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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old man visits his doctor with concerns about his seasonal allergies. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his doctor with concerns about his seasonal allergies. He is employed as a truck driver and is seeking recommendations for an antihistamine that will not cause drowsiness. What antihistamine would you recommend for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cimetidine

      Correct Answer: Loratadine

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines and Histamine Receptor Antagonists: A Brief Overview

      Antihistamines are drugs that work on histamine H1 receptors to alleviate allergy symptoms. The first generation of antihistamines can cause sedation, while the second generation, such as loratadine, do not. Chlorphenamine and diphenhydramine are examples of sedating antihistamines.

      Histamine H2 receptor antagonists, such as cimetidine, inhibit stomach acid production and are used to treat conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease.

      Cinnarizine is a sedating antihistamine that also has calcium-channel blocking and dopaminergic D2 effects. It is primarily used to treat nausea and vomiting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 9-month-old girl is brought to your clinic by her parents, reporting an...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old girl is brought to your clinic by her parents, reporting an atypical sequence of movements observed in their daughter. They managed to record a video of the episode, and upon reviewing it, you observe mild bilateral flexion of her neck and legs, succeeded by extension of her arms. She repeats this pattern approximately 40 times before ceasing.
      What is the probable diagnosis for this scenario?

      Your Answer: Tonic-clonic seizure

      Correct Answer: Infantile spasms

      Explanation:

      Understanding Infantile Spasms

      Infantile spasms, also known as West syndrome, is a form of epilepsy that typically occurs in infants between 4 to 8 months old, with a higher incidence in male infants. This condition is often associated with a serious underlying condition and has a poor prognosis. The characteristic feature of infantile spasms is the salaam attacks, which involve the flexion of the head, trunk, and arms followed by the extension of the arms. These attacks last only 1-2 seconds but can be repeated up to 50 times.

      Infants with infantile spasms may also experience progressive mental handicap. To diagnose this condition, an EEG is typically performed, which shows hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants. Additionally, a CT scan may be used to identify any diffuse or localized brain disease, which is present in 70% of cases, such as tuberous sclerosis.

      Unfortunately, infantile spasms carry a poor prognosis. However, there are treatment options available. Vigabatrin is now considered the first-line therapy, and ACTH is also used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      80.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is admitted to the obstetric ward....

    Correct

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is admitted to the obstetric ward. She has been monitored for the past few weeks due to pregnancy-induced hypertension but has now developed proteinuria. Her blood pressure is 162/94 mmHg. What is the most appropriate antihypertensive to start?

      Your Answer: Labetalol

      Explanation:

      Pregnancy-induced hypertension is typically treated with Labetalol as the initial medication.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      120.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man is prescribed amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. What set of tests...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is prescribed amiodarone for atrial fibrillation. What set of tests should the GP conduct on this patient as a baseline?

      Your Answer: Liver function tests (LFTs), urea and electrolytes (U&Es), thyroid function tests (TFTs) and chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart conditions, but it can have significant side effects. Before starting treatment, it is important to establish a baseline thyroid profile, as amiodarone contains iodine that can cause hyper- or hypothyroidism. A baseline chest X-ray is also required and should be repeated annually, as amiodarone can cause toxicity in the lungs. Liver toxicity is common in those on long-term amiodarone therapy, so liver function tests should be done regularly. Respiratory complications such as pneumonitis and pulmonary fibrosis can occur, so further investigation may be needed if patients develop respiratory symptoms. Other tests such as nerve conduction studies and visual field studies are not necessary before starting amiodarone, but LFTs, U&Es, and TFTs should be done due to the potential for liver and thyroid toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      50.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with vomiting and abdominal...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the surgical assessment unit with vomiting and abdominal distension. He has been experiencing absolute constipation for the past three days and his abdomen has become increasingly distended. He also reports feeling nauseous and has been vomiting for the last day. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and takes ramipril.

      Upon examination, the patient has a soft but significantly distended abdomen that is tympanic to percussion. Loud bowel sounds are audible. His vital signs are as follows: heart rate of 87 bpm, blood pressure of 135/87 mmHg, and temperature of 36.8ºC. An abdominal x-ray reveals a 'coffee-bean' sign, indicating a sigmoid volvulus.

      What is the initial management approach for this condition?

      Your Answer: Decompression via rigid sigmoidoscopy and flatus tube insertion

      Explanation:

      Flatus tube insertion is the primary management approach for unruptured sigmoid volvulus.

      In elderly patients, sigmoid volvulus is a common condition that can be initially treated without surgery by decompressing the bowel using a flatus tube. This approach is preferred as surgery poses a higher risk in this age group. Flatus tube decompression typically leads to resolution of the volvulus without recurrence. If flatus tube decompression fails or recurrence occurs despite multiple attempts, the next step is to insert a percutaneous colostomy tube to decompress the volvulus.

      Conservative management is not appropriate for patients with absolute constipation as the volvulus can become ischemic and perforate, which is associated with a high mortality rate. Anti-muscarinic agents are used to treat pseudo-obstruction, not volvulus. There is no evidence to support the need for a Hartmann’s procedure as perforation is not a concern.

      Understanding Volvulus: A Condition of Twisted Colon

      Volvulus is a medical condition that occurs when the colon twists around its mesenteric axis, leading to a blockage in blood flow and closed loop obstruction. Sigmoid volvulus is the most common type, accounting for around 80% of cases, and is caused by the sigmoid colon twisting on the sigmoid mesocolon. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, occurs in around 20% of cases and is caused by the caecum twisting. This condition is more common in patients with developmental failure of peritoneal fixation of the proximal bowel.

      Sigmoid volvulus is often associated with chronic constipation, Chagas disease, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and psychiatric conditions like schizophrenia. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, is associated with adhesions, pregnancy, and other factors. Symptoms of volvulus include constipation, abdominal bloating, abdominal pain, and nausea/vomiting.

      Diagnosis of volvulus is usually done through an abdominal film, which shows signs of large bowel obstruction alongside the coffee bean sign for sigmoid volvulus. Small bowel obstruction may be seen in caecal volvulus. Management of sigmoid volvulus involves rigid sigmoidoscopy with rectal tube insertion, while caecal volvulus usually requires operative management, with right hemicolectomy often being necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      92.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old individual has recently undergone anterior resection for a rectal mass. The...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old individual has recently undergone anterior resection for a rectal mass. The histology report indicates that the adenocarcinoma is moderately differentiated and has invaded into the muscle, but not through the wall. One of the 13 lymph nodes examined has been found to be involved by metastatic tumour, but the high tie node is free of tumour. A liver biopsy from a suspicious lesion in the liver has shown 'no evidence of malignancy'. Can you determine the stage of this patient's cancer?

      Your Answer: Modified Dukes' C1

      Explanation:

      Dukes’ Classification for Colon Cancer

      Dukes’ classification is a system used to stage colon cancer based on the extent of tumor invasion and spread. Dukes’ A refers to tumors that are confined to the bowel wall, while Dukes’ B tumors have spread to the serosa. Dukes’ C1 tumors have spread to local nodes, but apical nodes are spared. On the other hand, Dukes’ C2 tumors involve the apical nodes, and Dukes’ D tumors have distant metastases, which carry the worst prognosis.

      It is important to understand Dukes’ classification as it helps in determining the appropriate treatment plan for patients with colon cancer. The stage of the cancer is a crucial factor in deciding the best course of action, including surgery, chemotherapy, and radiation therapy. By accurately staging the cancer, doctors can provide patients with the most effective treatment options and improve their chances of survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      149.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old girl with a history of hayfever and eczema was brought to...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl with a history of hayfever and eczema was brought to the Emergency Department, feeling unwell after being stung by a bee. The attending doctor immediately gave this girl a shot of adrenaline (epinephrine).
      Which of the following is adrenaline injected to treat?

      Your Answer: Systemic anaphylaxis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Immune Responses and Adrenaline’s Role

      When exposed to allergens from a bee sting, some individuals may experience systemic anaphylaxis, which can be life-threatening. This is due to a type I hypersensitivity reaction, which can be treated with adrenaline. However, adrenaline does not affect other immune responses, such as the cellular immune response caused by interleukin release from macrophages. Local immune complex formation, which leads to inflammation and attracts leukocytes, is not a part of an acute allergic reaction but occurs in conditions like systemic lupus erythematosus and rheumatoid arthritis. Anti-receptor antibody binding is important in conditions like myasthenia gravis and Graves’ disease, but not in acute allergic reactions. Complement activation is part of the general allergic response but is not affected by adrenaline. Understanding these different immune responses and adrenaline’s role can help in the management of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after an uncomplicated, elective lower-segment caesarean section. This is her first child and she is eager to exclusively breastfeed. Her lochia is normal and she is able to move around independently. She is scheduled to be discharged later in the day and is interested in starting contraception right away. She has previously used both the combined oral contraceptive pill and an intrauterine device, both of which worked well for her. What options should be presented to her?

      Your Answer: She cannot start any contraception if she wishes to breastfeed

      Correct Answer: Progesterone-only pill to start immediately

      Explanation:

      Women who have recently given birth, whether they are breastfeeding or not, can begin taking the progesterone-only pill at any time. However, for this patient who is only 2 days postpartum, it is recommended to prescribe the progesterone-only pill as it does not contain estrogen and is less likely to affect milk production. Additionally, it does not increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, which is a concern for postpartum women until 21-28 days after giving birth. The combined oral contraceptive pill should be avoided until 21 days postpartum due to the risk of thrombosis and reduced breast milk production. The patient cannot resume her previous contraceptives at this time. While an intrauterine device can be inserted during a caesarean section, it is advisable to wait 4-6 weeks postpartum before having it inserted vaginally. It is incorrect to tell the patient that she cannot use any contraception if she wishes to breastfeed, as the progesterone-only pill has been shown to have minimal effect on milk production in breastfeeding women.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      73.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old female patient comes in with a complaint of excessive menstrual bleeding....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female patient comes in with a complaint of excessive menstrual bleeding. She reports having to change her pads every hour due to saturation with blood. She is not experiencing any other symptoms and has no plans of having children in the immediate future. After a routine examination, what is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Intrauterine system

      Explanation:

      According to NICE CG44, when heavy menstrual bleeding is not caused by any structural or histological abnormality, the first recommended treatment is the intrauterine system, also known as Mirena.

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.

      [Insert flowchart here]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      65.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman, 3 weeks postpartum, is brought in by her sister after...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman, 3 weeks postpartum, is brought in by her sister after claiming her baby is possessed by demons. She has been experiencing insomnia and conversing with imaginary individuals. Her sister reports that she has been exhibiting extreme mood changes over the past few weeks and is worried about the safety of the baby. The patient has no significant medical or psychiatric history, and there is no family history of mental illness. What is the recommended course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Hospitalisation in the Mental Health Unit - separating mother from baby

      Correct Answer: Hospitalisation in Mother & Baby Unit

      Explanation:

      Women with postpartum psychosis require hospitalisation, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit, for close monitoring. This is a serious mental illness that should be treated as a medical emergency, and electroconvulsive therapy is not the next step in management.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      50
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 14-year-old boy with a family history of short-sightedness visits his General Practice...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy with a family history of short-sightedness visits his General Practice Clinic, reporting difficulty seeing distant objects. He is interested in the underlying pathophysiology of his condition as he is passionate about science. What is the most appropriate explanation for the pathophysiology of his myopia?

      Your Answer: Reduced axial length of the eye, meaning the focal point is anterior to the retina

      Correct Answer: Increased axial length of the eye, meaning the focal point is anterior to the retina

      Explanation:

      Understanding Refractive Errors: Causes and Effects

      Refractive errors are common vision problems that occur when the shape of the eye prevents light from focusing properly on the retina. This can result in blurry vision at various distances. Here are some common types of refractive errors and their effects:

      Myopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is increased, causing the focal point to be anterior to the retina. Myopia gives clear close vision but blurry far vision.

      Hyperopia: This occurs when the axial length of the eye is reduced, causing the focal point to be posterior to the retina. Hyperopia results in blurry close vision but clear far vision.

      Astigmatism: This occurs when the cornea has an abnormal curvature, resulting in two or more focal points that can be anterior and/or posterior to the retina. Astigmatism hinders refraction and leads to blurred vision at all distances.

      Understanding the causes and effects of refractive errors can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and improve their vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      38.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at work. He...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at work. He is brought to the Emergency Department where he is found to have superficial abrasions to the left side of chest and upper abdomen together with an obvious deformity of the left humerus. Radiograph of the left arm shows a displaced, midshaft humerus fracture. Neurovascular examination reveals radial nerve palsy together with absent peripheral pulses and a cool, clammy distal arm. He was given oral paracetamol at work while waiting for the ambulance to arrive. Pain score remains 9/10. Parameters are as follows:
      Patient Normal
      Temperature 36.8°C 36.1–37.2°C
      Pulse 115 beats/min 60–100 beats/min
      Blood pressure 145/93 mmHg <120/80 mmHg
      Oxygen saturations 99% on room air 94–98%
      Respiratory rate 24 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Which of the following is the most appropriate form of pain relief?

      Your Answer: iv morphine

      Explanation:

      Analgesic Options for Long Bone Fractures: Choosing the Right Treatment

      When it comes to managing pain in long bone fractures, the traditional analgesia ladder may not always be sufficient. While step 1 recommends non-opioid options like aspirin or paracetamol, and step 2 suggests weak opioids like codeine, a step 3 approach may be necessary for moderate to severe pain. In this case, the two most viable options are pethidine and morphine.

      While pethidine may be an option, morphine is often preferred due to its safer side-effect profile and lower risk of toxicity. IV morphine also acts quicker than SC pethidine and can be titrated more readily. However, it’s important to note that both options have depressive effects on the cardiovascular system and should not be used in shocked patients. Even in stable patients, caution is advised due to the risk of respiratory depression and dependency.

      Other options, such as NSAIDs like diclofenac, may be effective for musculoskeletal pain but are contraindicated in emergency situations where the patient must be kept nil by mouth. Similarly, inhaled options like Entonox may not be strong enough for a pain score of 9/10.

      In summary, choosing the right analgesic option for long bone fractures requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs and the potential risks and benefits of each treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      61.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - At a subfertility clinic, you are tasked with obtaining a menstrual cycle history...

    Incorrect

    • At a subfertility clinic, you are tasked with obtaining a menstrual cycle history from a 32-year-old patient to determine the appropriate day for conducting a mid-luteal progesterone level test. The patient reports having a consistent 28-day cycle. What day would you recommend for the mid-luteal progesterone level test?

      Your Answer: Day 18

      Correct Answer: Day 28

      Explanation:

      The appropriate time to test progesterone levels is on Day 28, which is 7 days before the end of a woman’s regular menstrual cycle. However, for individuals with a different cycle length, the timing may vary. It is recommended to take into account the individual’s menstrual cycle history to determine the appropriate time for testing. According to NICE guidelines, women with regular menstrual cycles should be informed that they are likely ovulating, but a mid-luteal serum progesterone level should be checked to confirm.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      36.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old man has been experiencing gradual enlargement of his hands and feet...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man has been experiencing gradual enlargement of his hands and feet for the past 4 years, resulting in the need for larger gloves and shoes. Recently, he has also noticed his voice becoming deeper. His family has observed that he snores frequently and he has been experiencing daytime sleepiness. Over the past 6 months, he has been experiencing progressive blurring of vision accompanied by headaches and dizziness. Upon examination, his visual acuity is 20/20-2 and visual field testing reveals bitemporal hemianopias. What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm a diagnosis in this man?

      Your Answer: Serum prolactin

      Correct Answer: Insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) measurement

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acromegaly: IGF-1 Measurement vs. OGTT and Other Tests

      Acromegaly, a condition caused by a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma, can be diagnosed through various tests. Previously, the OGTT with growth hormone assay was used for screening and monitoring, but it has now been replaced by the IGF-1 measurement as the first-line investigation to confirm the diagnosis.

      The insulin tolerance test, which induces hypoglycaemia and increases GH release, is not useful in confirming the presence of a GH-secreting adenoma. Random GH assay is also not helpful as normal subjects have undetectable GH levels throughout the day, making it difficult to differentiate from levels seen in acromegaly.

      While up to 20% of GH-secreting pituitary adenomas co-secrete prolactin, the prolactin level alone is not diagnostic. Therefore, the IGF-1 measurement is the preferred test for diagnosing acromegaly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which statement about hearing aids and cochlear implants is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about hearing aids and cochlear implants is false?

      Your Answer: For an aging adult hearing aid user with a progressive sensorineural hearing loss, there may come a time when their hearing aids are no longer helpful and they become a cochlear implant candidate

      Correct Answer: Hearing aids and cochlear implants function in a similar way and are essentially amplifiers of sound

      Explanation:

      Hearing Aids vs Cochlear Implants

      A hearing aid is a device that consists of a microphone, an amplifier, and an earphone. It amplifies incoming sound and delivers it to the outer ear, relying on the normal anatomical and physiological mechanisms of hearing. Recent technology has enabled some manipulation of the input sound, such as filtering out background noise. Hearing aids are helpful for people with mild to moderate hearing loss and, in some cases, moderate to severe loss.

      On the other hand, a cochlear implant is not a powerful hearing aid. It bypasses the mechanisms of the outer and middle ear and artificially recreates sound by providing direct electrical stimulation via electrodes situated in the cochlear. The external component, called a speech processor, detects sound via a microphone, extracts useful sound, and changes it into a radio frequency signal transmitted through the skin. The internal portion detects this signal and decodes it, providing stimulation to the appropriate electrode for a given frequency of sound.

      For people with severe to profound hearing loss, cochlear implants provide not only more sound but also clarity of sound. In contrast, hearing aids often only provide amplified noise and little useful sound for these individuals. Many long-term hearing aid users with progressive hearing loss or sudden worsening of hearing go on to receive a cochlear implant and receive great benefit.

      In summary, while hearing aids and cochlear implants both aim to improve hearing, they differ in their mechanisms and effectiveness for different levels of hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      33.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male has been experiencing a rash on and off for the past two years. Upon examination, it is noted that the rash is symmetrical and located on the cheeks, nose, and chin. The patient has multiple papules and pustules. What is the recommended treatment for this individual?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Oxytetracycline

      Explanation:

      Acne Rosacea Treatment with Tetracycline

      Acne rosacea is a skin condition that is characterized by the presence of redness, bumps, and pimples on the face. This condition is usually long-lasting and can be quite uncomfortable for those who suffer from it. Unlike other types of acne, acne rosacea does not typically present with blackheads or whiteheads. The distribution of the condition is usually limited to the face, particularly the cheeks, nose, and forehead.

      The most effective treatment for acne rosacea is a medication called tetracycline. This medication is an antibiotic that works by reducing inflammation and killing the bacteria that cause acne. Tetracycline is usually taken orally, and it is important to follow the prescribed dosage and duration of treatment. In addition to tetracycline, there are other medications and topical treatments that can be used to manage the symptoms of acne rosacea. However, tetracycline is often the first line of treatment due to its effectiveness and low risk of side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. After workup, including blood tests, an electrocardiogram (ECG) and a chest X-ray, a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected.
      In which situation might a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan be preferred to a computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) to confirm a diagnosis of PE?

      Your Answer: Wells PE score of 3

      Correct Answer: Renal impairment

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Imaging Test for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism: Considerations and Limitations

      When evaluating a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), choosing the appropriate imaging test can be challenging. Several factors need to be considered, including the patient’s medical history, clinical presentation, and available resources. Here are some examples of how different patient characteristics can influence the choice of imaging test:

      Renal impairment: A V/Q scan may be preferred over a CTPA in patients with renal impairment, as the latter uses radiocontrast that can be nephrotoxic.

      Abnormal chest X-ray: If the chest X-ray is abnormal, a V/Q scan may not be the best option, as it can be difficult to interpret. A CTPA would be more appropriate in this case.

      Wells PE score of 3: The Wells score alone does not dictate the choice of imaging test. A D-dimer blood test should be obtained first, and if positive, a CTPA or V/Q scan may be necessary.

      Weekend admission: Availability of imaging tests may be limited during weekends. A CTPA scan may be more feasible than a V/Q scan, as the latter requires nuclear medicine facilities that may not be available out of hours.

      History of COPD: In patients with lung abnormalities such as severe COPD, a V/Q scan may be challenging to interpret. A CTPA would be a better option in this case.

      In summary, choosing the right imaging test for suspected PE requires careful consideration of the patient’s characteristics and available resources. Consultation with a radiologist may be necessary in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 3-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 3-hour history of acute loin pain associated with haematuria and fever. He has a past medical history of hyperparathyroidism. Observations show:

      Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min
      Pulse of 110 beats/min
      Temperature of 38.9ºC
      Blood pressure of 130/90 mmHg
      Oxygen saturations of 95% on room air

      Blood results show:

      Hb 150 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Platelets 180 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 15.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Neut 14.8 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      A CT kidney, ureters and bladder (KUB) identifies hydronephrosis of the left kidney and a renal stone in the left ureter, measuring 1.6cm in diameter. The sepsis 6 pathway is initiated.

      What is the most appropriate immediate management step for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ureteroscopy with stone removal

      Correct Answer: Nephrostomy tube insertion

      Explanation:

      Nephrostomy tube insertion is the recommended management for acute upper urinary tract obstruction. This is particularly important in cases where the obstruction is caused by renal calculi and is accompanied by sepsis, as confirmed by CT KUB imaging showing hydronephrosis. The European Association of Urology advises urgent decompression to prevent further complications in such cases. Antibiotics alone are not sufficient to treat the underlying cause of sepsis, and deferred surgical intervention is not an option for urosepsis, which is a surgical emergency requiring immediate intervention. Shockwave lithotripsy is not suitable for addressing urosepsis and is only effective for small renal calculi.

      Hydronephrosis is a condition where the kidney becomes swollen due to urine buildup. There are various causes of hydronephrosis, including pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, calculi, tumors of the renal pelvis, stenosis of the urethra, urethral valve, prostatic enlargement, extensive bladder tumor, and retroperitoneal fibrosis. Unilateral hydronephrosis is caused by one of these factors, while bilateral hydronephrosis is caused by a combination of pelvic-ureteric obstruction, aberrant renal vessels, and tumors of the renal pelvis.

      To investigate hydronephrosis, ultrasound is the first-line test to identify the presence of hydronephrosis and assess the kidneys. IVU is used to assess the position of the obstruction, while antegrade or retrograde pyelography allows for treatment. If renal colic is suspected, a CT scan is used to detect the majority of stones.

      The management of hydronephrosis involves removing the obstruction and draining urine. In cases of acute upper urinary tract obstruction, a nephrostomy tube is used, while chronic upper urinary tract obstruction is treated with a ureteric stent or a pyeloplasty. The CT scan image shows a large calculus in the left ureter with accompanying hydroureter and massive hydronephrosis in the left kidney.

      Overall, hydronephrosis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old male patient complained of frequent nosebleeds and was diagnosed with iron...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male patient complained of frequent nosebleeds and was diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. During a chest x-ray, a shadow was detected over the right lung base, and a bruit was heard upon auscultation in the same area. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

      Correct Answer: Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia

      Explanation:

      Hereditary Haemorrhagic Telangiectasia

      Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia is a genetic disorder that causes bleeding from small blood vessels called telangiectasia on mucous membranes such as the nose, mouth, and gastrointestinal tract. This condition is characterised by the presence of telangiectasia on the skin, which can be seen during clinical examination. In some cases, arteriovenous malformations may also be present in the lung or brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      33.4
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  • Question 20 - The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for advice on febrile convulsions....

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 3-year-old boy contacts you for advice on febrile convulsions. Her son had his first seizure a few days ago while suffering from a viral respiratory infection. She describes it as a typical, simple febrile convulsion lasting 2-3 minutes with full recovery in about 30 minutes. The mother recalls being informed that there is a risk of recurrence, but she was not given any treatment and was discharged home. She wants to know when she should call an ambulance if it happens again.

      Your Answer: A further simple febrile convulsion within 48 hours

      Correct Answer: A further simple febrile convulsion lasting > 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Parents should be informed that if their child experiences a febrile convulsion lasting more than 5 minutes, they should call for an ambulance. While some children may have recurrent febrile convulsions, simple ones typically last up to 15 minutes and result in complete recovery within an hour. In these cases, parents can manage their child at home with clear guidance on when to seek medical help, including the use of buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam. However, if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 5 minutes, an ambulance should be called. If there is a subsequent convulsion lasting less than 5 minutes with a recovery time of 30-60 minutes, the child may be able to stay at home. However, if a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 10 or 15 minutes, an ambulance should have already been called after the initial 5 minutes.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      46.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 3-year-old child has a 24-hour history of being generally unwell with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child has a 24-hour history of being generally unwell with a barking cough. Their parent says they make a loud noise when they breathe in and their symptoms are worse at night. They have a temperature of 38.5 °C.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Whooping cough

      Correct Answer: Croup

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Child with Inspiratory Stridor and Barking Cough

      Croup is a common respiratory illness in children under 2 years old, characterized by inspiratory stridor and a barking cough. Other symptoms include hoarseness, fever, and dyspnea, which are usually worse at night. The illness can last up to 7 days, with the first 24-48 hours being the most severe.

      Asthma, on the other hand, presents differently with wheezing and chest tightness, rather than inspiratory stridor. While shortness of breath, especially at night, is a common symptom, it does not account for the fever.

      Simple viral cough is a possible differential, but the absence of other systemic symptoms makes croup more likely.

      Whooping cough is not indicated by this history.

      Bronchiolitis usually presents less acutely, with difficulty feeding and general malaise during the incubation period, followed by dyspnea and wheezing. Therefore, it is less likely to be the cause of the child’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      21.4
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  • Question 22 - An 82-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe constipation and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe constipation and abdominal pain. He has vomited five times in the last three days and has not passed air or faeces for the two.

      Upon examination, his abdomen is very distended with diffuse tenderness and tinkling bowel sounds are heard on auscultation. The patient had undergone surgery for a perforated peptic ulcer two years ago. He has a medical history of asthma and type two diabetes.

      What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the gold standard investigation for confirming it?

      Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: CT abdomen

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate diagnostic investigation for small bowel obstruction is a CT abdomen. This is because the patient is exhibiting classic symptoms such as vomiting, abdominal distention, and absolute constipation. The cause of the obstruction is likely due to adhesions from a previous surgery for peptic ulcer perforation. CT abdomen is considered the gold standard investigation as it is more sensitive than other options. Abdominal ultrasound is useful for biliary pathology, while endoscopy is rarely used in acute settings unless there is severe acute upper GI bleeding. An erect abdominal x-ray is usually the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, but it is not as sensitive as a CT abdomen.

      Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      74
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  • Question 23 - A 23-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about the effectiveness of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has done some research but is still unsure about the risk of unintended pregnancy if she were to start taking this form of birth control. Can you explain the failure rate of the combined oral contraceptive pill when used correctly, given its Pearl Index of 0.2?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: For every thousand women using this form of contraception for one year, two would become pregnant

      Explanation:

      The Pearl Index is frequently utilized to measure the effectiveness of a contraception method. It indicates the number of pregnancies that would occur if one hundred women used the contraceptive method for one year. Therefore, if the Pearl Index is 0.2 and the medication is used perfectly, we can expect to see 0.2 pregnancies for every hundred women using the pill for one year – or 2 for every thousand.

      Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview

      Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).

      Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.

      Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucous. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.

      LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucous, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.

      It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 49-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of abdominal pain, cough with purulent sputum, and shortness of breath. During abdominal palpation, splenomegaly is observed, and crackles are heard in both lung bases on auscultation. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
      Heart rate: 110/min
      Respiratory rate: 22/min
      Temperature: 38ºC
      Blood pressure: 90/65 mmHg
      Which of the following blood test results would confirm the diagnosis of Felty's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low white cell count

      Explanation:

      Felty’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of rheumatoid arthritis, splenomegaly, and a decreased white blood cell count. It is crucial to recognize this condition as patients may experience frequent and severe infections. The current patient is likely septic due to pneumonia.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that can lead to various complications beyond joint pain and inflammation. These complications can affect different parts of the body, including the respiratory system, eyes, bones, heart, and immune system. Some of the respiratory complications associated with RA include pulmonary fibrosis, pleural effusion, and bronchiolitis obliterans. Eye-related complications may include keratoconjunctivitis sicca, scleritis, and corneal ulceration. RA can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, ischaemic heart disease, infections, and depression. Less common complications may include Felty’s syndrome and amyloidosis.

      It is important to note that these complications may not affect all individuals with RA and the severity of the complications can vary. However, it is essential for individuals with RA to be aware of these potential complications and to work closely with their healthcare providers to manage their condition and prevent or address any complications that may arise. Regular check-ups and monitoring of symptoms can help detect and manage any complications early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 25 - A cohort study of 5,000 elderly patients aimed to determine whether the consumption...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study of 5,000 elderly patients aimed to determine whether the consumption of green tea has an effect on cognitive decline. Roughly half of the patients drank green tea regularly and half did not.
      What is a drawback of conducting a cohort study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: When the outcome of interest is rare a very large sample size is needed

      Explanation:

      Cohort Studies: Advantages and Disadvantages

      A cohort study is a research method that involves following a group of individuals over a period of time to determine whether exposure to a particular factor has an effect on the incidence of disease. Although they are time-consuming and expensive, cohort studies have several advantages. For instance, they can be used to study rare exposure factors and are less prone to recall bias than case-control studies. Additionally, they can measure the incidence or risk of a disease, which is useful in determining the effectiveness of interventions.

      One of the main advantages of cohort studies is that they allow researchers to study exposure factors that are rare. This is because they involve following a group of individuals over a period of time, which means that even if the exposure factor is rare, it may still be possible to observe its effects. Another advantage is that cohort studies are less susceptible to recall bias than case-control studies. This is because the exposure factor is measured before the disease occurs, which reduces the likelihood of participants misremembering their exposure.

      However, cohort studies also have some disadvantages. One of the main disadvantages is that they are time-consuming and expensive to perform. This is because they involve following a group of individuals over a period of time, which requires a significant amount of resources. Additionally, cohort studies may not be suitable for studying diseases that have a long latency period, as it may take many years for the disease to develop. Finally, cohort studies may be affected by loss to follow-up, which can reduce the validity of the results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old man visits the Urology Clinic after being referred by his GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits the Urology Clinic after being referred by his GP due to a painful genital ulcer. The patient reports that the skin lesion has evolved over time, initially presenting as pustular after he returned from South America. During the examination, you observe that the ulcer base is filled with a foul-smelling yellow discharge, and there is tender lymphadenopathy on one side upon palpation. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chancroid

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Genital Ulcer Disease: A Case of Chancroid

      A patient presents with a genital ulcer, which has developed from a papule to a painful ulcer. The lesion is diagnosed as chancroid, a sexually transmitted disease caused by Haemophilus ducreyi. Chancroid is endemic in Asia, South America, and Africa, and typically presents as a single lesion in men and multiple lesions in women. Painful unilateral lymphadenopathy may be present, which can progress to suppurative buboes.

      Other possible differential diagnoses include genital herpes, which produces multiple painful and itchy ulcers, and syphilis, which produces a single painless ulcer (chancre) at an early stage. However, due to the patient’s recent travel and the presence of pain, these are less likely diagnoses.

      Donovanosis, or granuloma inguinale, is caused by Klebsiella granulomatis and produces multiple nodules that burst into painless ulcers. Inguinal lymphadenopathy is minimal, making this an unlikely differential. Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV), caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, produces a painless ulcer at the contact site, but the patient’s ulcer is painful. In the second stage of LGV infection, painful lymphadenopathy and bubo development occur.

      In conclusion, chancroid is the most likely diagnosis for this patient’s genital ulcer, and other differential diagnoses should be considered based on clinical presentation and travel history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 27 - A patient attends the Neurology clinic following a referral from the general practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A patient attends the Neurology clinic following a referral from the general practitioner due to difficulty with eating and chewing food. A neurologist performs a cranial nerve assessment and suspects a lesion of the left-sided trigeminal nerve.
      Which of the following is a clinical feature of a trigeminal nerve palsy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bite weakness

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cranial Nerve Functions and Their Effects on Facial and Oral Muscles

      The human body is a complex system of interconnected parts, and the cranial nerves play a crucial role in ensuring that these parts function properly. In particular, the trigeminal nerve, facial nerve, and glossopharyngeal nerve are responsible for controlling various muscles in the face and mouth, as well as transmitting sensory information from these areas to the brain.

      If there is weakness in the masticatory muscles, it may be due to a problem with the motor branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve. Similarly, loss of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue may be caused by damage to the facial nerve, which carries taste fibers from this area. Paralysis of the right buccinator muscle is also linked to the facial nerve, which supplies motor fibers to the muscles of facial expression.

      Another common symptom of facial nerve palsy is the loss of control over eye blinking, which is mainly controlled by the orbicularis muscle. Finally, the glossopharyngeal nerve is responsible for supplying taste fibers to the posterior third of the tongue.

      Overall, understanding the functions of these cranial nerves is essential for identifying the location of lesions and determining which nerve is affected. By doing so, healthcare professionals can provide more accurate diagnoses and develop effective treatment plans for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 28 - A 23-year-old man who is currently living in student accommodation is brought in...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man who is currently living in student accommodation is brought in by ambulance. His flatmates returned from lectures and found him slumped over a chair with features of dizziness, headache and a reduced conscious level. He lives in student accommodation and his flatmates reveal there have had problems with the boiler but the landlord has not sorted these out. He denies any illicit drug use or relevant past medical or surgical history. The paramedics arrived and found him lying on the floor with cyanosis of his skin.

      Examination findings:

      Oxygen saturations on room air are 97%
      Blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Respiratory rate 16 breaths per minute
      Temperature 37.1 C
      Heart sounds normal without added sounds
      Chest clear without added sounds and vesicular in nature
      pH 7.35
      pO2 8.3 kPa
      pCO2 5.8 kPa
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/l

      What is the most appropriate target oxygen saturations to aim for, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

      Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide, a toxic gas, is inhaled and binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin in the body, resulting in tissue hypoxia. This leads to a left-shift of the oxygen dissociation curve, causing a decrease in oxygen saturation of haemoglobin. In the UK, there are approximately 50 deaths per year from accidental carbon monoxide poisoning.

      Symptoms of carbon monoxide toxicity include headache, nausea and vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and subjective weakness. Severe toxicity can result in pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and even death.

      To diagnose carbon monoxide poisoning, pulse oximetry may not be reliable due to similarities between oxyhaemoglobin and carboxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, a venous or arterial blood gas should be taken to measure carboxyhaemoglobin levels. Non-smokers typically have levels below 3%, while smokers have levels below 10%. Symptomatic patients have levels between 10-30%, and severe toxicity is indicated by levels above 30%. An ECG may also be useful to check for cardiac ischaemia.

      In the emergency department, patients with suspected carbon monoxide poisoning should receive 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask. This decreases the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin and should be administered as soon as possible, with treatment continuing for a minimum of six hours. Target oxygen saturations are 100%, and treatment is generally continued until all symptoms have resolved. For more severe cases, hyperbaric oxygen therapy may be considered, as it has been shown to have better long-term outcomes than standard oxygen therapy. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen therapy include loss of consciousness, neurological signs other than headache, myocardial ischaemia or arrhythmia, and pregnancy.

      Overall, understanding the pathophysiology, symptoms, and management of carbon monoxide poisoning is crucial in preventing and treating this potentially deadly condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old male law student arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male law student arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe pain in his right upper quadrant. He reports that the pain is sharp and worsens when he takes a breath. Over the past few days, he has been feeling fatigued and experiencing shortness of breath, and he has been coughing up bloody, purulent sputum. He has a fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea. He recently returned from a week-long vacation during which he consumed 20 units of alcohol per day. What is the most probable cause of his presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Upper quadrant abdominal pain can be a symptom of lower lobe pneumonia.

      Despite the patient’s complaint of abdominal pain, their other symptoms suggest that they may have pneumonia. The presence of signs of infection (such as fever, tachycardia, and tachypnea), along with shortness of breath and coughing up purulent, bloody sputum, all point towards a diagnosis of pneumonia. This question serves to emphasize that pneumonia can sometimes manifest as abdominal pain, particularly in cases of lower lobe pneumonia.

      It is important to note that hepatitis, gallstones, and pancreatitis do not typically cause shortness of breath and coughing up purulent, bloody sputum. Additionally, the patient’s history of high alcohol intake is not relevant to this question.

      Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions

      Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.

      It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old man from Ghana presents to the neurology outpatient department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man from Ghana presents to the neurology outpatient department with a one-month history of progressive weakness following a recent diarrheal illness. Upon examination, there is 4/5 power at hip flexion and knee extension, which improves to 5/5 after a brief period of exercise. Knee reflexes are absent, but facial muscles and cranial nerves are normal. Creatinine kinase levels are elevated at 420 U/L (40-320), and EMG testing shows an increment in muscle action potentials after exercise. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lambert-Eaton syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a possible diagnosis for this patient’s symptoms. It is a rare disorder that can affect both the upper and lower motor neurons, causing proximal muscle weakness. It can occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome in a small percentage of cases, but it can also be an idiopathic autoimmune disorder in younger patients. Unlike Guillain-BarrĂ© syndrome, the weakness in LES does not improve with exercise, and the EMG shows an increment in muscle action potentials after exercise. Inclusion body myositis is unlikely as it typically affects the finger flexors rather than the hip flexors and the weakness is distal rather than proximal. Myasthenia gravis is also a differential diagnosis, but the weakness in this disorder worsens with exercise, whereas in LES, it does not.

      Understanding Lambert-Eaton Syndrome

      Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neuromuscular disorder that is often associated with small cell lung cancer, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. However, it can also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. This condition is caused by an antibody that attacks the presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.

      The symptoms of Lambert-Eaton syndrome include limb-girdle weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic symptoms such as dry mouth, impotence, and difficulty micturating. Unlike myasthenia gravis, ophthalmoplegia and ptosis are not commonly observed in this condition. Although repeated muscle contractions can lead to increased muscle strength, this is only seen in 50% of patients and muscle strength will eventually decrease following prolonged muscle use.

      To diagnose Lambert-Eaton syndrome, an incremental response to repetitive electrical stimulation is observed during an electromyography (EMG) test. Treatment options include addressing the underlying cancer, immunosuppression with prednisolone and/or azathioprine, and the use of 3,4-diaminopyridine, which blocks potassium channel efflux in the nerve terminal to increase the action potential duration. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy and plasma exchange may also be beneficial.

      In summary, Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neuromuscular disorder that can be associated with cancer or occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. It is characterized by limb-girdle weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic symptoms. Treatment options include addressing the underlying cancer, immunosuppression, and the use of 3,4-diaminopyridine, intravenous immunoglobulin therapy, and plasma exchange.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (2/3) 67%
Paediatrics (0/3) 0%
Obstetrics (1/3) 33%
Surgery (1/4) 25%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Gynaecology (0/2) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Trauma (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
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