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  • Question 1 - A 16-year-old male presents with a two hour history of severe pain in...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old male presents with a two hour history of severe pain in the left testis. He is unaware of preceding trauma and feels that the pain has increased since it began. He feels nauseated and has been pyrexial.

      Whilst examining him he confesses to having a sexual relationship. On examination, he has a tender swollen left testis with a temperature of 37.5°C.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Take FBC and MSU and await results before prescribing.

      Explanation:

      Acute Testicular Pain in Young Males: Torsion as the Primary Concern

      In young males under 20 years of age who experience sudden testicular pain, it is crucial to consider torsion as the primary diagnosis. Failure to recognize this condition can lead to irreversible damage to the testes. Therefore, the most important action is to seek immediate medical attention and admission for acute urology opinion.

      Prompt treatment within six hours of symptom onset can save most testes, while delaying treatment beyond 12 hours can result in the loss of the affected testicle. Therefore, it is essential to prioritize timely diagnosis and management of testicular torsion to prevent long-term complications and preserve fertility.

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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and ascites.

    On examination, he...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and ascites.

      On examination, he is hypotensive, has an elevated JVP which rises on inspiration, (Kussmaul's sign) and has a 'knock' on auscultation of the heart.

      Past history of note includes TB which was treated with aggressive quadruple therapy some three years ago.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mitral stenosis

      Explanation:

      Paradoxical JVP Rise in Pericardial Effusion

      Pericardial effusion, which may be infective as a result of previous tuberculosis, can cause a paradoxical rise in the jugular venous pressure (JVP) during inspiration. This is in contrast to the typical fall in JVP seen with inspiration. Treatment for pericardial effusion depends on the underlying cause, with an echocardiogram being the crucial initial investigation. If the effusion is particularly large and causing haemodynamic compromise, it may need to be tapped. Additionally, re-treatment with anti-tuberculous therapy is necessary. Proper diagnosis and management of pericardial effusion are essential to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 3 - A 31-year-old woman presents to surgery with a flare-up of her ulcerative colitis.

    She...

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    • A 31-year-old woman presents to surgery with a flare-up of her ulcerative colitis.

      She was seen four days ago with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea and has returned today as her symptoms have worsened. She currently complains that over the last two days she has been passing at least eight loose stools a day all of which have be associated with the passage of fresh blood.

      On examination, her temperature is 37.4°C, pulse rate is 104 b.p.m., and blood pressure is 98/72 mmHg. Abdominal examination reveals diffuse tenderness on deep palpation but no peritonism or masses.

      Blood tests performed yesterday show a modest anaemia with a haemoglobin 109 g/L (normal range 115-135), an ESR of 23 mm/hr (normal range <15) and an albumin of 35 g/L (normal range 35-50).

      Which of the following parameters in this instance is an indication of severe colitis and should prompt consideration of hospital admission?

      Your Answer: Inflammatory marker levels

      Explanation:

      Severity of Ulcerative Colitis and Hospital Admission

      Severe flare-ups of inflammatory bowel disease require hospital admission and inpatient treatment due to potential complications such as toxic megacolon, perforation, sepsis, and severe bleeding. In the case of ulcerative colitis, disease severity can be determined using the Truelove-Witts criteria, which includes symptoms such as bowel movements more than six times a day, along with low hemoglobin levels, high ESR, elevated pulse rate, and fever.

      A patient presenting with severe symptoms such as bloody diarrhea and systemic unwellness should be admitted immediately for in-patient assessment. The tachycardia should alert the clinician to systemic upset and prompt hospital admission to initiate treatment to guard against the development of complications. Studies have shown that untreated severe ulcerative colitis had a mortality rate of almost 25%, but with the use of corticosteroids and expert surgical input, this figure has been reduced to less than 1%.

      It is important to note that approximately half of severe ulcerative colitis attacks occur as a first attack in a patient without a previous diagnosis. Moderate disease is classified as four to six stools a day (with or without blood) with minimal systemic disturbance, while mild disease is classified as less than four stools a day (with or without blood) with no systemic unwellness (no fever or tachycardia) and a normal ESR. Overall, the severity of ulcerative colitis should be carefully assessed to determine the appropriate level of care and treatment needed for the patient.

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  • Question 4 - You see a 65-year-old patient in your emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone diproprionate...

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    • You see a 65-year-old patient in your emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg two puffs twice daily for his asthma. He also uses salbutamol as and when required but says he has been needing two puffs four times a day for the past few days. Over the past two weeks he has been coughing thick green phlegm and feels more wheezy and says he is a lot shorter of breath than usual. He has been feeling feverish intermittently.

      His symptoms are not getting better despite increasing his salbutamol. On examination, his temperature is 38.1 and his oxygen saturations are 92% in air. His chest sounds wheezy and he has crackles to the right basal region. His peak flow is 300 L/min (predicted of 610 L/min). His respiration rate is 24/minute and his pulse is 110 per minute. His blood pressure is 120/59.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Trial 500 micrograms ipratropium bromide nebulizer

      Explanation:

      Hospital Admission Necessary for Patient with Asthma and Pneumonia

      There are several indicators that suggest hospital admission is necessary for this patient. Despite already taking preventative measures for his asthma with Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg, his usage of salbutamol has increased and he has a productive cough with fevers, indicating a potential bacterial infection. Additionally, his oxygen levels are low, requiring oxygen therapy and monitoring of his oxygen saturations. He is also febrile with evidence of a focal infection and tachycardic. His CRB-65 score of 2, due to his blood pressure being <60 diastolic and his age being >65, further supports the need for hospitalization. Furthermore, his peak flow is less than 50%, indicating both pneumonia and an acute asthma attack.

      While other options may be reasonable, such as adjusting his medication or providing home care, this patient requires intravenous antibiotics, oxygen therapy, and monitoring of his oxygen saturations and steroids, all of which can only be provided in a hospital setting.

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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old man presented after several days of high fever and headache, which...

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    • A 30-year-old man presented after several days of high fever and headache, which began to resolve. He presents now with jaundice on returning from a holiday in Spain. As part of a group of 20 he had visited hillside forests and went fishing in mountain streams. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for his illness?

      Your Answer: Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae

      Explanation:

      Leptospirosis, also known as Weil’s disease, is a bacterial infection that can be transmitted to humans through contact with infected animals, including rodents, skunks, foxes, cattle, and dogs. Rat urine and faeces are common sources of transmission. Due to its varied symptoms, leptospirosis can be easily missed, making thorough history taking essential for diagnosis.

      Symptoms of leptospirosis include fever, headache, myalgia, oliguria, jaundice, and enlargement of the liver and spleen. In some cases, patients may also experience haemorrhagic tendencies with purpura or petechiae. It is important to note that not all infected individuals will exhibit all of these symptoms.

      Weil’s disease is a particular concern for those who participate in water sports, as the bacteria can survive in fresh and saltwater. In the UK, there are approximately 40 cases of leptospirosis reported each year, with the majority of cases occurring between June and October. Awareness of the potential for leptospirosis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment.

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      • Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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  • Question 6 - A 22-year-old female presents with shortness of breath. She is known to suffer...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female presents with shortness of breath. She is known to suffer from asthma and her usual best PEFR is 410 L/min.

      Which of the following features would suggest that this is a severe asthma attack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: PEFR 200 L/min

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Identifying Acute Severe and Life-Threatening Asthma

      Guidelines from the British Thoracic Society suggest that certain symptoms may indicate acute severe asthma, including an inability to complete sentences, a tachycardia above 110 bpm, a respiratory rate above 25/minute, and a PEFR of 33-50% of the predicted value. It is important to note that the threshold for pulse is higher than expected at 110 bpm.

      In contrast, life-threatening asthma is characterized by more severe symptoms such as a silent chest, bradycardia, hypotension, and hypoxia. These symptoms require immediate medical attention and intervention to prevent further complications. By recognizing the signs of acute severe and life-threatening asthma, individuals can seek appropriate medical care and potentially prevent serious health consequences.

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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old medical student comes to you in January complaining of flu-like symptoms....

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    • A 25-year-old medical student comes to you in January complaining of flu-like symptoms. She has been experiencing an on-and-off fever for the past few weeks, but no other physical symptoms are present. Interestingly, she completed an elective period in India nine months ago. What is the most likely cause of her illness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vivax malaria

      Explanation:

      This case highlights the significance of obtaining a thorough travel history when diagnosing illnesses. In this scenario, the patient presented with symptoms of fever, headache, weakness, vomiting, and diarrhoea. While influenza is a common cause of winter illnesses, meningococcal meningitis and trypanosomiasis did not fit the chronology, and cryptosporidium infection typically presents with watery diarrhoea within days of infection.

      Upon further investigation, it was discovered that the patient had recently travelled to India, where malaria is prevalent. Falciparum malaria typically presents within three months of infection, but Vivax malaria can take up to a year to manifest. The symptoms of malaria include cyclical fever and chills, headache, weakness, vomiting, and diarrhoea, and patients may also present with splenomegaly.

      Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to obtain a detailed travel history when evaluating patients with symptoms of infectious diseases. This information can aid in the timely and accurate diagnosis and management of illnesses.

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  • Question 8 - You see a 65-year-old man with known peripheral vascular disease on a home...

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    • You see a 65-year-old man with known peripheral vascular disease on a home visit. He has been complaining of worsening pain in his left leg and since this morning has been in pain all the time.

      On examination his left leg appears pale and feels cold to touch. You think you can perhaps feel a peripheral pulse but are unable to count the rate.

      What should be your next action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange routine referral to vascular surgeons

      Explanation:

      Acute Limb Ischaemia: Urgent Treatment Required

      Patients experiencing acute limb ischaemia require immediate medical attention to potentially save their limb. This condition is characterized by several features, including pain, pallor, pulselessness, paraesthesia, paralysis, and perishingly cold skin. Pain is always present, and the ankle pulses are always absent. A useful rule of thumb is that if you can count the pulse, it’s there, but if not, it probably isn’t. Paraesthesia and paralysis are late, limb-threatening signs that require urgent treatment. Therefore, patients with acute limb ischaemia should be admitted as an emergency to receive potentially limb-saving treatment.

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  • Question 9 - A 62-year-old woman with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and wheezing over the past few hours. She has a history of asthma but has not been consistent with her medication. During previous consultations, her best peak flow measurements were recorded at 300 L/min. What is the identifying characteristic of acute severe asthma in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >20/min

      Explanation:

      Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma

      Questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams. To address this, the British Thoracic Society has provided clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document.

      Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of best or predicted, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. The goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain SpO2 at 94-98%.

      It is important to note that increasing symptoms is a vague description that only indicates a moderate asthma exacerbation and is not a marker of an acute severe attack. The only indicator of an acute severe asthma attack in this case is the patient’s inability to complete sentences in one breath.

      If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted.

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  • Question 10 - A 13-year-old girl is diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. She is an only child...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl is diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. She is an only child and lives at home with her mother. Her mother has a history of epilepsy treated with valproate.
      What prophylaxis should be given to the mother?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rifampicin

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Antibiotic for Epilepsy Patients

      When it comes to choosing an antibiotic for patients with epilepsy, it’s important to consider the history of epilepsy. Rifampicin is the best option in this case, although it may reduce the effectiveness of other medications like phenytoin. Ofloxacin is an alternative, but it’s not recommended for patients with epilepsy. Ciprofloxacin is generally preferred for chemoprophylaxis, but it’s contraindicated for patients with epilepsy or conditions that increase the risk of seizures. However, in patients being treated with phenytoin, the benefits may outweigh the risks. It’s crucial to carefully consider the patient’s medical history and medication regimen before selecting an appropriate antibiotic.

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