?
Your Answer: Psychological treatments for binge eating disorder have a limited effect on body weight
Explanation:The 2017 NICE Guidelines advise clinicians to inform individuals with binge eating disorder that psychological treatments focused on addressing binge eating may not have a significant impact on body weight and that weight loss is not the primary goal of therapy. However, it is important to clarify that while CBT-ED does not specifically target weight loss, it can lead to weight reduction in the long run by addressing binge eating behaviors.
Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines
Anorexia:
For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Bulimia:
For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Binge Eating Disorder:
The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Advice for those with eating disorders:
Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.Additional points:
Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 42
Correct
-
A team of scientists aimed to examine the prognosis of late-onset Alzheimer's disease using the available evidence. They intend to arrange the evidence in a hierarchy based on their study designs.
What study design would be placed at the top of their hierarchy?Your Answer: Systematic review of cohort studies
Explanation:When investigating prognosis, the hierarchy of study designs starts with a systematic review of cohort studies, followed by a cohort study, follow-up of untreated patients from randomized controlled trials, case series, and expert opinion. The strength of evidence provided by a study depends on its ability to minimize bias and maximize attribution. The Agency for Healthcare Policy and Research hierarchy of study types is widely accepted as reliable, with systematic reviews and meta-analyses of randomized controlled trials at the top, followed by randomized controlled trials, non-randomized intervention studies, observational studies, and non-experimental studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 43
Correct
-
How can the ethnic differences observed in psychiatry in the UK be accurately described?
Your Answer: People from Black minorities have the highest rate of mental illness in UK
Explanation:Institutional Racism in Psychiatry
There has been growing concern that institutional racism may be contributing to the overrepresentation of Black patients in mental health settings. Despite ethnic minorities making up only 9% of the UK population, the 2010 ‘Count me in Census’ found that 23% of inpatients and those on CTOs were from Black and minority ethnic groups. Black minority groups also had higher rates of admission, detention, and seclusion.
While patient factors, such as higher rates of mental illness in Black minority groups, may contribute to these findings, there is also a suggestion of inherent racism within psychiatry. This may manifest in perceptions of Black and minority ethnic patients being at greater risk, as well as systemic factors that disadvantage these groups.
It is important to address these issues and work towards a more equitable and just mental health system for all patients, regardless of their ethnicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 44
Correct
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For a study comparing two chemotherapy regimens for small cell lung cancer patients based on survival time, which statistical measure is most suitable for comparison?
Your Answer: Hazard ratio
Explanation:Understanding Hazard Ratio in Survival Analysis
Survival analysis is a statistical method used to analyze the time it takes for an event of interest to occur, such as death of disease progression. In this type of analysis, the hazard ratio (HR) is a commonly used measure that is similar to the relative risk but takes into account the fact that the risk of an event may change over time.
The hazard ratio is particularly useful in situations where the risk of an event is not constant over time, such as in medical research where patients may have different survival times of disease progression rates. It is a measure of the relative risk of an event occurring in one group compared to another, taking into account the time it takes for the event to occur.
For example, in a study comparing the survival rates of two groups of cancer patients, the hazard ratio would be used to compare the risk of death in one group compared to the other, taking into account the time it takes for the patients to die. A hazard ratio of 1 indicates that there is no difference in the risk of death between the two groups, while a hazard ratio greater than 1 indicates that one group has a higher risk of death than the other.
Overall, the hazard ratio is a useful tool in survival analysis that allows researchers to compare the risk of an event occurring between different groups, taking into account the time it takes for the event to occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 45
Correct
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Which of the following statements accurately describes significance tests?
Your Answer: Chi-squared test is used to compare non-parametric data
Explanation:The chi-squared test is a statistical test that does not rely on any assumptions about the underlying distribution of the data, making it a non-parametric test.
Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 46
Correct
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A woman in her 30s frequently washes her hands due to unfounded concerns about germs. What would be the most effective solution?
Your Answer: Exposure and response prevention
Explanation:Maudsley Guidelines
First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)
Second line:
– SSRI + antipsychotic
– Citalopram + clomipramine
– Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
– Lamotrigine + SSRI
– Topiramate + SSRI -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 47
Correct
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Which principle is not recognized in motivational interviewing?
Your Answer: Therapeutic neutrality
Explanation:Motivational Interviewing: A Model for Resolving Ambivalence and Facilitating Change
Motivational interviewing (MI) is an evidence-based method used for people with substance misuse problems. It was introduced by William Miller in 1983, based on his experience with alcoholics. MI focuses on exploring and resolving ambivalence and centres on the motivational process that facilitates change. It is based on three key elements: collaboration, evocation, and autonomy.
There are four principles of MI: expressing empathy, supporting self-efficacy, rolling with resistance, and developing discrepancy. MI involves the use of micro-counseling skills called OARS, which stands for open-ended questions, affirmations, reflections, and summaries.
Change talk is defined as statements by the client that reveal consideration of, motivation for, of commitment to change. In MI, the therapist aims to guide the client to expression of change talk. Types of change talk can be remembered by the mnemonic DARN-CAT, which stands for desire, ability, reason, need, commitment, activation, and taking steps.
Overall, MI is a model for resolving ambivalence and facilitating change that emphasizes collaboration, evocation, and autonomy. It is a useful tool for therapists working with clients with substance misuse problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 48
Correct
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What is the most common factor associated with suicide?
Your Answer: Depression
Explanation:Suicide Risk Factors
Risk factors for completed suicide are numerous and include various demographic, social, and psychological factors. Men are at a higher risk than women, with the risk peaking at age 45 for men and age 55 for women. Being unmarried and unemployed are also risk factors. Concurrent mental disorders are present in about 90% of people who commit suicide, with depression being the most commonly associated disorder. Previous suicide attempts and substance misuse are also significant risk factors. Co-existing serious medical conditions and personality factors such as rigid thinking, pessimism, and perfectionism also increase the risk of suicide. It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 49
Correct
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a recommended treatment for restless leg syndrome?
Your Answer: Dopamine agonists
Correct Answer: SSRIs
Explanation:Restless Leg Syndrome, also known as Wittmaack-Ekbom syndrome, is a condition that causes an irresistible urge to move in order to alleviate uncomfortable sensations, primarily in the legs but sometimes in other areas of the body. The symptoms are exacerbated by rest and tend to worsen at night. Treatment options for this condition include dopamine agonists, opioids, benzodiazepines, and anticonvulsants. Sibler (2004) has developed an algorithm for managing Restless Leg Syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 51
Correct
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Who is credited with coining the term 'hypnosis'?
Your Answer: Braid
Explanation:History of Psychiatric Terms
In the exams, it is important to be familiar with the individuals associated with certain psychiatric terms. For example, Kraepelin is associated with dementia praecox and manic depression, while Bleuler is associated with schizophrenia. Other terms and their associated individuals include Hebephrenia (Hecker), Catatonia (Kahlbaum), Schizoaffective (Kasanin), Neurasthenia (Beard), Unipolar and bipolar (Kleist), Hypnosis (Braid), Group dynamics (Lewin), Group psychotherapy (Moreno), Psychopathic inferiority (Koch), Psychiatry (Reil), and Institutional Neurosis (Barton).
It should be noted that there is some debate over the origins of certain terms. While Kraepelin is often credited with coining the term dementia praecox, some sources suggest that it was first used in its Latin form by Arnold Pick in 1891. The original term demence precoce was first used by Morel in 1852. Despite this, the College appears to favor the Kraepelin attribution.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 52
Correct
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Which vitamin is referred to as thiamine?
Your Answer: Vitamin B1
Explanation:Korsakoff’s Syndrome
Korsakoff’s Syndrome, also known as amnesic syndrome, is a chronic condition that affects recent and anterograde memory in an alert and responsive patient. It is caused by prolonged thiamine (vitamin B1) deficiency and often follows Wernicke’s encephalopathy. The syndrome is characterized by a lack of insight, apathy, and confabulation. Thiamine is essential for glucose metabolism in the brain, and its deficiency leads to a toxic buildup of glucose, causing neuronal loss. The Mammillary bodies are the main areas affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome.
While intelligence on the WAIS is preserved, episodic memory is severely affected in Korsakoff’s syndrome. Semantic memory is variably affected, but implicit aspects of memory, such as response to priming and procedural memory, are preserved. Immediate memory tested with the digit span is normal, but information can only be retained for a few minutes at most. Patients with Korsakoff’s syndrome often display apathy, lack of initiative, and profound lack of insight.
Source: Kopelman M (2009) The Korsakoff Syndrome: Clinical Aspects, Psychology and Treatment. Alcohol and Alcoholism 44 (2): 148-154.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 53
Correct
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What statement accurately describes paraphilias?
Your Answer: They tend to be ego-syntonic
Explanation:Paraphilias are intense and persistent sexual interests other than sexual interest in genital stimulation of preparatory fondling with phenotypically normal, physically mature, consenting human partners. They are divided into those relating to erotic activity and those relating to erotic target. In order to become a disorder, paraphilias must be associated with distress of impairment to the individual of with harm to others. The DSM-5 lists 8 recognised paraphilic disorder but acknowledges that there are many more. Treatment modalities for the paraphilias have limited scientific evidence to support their use. Psychological therapy (especially CBT) is often used (with extremely variable results). Pharmacological options include SSRI, Naltrexone, Antipsychotics, GnRH agonists, and Anti-androgens and progestational drugs (e.g. cyproterone acetate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 54
Incorrect
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What is the most probable cause of withdrawal symptoms in an opioid-dependent patient who has not completed their detox program when starting a particular medication?
Your Answer: Lofexidine
Correct Answer: Buprenorphine
Explanation:Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 55
Correct
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Considering the recovery model, which of the following is an example of a user-based recovery definition?
Your Answer: Overcoming the effects of being a patient
Explanation:The recovery model raises questions about how to define recovery from a mental health problem. Mental health services tend to define recovery based on measures such as symptom remission, hospitalization, independence, and involvement in work of school. However, people with mental health problems define recovery differently, placing importance on factors such as overcoming the effects of being a patient, establishing a fulfilling life and positive identity, and discovering how to live well with enduring symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 56
Incorrect
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What is the most accurate approximation of the lifetime occurrence rate of major depression?
Your Answer: 5%
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Epidemiological surveys and prevalence estimates have been conducted to determine the prevalence of various mental health conditions. The Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) study was conducted in the mid-1980s using the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) based on DSM-III criteria. The National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) used the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) and was conducted in the 1990s and repeated in 2001. The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS) used the Clinical Interview Schedule (CIS-R) and was conducted in England every 7 years since 1993. The WHO World Mental Health (WMH) Survey Initiative used the World Mental Health Composite International Diagnostic Interview (WMH-CIDI) and was conducted in close to 30 countries from 2001 onwards.
The main findings of these studies show that major depression has a prevalence of 4-10% worldwide, with 6.7% in the past 12 months and 16.6% lifetime prevalence. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a 3.1% 12-month prevalence and 5.7% lifetime prevalence. Panic disorder has a 2.7% 12-month prevalence and 4.7% lifetime prevalence. Specific phobia has an 8.7% 12-month prevalence and 12.5% lifetime prevalence. Social anxiety disorder has a 6.8% 12-month prevalence and 12.1% lifetime prevalence. Agoraphobia without panic disorder has a 0.8% 12-month prevalence and 1.4% lifetime prevalence. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has a 1.0% 12-month prevalence and 1.6% lifetime prevalence. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has a 1.3-3.6% 12-month prevalence and 6.8% lifetime prevalence. Schizophrenia has a 0.33% 12-month prevalence and 0.48% lifetime prevalence. Bipolar I disorder has a 1.5% 12-month prevalence and 2.1% lifetime prevalence. Bulimia nervosa has a 0.63% lifetime prevalence, anorexia nervosa has a 0.16% lifetime prevalence, and binge eating disorder has a 1.53% lifetime prevalence.
These prevalence estimates provide important information for policymakers, healthcare providers, and researchers to better understand the burden of mental health conditions and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 57
Correct
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A 67-year-old man experiences difficulty with recalling recent events and struggles to identify familiar objects. He is diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease and a CT scan is ordered. What is the most probable result of the scan?
Your Answer: Decreased hippocampal volume
Explanation:Individuals diagnosed with Alzheimer’s dementia exhibit reduced volumes of the hippocampus and entorhinal cortex, which are crucial for memory consolidation and recall. Additionally, they may display widespread cerebral atrophy and enlarged ventricles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 58
Correct
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The epidemiology of ADHD can be described as follows:
Your Answer: The male to female ratio of ADHD in adults is approximately 1.6:1
Explanation:Primary inattentive features are more commonly observed in females with ADHD, as opposed to hyperactivity and impulsivity which are more prevalent in males.
ADHD is a prevalent disorder worldwide, with a prevalence of 7% in those under 18 and 3.5% in those over 18. It is more common in males, with a male to female ratio of 2:1 in children and 1.6:1 in adults. While some improvement in symptoms is seen over time, the majority of those diagnosed in childhood continue to struggle with residual symptoms and impairments through at least young adulthood, with an estimated persistence rate of 50%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 59
Correct
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What is a true statement about investigations conducted in cases of dementia?
Your Answer: I-FP-CIT SPECT should be used where Lewy body is suspected
Explanation:As an AI language model, I do not have the ability to perform investigations of provide medical advice. However, I can provide information on the NICE guidelines for investigations in people with dementia. The guidelines suggest routine blood tests to exclude reversible causes, such as full blood count, ESR, CRP, urea and electrolytes, calcium, HbA1c, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and serum B12 and folate levels. Other investigations that may be appropriate if clinically indicated include urine microscopy and culture, chest X-ray, ECG, syphilis serology, and HIV testing. Structural imaging and CSF analysis may also be necessary to exclude other cerebral pathologies and establish the subtype diagnosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred over CT if the subtype is unclear and vascular is suspected. FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT may be considered if the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia of dementia with Lewy bodies is suspected. However, it is important to note that Apolipoprotein E genotyping and electroencephalography should not be used to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 60
Incorrect
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Which of the options below is not a factor that can be reversed and may lead to dementia?
Your Answer: Neurosyphilis
Correct Answer: Pick's disease
Explanation:Frontotemporal dementia, also referred to as Pick’s disease, is a type of dementia that worsens over time and is caused by tauopathy. Unfortunately, it is irreversible.
Reversible causes of dementia should be screened for in all cases of dementia. The mnemonic DEMENTIA can help remember the most common causes, including drugs and alcohol (especially those with anticholinergic activity), emotions such as depression, metabolic disorders like hypo and hyperthyroidism, decline in eyes and ears, normal pressure hydrocephalus, tumors of space-occupying lesions, infections like syphilis and AIDS, and anemia due to vitamin B12 of folate deficiency. Other notable metabolic causes include Wilson’s disease, Hashimoto’s encephalitis, hypo and hyperparathyroidism, Cushing’s disease, and Addison’s disease. Additional infectious causes include Whipple’s disease, sarcoidosis, and meningitis. The most common causes are alcohol and medication-related dementia, depression, brain lesions such as normal pressure hydrocephalus, tumors and chronic subdural hematomas, metabolic disorders such as hypothyroidism, hypoparathyroidism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and central nervous system infections such as neurosyphilis and HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 61
Incorrect
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How can somatoform disorder be best defined?
Your Answer: Hypochondriasis
Correct Answer: Da Costa's syndrome
Explanation:Psychalgia refers to pain that has a psychological origin.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 62
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer is hospitalized for experiencing hallucinations and delusions. She is diagnosed with schizophrenia. Which antipsychotic medication should be steered clear of?
Your Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:The impact of antipsychotic medication is uncertain due to insufficient evidence, making it challenging to anticipate its effects. While serum prolactin levels are not currently recognized as a reliable predictor for breast cancer management, inhibiting the prolactin receptor has been identified as a promising treatment avenue. It is possible that elevated prolactin levels could exacerbate breast cancer, thus antipsychotics that increase these levels should be avoided in such cases.
Management of Hyperprolactinaemia
Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.
Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.
Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 63
Incorrect
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Which antiepileptic medication has the most substantial evidence linking it to aggression when utilized in the treatment of epilepsy?
Your Answer: Phenobarbital
Correct Answer: Perampanel
Explanation:Antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) are commonly used for the treatment of epilepsy, but many of them also have mood stabilizing properties and are used for the prophylaxis and treatment of bipolar disorder. However, some AEDs carry product warnings for serious side effects such as hepatic failure, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, and skin reactions. Additionally, some AEDs have been associated with an increased risk of suicidal behavior and ideation.
Behavioral side-effects associated with AEDs include depression, aberrant behaviors, and the development of worsening of irritability, impulsivity, anger, hostility, and aggression. Aggression can occur before, after, of in between seizures. Some AEDs are considered to carry a higher risk of aggression, including levetiracetam, perampanel, and topiramate. However, data on the specific risk of aggression for other AEDs is lacking of mixed. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of AEDs when prescribing them for patients with epilepsy of bipolar disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 64
Correct
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A client with a past of inadequately managed bipolar affective disorder has exhibited four occurrences of mood swings within a year. What is the duration of stability required before they can resume driving?
Your Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Individuals who have experienced four of more mood swings within a 12 month period must demonstrate a period of stability lasting at least 6 months before resuming driving. For those who have experienced hypomania of mania, a period of stability lasting 3 months is required before returning to driving, which is extended to 6 months if there have been repeated mood changes over a 12 month period. Similarly, individuals with psychosis must also demonstrate a period of stability lasting 3 months before resuming driving. However, HGV drivers who have experienced mania/hypomania of psychosis must demonstrate a longer period of stability lasting 3 years (36 months) before returning to driving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Organisation And Delivery Of Psychiatric Services
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Question 65
Correct
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To aid in preventing relapse in individuals with alcohol dependency, NICE recommends the following.
Your Answer: Nalmefene
Explanation:Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 66
Correct
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Which medication(s) may lead to hypertension, as cautioned by NICE guidelines for healthcare providers?
Your Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 67
Correct
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A reduction in the quantity of leukocytes is known as:
Your Answer: Leukopenia
Explanation:Agranulocytosis is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of granulocytes, a type of white blood cell that includes neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 68
Correct
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What is the primary benefit of conducting non-inferiority trials in the evaluation of a new medication?
Your Answer: Small sample size is required
Explanation:Study Designs for New Drugs: Options and Considerations
When launching a new drug, there are various study design options available. One common approach is a placebo-controlled trial, which can provide strong evidence but may be deemed unethical if established treatments are available. Additionally, it does not allow for a comparison with standard treatments. Therefore, statisticians must decide whether the trial aims to demonstrate superiority, equivalence, of non-inferiority to an existing treatment.
Superiority trials may seem like the obvious choice, but they require a large sample size to show a significant benefit over an existing treatment. Equivalence trials define an equivalence margin on a specified outcome, and if the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs falls within this margin, the drugs are assumed to have a similar effect. Non-inferiority trials are similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to fall within the equivalence margin. These trials require smaller sample sizes, and once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior, larger studies may be conducted to demonstrate superiority.
It is important to note that drug companies may not necessarily aim to show superiority over an existing product. If they can demonstrate that their product is equivalent of even non-inferior, they may compete on price of convenience. Overall, the choice of study design depends on various factors, including ethical considerations, sample size, and the desired outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 69
Correct
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A psychologist aims to conduct a qualitative study to explore the experiences of elderly patients referred to the outpatient clinic. To obtain a sample, the psychologist asks the receptionist to hand an invitation to participate in the study to all follow-up patients who attend for an appointment. The recruitment phase continues until a total of 30 elderly individuals agree to be in the study.
How is this sampling method best described?Your Answer: Opportunistic sampling
Explanation:Qualitative research is a method of inquiry that seeks to understand the meaning and experience dimensions of human lives and social worlds. There are different approaches to qualitative research, such as ethnography, phenomenology, and grounded theory, each with its own purpose, role of the researcher, stages of research, and method of data analysis. The most common methods used in healthcare research are interviews and focus groups. Sampling techniques include convenience sampling, purposive sampling, quota sampling, snowball sampling, and case study sampling. Sample size can be determined by data saturation, which occurs when new categories, themes, of explanations stop emerging from the data. Validity can be assessed through triangulation, respondent validation, bracketing, and reflexivity. Analytical approaches include content analysis and constant comparison.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 70
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a factor considered when determining causality?
Your Answer: Coherence
Correct Answer: Sensitivity
Explanation:Stats Association and Causation
When two variables are found to be more commonly present together, they are said to be associated. However, this association can be of three types: spurious, indirect, of direct. Spurious association is one that has arisen by chance and is not real, while indirect association is due to the presence of another factor, known as a confounding variable. Direct association, on the other hand, is a true association not linked by a third variable.
Once an association has been established, the next question is whether it is causal. To determine causation, the Bradford Hill Causal Criteria are used. These criteria include strength, temporality, specificity, coherence, and consistency. The stronger the association, the more likely it is to be truly causal. Temporality refers to whether the exposure precedes the outcome. Specificity asks whether the suspected cause is associated with a specific outcome of disease. Coherence refers to whether the association fits with other biological knowledge. Finally, consistency asks whether the same association is found in many studies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 71
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is being treated in the trauma unit after a head injury resulting from a car accident which occurred two weeks ago when she was driving under the influence of drugs and after not sleeping for 48 hours.
She needed drug detoxification and neurosurgical input to remove a subdural haematoma. She had anterograde amnesia for 5 days. She has suffered a head injury previously whilst playing soccer.
You see her to aid the trauma team with management of the drug dependence but they ask you to comment on her prognosis with regard to the head injury.
Which of the following is not a negative prognostic factor in the patient's history?Your Answer: Young age
Explanation:A negative prognosis in head injury can be indicated by various factors, including advanced age, history of prior head injury, post traumatic amnesia lasting longer than seven days, dependence on alcohol, severity of the head injury requiring neurosurgical intervention, and presence of the APOE4 gene.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 72
Incorrect
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If a patient with depression is resistant to conventional medicine, which herbal remedy has been proven to be effective in treating depression?
Your Answer: Piper methysticum
Correct Answer: Hypericum perforatum
Explanation:Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 73
Correct
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What is the alternative name for the model of family therapy that is referred to as the 'Milan model'?
Your Answer: Systemic
Explanation:Family Therapy Models
Family therapy emerged in the 1950s, shifting the focus from individual problems to the context of the environment. There are five main models of family therapy: structural, strategic, systemic, transgenerational, and solution-focused.
Structural therapy, developed by Salvador Minuchin, assumes that the family’s structure is wrong and aims to establish clear boundaries and no coalitions. Dysfunctional families are marked by impaired boundaries, inappropriate alignments, and power imbalances.
Strategic therapy, associated with Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes, claims that difficulties in families arise due to distorted hierarchies. Dysfunctional families communicate in problematic repetitive patterns that kept them dysfunctional. Key terms include task setting and goal setting.
Systemic therapy, associated with Mara Selvini-Palazzoli, sees the family as a self-regulating system that controls itself according to rules formed over time. The focus is on exploring differences between family members’ behaviors, emotional responses, and beliefs at different points in time. Key terms include hypothesizing, neutrality, positive connotation, paradox and counterparadox, circular and interventive questioning, and the use of reflecting teams.
Transgenerational family therapy aims to understand how families, across generations, develop patterns of behaving and responding to stress in ways that prevent health development and lead to problems. Seven interlocking concepts make up the theory.
Solution-focused therapy emphasizes solutions over problems and collaborates with the family through in-depth questioning to focus on the solutions already being used by the clients. The therapist is non-interventionist, and the focus is on the present and the future. Blame, shame, and conflict are seen as issues that impede people from realizing these solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 74
Correct
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A woman with bipolar disorder presents as manic. She is taking lithium and you request levels which come back as 1.1 mmol/L. Which of the following should you do?:
Your Answer: Add in olanzapine
Explanation:Achieving a level of 1.1 mmol/L indicates that the appropriate therapeutic level of lithium has been reached, and any further increase in dosage would be unsafe (as per the Maudsley 14th guidelines, which recommend a level between 1.0-1.2). To address this, the guidelines suggest adding an antipsychotic medication, preferably one that is licensed for bipolar disorder, such as olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, of aripiprazole.
Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management
Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.
Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.
The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.
It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.
Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 75
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes bar charts?
Your Answer: The height of the bar indicates the frequency
Explanation:The frequency of each category of characteristic is displayed through the height of the bars in a bar chart. When dealing with discrete data, it is typically organized into distinct categories and presented in a bar chart. On the other hand, continuous data covers a range and the categories are not separate but rather blend into one another. This type of data is best represented through a histogram, which is similar to a bar chart but with bars that are connected.
Differences between Bar Charts and Histograms
Bar charts and histograms are both used to represent data, but they differ in their application and design. Bar charts are used to summarize nominal of ordinal data, while histograms are used for quantitative data. In a bar chart, the x-axis represents categories without a scale, and the y-axis represents frequencies. The columns are of equal width, and the height of the bar indicates the frequency. On the other hand, histograms have a scale on both axes, with the y-axis representing the relative frequency of frequency density. The width of the columns in a histogram can vary, and the area of the column indicates the true frequency. Overall, bar charts and histograms are useful tools for visualizing data, but their differences in design and application make them better suited for different types of data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 76
Correct
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What is the best course of treatment for a 3-year-old child who has no physical issues but continues to experience bedwetting at night despite normal development?
Your Answer: Reassurance
Explanation:Reassurance is the most appropriate treatment option for this child as they are not yet old enough to be diagnosed with non-organic enuresis.
Elimination Disorders
Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.
Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.
Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.
Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 77
Correct
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What are the common symptoms of Lennox-Gastaut syndrome?
Your Answer: Seizures
Explanation:Understanding Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome
Lennox-Gastaut syndrome (LGS) is a type of epilepsy that typically manifests between the ages of two and six. This condition is marked by frequent seizures and various types of seizures. In addition, individuals with LGS may experience developmental delays, as well as psychological and behavioral issues. Understanding this syndrome is crucial for effective management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 78
Correct
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Which of the following treatment options for acute mania has been found to be less effective than a placebo?
Your Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:Antimanic Drugs: Efficacy and Acceptability
The Lancet published a meta-analysis conducted by Cipriani in 2011, which compared the efficacy and acceptability of various anti-manic drugs. The study found that antipsychotics were more effective than mood stabilizers in treating mania. The drugs that were best tolerated were towards the right of the figure, while the most effective drugs were towards the top. The drugs that were both well-tolerated and effective were considered the best overall, including olanzapine, risperidone, haloperidol, and quetiapine. Other drugs included in the analysis were aripiprazole, asenapine, carbamazepine, valproate, gabapentin, lamotrigine, lithium, placebo, topiramate, and ziprasidone. This study provides valuable information for clinicians in selecting the most appropriate antimanic drug for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 79
Correct
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Which statement accurately describes borderline learning disability?
Your Answer: It is not generally associated with deficits in adaptive functioning
Explanation:To diagnose a learning disability, there must be evidence of both impaired intelligence and difficulties in adaptive functioning, such as the ability to live independently, manage finances, and attend to personal safety. Borderline learning disability, on the other hand, is typically not accompanied by deficits in adaptive functioning.
Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 80
Incorrect
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What is the name of the self-reported screening tool for personality disorders that consists of 100 true and false questions and is developed based on DSM-IV criteria?
Your Answer: IPDE
Correct Answer: PDQ-R
Explanation:There are several screening tools available for personality disorder, including SAPAS, FFMRF, IPDE, PDQ-R, IPDS, and IIP-PD. SAPAS is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete, while FFMRF is self-reported and consists of 30 items rated 1-5. IPDE is a semi-structured clinical interview that includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview, while PDQ-R is self-reported and consists of 100 true/false questions. IPDS is an interview method that consists of 11 criteria and takes less than 5 minutes, while IIP-PD is self-reported and contains 127 items rated 0-4. A score of 3 of more on SAPAS warrants further assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with motor and vocal tics. His motor tics include eye blinking and throat clearing. These symptoms started about two years ago but have recently progressed to repeating his own words and those of others. You diagnose him with Tourette's syndrome.
What is the most likely location of the underlying pathology?Your Answer: Brainstem
Correct Answer: Caudate nucleus
Explanation:Tourette’s syndrome is evident in the child, displaying both motor and vocal tics, along with palilalia and echolalia. Tic disorders are typically linked to dysfunction in the caudate nucleus, which is a component of the basal ganglia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 82
Correct
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What is the most significant risk factor for developing schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Being a migrant
Explanation:The AESOP study provides current evidence that being a migrant is a significant risk factor for the onset of schizophrenia.
Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors
Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.
While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.
Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.
Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.
Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 83
Correct
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What is the recommended initial treatment for psychotic depression?
Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant plus antipsychotic
Explanation:The Maudsley Guidelines and NICE guidance both recommend the use of a tricyclic antidepressant in combination with an antipsychotic for the treatment of psychotic depression. This approach is also supported by a systematic review which found that augmentation was superior to using an antidepressant or antipsychotic alone. The review was conducted by Kruizinga in 2021 and published in the Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews.
Psychotic Depression
Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.
Diagnosis
Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.
Treatment
The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 84
Correct
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A 65-year-old individual on clozapine develops neutropenia. Despite trying all other antipsychotics without success, they had a positive response to clozapine. Is there a known medication that, when used in combination with clozapine, has been shown to increase the white cell count and allow for continued treatment?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 85
Incorrect
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What antibiotic is utilized for treating schizophrenia that is resistant to other forms of treatment?
Your Answer: Neomycin
Correct Answer: Minocycline
Explanation:Treatment resistant schizophrenia may benefit from minocycline, a medication typically used for pneumonia and acne.
Treatment Options for Schizophrenia (Resistance)
Schizophrenia can be a challenging condition to treat, especially when it is resistant to standard therapies. In such cases, clozapine is the preferred treatment option. However, if this medication is not suitable of fails to produce the desired results, there are other options available, although their effectiveness is often limited.
There is little variation between the alternative treatments, and in practice, olanzapine is typically the first choice, often prescribed at doses higher than those recommended by the manufacturer. If this approach proves ineffective, a second antipsychotic medication may be added to the treatment regimen. Despite these efforts, treatment-resistant schizophrenia remains a significant challenge for clinicians and patients alike.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 86
Correct
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What is the condition that involves the gradual loss of myelin in the corpus callosum and is commonly linked to alcohol abuse?
Your Answer: Marchiafava-Bignami disease
Explanation:Marchiafava-Bignami Disease: A Rare Disorder Associated with Alcoholism and Malnutrition
Marchiafava-Bignami disease is a rare condition that is commonly observed in individuals with alcoholism and malnutrition. The disease is characterized by the progressive demyelination and subsequent necrosis of the corpus callosum, which can lead to a range of nonspecific clinical symptoms such as motor of cognitive disturbances. The course of the disease can be either acute of chronic, and patients may experience dementia, spasticity, dysarthria, and an inability to walk. The outcome of the disease is unpredictable, with some patients lapsing into a coma and dying, while others may survive for many years in a demented state, of even recover.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 87
Incorrect
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What resource is committed to offering complete articles of systematic reviews on the impacts of healthcare interventions?
Your Answer: NHS EED
Correct Answer: CDSR
Explanation:When faced with a question, it’s helpful to consider what the letters in the question might represent, even if you don’t know the answer right away. Don’t become overwhelmed and keep this strategy in mind.
Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.
When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.
There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 88
Correct
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What condition would make it inappropriate to use the Student's t-test for conducting a significance test?
Your Answer: Using it with data that is not normally distributed
Explanation:T-tests are appropriate for parametric data, which means that the data should conform to a normal distribution.
Choosing the right statistical test can be challenging, but understanding the basic principles can help. Different tests have different assumptions, and using the wrong one can lead to inaccurate results. To identify the appropriate test, a flow chart can be used based on three main factors: the type of dependent variable, the type of data, and whether the groups/samples are independent of dependent. It is important to know which tests are parametric and non-parametric, as well as their alternatives. For example, the chi-squared test is used to assess differences in categorical variables and is non-parametric, while Pearson’s correlation coefficient measures linear correlation between two variables and is parametric. T-tests are used to compare means between two groups, and ANOVA is used to compare means between more than two groups. Non-parametric equivalents to ANOVA include the Kruskal-Wallis analysis of ranks, the Median test, Friedman’s two-way analysis of variance, and Cochran Q test. Understanding these tests and their assumptions can help researchers choose the appropriate statistical test for their data.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 89
Correct
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The terms anima and animus are linked to which of the following post-Freudian psychologists?
Your Answer: Carl Jung
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 90
Incorrect
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What is the typical duration of treatment in multisystemic therapy?
Your Answer: 6-12 months
Correct Answer: 3-5 months
Explanation:MST operates under the assumption that change can happen rapidly, with interventions lasting only three to five months. Despite potential pressure to extend the intervention, there is no evidence to support the idea that doing so would lead to better outcomes for families who have not met their initial goals.
Multisystemic therapy (MST) is a specialized intervention designed to address antisocial behavior in young people. It is a family and community-based approach that involves intensive therapy sessions, typically lasting for three to five months. During this time, the therapist works closely with the family and other key systems in the young person’s life, such as their school and community. The MST Theory of Change is based on Bronfenbrenner’s model, which recognizes that young people are embedded in multiple systems that influence their behavior. By addressing these systems and their interactions, MST aims to create lasting change in the young person’s life. The therapy is highly intensive, with a single therapist working with only a small number of families at a time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 91
Incorrect
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What is a known risk factor for suicide in individuals with multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer: Treatment with interferon
Correct Answer: Substance misuse
Explanation:Psychiatric Consequences of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. It is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions in the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. MS presents with diverse neurological signs, including optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.
Depression is the most common psychiatric condition seen in MS, with a lifetime prevalence of 25-50%. The symptoms of depression in people with MS tend to be different from those without MS. The preferred diagnostic indicators for depression in MS include pervasive mood change, diurnal mood variation, suicidal ideation, functional change not related to physical disability, and pessimistic of negative patterns of thinking. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for depression in patients with MS.
Suicide is common in MS, with recognized risk factors including male gender, young age at onset of illness, current of previous history of depression, social isolation, and substance misuse. Mania is more common in people with MS, and mood stabilizers are recommended for treatment. Pathological laughing and crying, defined as uncontrollable laughing and/of crying without the associated affect, occurs in approximately 10% of cases of MS. Emotional lability, defined as an excessive emotional response to a minor stimulus, is also common in MS and can be treated with amitriptyline and SSRIs.
The majority of cases of neuropsychiatric side effects from corticosteroids fit an affective profile of mania and/of depression. Psychotic symptoms, particularly hallucinations, are present in up to half of these cases. Glatiramer acetate has not been associated with neuropsychiatric side-effects. The data regarding the risk of mood symptoms related to interferon use is conflicting.
In conclusion, MS has significant psychiatric consequences, including depression, suicide, mania, pathological laughing and crying, emotional lability, and neuropsychiatric side effects from treatment. Early recognition and treatment of these psychiatric symptoms are essential for improving the quality of life of individuals with MS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 92
Correct
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What is the most probable diagnosis for a mother who experiences feelings of sadness and tearfulness two days after giving birth to her second child, despite having no prior history of mental health issues?
Your Answer: Baby blues
Explanation:Psychiatric Issues in the Postpartum Period
The period following childbirth, known as the postpartum period, can be a time of significant psychiatric challenges for women. Many women experience a temporary mood disturbance called baby blues, which is characterized by emotional instability, sadness, and tearfulness. This condition typically resolves within two weeks.
However, a minority of women (10-15%) experience postpartum depression, which is similar to major depression in its clinical presentation. In contrast, a very small number of women (1-2 per 1000) experience postpartum psychosis, also known as puerperal psychosis. This is a severe form of psychosis that occurs in the weeks following childbirth.
Research suggests that there may be a link between puerperal psychosis and mood disorders, as approximately 50% of women who develop the condition have a family history of mood disorder. Puerperal psychosis typically begins within the first two weeks following delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential psychiatric issues and to provide appropriate support and treatment to women during the postpartum period.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 93
Correct
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What is the best course of action for a 32-year-old pregnant woman with a heroin addiction who is interested in detoxing?
Your Answer: Methadone
Explanation:Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 94
Incorrect
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Cholinesterase inhibitors are commonly prescribed for the treatment of Alzheimer's disease. They are categorized as reversible, irreversible, and pseudo-reversible based on their interaction with cholinesterases. Can you identify a cholinesterase inhibitor that falls under the category of pseudo-reversible?
Your Answer: Donepezil
Correct Answer: Rivastigmine
Explanation:Cholinesterase inhibitors can be classified into three main groups: reversible, pseudo-reversible, and irreversible. Tacrine, donepezil, and galantamine are examples of reversible cholinesterase inhibitors. Pseudo-reversible cholinesterase inhibitors, such as rivastigmine, initially bind to the anionic site on the cholinesterase molecule before transferring to the esterase site, mimicking the behavior of acetylcholine. They are eventually metabolized into an inert compound. Irreversible cholinesterase inhibitors, like metrifonate, permanently bind to the cholinesterase enzyme, rendering it inactive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 95
Incorrect
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What is the closest estimate of the prevalence of schizophrenia in the UK?
Your Answer: 1 per 100 / year
Correct Answer: 0.2 per 1000 / year
Explanation:Schizophrenia Epidemiology
Prevalence:
– In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
– Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
– The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
– Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.Incidence:
– In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
– Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.Gender:
– The male to female ratio is 1:1.Course and Prognosis:
– Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
– Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
– Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
– Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
– Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
– People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.Winter Births:
– Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.Urbanicity:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.Migration:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.Class:
– There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.Learning Disability:
– Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 96
Correct
-
A teenager is referred to you regarding his concern about the appearance of his nose. He complains that it is extremely large and has approached several surgeons in an attempt to get a reduction. Objectively you think his nose is an average size. Which of the following conditions would you suspect?
Your Answer: Body dysmorphic disorder
Explanation:Body Dysmorphic Disorder is a condition where individuals are preoccupied with one of more perceived flaws in their appearance, which may not be noticeable to others. They may feel excessively self-conscious and believe that others are judging them based on these flaws. This can lead to repetitive behaviors such as examining the perceived flaw, attempting to hide of alter it, of avoiding social situations that trigger distress. In contrast, Body Integrity Dysphoria is a rare condition where individuals experience discomfort of negative feelings about a specific body part, often leading to a desire to amputate of remove it, rather than improve its appearance.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 97
Incorrect
-
What model of family therapy utilizes reflecting teams and interventive questioning?
Your Answer: Solution Focused
Correct Answer: Systemic
Explanation:Family Therapy Models
Family therapy emerged in the 1950s, shifting the focus from individual problems to the context of the environment. There are five main models of family therapy: structural, strategic, systemic, transgenerational, and solution-focused.
Structural therapy, developed by Salvador Minuchin, assumes that the family’s structure is wrong and aims to establish clear boundaries and no coalitions. Dysfunctional families are marked by impaired boundaries, inappropriate alignments, and power imbalances.
Strategic therapy, associated with Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes, claims that difficulties in families arise due to distorted hierarchies. Dysfunctional families communicate in problematic repetitive patterns that kept them dysfunctional. Key terms include task setting and goal setting.
Systemic therapy, associated with Mara Selvini-Palazzoli, sees the family as a self-regulating system that controls itself according to rules formed over time. The focus is on exploring differences between family members’ behaviors, emotional responses, and beliefs at different points in time. Key terms include hypothesizing, neutrality, positive connotation, paradox and counterparadox, circular and interventive questioning, and the use of reflecting teams.
Transgenerational family therapy aims to understand how families, across generations, develop patterns of behaving and responding to stress in ways that prevent health development and lead to problems. Seven interlocking concepts make up the theory.
Solution-focused therapy emphasizes solutions over problems and collaborates with the family through in-depth questioning to focus on the solutions already being used by the clients. The therapist is non-interventionist, and the focus is on the present and the future. Blame, shame, and conflict are seen as issues that impede people from realizing these solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 98
Incorrect
-
For what is Carl Jung most well-known?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Differentiating between the personal and collective unconscious
Explanation:Neo-Freudians were therapists who developed their own theories while still retaining core Freudian components. Some important neo-Freudians include Alfred Adler, Carl Jung, Erik Erickson, Harry Stack Sullivan, Wilfred Bion, John Bowlby, Anna Freud, Otto Kernberg, Margaret Mahler, and Donald Winnicott. Each of these individuals contributed unique ideas to the field of psychology. For example, Carl Jung introduced the concept of the persona and differentiated between the personal and collective unconscious, while Erik Erickson is known for his stages of psychosocial development. Margaret Mahler developed theories on child development, including the three main phases of autistic, symbiotic, and separation-individuation. Donald Winnicott introduced the concept of the transitional object and the good enough mother. Overall, neo-Freudians expanded upon Freud’s ideas and helped to shape modern psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 99
Incorrect
-
Which drug interacts with a G-coupled receptor to exert its effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heroin
Explanation:The mechanism of action of heroin involves attaching to opiate receptors, which are G-coupled. This attachment results in the suppression of cellular activity through stimulation.
Mechanisms of action for illicit drugs can be classified based on their effects on ionotropic receptors of ion channels, G coupled receptors, of monoamine transporters. Cocaine and amphetamine both increase dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft, but through different mechanisms. Cocaine directly blocks the dopamine transporter, while amphetamine binds to the transporter and increases dopamine efflux through various mechanisms, including inhibition of vesicular monoamine transporter 2 and monoamine oxidase, and stimulation of the intracellular receptor TAAR1. These mechanisms result in increased dopamine levels in the synaptic cleft and reuptake inhibition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 100
Incorrect
-
After how much time since the last drink do the symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-12 hrs
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.
Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 101
Incorrect
-
What is the alternative name for pavor nocturnus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Night terrors
Explanation:Night Terrors: Understanding the Condition
Night terrors, also known as pavor nocturnus of sleep terrors, are a common occurrence in children aged 3-12, with the majority of cases happening when a child is 3-4 years old. Both boys and girls are equally affected, and the condition usually resolves on its own during adolescence, although it can still occur in adults. These episodes typically last between 1 to 15 minutes and occur 1 to 3 hours after sleep has begun.
Night terrors are different from nightmares, which occur during REM sleep. Night terrors happen during the transition from stage 3 to stage 4 sleep, and children have no memory of the event the next morning. During a night terror, a child experiences intense crying and distress while asleep, usually around 90 minutes after falling asleep. They are unresponsive to external stimuli during this time.
Night terrors are distinct from nightmares in several ways. For example, there is no recall of the event with night terrors, while there may be partial recall with nightmares. Night terrors occur early in sleep, while nightmares occur later. Additionally, night terrors are associated with significant autonomic arousal, while nightmares have minimal arousal.
It is important to note that the information presented here is based on the Rechtschaffen and Kales sleep classification model developed in 1968, which is the classification used in the Royal College questions. However, in 2004, the American Academy of Sleep Medicine (AASM) reclassified NREM (non-REM) sleep into three stages, the last of which is also called delta sleep of slow-wave sleep.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
What is the minimum effective dose of amisulpride recommended for treating first-episode psychosis in an adult male?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 300 mg
Explanation:Antipsychotics: Minimum Effective Doses
The Maudsley Guidelines provide a table of minimum effective oral doses for antipsychotics in schizophrenia. The following doses are recommended for first episode and relapse (multi-episode) cases:
– Chlorpromazine: 200mg (first episode) and 300mg (relapse)
– Haloperidol: 2mg (first episode) and 4mg (relapse)
– Sulpiride: 400mg (first episode) and 800mg (relapse)
– Trifluoperazine: 10mg (first episode) and 15mg (relapse)
– Amisulpride: 300mg (first episode) and 400mg (relapse)
– Aripiprazole: 10mg (first episode and relapse)
– Olanzapine: 5mg (first episode) and 7.5mg (relapse)
– Quetiapine: 150mg (first episode) and 300mg (relapse)
– Risperidone: 2mg (first episode) and 4mg (relapse)The minimum effective doses may vary depending on individual patient factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before making any changes to medication dosages.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 103
Incorrect
-
A client who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia asks for information regarding their prognosis. What factor has been consistently linked to a poor prognosis in schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Younger age of onset
Explanation:Schizophrenia Epidemiology
Prevalence:
– In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
– Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
– The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
– Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.Incidence:
– In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
– Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.Gender:
– The male to female ratio is 1:1.Course and Prognosis:
– Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
– Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
– Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
– Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
– Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
– People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.Winter Births:
– Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.Urbanicity:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.Migration:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.Class:
– There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.Learning Disability:
– Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 104
Incorrect
-
You are provided with a set of blood test outcomes that show serum levels for different medications. Which of the following falls outside the typical range for an elderly patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium - 1.3 mmol/L
Explanation:Here are some possible ways to rewrite the given optimal therapeutic ranges:
– The recommended therapeutic levels for olanzapine are between 20 and 40 nanograms per milliliter (ng/mL).
– To achieve optimal treatment outcomes, clozapine levels should be maintained within the range of 350 to 500 ng/mL.
– The therapeutic window for quetiapine spans from 100 to 1000 ng/mL, depending on the patient’s condition and response.
– Valproate therapy is typically effective when the serum concentration falls between 50 and 100 micrograms per milliliter (mcg/mL).Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 105
Incorrect
-
Which item is excluded from the Violence Risk Assessment Guide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: History of illicit drug use
Explanation:The VRAG takes into account the misuse of alcohol but does not factor in the use of illegal drugs.
Overview of the Violence Risk Assessment Guide
The Violence Risk Assessment Guide (VRAG) is a commonly used actuarial tool for predicting the likelihood of violence offence recidivism. It consists of 12 items that are used to assess an individual’s risk of committing violent acts in the future. These items include factors such as the individual’s score on the Revised Psychopathy Checklist, their history of alcohol problems, criminal history for non-violent offences, and age at the time of the index offence.
Each factor is assigned a weight based on how different the individual’s score is from the base rate. For example, if an individual has a high score on the Revised Psychopathy Checklist, this factor would be given a higher weight than if they had a low score. The VRAG is designed to provide a standardized and objective assessment of an individual’s risk of committing violent acts, which can be used to inform decisions about their treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 106
Incorrect
-
Based on the patient's symptoms and examination findings, the most likely diagnosis is unclear. The patient presents with haemoptysis, abdominal pain, and pyrexia for the past 2 months, and has numerous bizarre-shaped lesions on both forearms with various stages of healing. Blood tests have come back as normal, and a dermatologist has concluded that the skin lesions are not compatible with any known dermatological disorder. Further investigation is needed to determine the underlying cause of the patient's symptoms and skin lesions.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Factitious disorder
Explanation:The unusual scratches and blisters present on the forearms indicate the possibility of dermatitis artefacta, a type of dermatitis that is intentionally self-inflicted. This is a common symptom of factitious disorder.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 107
Incorrect
-
Which of the options below is not a typical trigger for transient global amnesia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loud noises
Explanation:Transient Global Amnesia: Definition, Diagnostic Criteria, and Possible Causes
Transient global amnesia (TGA) is a clinical syndrome characterized by sudden and severe amnesia, often accompanied by repetitive questioning, that lasts for several hours. The term was first coined in 1964 by Fisher and Adams. To diagnose TGA, the following criteria have been established: (1) the attack must be witnessed, (2) there must be clear anterograde amnesia, (3) clouding of consciousness and loss of personal identity must be absent, (4) there should be no accompanying focal neurological symptoms, (5) epileptic features must be absent, (6) attacks must resolve within 24 hours, and (7) patients with recent head injury of known active epilepsy are excluded.
Epidemiological studies have shown that thromboembolic cerebrovascular disease does not play a role in the causation of TGA. However, the incidence of migraine in patients with TGA is higher than in the general population. A small minority of cases with unusually brief and recurrent attacks eventually manifest temporal lobe epilepsy. EEG recording is typically normal after an attack, even when performed during the attack.
Possible causes of TGA include venous congestion with Valsalva-like activities before symptom onset, arterial thromboembolic ischemia, and vasoconstriction due to hyperventilation. Precipitants of TGA often include exertion, cold, pain, emotional stress, and sexual intercourse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 108
Incorrect
-
A father is concerned that his 16-year-old daughter's marijuana consumption may lead to the development of schizophrenia. How would you explain to him the difference in the risk of schizophrenia between cannabis use and non-use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a 2-4 fold increase in the risk of schizophrenia attributable to cannabis
Explanation:Schizophrenia and Cannabis Use
The relationship between cannabis use and the risk of developing schizophrenia is a topic of ongoing debate. However, research suggests that cannabis use may increase the risk of later schizophrenia of schizophreniform disorder by two-fold (Arseneault, 2004). The risk of developing schizophrenia appears to be higher in individuals who start using cannabis at a younger age. For instance, regular cannabis smokers at the age of 15 are 4.5 times more likely to develop schizophrenia at the age of 26, compared to those who did not report regular use until age 18 (Murray, 2004).
A systematic review published in the Lancet in 2007 found that the lifetime risk of developing psychosis increased by 40% in individuals who had ever used cannabis (Moore, 2007). Another meta-analysis reported that the age at onset of psychosis was 2.70 years younger in cannabis users than in non-users (Large, 2011). These findings suggest that cannabis use may have a significant impact on the development of schizophrenia and related disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 109
Incorrect
-
What proportion of individuals with severe mental illness are responsible for committing violent crimes?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 20
Explanation:Mental Health Risk in Sweden: Data on Violent Crimes Committed by People with Severe Mental Illness
According to data from Sweden’s national register, 2.4% of violent crimes were committed by individuals with severe mental illness. This suggests that there is a mental health risk associated with violent crime in Sweden. However, it is important to note that this percentage only accounts for a small portion of all violent crimes.
The population attributable risk fraction of patients was found to be 5%, indicating that patients with severe mental illness are responsible for 1 in 20 violent crimes. This highlights the need for effective mental health treatment and support for individuals with severe mental illness to reduce the risk of violent behavior.
Overall, the data from Sweden’s national register provides important insights into the relationship between mental illness and violent crime. While the percentage of violent crimes committed by individuals with severe mental illness is relatively low, it is still a significant concern that requires attention and action from mental health professionals and policymakers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 110
Incorrect
-
Which of the following therapies would be most suitable for a 27 year old female who struggles with maintaining stable and close relationships, managing emotions without resorting to self-harm, and experiencing intense feelings of distress, anxiety, and worthlessness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dialectical Behavioural Therapy
Explanation:The symptoms displayed by the woman are in line with those of borderline personality disorder, which requires treatment with DBT.
Dialectical Behavioural Therapy (DBT) is a form of psychotherapy that is tailored for patients with borderline personality disorder. It combines behavioural therapy with aspects of Zen Buddhism and dialectical thinking to help patients develop important interpersonal and emotional regulation skills. DBT has five functions, including enhancing behavioural capabilities, improving motivation to change, assuring new capabilities generalise to the natural environment, structuring the environment so that appropriate behaviours are reinforced, and enhancing motivation of the therapist.
DBT uses a hierarchy of treatment targets to help the therapist determine the order in which problems should be addressed. The treatment targets in order of priority are life-threatening behaviours, therapy-interfering behaviours, quality of life behaviours, and skills acquisition. DBT skills include mindfulness, distress tolerance, interpersonal effectiveness, and emotion regulation. Overall, DBT is an effective form of therapy for patients with multiple problems, and it helps them develop the skills they need to achieve their goals and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 111
Incorrect
-
What is the truth about the use of chlordiazepoxide in alcohol withdrawal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is a good first line treatment
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.
Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 112
Incorrect
-
A woman in her late twenties is seeking advice on whether psychological interventions would be appropriate for her. She has been experiencing depression for the past 6 months and has not seen improvement with medication prescribed by her GP. What would be the most effective treatment option in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interpersonal therapy
Explanation:Borderline personality disorder is treated with CAT and TFT, while substance misuse is addressed through the use of motivational interviewing.
Interpersonal Therapy: A Structured Approach to Addressing Social Functioning Problems
Interpersonal therapy (IPT) is a structured form of psychotherapy that is often used to treat depression. It is based on the belief that social functioning problems have a significant impact on psychological problems. IPT is a time-limited therapy that typically runs for 10-16 one hour sessions. The therapy is organized into three phases, with the first phase involving data collection and formulation. The remaining sessions explore the formulation in more detail.
IPT focuses on four areas of social functioning problems: grief, role transitions, interpersonal deficits, and interpersonal disputes. The therapy aims to intervene at the level of social functioning, rather than focusing on personality. The therapy has been found to be effective in treating depression, particularly in patients with severe depression. However, it may be less effective in treating people with depression and comorbid personality disorders.
The evidence base for IPT is most developed for eating disorders, and the intervention is recommended in NICE guidelines for eating disorders. Overall, IPT is a structured approach to addressing social functioning problems that can be effective in treating depression and other psychological problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 113
Incorrect
-
Which statement accurately describes the court process in the UK?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All criminal cases will first go to the Magistrates Court
Explanation:The county courts handle civil cases, while the magistrates court is the starting point for all criminal cases.
Court Structure in England and Wales
The legal system in England and Wales is divided into two main categories: criminal and civil law. Criminal law governs the rules set by the state for citizens, while civil law regulates the relationships and transactions between citizens.
All criminal cases begin in the Magistrates’ Court. Criminal offenses are classified into three main categories: summary offenses, triable either way offenses, and indictable offenses. Summary offenses are the least serious and are tried in the Magistrates’ Court, with a maximum penalty of six months imprisonment and/of a fine of up to £5,000. Triable either way offenses are the middle range of crimes and can be tried in either the Magistrates’ Court of Crown Court. Indictable offenses are the most serious crimes, including murder, manslaughter, and rape, and must be tried in the Crown Court, with the first hearing at the Magistrates’ Court.
Magistrates’ courts handle 95% of cases, including many civil cases such as family matters, liquor licensing, and betting and gaming. Magistrates cannot typically order sentences of imprisonment exceeding six months (of 12 months for consecutive sentences) of fines exceeding £5,000. In cases triable either way, the offender may be committed by the magistrates to the Crown Court for sentencing if a more severe sentence is deemed necessary.
The Crown Court deals with serious criminal cases, some of which are on appeal of referred from Magistrates’ courts. Trials are heard by a Judge and a 12-person jury. The Crown Court is located at 77 centers across England and Wales and handles cases transferred from the Magistrates’ Courts. It also hears appeals against decisions of Magistrate’s Courts and deals with cases sent for sentence from Magistrates’ Courts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 114
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended augmentation therapy for psychotic depression when using tricyclic antidepressants?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:The recommended options for augmentation are olanzapine and quetiapine.
Psychotic Depression
Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.
Diagnosis
Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.
Treatment
The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 115
Incorrect
-
What is the required frequency and duration of bedwetting behavior to meet the diagnostic threshold for enuresis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systemic
Explanation:Family Therapy Models
Family therapy emerged in the 1950s, shifting the focus from individual problems to the context of the environment. There are five main models of family therapy: structural, strategic, systemic, transgenerational, and solution-focused.
Structural therapy, developed by Salvador Minuchin, assumes that the family’s structure is wrong and aims to establish clear boundaries and no coalitions. Dysfunctional families are marked by impaired boundaries, inappropriate alignments, and power imbalances.
Strategic therapy, associated with Jay Haley and Cloe Madanes, claims that difficulties in families arise due to distorted hierarchies. Dysfunctional families communicate in problematic repetitive patterns that kept them dysfunctional. Key terms include task setting and goal setting.
Systemic therapy, associated with Mara Selvini-Palazzoli, sees the family as a self-regulating system that controls itself according to rules formed over time. The focus is on exploring differences between family members’ behaviors, emotional responses, and beliefs at different points in time. Key terms include hypothesizing, neutrality, positive connotation, paradox and counterparadox, circular and interventive questioning, and the use of reflecting teams.
Transgenerational family therapy aims to understand how families, across generations, develop patterns of behaving and responding to stress in ways that prevent health development and lead to problems. Seven interlocking concepts make up the theory.
Solution-focused therapy emphasizes solutions over problems and collaborates with the family through in-depth questioning to focus on the solutions already being used by the clients. The therapist is non-interventionist, and the focus is on the present and the future. Blame, shame, and conflict are seen as issues that impede people from realizing these solutions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 116
Incorrect
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Which substance is most similar to Mephedrone among the given options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ecstasy
Explanation:New Psychoactive Substances, previously known as ‘legal highs’, are synthetic compounds designed to mimic the effects of traditional illicit drugs. They became popular due to their ability to avoid legislative control, but the introduction of the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 changed this. There is no standard for clinical classification, but some common legal highs include Mephedrone, Piperazines, GBL, Synthetic cannabinoids, and Benzofuran compounds. These substances have effects similar to ecstasy, amphetamines, and cannabis, and are classified as either Class B of Class C drugs in the UK.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 117
Incorrect
-
What strategies are effective in managing obsessive compulsive disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exposure and response prevention
Explanation:Maudsley Guidelines
First choice: SSRI of clomipramine (SSRI preferred due to tolerability issues with clomipramine)
Second line:
– SSRI + antipsychotic
– Citalopram + clomipramine
– Acetylcysteine + (SSRI of clomipramine)
– Lamotrigine + SSRI
– Topiramate + SSRI -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 118
Incorrect
-
What vitamin is also known as niacin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B3
Explanation:Pantothenic acid is also known as Vitamin B5.
Pellagra: A Vitamin B3 Deficiency Disease
Pellagra is a disease caused by a lack of vitamin B3 (niacin) in the body. The name pellagra comes from the Italian words pelle agra, which means rough of sour skin. This disease is common in developing countries where corn is a major food source, of during prolonged disasters like famine of war. In developed countries, pellagra is rare because many foods are fortified with niacin. However, alcoholism is a common cause of pellagra in developed countries. Alcohol dependence can worsen pellagra by causing malnutrition, gastrointestinal problems, and B vitamin deficiencies. It can also inhibit the conversion of tryptophan to niacin and promote the accumulation of 5-ALA and porphyrins.
Pellagra affects a wide range of organs and tissues in the body, so its symptoms can vary. The classic symptoms of pellagra are known as the three Ds: diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Niacin deficiency can cause dementia, depression, mania, and psychosis, which is called pellagra psychosis. The most noticeable symptom of pellagra is dermatitis, which is a hyperpigmented rash that appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin. This rash is usually symmetrical and bilateral, and it is often described as Casal’s necklace when it appears on the neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is brought into hospital by her husband. She has been refusing to go outside for the past 12 months, telling her husband she is afraid of catching avian flu. This is despite there being no known cases of avian flu in the country. When asked about this she becomes agitated and says there are too many migrating birds in her garden. On further questioning she reports that approximately twelve months ago she saw a man lift his hat off his head twice in a supermarket and knew instantly that her life was in danger. She appears euthymic in mood. You note that her speech is highly disorganised and almost incoherent.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:The patient displays a strong fear for her safety due to what appears to be delusions regarding the severity of the threat posed by avian flu. Despite attempts to reason with her, her belief remains firmly held with delusional conviction. This is an example of delusional perception, a first rank symptom strongly indicative of schizophrenia. If the patient also exhibits disorganized speech for a duration of over six months, a diagnosis of schizophrenia is likely. Delusional disorder is not diagnosed if the criteria for schizophrenia are met. A schizophreniform disorder is similar to schizophrenia, but with a symptom duration of less than six months, while a brief psychotic disorder has a symptom duration of less than one month.
– Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
– Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
– The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
– Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
– Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
– Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
– Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 120
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old police officer presents following a recent traumatic incident where a fellow officer was killed in the line of duty. She describes recurrent nightmares and flashbacks which have been present for the past 3 months. A diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder is suspected. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment approach is cognitive-behavioral therapy that specifically targets trauma.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 121
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a known adverse effect of bulimia nervosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer disease
Explanation:Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications
Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A Caucasian man in his 50s who is known to use intravenous heroin visits the drug misuse clinic and presents with puffiness. He reports that he has gained weight despite eating normally and is found to have pitting edema. What is your suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Heroin Nephropathy: A Study on Clinicopathology and Epidemiology
Intravenous heroin use has been linked to a rare condition called nephropathy, which affects the kidneys and is likely caused by bacterial infection. This condition is more commonly observed in African-American men, although the reasons for this are not yet understood. The American Journal of Medicine published a study in 1980 that examined the clinicopathologic and epidemiologic aspects of heroin-associated nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 123
Incorrect
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What is the approximate occurrence rate of psychotic disorder among individuals with learning disabilities?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4%
Explanation:Learning Disability and comorbid Psychiatric Illness
It is estimated that 30-50% of adults with learning disabilities also experience mental health problems, including problem behavior. Specific prevalence rates for various mental health disorders in this population have been identified through research. For example, psychotic disorders are present in 4% of adults with learning disabilities, while affective disorders are present in 6%. Autism is the most prevalent disorder, affecting 7.5% of this population.
It is important to note that major depressive disorder can occur at all IQ levels in people with learning disabilities, but may be missed of misinterpreted as challenging behavior. Additionally, individuals with learning disabilities are more susceptible to the negative effects of life events and may develop adjustment disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder is also common in this population.
Stimulant drugs may be less effective in children with learning disabilities and should be used with caution in individuals with Tourette’s of autism, as they may trigger tics. Overall, it is crucial to recognize and address comorbid psychiatric illness in individuals with learning disabilities to ensure appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 124
Incorrect
-
Which medication is most likely to reduce the effectiveness of the oral contraceptive pill?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Mood stabilisers and contraception: Some anticonvulsants/mood stabilisers can interfere with contraception, such as carbamazepine, phenytoin, and topiramate. However, others like valproate, lamotrigine, gabapentin, and lithium do not tend to cause this problem and are preferred for women using contraception. It is important to note that valproate should only be used in girls and women of childbearing potential if other treatments are ineffective of not tolerated, as judged by an experienced specialist. Additionally, valproate is contraindicated in girls and women of childbearing potential unless the conditions of the valproate pregnancy prevention programme (‘prevent’) are met.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A teenage girl is referred by her pediatrician who is concerned about her weight. She has a BMI of 15 and has stopped having regular periods. She denies purging behaviors but admits to extended periods of fasting and excessive exercise in order to lose weight. Despite her low BMI, she insists that she is overweight and is very apprehensive about seeing a psychiatrist as she fears being pressured to gain weight.
What is the most probable ICD-11 diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:The diagnosis would be coded as ARFID (Avoidant/Restrictive Food Intake Disorder) in the ICD-11, as it encompasses the three criteria mentioned above. Anorexia nervosa would require additional criteria, such as amenorrhea in females of a fear of gaining weight.
Eating disorders are a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical and psychological consequences. The ICD-11 lists several types of eating disorders, including Anorexia Nervosa, Bulimia Nervosa, Binge Eating Disorder, Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder, Pica, and Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder.
Anorexia Nervosa is characterized by significantly low body weight, a persistent pattern of restrictive eating of other behaviors aimed at maintaining low body weight, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Bulimia Nervosa involves frequent episodes of binge eating followed by inappropriate compensatory behaviors to prevent weight gain, excessive preoccupation with body weight of shape, and marked distress of impairment in functioning. Binge Eating Disorder is characterized by frequent episodes of binge eating without compensatory behaviors, marked distress of impairment in functioning, and is more common in overweight and obese individuals. Avoidant-Restrictive Food Intake Disorder involves avoidance of restriction of food intake that results in significant weight loss of impairment in functioning, but is not motivated by preoccupation with body weight of shape. Pica involves the regular consumption of non-nutritive substances, while Rumination-Regurgitation Disorder involves intentional and repeated regurgitation of previously swallowed food.
It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve a combination of therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 126
Incorrect
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Which of the following experiences is most similar to the effects of using magic mushrooms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LSD
Explanation:Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 14 year old boy is brought to clinic by his father. He is struggling with both obsessive compulsive disorder and depression. Despite trying psychological approaches, he has not found relief and is interested in trying medication. What is the most suitable medication to consider?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:According to NICE, when a patient has both depression and OCD, the preferred treatment is fluoxetine.
OCD and BDD are two mental health disorders that can affect children. OCD is characterized by obsessions and compulsions, while BDD is characterized by a preoccupation with an imagined defect in one’s appearance. Both disorders can cause significant distress and impairment in daily functioning.
For mild cases of OCD, guided self-help may be considered along with support and information for the family of caregivers. For moderate to severe cases of OCD, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) that involves the family of caregivers and is adapted to suit the child’s developmental age is recommended. For all children and young people with BDD, CBT (including exposure and response prevention) is recommended.
If a child declines psychological treatment, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be prescribed. However, a licensed medication (sertraline of fluvoxamine) should be used for children and young people with OCD, while fluoxetine should be used for those with BDD. If an SSRI is ineffective of not tolerated, another SSRI of clomipramine may be tried. Tricyclic antidepressants other than clomipramine should not be used to treat OCD of BDD in children and young people. Other antidepressants (MAOIs, SNRIs) and antipsychotics should not be used alone in the routine treatment of OCD of BDD in children of young people, but may be considered as an augmentation strategy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 128
Incorrect
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Which risk factor is commonly associated with schizophrenia based on the findings of the AESOP study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ethnicity and race
Explanation:Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors
Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.
While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.
Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.
Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.
Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 129
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old female with a history of diabetes mellitus complains of feeling down, sleeping excessively, and overeating. She is diagnosed with atypical depression and prescribed an antidepressant. However, a few days after starting the medication, she experiences weakness and ultimately has a seizure. Her blood glucose level is found to be 2.6 mmol/L (4.0-5.5). What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tranylcypromine
Explanation:Tranylcypromine belongs to the class of drugs known as monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), which are primarily used to treat atypical depression. However, it is important to note that MAOIs have been linked to a decrease in blood sugar levels in patients with diabetes. Furthermore, when taken together with oral hypoglycemic agents, MAOIs may intensify of prolong the hypoglycemic response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A teenage boy begins smoking cannabis regularly at the age of 16. How much does this increase his likelihood of developing schizophrenia by his early twenties compared to an individual who has never used cannabis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 fold
Explanation:Individuals who smoked cannabis regularly at the age of 15 have a 4.5 times higher risk of developing schizophrenia at the age of 26, whereas those who did not report regular use until the age of 18 have a 1.65 times higher risk.
Schizophrenia and Cannabis Use
The relationship between cannabis use and the risk of developing schizophrenia is a topic of ongoing debate. However, research suggests that cannabis use may increase the risk of later schizophrenia of schizophreniform disorder by two-fold (Arseneault, 2004). The risk of developing schizophrenia appears to be higher in individuals who start using cannabis at a younger age. For instance, regular cannabis smokers at the age of 15 are 4.5 times more likely to develop schizophrenia at the age of 26, compared to those who did not report regular use until age 18 (Murray, 2004).
A systematic review published in the Lancet in 2007 found that the lifetime risk of developing psychosis increased by 40% in individuals who had ever used cannabis (Moore, 2007). Another meta-analysis reported that the age at onset of psychosis was 2.70 years younger in cannabis users than in non-users (Large, 2011). These findings suggest that cannabis use may have a significant impact on the development of schizophrenia and related disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 131
Incorrect
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What is the classification of dysthymic disorder according to the ICD-11?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brief periods of normal mood may occur, but these cannot exceed two months to be consistent with a diagnosis
Explanation:Dysthymia is a type of mood disorder characterized by persistent low-grade depressive symptoms that last for at least two years. Although there may be brief periods without symptoms, there has never been a prolonged period of two months of more without symptoms since the onset of the disorder. While treatment for dysthymia can be effective, the results may be modest and short-lived, and the course of the disorder can be challenging. Dysthymia often begins in childhood of adolescence and is associated with a higher likelihood of substance misuse and co-occurring personality disorders, particularly when onset occurs before the age of 21. Co-occurring disorders are common in individuals with dysthymia.
Depression is diagnosed using different criteria in the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 recognizes single depressive episodes, recurrent depressive disorder, dysthymic disorder, and mixed depressive and anxiety disorder. The DSM-5 recognizes disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
For a diagnosis of a single depressive episode, the ICD-11 requires the presence of at least five characteristic symptoms occurring most of the day, nearly every day during a period lasting at least 2 weeks. The DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five symptoms during the same 2-week period, with at least one of the symptoms being either depressed mood of loss of interest of pleasure.
Recurrent depressive disorder is characterized by a history of at least two depressive episodes separated by at least several months without significant mood disturbance, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires at least two episodes with an interval of at least 2 consecutive months between separate episodes in which criteria are not met for a major depressive episode.
Dysthymic disorder is diagnosed when a person experiences persistent depressed mood lasting 2 years of more, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years, along with the presence of two or more additional symptoms.
Mixed depressive and anxiety disorder is recognized as a separate code in the ICD-11, while the DSM-5 uses the ‘with anxious distress’ qualifier. The ICD-11 requires the presence of both depressive and anxiety symptoms for most of the time during a period of 2 weeks of more, while the DSM-5 requires the presence of both depressive and anxious symptoms during the same 2-week period.
Overall, the criteria for diagnosing depression vary between the ICD-11 and DSM-5, but both require the presence of characteristic symptoms that cause significant distress of impairment in functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 132
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about self-harm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a higher incidence of self-harm in people from sexual minorities
Explanation:Self-harm has become more common in the UK over the past two decades, but this trend differs from the patterns seen in completed suicides. Women and girls are more likely to engage in self-harm than men and boys, while completed suicides are more common among the latter group. Certain populations, such as prisoners, asylum seekers, veterans, those bereaved by suicide, and individuals from cultural of sexual minority groups, also have a higher incidence of self-harm. It’s important to note that self-harm does not always indicate an attempt of desire to commit suicide, and may even serve as a means of self-preservation.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 133
Incorrect
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What is the rate of spontaneous abortion among pregnancies that have been confirmed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10-20%
Explanation:Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A consultant psychiatrist presents a case of a depressed patient with cancer who they had reviewed on a hospital ward. She rated the patient's cancer as 'severe'. Her description of the patient's cancer conforms to which of the following data types?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ordinal
Explanation:The use of a scale that categorizes data as mild, moderate, and severe is an example of ordinal data. The data can be arranged in a specific order, where severe cancer is considered worse than moderate, which is worse than mild. However, the difference between mild and moderate may not be the same as the difference between moderate and severe, indicating that this type of data does not follow an interval scale.
Scales of Measurement in Statistics
In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.
Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.
Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.
Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 135
Incorrect
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What factor increases the risk of developing puerperal psychosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-existing affective psychosis
Explanation:Puerperal Psychosis: Incidence, Risk Factors, and Treatment
Postpartum psychosis is a subtype of bipolar disorder with an incidence of 1-2 in 1000 pregnancies. It typically occurs rapidly between day 2 and day 14 following delivery, with almost all cases occurring within 8 weeks of delivery. Risk factors for puerperal psychosis include a past history of puerperal psychosis, pre-existing psychotic illness (especially affective psychosis) requiring hospital admission, and a family history of affective psychosis in first of second degree relatives. However, factors such as twin pregnancy, breastfeeding, single parenthood, and stillbirth have not been shown to be associated with an increased risk. Treatment for puerperal psychosis is similar to that for psychosis in general, but special consideration must be given to potential issues if the mother is breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 136
Incorrect
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Under what circumstances has SPECT demonstrated a decrease in D2 receptor density?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia
Explanation:The neuroleptic sensitivity observed in Lewy body dementia could be attributed to the decreased density of dopamine receptors found in the condition.
Dementia is a condition that can be diagnosed and supported with the use of neuroimaging techniques. In Alzheimer’s disease, MRI and CT scans are used to assess volume changes in specific areas of the brain, such as the mesial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex. SPECT and PET scans can also show functional changes, such as hypoperfusion and glucose hypometabolism. Vascular dementia can be detected with CT and MRI scans that show atrophy, infarcts, and white matter lesions, while SPECT scans reveal a patchy multifocal pattern of hypoperfusion. Lewy body dementia tends to show nonspecific and subtle changes on structural imaging, but SPECT and PET scans can reveal posterior deficits and reduced D2 receptor density. Frontotemporal dementia is characterized by frontal lobe atrophy, which can be seen on CT and MRI scans, while SPECT scans show anterior perfusion deficits. NICE recommends the use of MRI for early diagnosis and detection of subcortical vascular changes, SPECT for differentiating between Alzheimer’s disease, vascular dementia, and frontotemporal dementia, and DaTscan for establishing a diagnosis of dementia with Lewy bodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 137
Incorrect
-
A male patient in his mid-20s is referred for treatment due to a depressive illness. On first meeting him, the female doctor is uncomfortable with his clear attempts to be seductive. He explains that he has been rejected by his male friends as they have told him that he is overly sexual with their girlfriends and he demands too much attention from them.
He reports getting easily bored and quickly losing interest in jobs causing him issues with his career. There is no evidence of identity disturbance. He explains that his last relationship ended due to him repeatedly sending messages to his girlfriend saying he would hurt himself if she didn't stop seeing her friends and spend more time with him. He denied any actual acts of self-harm and insisted that he never had intent to hurt himself and only sent the messages to get more of his girlfriend's time.
Which of the following is most likely to be present?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Histrionic personality disorder
Explanation:This scenario strongly indicates the presence of histrionic personality disorder, which often involves individuals displaying sexualized behaviors towards their partners and a constant desire for attention, leading to social alienation. While individuals with borderline personality disorder may also exhibit attention-seeking behaviors, their condition is typically characterized by self-destructive tendencies, tumultuous relationships, and persistent feelings of emptiness and identity disturbance, setting it apart from histrionic personality disorder.
Personality Disorder: Histrionic
A histrionic personality disorder, also known as a dramatic personality disorder, is a psychiatric condition characterized by a consistent pattern of attention-seeking behaviors and exaggerated emotional responses. To diagnose this disorder, the DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five of the following symptoms: discomfort when not the center of attention, seductive of provocative behavior, shallow and shifting emotions, using appearance to draw attention, vague and impressionistic speech, dramatic of exaggerated emotions, suggestibility, and considering relationships to be more intimate than they actually are. However, the ICD-11 has removed the diagnosis of histrionic personality disorder from its list of recognized disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 138
Incorrect
-
What factor is most likely to enhance transference?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frequent contact with key worker
Explanation:Transference and Countertransference
Transference is the unconscious transfer of feelings, attitudes, thoughts, desires, fantasies, of behaviors from past significant relationships to a current interpersonal relationship. It is often observed in therapy, and the therapist interprets its meaning and source to help the patient understand how their past experiences affect their current relationships. Factors that increase transference include anxiety, frequent contact with a key worker, and borderline personality disorder. Effective management of transference involves recognizing the importance of the relationship to the patient, maintaining professional boundaries, interpreting the transference, and being a reliable therapist.
Countertransference, on the other hand, refers to the therapist’s emotional, cognitive, of behavioral response to the patient, triggered by some characteristic of the patient but ultimately resulting from unresolved conflicts within the therapist. There are different conceptions of countertransference, including the classical definition, the totalistic conception, the complementary conception, and the relational perspective. However, a working definition suggests that countertransference is a response to the patient triggered by unresolved conflicts within the therapist. Effective management of countertransference involves understanding the patient’s interpersonal style of relating and framing therapeutic interventions accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 139
Incorrect
-
A new test is developed to screen for dementia in elderly patients. Trials have shown it has a sensitivity for detecting clinically significant dementia of 80% but a specificity of 60%. What is the likelihood ratio for a positive test result?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:The likelihood ratio for a positive test result is 2, which means that the probability of a positive test result in a person with the condition is twice as high as the probability of a positive test result in a person without the condition.
Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 140
Incorrect
-
Which syndrome is typically not classified as a Parkinson's plus syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alzheimer's disease
Explanation:While some believe that Alzheimer’s disease falls under the category of Parkinson’s plus syndrome, this viewpoint is not widely accepted.
Parkinsonian Plus Syndromes: Additional Features to Parkinsonism
The Parkinsonian plus syndromes are a group of neurological disorders that share the core features of Parkinsonism, such as tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. However, they also have additional features that distinguish them from Parkinson’s disease. These syndromes include multiple system atrophy, progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal degeneration, Lewy body dementia, Pick’s disease, and Parkinson’s disease with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (also known as Lou Gehrig’s disease).
Multiple system atrophy is a rare disorder that affects the autonomic nervous system, causing symptoms such as orthostatic hypotension, urinary incontinence, and constipation. Progressive supranuclear palsy is characterized by the inability to move the eyes vertically, leading to difficulty with balance and coordination. Corticobasal degeneration affects both the motor and cognitive functions, causing symptoms such as apraxia, dystonia, and aphasia. Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that shares symptoms with both Parkinson’s disease and Alzheimer’s disease. Pick’s disease is a rare form of dementia that affects the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain, leading to personality changes and language difficulties. Finally, Parkinson’s disease with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is a rare combination of Parkinson’s disease and Lou Gehrig’s disease, which affects both the motor neurons and the muscles.
In summary, the Parkinsonian plus syndromes are a group of disorders that share the core features of Parkinsonism but also have additional features that distinguish them from Parkinson’s disease. These syndromes can be challenging to diagnose and manage, and early recognition is crucial for appropriate treatment and care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 141
Incorrect
-
What is the estimated percentage of 4-year-olds who are affected by encopresis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3%
Explanation:Elimination Disorders
Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.
Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.
Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.
Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 142
Incorrect
-
What is the most probable biomarker to be increased in an individual diagnosed with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Creatinine kinase
Explanation:In individuals with anorexia, the majority of their blood test results are typically below normal levels, with the exception of growth hormone, cholesterol, and cortisol.
Eating Disorders: Lab Findings and Medical Complications
Eating disorders can lead to a range of medical complications, including renal failure, peripheral edema, sinus bradycardia, QT-prolongation, pericardial effusion, and slowed GI motility. Other complications include constipation, cathartic colon, esophageal esophagitis, hair loss, and dental erosion. Blood abnormalities are also common in patients with eating disorders, including hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypoglycemia. Additionally, patients may experience leucopenia, anemia, low albumin, elevated liver enzymes, and vitamin deficiencies. These complications can cause significant morbidity and mortality in patients with eating disorders. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for these complications and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 143
Incorrect
-
You diagnose schizophrenia in a 30 year old man. Which of the following relatives is most likely to develop the same condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Child
Explanation:Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors
Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.
While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.
Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.
Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.
Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 144
Incorrect
-
What SPECT finding is indicative of Alzheimer's disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased temporal perfusion
Explanation:Given the atrophy of the medial temporal lobe that is linked to Alzheimer’s, a reduction in perfusion of the temporal lobe would be anticipated.
SPECT Imaging for Alzheimer’s Diagnosis
SPECT imaging has been found to be a useful tool in differentiating between patients with Alzheimer’s disease and healthy older individuals. Studies have shown that temporal and parietal hypoperfusion can be indicative of Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, SPECT imaging has been effective in distinguishing between Alzheimer’s disease and Lewy body dementia. A SPECT scan of a patient with Alzheimer’s disease versus one with Lewy body dementia showed lower perfusion in medial temporal areas for Alzheimer’s disease and lower perfusion in occipital cortex for Lewy body dementia. These findings suggest that SPECT imaging can be a valuable diagnostic tool for Alzheimer’s disease and related dementias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 145
Incorrect
-
What is the estimated percentage of 10 year olds affected by encopresis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1.60%
Explanation:Elimination Disorders
Elimination disorders refer to conditions that affect a child’s ability to control their bladder of bowel movements. Enuresis, of lack of control over the bladder, typically occurs between the ages of 1-3, while control over the bowel usually occurs before that of the bladder for most toddlers. Toilet training can be influenced by various factors, including intellectual capacity, cultural determinants, and psychological interactions between the child and their parents.
Enuresis is characterized by involuntary voiding of urine, by day and/of by night, which is abnormal in relation to the individual’s age and is not a result of any physical abnormality. It is not normally diagnosed before age 5 and may be primary (the child never having achieved continence) of secondary. Treatment options include reassurance, enuresis alarms, and medication.
Encopresis refers to repeated stool evacuation in inappropriate places in children over the age of four. The behavior can be either involuntary of intentional and may be due to unsuccessful toilet training (primary encopresis) of occur after a period of normal bowel control (secondary encopresis). Treatment generally involves bowel clearance, prevention of impaction, and behavioral therapy.
Before a diagnosis of encopresis is made, organic causes must be excluded. Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from an absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells in the rectum, colon, and sometimes the small intestine. It leads to a colonic obstruction and is diagnosed in at least half of all cases in the first year of life. It is twice as common in boys than in girls.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 146
Incorrect
-
In which condition of situation are hand wringing movements frequently observed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rett syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Conditions and Their Features
Genetic conditions are disorders caused by abnormalities in an individual’s DNA. These conditions can affect various aspects of a person’s health, including physical and intellectual development. Some of the most common genetic conditions and their features are:
– Downs (trisomy 21): Short stature, almond-shaped eyes, low muscle tone, and intellectual disability.
– Angelman syndrome (Happy puppet syndrome): Flapping hand movements, ataxia, severe learning disability, seizures, and sleep problems.
– Prader-Willi: Hyperphagia, excessive weight gain, short stature, and mild learning disability.
– Cri du chat: Characteristic cry, hypotonia, down-turned mouth, and microcephaly.
– Velocardiofacial syndrome (DiGeorge syndrome): Cleft palate, cardiac problems, and learning disabilities.
– Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18): Severe intellectual disability, kidney malformations, and physical abnormalities.
– Lesch-Nyhan syndrome: Self-mutilation, dystonia, and writhing movements.
– Smith-Magenis syndrome: Pronounced self-injurious behavior, self-hugging, and a hoarse voice.
– Fragile X: Elongated face, large ears, hand flapping, and shyness.
– Wolf Hirschhorn syndrome: Mild to severe intellectual disability, seizures, and physical abnormalities.
– Patau syndrome (trisomy 13): Severe intellectual disability, congenital heart malformations, and physical abnormalities.
– Rett syndrome: Regression and loss of skills, hand-wringing movements, and profound learning disability.
– Tuberous sclerosis: Hamartomatous tumors, epilepsy, and behavioral issues.
– Williams syndrome: Elfin-like features, social disinhibition, and advanced verbal skills.
– Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome: Short stature, friendly disposition, and moderate learning disability.
– Klinefelter syndrome: Extra X chromosome, low testosterone, and speech and language issues.
– Jakob’s syndrome: Extra Y chromosome, tall stature, and lower mean intelligence.
– Coffin-Lowry syndrome: Short stature, slanting eyes, and severe learning difficulty.
– Turner syndrome: Short stature, webbed neck, and absent periods.
– Niemann Pick disease (types A and B): Abdominal swelling, cherry red spot, and feeding difficulties.It is important to note that these features may vary widely among individuals with the same genetic condition. Early diagnosis and intervention can help individuals with genetic conditions reach their full potential and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 147
Incorrect
-
Which statement about multiple sclerosis is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is more common in males
Explanation:Psychiatric Consequences of Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a neurological disorder that affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40. It is characterized by multiple demyelinating lesions in the optic nerves, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord. MS presents with diverse neurological signs, including optic neuritis, internuclear ophthalmoplegia, and ocular motor cranial neuropathy.
Depression is the most common psychiatric condition seen in MS, with a lifetime prevalence of 25-50%. The symptoms of depression in people with MS tend to be different from those without MS. The preferred diagnostic indicators for depression in MS include pervasive mood change, diurnal mood variation, suicidal ideation, functional change not related to physical disability, and pessimistic of negative patterns of thinking. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are considered first-line treatment for depression in patients with MS.
Suicide is common in MS, with recognized risk factors including male gender, young age at onset of illness, current of previous history of depression, social isolation, and substance misuse. Mania is more common in people with MS, and mood stabilizers are recommended for treatment. Pathological laughing and crying, defined as uncontrollable laughing and/of crying without the associated affect, occurs in approximately 10% of cases of MS. Emotional lability, defined as an excessive emotional response to a minor stimulus, is also common in MS and can be treated with amitriptyline and SSRIs.
The majority of cases of neuropsychiatric side effects from corticosteroids fit an affective profile of mania and/of depression. Psychotic symptoms, particularly hallucinations, are present in up to half of these cases. Glatiramer acetate has not been associated with neuropsychiatric side-effects. The data regarding the risk of mood symptoms related to interferon use is conflicting.
In conclusion, MS has significant psychiatric consequences, including depression, suicide, mania, pathological laughing and crying, emotional lability, and neuropsychiatric side effects from treatment. Early recognition and treatment of these psychiatric symptoms are essential for improving the quality of life of individuals with MS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 148
Incorrect
-
A new screening test is developed for Alzheimer's disease. It is a cognitive test which measures memory; the lower the score, the more likely a patient is to have the condition. If the cut-off for a positive test is increased, which one of the following will also be increased?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Specificity
Explanation:Raising the threshold for a positive test outcome will result in a reduction in the number of incorrect positive results, leading to an improvement in specificity.
Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 149
Incorrect
-
What percentage of 15-year-old individuals (in the UK) do you think have engaged in self-harm at least once?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 22%
Explanation:Self-harm is a common issue among young people, particularly girls, with rates appearing to have risen over the past decade. It is most likely to occur between the ages of 12 and 15 years and is associated with a range of psychiatric problems. Short-term management involves a psychosocial assessment and consideration of activated charcoal for drug overdose. Longer-term management may involve psychological interventions, but drug treatment should not be offered as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm. Risk assessment tools should not be used to predict future suicide of repetition of self-harm, but certain factors such as male gender, substance misuse, and parental mental disorder may be associated with a higher risk of completed suicide. It is important to seek professional help if you of someone you know is engaging in self-harm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 150
Incorrect
-
What is the law that suggests that increasing the number of beds in mental institutions can lead to a decrease in serious crimes and incarceration rates within a society?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Penrose's law
Explanation:Penrose’s Law: Increasing Mental Hospital Beds Can Reduce Crime Rates
In 1939, Lionel Penrose conducted a cross-sectional study across 18 European countries, including the Nordic region. His research revealed a significant inverse relationship between the number of mental hospital beds and the number of prisoners. Additionally, he found a strong negative correlation between the number of mental hospital beds and the number of deaths attributed to murder. Based on his findings, Penrose argued that increasing the number of mental institution beds could potentially reduce serious crimes and imprisonment rates. This theory, known as Penrose’s Law, suggests that providing adequate mental health care can have a positive impact on society’s overall safety and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 151
Incorrect
-
What is a common characteristic of Ganser's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudohallucinations
Explanation:Confabulation is the creation of false memories while being fully aware, often due to an organic amnesia. Ganser’s syndrome is a disputed diagnosis that includes symptoms such as approximate answers, clouded consciousness, somatic conversion, pseudohallucinations, and amnesia for the time when the symptoms were present. It is commonly observed in incarcerated individuals awaiting trial and may be seen as a simulation of a psychotic disorder. Some experts argue that it is a type of malingering, and it is classified as a dissociative disorder.
Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 152
Incorrect
-
Which of the following approaches is the least effective in dealing with transference during therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discharging the patient
Explanation:Transference and Countertransference
Transference is the unconscious transfer of feelings, attitudes, thoughts, desires, fantasies, of behaviors from past significant relationships to a current interpersonal relationship. It is often observed in therapy, and the therapist interprets its meaning and source to help the patient understand how their past experiences affect their current relationships. Factors that increase transference include anxiety, frequent contact with a key worker, and borderline personality disorder. Effective management of transference involves recognizing the importance of the relationship to the patient, maintaining professional boundaries, interpreting the transference, and being a reliable therapist.
Countertransference, on the other hand, refers to the therapist’s emotional, cognitive, of behavioral response to the patient, triggered by some characteristic of the patient but ultimately resulting from unresolved conflicts within the therapist. There are different conceptions of countertransference, including the classical definition, the totalistic conception, the complementary conception, and the relational perspective. However, a working definition suggests that countertransference is a response to the patient triggered by unresolved conflicts within the therapist. Effective management of countertransference involves understanding the patient’s interpersonal style of relating and framing therapeutic interventions accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 153
Incorrect
-
The national health organization has a team of analysts to compare the effectiveness of two different cancer treatments in terms of cost and patient outcomes. They have gathered data on the number of years of life gained by each treatment and are seeking your recommendation on what type of analysis to conduct next. What analysis would you suggest they undertake?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cost utility analysis
Explanation:Cost utility analysis is a method used in health economics to determine the cost-effectiveness of a health intervention by comparing the cost of the intervention to the benefit it provides in terms of the number of years lived in full health. The cost is measured in monetary units, while the benefit is quantified using a measure that assigns values to different health states, including those that are less desirable than full health. In health technology assessments, this measure is typically expressed as quality-adjusted life years (QALYs).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 154
Incorrect
-
What is true about dementia that occurs at an early age?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The majority of early onset Alzheimer's cases are sporadic rather than inherited
Explanation:While inherited causes of Alzheimer’s are prevalent among younger individuals, the majority of cases are attributed to sporadic causes.
Early-Onset Dementia: A Less Common but Broader Differential Diagnosis
Early-onset dementia refers to the occurrence of dementia before the age of 65, which accounts for only 2% of all people with dementia in the UK. However, the differential diagnosis for early-onset dementia is broader, and younger people are more likely to have a rarer form of dementia. The distribution of diagnoses of dementia differs dramatically between older and younger patients, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause of dementia in both groups. However, it only accounts for a third of cases in younger people, while frontotemporal dementia occurs much more commonly in younger populations. Rarer causes of dementia also occur with greater frequency in the younger population.
It is worth noting that the majority of Alzheimer’s cases are sporadic in early-onset, but inherited cases are more common. Vascular dementia is the second most common dementia in those under 65, and frontotemporal dementias occur more frequently in the younger population, with up to 50% of patients having a positive family history.
In summary, early-onset dementia is a less common but important condition to consider, as it presents a broader differential diagnosis and may have a genetic component. Understanding the distribution of diagnoses in younger populations can aid in early detection and appropriate management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 155
Incorrect
-
What is the conventional cutoff for a p-value of 0.05 and what does it mean in terms of the likelihood of detecting a difference by chance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 14 times
Explanation:The probability of detecting a difference by chance is 1 in 20 times when the p-value is 0.05, which is the conventional cutoff. In this case, the answer is 1 in 14 times, which is equivalent to a p-value of 0.07.
Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics
In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.
The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.
Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 156
Incorrect
-
What is the correct statement about the psychiatric care provided to individuals with HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Efavirenz is associated with depression and mania
Explanation:HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 157
Incorrect
-
Which of the following factors does not increase the risk of suicide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Being female
Explanation:Suicide Risk Factors
Risk factors for completed suicide are numerous and include various demographic, social, and psychological factors. Men are at a higher risk than women, with the risk peaking at age 45 for men and age 55 for women. Being unmarried and unemployed are also risk factors. Concurrent mental disorders are present in about 90% of people who commit suicide, with depression being the most commonly associated disorder. Previous suicide attempts and substance misuse are also significant risk factors. Co-existing serious medical conditions and personality factors such as rigid thinking, pessimism, and perfectionism also increase the risk of suicide. It is important to identify and address these risk factors in order to prevent suicide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 158
Incorrect
-
What was the term used by Freud to refer to the death instinct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thanatos
Explanation:Aggression – Freud
According to Freud, aggression is a result of the primary instinct called thanatos, also known as the death instinct. He believed that every individual possesses this drive, which aims to cause complete destruction and death. Additionally, Freud proposed the existence of an opposing instinct called eros, which is the life instinct. He also introduced the concept of catharsis, which is a process of releasing libidinal energy and inducing a sense of calmness. This process occurs when we witness an aggressive act of engage in a mildly aggressive act.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 159
Incorrect
-
Which odds ratio, along with its confidence interval, indicates a statistically significant reduction in the odds?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.7 (0.1 - 0.8)
Explanation:Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 160
Incorrect
-
Which case exemplifies the responsibility of the police in providing information to potential victims?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osman
Explanation:Osman Warnings
The Osman vs UK case involved a teacher who had an unhealthy fixation on one of his students, Osman. Tragically, this obsession led to the death of Osman’s father and Osman himself being injured. The police were heavily criticized for failing to issue a warning to the family, despite having information that could have alerted them to the danger posed by Osman’s teacher. This failure to act highlights the importance of Osman warnings, which are designed to protect individuals from harm by notifying them of potential threats. By issuing such warnings, law enforcement agencies can help prevent tragedies like the one that occurred in the Osman case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 161
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of increasing forgetfulness over the past year. She has trouble recalling the names of close family members and has gotten lost in familiar places. Her husband reports that she has left the stove on multiple times and has difficulty managing household tasks. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any prescribed medications. Her mother had similar symptoms in her 50s. What is the most probable genetic association?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mutation in presenilin 1
Explanation:The individual in the image is displaying symptoms consistent with early onset Alzheimer’s disease, which can affect individuals in their 40s. This form of the disease is often inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, and mutations in the presenilin 1 and 2 genes have been linked to its development.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 162
Incorrect
-
You encounter a 12-year-old girl who has been diagnosed with hyperkinetic disorder and has no other concurrent conditions. What would be your initial choice of medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methylphenidate
Explanation:While drug treatments are not always necessary, this question specifically pertains to pharmacological interventions for ADHD. Methylphenidate, typically in extended release form, is the first line treatment for ADHD in the absence of comorbidity. Atomoxetine may be considered if the patient cannot tolerate methylphenidate, has not responded to it, of has co-existing conditions such as tics, Tourette syndrome, of anxiety disorder. Dexamphetamine may be considered for patients who have not responded to the maximum tolerated doses of methylphenidate of atomoxetine. Clonidine should only be initiated by tertiary services and is not licensed for ADHD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 163
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about dyslexia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is more common in boys than in girls
Explanation:Dyslexia is characterized by typical levels of intellectual ability. However, if there is an intellectual disability, a diagnosis of dyslexia can only be made if the challenges with reading and writing are more severe than what is typically seen with the learning disability.
Dyslexia is a specific learning disorder that affects a person’s ability to read and process information. It is not caused by intellectual disabilities, visual of auditory impairments, of inadequate education. Dyslexia can affect both reading and writing skills, as well as the processing of information that is seen of heard. It is a lifelong condition that occurs across the range of intellectual abilities, with boys being diagnosed more often than girls. The prevalence of dyslexia is around 5-10% among school-aged children. Signs of dyslexia include poor spelling, difficulty with written information, confusion with letter order, and poor handwriting. Dyslexia is often associated with other disorders such as ADHD, conduct disorder, and oppositional defiant disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 164
Incorrect
-
What is an example of a neurovegetative symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insomnia
Explanation:Symptoms related to inadequate performance of the autonomic nervous system, such as difficulties with sleep, exhaustion, and reduced energy levels, are referred to as neurovegetative symptoms.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 165
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended approach for treating PTSD according to the 2018 NICE guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Medication should not be offered to patients under the age of 18
Explanation:NICE’s stance is that medication should not be prescribed to individuals under 18 with PTSD. Antipsychotics should only be considered as a last resort after other methods, such as SSIs, have been attempted and proven ineffective.
Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 166
Incorrect
-
What is another term used to refer to Neyman bias?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevalence/incidence bias
Explanation:Neyman bias arises when a research study is examining a condition that is marked by either undetected cases of cases that result in early deaths, leading to the exclusion of such cases from the analysis.
Types of Bias in Statistics
Bias is a systematic error that can lead to incorrect conclusions. Confounding factors are variables that are associated with both the outcome and the exposure but have no causative role. Confounding can be addressed in the design and analysis stage of a study. The main method of controlling confounding in the analysis phase is stratification analysis. The main methods used in the design stage are matching, randomization, and restriction of participants.
There are two main types of bias: selection bias and information bias. Selection bias occurs when the selected sample is not a representative sample of the reference population. Disease spectrum bias, self-selection bias, participation bias, incidence-prevalence bias, exclusion bias, publication of dissemination bias, citation bias, and Berkson’s bias are all subtypes of selection bias. Information bias occurs when gathered information about exposure, outcome, of both is not correct and there was an error in measurement. Detection bias, recall bias, lead time bias, interviewer/observer bias, verification and work-up bias, Hawthorne effect, and ecological fallacy are all subtypes of information bias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 167
Incorrect
-
What is the meaning of the C in the PICO model utilized in evidence-based medicine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Comparison
Explanation:Evidence-based medicine involves four basic steps: developing a focused clinical question, searching for the best evidence, critically appraising the evidence, and applying the evidence and evaluating the outcome. When developing a question, it is important to understand the difference between background and foreground questions. Background questions are general questions about conditions, illnesses, syndromes, and pathophysiology, while foreground questions are more often about issues of care. The PICO system is often used to define the components of a foreground question: patient group of interest, intervention of interest, comparison, and primary outcome.
When searching for evidence, it is important to have a basic understanding of the types of evidence and sources of information. Scientific literature is divided into two basic categories: primary (empirical research) and secondary (interpretation and analysis of primary sources). Unfiltered sources are large databases of articles that have not been pre-screened for quality, while filtered resources summarize and appraise evidence from several studies.
There are several databases and search engines that can be used to search for evidence, including Medline and PubMed, Embase, the Cochrane Library, PsycINFO, CINAHL, and OpenGrey. Boolean logic can be used to combine search terms in PubMed, and phrase searching and truncation can also be used. Medical Subject Headings (MeSH) are used by indexers to describe articles for MEDLINE records, and the MeSH Database is like a thesaurus that enables exploration of this vocabulary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 168
Incorrect
-
What is the appropriate denominator for calculating the incidence rate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The total person time at risk during a specified time period
Explanation:Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.
Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.
It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.
Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 169
Incorrect
-
Which statement is false regarding an individual's ability to plead fitness?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Someone is unfit to plead if they cannot recall the alleged crime
Explanation:Fitness to Plead: Criteria and Process
Fitness to plead is determined by specific criteria established by the Pritchard case law in 1836. The criteria include the ability to instruct solicitor and counsel, understand the charges, decide whether to plead guilty of not, follow court proceedings, challenge a juror, and give evidence in one’s defense. Schizophrenia and other enduring mental illnesses are the most common conditions associated with unfitness to plead, particularly when positive psychotic symptomatology is present. Intellectual impairment is not a significant factor in most cases. If the issue is raised by the defense, it must be established on a balance of probability, while if raised by the prosecution of judge, it must be proved beyond reasonable doubt. Amnesia does not render someone unfit to plead. The decision on fitness to plead is made by a judge, not a jury. If someone is found unfit to plead, they are subject to the Criminal Procedures Act 1991, which involves a trial of facts, complete acquittal if the facts are not found, and flexible disposal by the judge if the facts are found, except for murder, which requires mandatory committal to hospital.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 170
Incorrect
-
What is the calculation that the nurse performed to determine the patient's average daily calorie intake over a seven day period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arithmetic mean
Explanation:You don’t need to concern yourself with the specifics of the various means. Simply keep in mind that the arithmetic mean is the one utilized in fundamental biostatistics.
Measures of Central Tendency
Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.
The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.
The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.
In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 171
Incorrect
-
What is the definition of syllogomania?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Excessive hoarding of rubbish
Explanation:The suffix -mania denotes an irresistible urge of obsession.
Compulsive inability to make decisions = aboulomania
Excessive inclination towards grandiosity = megalomania
Delusional conviction of divine inspiration = entheomania
Uncontrollable urge to steal = kleptomaniaConditions commonly seen in the elderly include Charles Bonnet syndrome, Diogenes syndrome, and delirium. Charles Bonnet syndrome is characterized by persistent of recurrent complex hallucinations, usually visual of auditory, occurring in clear consciousness against a background of visual impairment. Diogenes syndrome is a behavioral disorder characterized by extreme neglected physical state, social isolation, domestic squalor, and excessive hoarding. Delirium is an acute decline in both the level of consciousness and cognition, often involving perceptual disturbances, abnormal psychomotor activity, and sleep cycle impairment. It is important to differentiate delirium from dementia, as delirium has a fluctuating course and can have various causes ranging from metabolic disturbances to medications. The clinical presentation of delirium can be classified into hypoactive, hyperactive, of mixed subtypes. Elderly patients with hypoactive delirium are often overlooked of misdiagnosed as having depression of a form of dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 172
Incorrect
-
Arrange the following research studies in the correct order based on their level of evidence.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Systematic review of RCTs, RCTs, cohort, case-control, cross-sectional, case-series
Explanation:While many individuals can readily remember that the systematic review is at the highest level and case-series at the lowest, it can be difficult to correctly sequence the intermediate levels.
Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine
To evaluate the quality of evidence on a subject of question, levels of grades are used. The traditional hierarchy approach places systematic reviews of randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system, which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each.
The grading approach to be aware of is the GRADE system, which classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, of very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical of important. The evidence is then gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence, with the type of evidence being a significant factor. Evidence can be promoted of downgraded based on certain criteria, such as limitations to study quality, inconsistency, uncertainty about directness, imprecise of sparse data, and reporting bias. The GRADE system allows for the promotion of observational studies to high-quality evidence under the right circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 173
Incorrect
-
What does the term necrophilia refer to in regards to an abnormal sexual preference?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Corpses
Explanation:Paraphilias are intense and persistent sexual interests other than sexual interest in genital stimulation of preparatory fondling with phenotypically normal, physically mature, consenting human partners. They are divided into those relating to erotic activity and those relating to erotic target. In order to become a disorder, paraphilias must be associated with distress of impairment to the individual of with harm to others. The DSM-5 lists 8 recognised paraphilic disorder but acknowledges that there are many more. Treatment modalities for the paraphilias have limited scientific evidence to support their use. Psychological therapy (especially CBT) is often used (with extremely variable results). Pharmacological options include SSRI, Naltrexone, Antipsychotics, GnRH agonists, and Anti-androgens and progestational drugs (e.g. cyproterone acetate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 174
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old pregnant patient with a family history of bipolar disorder presents in a manic state. What is the recommended initial medication for treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:When a pregnant woman experiences mania of psychosis without taking any psychotropic medication, the first-line treatment option should be an antipsychotic. If the patient does not respond to the maximum dose of the antipsychotic of if the mania is severe, lithium can be considered as an alternative. However, if the patient does not respond to lithium, ECT may be considered, although the question specifically asks about pharmacological treatment. It is not recommended to use valproate to treat mental health problems in women of childbearing age due to the risk of fetal abnormalities. Diazepam is unlikely to be effective, and if benzodiazepines are necessary during pregnancy, drugs with a shorter half-life should be preferred to avoid the risk of ‘floppy baby’ syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 175
Incorrect
-
What are the typical features of post-traumatic stress disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exaggerated startle response
Explanation:Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 176
Incorrect
-
Which of the following statements accurately describes the relationship between odds and odds ratio?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The odds ratio approximates to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare
Explanation:Measures of Effect in Clinical Studies
When conducting clinical studies, we often want to know the effect of treatments of exposures on health outcomes. Measures of effect are used in randomized controlled trials (RCTs) and include the odds ratio (of), risk ratio (RR), risk difference (RD), and number needed to treat (NNT). Dichotomous (binary) outcome data are common in clinical trials, where the outcome for each participant is one of two possibilities, such as dead of alive, of clinical improvement of no improvement.
To understand the difference between of and RR, it’s important to know the difference between risks and odds. Risk is a proportion that describes the probability of a health outcome occurring, while odds is a ratio that compares the probability of an event occurring to the probability of it not occurring. Absolute risk is the basic risk, while risk difference is the difference between the absolute risk of an event in the intervention group and the absolute risk in the control group. Relative risk is the ratio of risk in the intervention group to the risk in the control group.
The number needed to treat (NNT) is the number of patients who need to be treated for one to benefit. Odds are calculated by dividing the number of times an event happens by the number of times it does not happen. The odds ratio is the odds of an outcome given a particular exposure versus the odds of an outcome in the absence of the exposure. It is commonly used in case-control studies and can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs. An odds ratio of 1 indicates no difference in risk between the two groups, while an odds ratio >1 indicates an increased risk and an odds ratio <1 indicates a reduced risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 177
Incorrect
-
Which statement accurately describes the differences in schizophrenia between genders?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Expressed emotion has a greater negative impact on males
Explanation:Schizophrenia presents differently in men and women. Women tend to have a later onset and respond better to treatment, requiring lower doses of antipsychotics. Men, on the other hand, have an earlier onset, poorer premorbid functioning, and more negative symptoms and cognitive deficits. They also have greater structural brain and neurophysiological abnormalities. Females display more affective symptoms, auditory hallucinations, and persecutory delusions, but have a more favorable short- and middle-term course of illness with less smoking and substance abuse. Families of males are more critical, and expressed emotion has a greater negative impact on them. Certain neurological soft signs may be more prevalent in males. There are no clear sex differences in family history, obstetric complications, and minor physical anomalies.
Schizophrenia Epidemiology
Prevalence:
– In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
– Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
– The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
– Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.Incidence:
– In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
– Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.Gender:
– The male to female ratio is 1:1.Course and Prognosis:
– Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
– Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
– Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
– Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
– Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
– People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.Winter Births:
– Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.Urbanicity:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.Migration:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.Class:
– There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.Learning Disability:
– Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 178
Incorrect
-
With which concept is the term 'reciprocal role procedure' related?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CAT
Explanation:Reciprocal role procedures (RRP’s) refer to the recurring ways in which we interact with others, as observed in the field of Cognitive Analytic Therapy (CAT).
Understanding Cognitive Analytic Therapy
Cognitive Analytic Therapy (CAT) is a form of therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches. It is a brief therapy that typically lasts between 16-24 sessions. Developed by Anthony Ryle, CAT aims to identify the useful parts of psychotherapy and make it more efficient. It also aims to create a therapy that can be easily researched.
CAT focuses on identifying key issues early on and conceptualizing them as repeated unsuccessful strategies. These strategies are categorized into traps, dilemmas, and snags. Traps are flawed thinking patterns that result in a vicious cycle of negative assumptions and actions. Dilemmas occur when a person believes their choices are restricted to opposite actions, neither of which is satisfactory. Snags are thinking patterns that restrict actions due to a perception of potential harm of failure.
CAT follows a procedural sequence model, where the problem is appraised, options are discussed, a plan is created and put into place, and consequences are evaluated. The therapist often summarizes the problem and plan in a letter to the client.
CAT also identifies reciprocal role procedures (RRPs), which are patterns observed in the way we related to others. These patterns are visually presented using a sequential diagrammatic reformulation. For example, a client who rebelled against a stern, dominating father may be dismissive of therapy because they see the therapist as a demanding authority figure.
Overall, CAT is a useful therapy that combines psychodynamic and cognitive approaches to identify and address maladaptive patterns. Its procedural sequence model and use of RRPs make it an efficient and effective therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychotherapy
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Question 179
Incorrect
-
How should problem gambling associated with impulse control disorders be managed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Naltrexone
Explanation:Problem Gambling: Screening and Interventions
Problem gambling, also known as pathological gambling, refers to gambling that causes harm to personal, family, of recreational pursuits. The prevalence of problem gambling in adults ranges from 7.3% to 0.7%, while in psychiatric patients, it ranges from 6% to 12%. Problem gambling typically starts in early adolescence in males and runs a chronic, progressive course with periods of abstinence and relapses.
Screening for problem gambling is done using various tools, including the NODS-CLiP and the South Oaks Gambling Screen (SOGS). Brief interventions have been successful in decreasing gambling, with motivational enhancement therapy (MET) being the most effective. Pharmacological interventions, such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), naltrexone, and mood stabilizers, have also been effective, but the choice of drug depends on the presence of comorbidity. Psychological interventions, particularly cognitive-behavioral treatments, show promise, but long-term follow-up and high drop-out rates are major limitations. Studies comparing psychological and pharmacological interventions are needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 180
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about Cotard's syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is most commonly associated with depression
Explanation:Cotard’s syndrome is a delusion where an individual believes they do not exist of have lost their blood, internal organs, of soul. It is commonly seen in depression, schizophrenia, and bipolar disorder, and can also occur after trauma. The condition is more prevalent in females and the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 181
Incorrect
-
What is the term used to describe when a parent takes the life of their own child?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Filicide
Explanation:The act of a parent killing their child is known as filicide, while matricide specifically refers to the killing of one’s husband. Matricide is the act of killing one’s mother, while patricide refers to the killing of one’s father. Fratricide, on the other hand, refers to the act of killing one’s own brother.
Infant Homicide
Homicide is a significant contributor to infant mortality, with infants under 1 year of age being more likely to be victims of homicide than older children of the general population. Neonaticide, the killing of a baby within 24 hours of delivery, is different from the homicide of infants older than a day. Neonaticide is usually committed by the mother, who is often young, single, and living with her parents. The pregnancy is often unintentional and concealed, and the motivation to kill is usually because the child was unwanted. In contrast, the homicide of infants older than a day is more likely to be committed by a parent, with boys at greater risk than girls. Risk factors for the homicide of infants older than a day include younger age, family history of violence, violence in current relationships of the perpetrator, evidence of past abuse of neglect of children, and personality disorder and/of depression.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 182
Incorrect
-
A teenager presents to A&E with acute mania, it is their first episode. You decide to admit them to the ward and contact the consultant on call for advice. The consultant asks you your opinion on drug treatment. Which of the following has been shown to be most effective in the treatment of acute mania?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Haloperidol has been demonstrated to be the most efficacious treatment, despite not being the most well-tolerated due to its side effects.
Antimanic Drugs: Efficacy and Acceptability
The Lancet published a meta-analysis conducted by Cipriani in 2011, which compared the efficacy and acceptability of various anti-manic drugs. The study found that antipsychotics were more effective than mood stabilizers in treating mania. The drugs that were best tolerated were towards the right of the figure, while the most effective drugs were towards the top. The drugs that were both well-tolerated and effective were considered the best overall, including olanzapine, risperidone, haloperidol, and quetiapine. Other drugs included in the analysis were aripiprazole, asenapine, carbamazepine, valproate, gabapentin, lamotrigine, lithium, placebo, topiramate, and ziprasidone. This study provides valuable information for clinicians in selecting the most appropriate antimanic drug for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 183
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about the utilization of lithium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: People over the age of 65 should have lithium levels checked every 3 months once stabilised
Explanation:It is recommended to check lithium levels every 6 months if the person has been stabilized for over a year, of every 3 months if there are additional factors such as older age, drug interactions, impaired renal of thyroid function, raised calcium levels, poor symptom control, poor adherence, of previous plasma lithium levels of 0.8 mmol per litre of higher. Thyroid function should also be checked every 6 months. Lithium is typically taken at night to allow for a blood test at least 12 hours after the last dose, and once-daily prescribing is preferred.
Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 184
Incorrect
-
Which herbal remedy has sufficient evidence to prove its effectiveness in treating anxiety?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Piper methysticum
Explanation:Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 185
Incorrect
-
What is the classification of reactive attachment disorder in the ICD-11?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It cannot be diagnosed before the age of 1
Explanation:A diagnosis of reactive attachment disorder cannot be made until the child reaches at least one year of age.
Disorders resulting from inadequate caregiving during childhood are recognised by both the DSM-5 and the ICD-11, with two distinct forms of disorder identified: Reactive attachment disorder and Disinhibited social engagement disorder. Reactive attachment disorder is characterised by social withdrawal and aberrant attachment behaviour, while Disinhibited social engagement disorder is characterised by socially disinhibited behaviour. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a history of grossly insufficient care, and symptoms must be evident before the age of 5. Treatment options include video feedback programs for preschool aged children and parental training with group play sessions for primary school aged children. Pharmacological interventions are not recommended in the absence of coexisting mental health problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
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Question 186
Incorrect
-
Based on statistics from England and Wales, what is the percentage of males who claim to have experienced the most severe forms of rape of sexual assault by penetration within the last year?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.10%
Explanation:Sexual Offending in England and Wales: Key Findings
According to a report by the Ministry of Justice, Home Office, and the Office for National Statistics in 2013, 0.5% of females reported being victims of the most serious sexual offences, such as rape of sexual assault by penetration, in the previous year. Young males between the ages of 20 and 39 were found to be the most common offenders, accounting for 47% of cases. The majority of victims (56%) reported that the offender was their partner.
In 2011/12, the police recorded 53,665 sexual offences, which made up approximately 1% of all recorded crimes. Sexual assault was the most commonly reported offence, accounting for 41% of cases, followed by rape at 30%. Other offences included exposure, voyeurism, and sexual activity with minors. In contrast, less than 0.1% of males (around 12,000) reported being victims of the same types of offences in the previous year.
The report also found that around 90% of victims of the most serious sexual offences knew the perpetrator, compared to less than half for other sexual offences. These findings provide insight into the prevalence and characteristics of sexual offending in England and Wales.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Forensic Psychiatry
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Question 187
Incorrect
-
A teenage girl is referred by her GP due to concerns about her academic performance and her atypical physical characteristics. She is observed to be shorter than her peers and have a neck with excess skin folds. Upon further examination, she displays a wide chest and signs of hypothyroidism. What condition do you suspect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Turner Syndrome
Turner syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects only females. It occurs when one of the two X chromosomes is missing of partially missing. This happens randomly and does not increase the risk of the condition in future siblings. Although X-inactivation occurs in females, having only one X chromosome can cause issues as not all genes are inactivated in the inactivated X chromosome.
The features of Turner syndrome include short stature, a webbed neck, a broad chest with widely spaced nipples, gonadal dysfunction leading to amenorrhea and infertility, congenital heart disease, and hypothyroidism. Despite these physical characteristics, girls with Turner syndrome typically have normal intelligence, with a mean full-scale IQ of 90. However, they may struggle with nonverbal, social, and psychomotor skills. It is important to understand the symptoms and effects of Turner syndrome to provide appropriate care and support for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 188
Incorrect
-
What is the ideal range for lithium when administering it to a young and healthy adult during a manic episode?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.8-1 mmol/L
Explanation:Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 189
Incorrect
-
What is the most efficient medication for managing Parkinson's-related psychosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:In Parkinson’s disease, only clozapine and quetiapine are appropriate antipsychotic medications, and if one is not well-tolerated, the other may be considered.
Parkinson’s Disease: Presentation, Aetiology, Medical Treatment, and Psychiatric Aspects
Parkinson’s disease is a degenerative disease of the brain that is characterised by motor symptoms such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and tremor. It has a long prodromal phase and early symptoms generally present asymmetrically. The tremor associated with Parkinson’s disease is classically described as ‘pill rolling’. The principle abnormality is the degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta of the substantia nigra, which leads to an accumulation of alpha-synuclein in these abnormal dopaminergic cells. The majority of cases of Parkinson’s disease are idiopathic, but single gene mutations occur in a minority of cases. Pesticide, herbicide, and heavy metal exposures are linked to an increased risk of Parkinson’s disease in some epidemiologic studies, whereas smoking and caffeine use are associated with decreased risks.
Treatment for Parkinson’s disease predominantly focuses on symptomatic relief with drugs aiming to either restore the level of dopamine in the striatum of to act on striatal postsynaptic dopamine receptors. However, as dopamine is not the only neurotransmitter involved in Parkinson’s disease, many other drugs are also being used to target specific symptoms, such as depression of dementia. Psychiatric symptoms are common in Parkinson’s disease and range from mild to severe. Factors associated with severe symptoms include age, sleep disturbance, dementia, and disease severity. Hallucinations are common in Parkinson’s disease and tend to be visual but can be auditory of tactile. In the majority of patients, psychotic symptoms are thought to be secondary to dopaminergic medication rather than due to the Parkinson’s disease itself. Anticholinergics and dopamine agonists seem to be associated with a higher risk of inducing psychosis than levodopa of catechol-O-methyltransferase inhibitors. Medications used for psychotic symptoms may worsen movement problems. Risperidone and the typicals should be avoided completely. Low dose quetiapine is the best tolerated. Clozapine is the most effective antipsychotic drug for treating psychosis in Parkinson’s disease but its use in clinical practice is limited by the need for monitoring and the additional physical risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 190
Incorrect
-
Which of the following variables is most appropriately classified as nominal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ethnic group
Explanation:Scales of Measurement in Statistics
In the 1940s, Stanley Smith Stevens introduced four scales of measurement to categorize data variables. Knowing the scale of measurement for a variable is crucial in selecting the appropriate statistical analysis. The four scales of measurement are ratio, interval, ordinal, and nominal.
Ratio scales are similar to interval scales, but they have true zero points. Examples of ratio scales include weight, time, and length. Interval scales measure the difference between two values, and one unit on the scale represents the same magnitude on the trait of characteristic being measured across the whole range of the scale. The Fahrenheit scale for temperature is an example of an interval scale.
Ordinal scales categorize observed values into set categories that can be ordered, but the intervals between each value are uncertain. Examples of ordinal scales include social class, education level, and income level. Nominal scales categorize observed values into set categories that have no particular order of hierarchy. Examples of nominal scales include genotype, blood type, and political party.
Data can also be categorized as quantitative of qualitative. Quantitative variables take on numeric values and can be further classified into discrete and continuous types. Qualitative variables do not take on numerical values and are usually names. Some qualitative variables have an inherent order in their categories and are described as ordinal. Qualitative variables are also called categorical of nominal variables. When a qualitative variable has only two categories, it is called a binary variable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 191
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old patient has been experiencing visual hallucinations for the past two weeks. He reports seeing animals in his house and people who are not there. Although he knows they are not real, he is concerned about his mental health. The patient has a history of diet-controlled type 2 diabetes and age-related macular degeneration. Physical examination and cognitive testing reveal no abnormalities. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Charles Bonnet syndrome
Explanation:Charles Bonnet syndrome is a condition that is not yet fully understood. It typically affects elderly individuals with visual impairment, causing them to experience complex visual hallucinations while still maintaining full awareness. These hallucinations are often pleasant and pastoral in nature and may be alleviated with reassurance. Unfortunately, there is currently no medical treatment available for this condition. Some theories suggest that the lack of visual input to the brain may trigger dream-like hallucinations, similar to phantom limb pain. For more information on this topic, please refer to the article Charles Bonnet syndrome-elderly people and visual hallucinations by Jakob et al. (2004).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Old Age Psychiatry
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Question 192
Incorrect
-
What is true about acamprosate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It acts as a glutamatergic NMDA antagonist
Explanation:Anticonvulsants are not recommended for relapse prevention in alcohol dependence. While some studies have shown potential benefits for certain anticonvulsants, such as carbamazepine and valproate, the evidence is not strong enough to support their routine use. Additionally, these drugs can have significant side effects, including liver toxicity and blood disorders, and require careful monitoring. Therefore, they are not recommended by NICE for this indication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
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Question 193
Incorrect
-
The combination of hypomania and depression is referred to as a subtype in Klerman's expanded classification of bipolar disorders as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bipolar II
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder: Historical Subtypes
Bipolar disorder is a complex mental illness that has been classified into several subtypes over the years. The most widely recognized subtypes are Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia. However, there have been other classification systems proposed by experts in the field.
In 1981, Gerald Klerman proposed a classification system that included Bipolar I, Bipolar II, Bipolar III, Bipolar IV, Bipolar V, and Bipolar VI. This system was later expanded by Akiskal in 1999, who added more subtypes such as Bipolar I 1/2, Bipolar II 1/2, and Bipolar III 1/2.
Bipolar I is characterized by full-blown mania, while Bipolar II is characterized by hypomania with depression. Cyclothymia is a milder form of bipolar disorder that involves cycling between hypomania and mild depression.
Other subtypes include Bipolar III, which is associated with hypomania of mania precipitated by antidepressant drugs, and Bipolar IV, which is characterized by hyperthymic depression. Bipolar V is associated with depressed patients who have a family history of bipolar illness, while Bipolar VI is characterized by mania without depression (unipolar mania).
Overall, the classification of bipolar disorder subtypes has evolved over time, and different experts have proposed different systems. However, the most widely recognized subtypes are still Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 194
Incorrect
-
What statement accurately describes the mean?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is sensitive to a change in any value in the data set
Explanation:Measures of Central Tendency
Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.
The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.
The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.
In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 195
Incorrect
-
Which statement accurately describes the epidemiology of intellectual disability?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Approximately 2% of the general population is estimated to have an intellectual disability
Explanation:Intellectual disability is estimated to affect around 1-3% of the overall population, with Down syndrome being the most prevalent cause. Fragile X is believed to occur in about 1 out of every 3600 males and 1 out of every 4000-6000 females.
Classification of Intellectual Disability
Intellectual disability affects approximately 2% of the general population, with an estimated 828,000 adults aged 18 of older affected in England alone. Those with an IQ below 70 are considered to have an intellectual disability, with the average IQ being 100. The severity of intellectual disability is categorized based on IQ scores, with mild intellectual disability being the most common (85% of cases) and profound intellectual disability being the least common (1-2% of cases). People with intellectual disability may require varying levels of support in their daily lives, depending on their individual needs. It is important to use the preferred term ‘people with intellectual disability’ when referring to individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Learning Disability
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Question 196
Incorrect
-
As a healthcare provider, you are discussing the possibility of ECT treatment with a middle-aged patient who has treatment-resistant depression. The patient is concerned about potential cognitive side effects of the treatment. Which cognitive side effect should you prioritize in your counseling with this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The possibility of retrograde amnesia affecting all parts of long term memory
Explanation:ECT can result in permanent memory loss for at least one third of patients, with more recent events being more affected. Anterograde amnesia during ECT treatment is common, but unlikely to cause long term disability. Both implicit and explicit memory can be affected by ECT, although some patients may experience memory improvement if they respond well to the treatment. It is important for patients to be informed about the possibility of long term memory impairment as a significant side effect of ECT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 197
Incorrect
-
One accurate statement about epidemiological measures is:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cross-sectional surveys can be used to estimate the prevalence of a condition in the population
Explanation:Measures of Disease Frequency: Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two important measures of disease frequency. Incidence measures the speed at which new cases of a disease are emerging, while prevalence measures the burden of disease within a population. Cumulative incidence and incidence rate are two types of incidence measures, while point prevalence and period prevalence are two types of prevalence measures.
Cumulative incidence is the average risk of getting a disease over a certain period of time, while incidence rate is a measure of the speed at which new cases are emerging. Prevalence is a proportion and is a measure of the burden of disease within a population. Point prevalence measures the number of cases in a defined population at a specific point in time, while period prevalence measures the number of identified cases during a specified period of time.
It is important to note that prevalence is equal to incidence multiplied by the duration of the condition. In chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence. The incidence rate is stated in units of person-time, while cumulative incidence is always a proportion. When describing cumulative incidence, it is necessary to give the follow-up period over which the risk is estimated. In acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence may be similar, while for conditions such as the common cold, the incidence may be greater than the prevalence.
Incidence is a useful measure to study disease etiology and risk factors, while prevalence is useful for health resource planning. Understanding these measures of disease frequency is important for public health professionals and researchers in order to effectively monitor and address the burden of disease within populations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
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Question 198
Incorrect
-
A young adult with recurrent depression achieves remission with the use of sertraline. How long should drug treatment be continued to prevent relapse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 years
Explanation:Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 199
Incorrect
-
Which country has the highest rate of 'any psychiatric disorder' according to the World Mental Health Survey Initiative?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: United states
Explanation:World Mental Health Survey Initiative: Variations in Prevalence of Mental Disorders Across Countries
The World Mental Health Survey Initiative aims to gather accurate cross-national information on the prevalence and correlates of mental, substance, and behavioural disorders. The initiative includes nationally of regionally representative surveys in 28 countries, with a total sample size of over 154,000. All interviews are conducted face-to-face by trained lay interviewers using the WMH-CIDI, a fully structured diagnostic interview.
As of 2009, data from 17 countries and 70,000 respondents have been returned. The main findings show that the US has the highest prevalence of any disorder, with anxiety disorder being the most common condition, followed by mood disorder. However, there is significant variation in prevalence between countries. These findings highlight the importance of understanding the cultural and societal factors that contribute to the prevalence of mental disorders in different regions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 200
Incorrect
-
What symptoms of characteristics would be most typical of a patient with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia with hypotension
Explanation:Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.
The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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