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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are contemplating prescribing sildenafil to a patient who is experiencing erectile dysfunction. He suffered a heart attack earlier this year but is not presently taking nitrates or nicorandil. What is the duration of time that NICE suggests we wait after a heart attack before prescribing a phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor?
Your Answer: 4 weeks
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.
Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.
For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male with diabetes is diagnosed with hypertension.
You discuss starting treatment and initiate ramipril at a dose of 1.25 mg daily. His recent blood test results show normal full blood count, renal function, liver function, thyroid function and fasting glucose.
His other medications are: metformin 500 mg TDS, gliclazide 80 mg OD and simvastatin 40 mg ON.
What blood test monitoring should next be performed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Repeat renal function in 7-14 days
Explanation:Renal Function Monitoring for ACE Inhibitor Treatment
Renal function monitoring is crucial before initiating treatment with an ACE inhibitor and one to two weeks after initiation or any subsequent dose increase, according to NICE recommendations. Although ACE inhibitors have a role in managing chronic kidney disease, they can also cause impairment of renal function that may be progressive. The concomitant use of NSAIDs and potassium-sparing diuretics increases the risks of renal side effects and hyperkalaemia, respectively.
In patients with bilateral renal stenosis who are given ACE inhibitors, marked renal failure can occur. Therefore, if there is a significant deterioration in renal function as a result of ACE inhibition, a specialist should be involved. It is important to monitor renal function regularly to ensure the safe and effective use of ACE inhibitors in the management of various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presented, having had an episode of right-sided weakness that lasted 10 minutes a fortnight earlier and fully resolved.
Examination reveals that he is in atrial fibrillation.
Assuming he remains in atrial fibrillation which of the following is the most appropriate management regime?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No antithrombotic treatment indicated
Explanation:Thromboprophylaxis for High Risk Stroke Patients
This patient is at high risk for future stroke and requires anticoagulation with warfarin. To assess the risk of bleeding and stroke, it is important to calculate the HASBLED and CHADS-VASc scores. The CHADS-VASc score takes into account factors such as congestive heart failure, hypertension, age, diabetes, stroke history, vascular disease, and sex. If the score is 1 or higher, oral anticoagulation should be considered. If the score is 0, no anticoagulation is needed. If the score is 1 but the only point is for female gender, it is treated as a score of 0. In this case, the patient’s CHADS-VASc score is 2, indicating a need for anticoagulation. The target range for INR is 2-3, with a target INR of 2.5.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.
Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.
What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes
This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 70-year old man with a history of heart failure. He is still exhibiting signs of fluid overload, prompting you to raise his furosemide dosage from 20 mg to 40 mg. What additional monitoring should be recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal function, serum electrolytes and blood pressure within 1-2 weeks
Explanation:Monitoring Recommendations for Loop Diuretics
To ensure the safe and effective use of loop diuretics, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends monitoring renal function, serum electrolytes, and blood pressure within 1-2 weeks after each dose increase. It is also important to check these parameters before starting treatment and after treatment initiation.
For patients with known chronic kidney disease (CKD), those aged 60 years or older, or those taking an ACE-I, ARB, or aldosterone antagonist, earlier monitoring (5-7 days) may be necessary. By closely monitoring these parameters, healthcare professionals can identify any potential adverse effects and adjust treatment accordingly to optimize patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents as he has suffered two episodes of syncope in the past three weeks and is feeling increasingly tired. On examination, his pulse is 40 bpm and his BP 100/60 mmHg. An ECG reveals he is in complete heart block.
What other finding are you most likely to find?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Variable S1
Explanation:Characteristics of Complete Heart Block
Complete heart block is a condition where there is no coordination between the atrial and ventricular contractions. This results in a variable intensity of the first heart sound, which is the closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves. The blood flow from the atria to the ventricles varies from beat to beat, leading to inconsistent intensity of the first heart sound. Additionally, cannon A waves may be observed in the neck, indicating atrial contraction against closed AV valves.
Narrow pulse pressure is not a characteristic of complete heart block. It is more commonly associated with aortic valve disease. Similarly, aortic stenosis is not typically linked with complete heart block, although it can cause reversed splitting of S2. Giant V waves are not observed in complete heart block, but they suggest tricuspid regurgitation. Reversed splitting of S2 is also not a defining feature of complete heart block, but it can be found in aortic stenosis, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, and left bundle branch block. It is important to note that murmurs may also be present in complete heart block due to concomitant valve disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The nurse practitioner approaches you with a query after the clinic. A 50-year-old patient had visited her for a regular diabetes check-up and disclosed a history of a minor stroke during a trip abroad a few years ago. The nurse observed that this information was not included in the problem list, so she updated the record with a coded diagnosis. As a result, a computer alert was triggered since the patient was not taking any antiplatelet therapy. The nurse seeks your advice on the preferred antiplatelet medication for this patient.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clopidogrel
Explanation:Clopidogrel is the top choice for antiplatelet therapy in the secondary prevention of stroke. As a second option, aspirin can be combined with modified-release dipyridamole. However, there is some discrepancy among guidelines regarding the preferred antiplatelet for transient ischaemic attack. While NICE recommends aspirin and dipyridamole due to clopidogrel lack of licensing for this indication, the Royal College of Physicians advocates for clopidogrel. It is worth noting that clopidogrel is associated with frequent gastrointestinal side effects.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The guidelines provide recommendations for the management of acute stroke, including maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage, and usually not until 14 days have passed from the onset of an ischaemic stroke. If the cholesterol is > 3.5 mmol/l, patients should be commenced on a statin.
Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. There are absolute and relative contraindications to thrombolysis, including previous intracranial haemorrhage, intracranial neoplasm, and active bleeding. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends considering thrombectomy together with intravenous thrombolysis for people last known to be well up to 24 hours previously.
Secondary prevention recommendations from NICE include the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Clopidogrel is recommended ahead of combination use of aspirin plus modified-release dipyridamole in people who have had an ischaemic stroke. Aspirin plus MR dipyridamole is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if clopidogrel is contraindicated or not tolerated. MR dipyridamole alone is recommended after an ischaemic stroke only if aspirin or clopidogrel are contraindicated or not tolerated. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man is currently on lisinopril, nifedipine and chlorthalidone for his high blood pressure. During his clinic visit, his blood pressure is measured at 142/88 mmHg and you believe that he requires a higher level of treatment. The patient's blood test results are as follows: Serum Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144), Serum Potassium 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and Creatinine 75 µmol/L (60-110). Based on the most recent NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136), what would be your next course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add spironolactone
Explanation:Understanding NICE Guidelines on Hypertension
Managing hypertension is a crucial aspect of a general practitioner’s role, and it is essential to have a good understanding of the latest NICE guidelines on hypertension (NG136). Step 4 of the guidelines recommends seeking expert advice or adding low-dose spironolactone if the blood potassium level is ≤4.5 mmol/l, and an alpha-blocker or beta-blocker if the blood potassium level is >4.5 mmol/l. If blood pressure remains uncontrolled on optimal tolerated doses of four drugs, expert advice should be sought.
It is important to note that hypertension management is a topic that may be tested in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. Therefore, it is crucial to have a good understanding of the NICE guidelines on hypertension to perform well in the exam. By following the guidelines, general practitioners can provide optimal care to their patients with hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with a history of depression and lumbar spinal stenosis presents with a swollen and painful left calf. He is seen in the DVT clinic and found to have a raised D-dimer. As a result, he undergoes a Doppler scan which reveals a proximal deep vein thrombosis. Despite being active and otherwise healthy, the patient has not had any recent surgeries or prolonged periods of immobility. He is initiated on a direct oral anticoagulant.
What is the appropriate duration of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:For provoked cases of venous thromboembolism, such as those following recent surgery, warfarin treatment is typically recommended for a duration of three months. However, for unprovoked cases, where the cause is unknown, a longer duration of six months is typically recommended.
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with Tourette's and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes presents to you with concerns about intermittent chest pain on exertion. He drinks 21 units of alcohol per week and smokes 20 cigarettes a day. His father died of a myocardial infarction at the age of 56 years. You refer him for suspected angina, provide advice on what to do if he experiences chest pain, and prescribe a GTN spray for use as needed. While prescribing the GTN spray, you notice a medication on his prescription list that he should avoid taking while being investigated for chest pain or using the GTN spray. What medication is this referring to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sildenafil
Explanation:Sildenafil, a type of PDE 5 inhibitor, should not be used together with nitrates and nicorandil due to potential risks of significant hypotension and myocardial infarction. On the other hand, there are no known interactions between nitrates and metformin, gliclazide, sitagliptin, or atorvastatin according to the BNF.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with a history of type II diabetes mellitus presents with worsening dyspnea. His ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm and an echocardiogram confirms the diagnosis of congestive heart failure with reduced left ventricular ejection fraction. Which of the following medications is most likely to decrease mortality in this patient? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Treatment Options for Congestive Heart Failure
Congestive heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper treatment to improve survival rates and alleviate symptoms. One of the recommended treatments is the use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors like Enalapril, which have been shown to reduce left ventricular afterload and prolong survival rates. This is particularly important for patients with diabetes mellitus. Antiplatelets like aspirin are only indicated for those with concurrent atherosclerotic arterial disease. Standard drugs like digoxin have not been proven to improve survival rates compared to ACE inhibitors. Diuretics like furosemide provide relief from symptoms of fluid overload but do not improve survival rates. Antiarrhythmic agents like lidocaine are only useful when there is arrhythmia associated with heart failure. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for each individual case of congestive heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A patient with a history of heart failure experiences mild physical activity limitations. While at rest, she is comfortable, but everyday tasks like walking to nearby stores cause fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea. Which New York Heart Association class accurately characterizes the extent of her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: NYHA Class II
Explanation:NYHA Classification for Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure is a condition that affects the heart’s ability to pump blood effectively. The New York Heart Association (NYHA) classification is a widely used system to categorize the severity of heart failure. The NYHA classification has four classes, each with a different level of symptoms and limitations.
NYHA Class I refers to patients who have no symptoms and no limitations in their physical activity. They can perform ordinary physical exercise without experiencing fatigue, dyspnea, or palpitations.
NYHA Class II patients have mild symptoms and slight limitations in their physical activity. They are comfortable at rest, but ordinary activity can cause fatigue, palpitations, or dyspnea.
NYHA Class III patients have moderate symptoms and marked limitations in their physical activity. They are comfortable at rest, but less than ordinary activity can result in symptoms.
NYHA Class IV patients have severe symptoms and are unable to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of heart failure are present even at rest, and any physical activity increases discomfort.
In summary, the NYHA classification is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the severity of chronic heart failure and determine appropriate treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male on long-term warfarin for atrial fibrillation visits the anticoagulation clinic. Despite maintaining a stable INR for the past 3 years on the same dose of warfarin, his INR is found to be 5.4. What is the most probable cause of this sudden change?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranberry juice
Explanation:St John’s Wort induces the P450 enzyme system, which results in a decrease in the INR instead of an increase.
Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimens and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A cardiologist has requested you to initiate oral amiodarone for a young patient who has previously been hospitalized with ventricular tachycardia. What examinations are crucial to confirm that the patient has undergone before commencing the therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TFT + LFT + U&E + chest x-ray
Explanation:Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A patient who started taking simvastatin half a year ago is experiencing muscle aches all over. What is not considered a risk factor for myopathy caused by statins?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Large fall in LDL-cholesterol
Explanation:Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 3-month history of progressive exercise intolerance. Four weeks ago, she experienced an episode suggestive of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. Examination reveals a jugular venous pressure (JVP) raised up to her earlobes, soft, tender hepatomegaly and bilateral pitting oedema up to her ankles. Chest examination reveals bibasal crepitations and an audible S3 on auscultation of the heart. The chest X-ray shows cardiomegaly with interstitial infiltrates. Echocardiography shows global left ventricular hypokinesia with an ejection fraction of 20–25%. She has no other significant medical history.
Which of the following is the most likely underlying causal factor in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant genetic trait
Explanation:Understanding Dilated Cardiomyopathy and its Causes
Dilated cardiomyopathy is a progressive disease of the heart muscle that causes stretching and dilatation of the left ventricle, resulting in contractile dysfunction. This condition can also affect the right ventricle, leading to congestive cardiac failure. While it is a heterogeneous condition with multiple causal factors, about 35% of cases are inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. Other causes include autoimmune reactions, hypertension, connective tissue disorders, metabolic causes, malignancy, neuromuscular causes, and chronic alcohol abuse. Rarely, amyloidosis and Marfan syndrome can also cause dilated cardiomyopathy. Ischaemic heart disease is not the most common cause in an otherwise healthy 30-year-old patient. While HIV infection can cause dilated cardiomyopathy, it is not a common cause, and it would be rare for this complication to be the first presentation of HIV. Understanding the various causes of dilated cardiomyopathy can help in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient presents at the local walk-in centre with central crushing chest pain. The nurse immediately calls 999 and performs an ECG which reveals ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient's blood pressure is 130/70 mmHg, pulse rate is 90 beats per minute, and oxygen saturation is 96%. What is the most suitable course of action to take while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspirin 300 mg + sublingual glyceryl trinitrate
Explanation:Assessment of Patients with Suspected Cardiac Chest Pain
Patients presenting with acute chest pain should receive immediate management for suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS), including glyceryl trinitrate and aspirin 300 mg. Oxygen should only be given if sats are less than 94%. A normal ECG doesn’t exclude ACS, so referral should be made based on the timing of chest pain and ECG results. Patients with current chest pain or chest pain in the last 12 hours with an abnormal ECG should be emergency admitted. Those with chest pain 12-72 hours ago should be referred to the hospital the same day for assessment. Chest pain more than 72 hours ago should undergo a full assessment with ECG and troponin measurement before deciding upon further action.
For patients presenting with stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain as constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, precipitated by physical exertion, and relieved by rest or GTN in about 5 minutes. Patients with all three features have typical angina, those with two have atypical angina, and those with one or none have non-anginal chest pain. If stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone, NICE recommends CT coronary angiography as the first line of investigation, followed by non-invasive functional imaging and invasive coronary angiography as second and third lines, respectively. Non-invasive functional imaging options include myocardial perfusion scintigraphy with single photon emission computed tomography, stress echocardiography, first-pass contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance perfusion, and MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old accountant presents with severe central chest pain. An ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. The patient undergoes percutaneous coronary intervention and a right coronary artery occlusion is successfully stented. Post-procedure, there are no complications and echocardiography shows an ejection fraction of 50%. The patient inquires about the impact on his driving as he relies on his car for commuting to work. What guidance should you provide regarding his ability to drive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop driving for at least 1 week, no need to inform the DVLA
Explanation:Driving can resume after hospital discharge if the patient has successfully undergone coronary angioplasty and there are no other disqualifying conditions. However, if the patient is a bus, taxi, or lorry driver, they must inform the DVLA and refrain from driving for a minimum of 6 weeks.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding calcium channel blockers is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Short-acting formulations of nifedipine should not be used for angina or hypertension
Explanation:The BNF cautions that the use of short-acting versions of nifedipine can result in significant fluctuations in blood pressure and trigger reflex tachycardia.
Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has started to experience episodes of pallor in the distal parts of the middle three digits of her hands. A feeling of pain and numbness and cyanosis follows this. Finally, the digits become red and feel warm. This first occurred around six months ago.
Which of the following features is most suggestive that these symptoms occur secondary to an underlying disorder, rather than occurring in isolation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Her age
Explanation:Characteristics of Primary Raynaud’s Phenomenon
Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition characterized by recurrent vasospasm of the fingers and toes, typically triggered by stress or cold exposure. Here are some key characteristics that can help distinguish primary Raynaud’s phenomenon from secondary disease:
Age of onset: Symptoms that develop before age 30 are more likely to be primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, while later onset may suggest an underlying autoimmune disorder.
Gender: Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is more common in females than males.
Digital ulceration: Absence of digital ulceration is more likely to indicate primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, while secondary disease is associated with more severe symptoms.
Antinuclear antibody: The presence of an antinuclear antibody may suggest an underlying condition, while its absence is more associated with primary Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Symmetry: Symmetrical involvement of digits is more indicative of primary Raynaud’s phenomenon and the absence of an underlying disorder.
By considering these characteristics, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage patients with primary Raynaud’s phenomenon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a patient with hypertension who is 65 years old. As part of the review, you assess his 10 year cardiovascular disease risk and this is significant at 32%.
This prompts discussion about the role of lipid lowering treatment in the primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. Following discussion, you both agree to start him on atorvastatin 20 mg daily. You can see his recent blood tests (FBC, U&Es, LFTs, TFTs and fasting glucose) are all normal.
In terms of follow up blood testing, which of the following should be performed after starting the atorvastatin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full blood count every three months for the first 12 months after initiation
Explanation:Monitoring Liver Function in Statin Therapy
Before starting statin therapy, it is important to measure liver function. If liver transaminases are three times the upper limit of normal, statins should not be initiated. However, if the liver enzymes are elevated but less than three times the upper limit of normal, statin therapy can still be used.
Once statin therapy is initiated, liver function tests should be repeated within the first three months of treatment and then at 12 months. Additionally, liver function tests should be measured if a dose increase is made or if signs or symptoms of liver toxicity occur.
It is crucial to monitor liver function in patients receiving statin therapy to ensure their safety and prevent potential liver damage. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of liver toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with exertional breathlessness and heart failure is suspected. She is not acutely unwell. She has a history of chronic hypertension and takes amlodipine but no other medication.
An NT-proBNP level is ordered and the result is 962 pg/mL.
What is the next best course of action in managing her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently for specialist assessment and echocardiography to be seen within 2 weeks
Explanation:Measuring NT-proBNP Levels for Heart Failure Assessment
Measuring NT-proBNP levels is a useful tool in assessing the likelihood of heart failure and determining the appropriate referral pathway. If the NT-proBNP level is greater than 2000 pg/mL, urgent specialist referral and echocardiography should be conducted within 2 weeks. For NT-proBNP levels between 400 and 2000 pg/mL, referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography should occur within 6 weeks. If the NT-proBNP level is less than 400 pg/mL, heart failure is less likely, but it is still important to consider discussing with a specialist if clinical suspicion persists. By utilizing NT-proBNP levels, healthcare professionals can effectively manage and treat patients with suspected heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old gentleman visited his GP last week and was referred for 24 hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. The results showed a daytime average of 144/82 mmHg. He is currently taking amlodipine 10 mg once a day and ramipril 10 mg once a day. What would be the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue current therapy
Explanation:ABPM vs Solitary Clinic Blood Pressure
Note the difference between a solitary clinic blood pressure and ABPM. ABPM stands for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, which is a method of measuring blood pressure over a 24-hour period. This is different from a solitary clinic blood pressure, which is taken in a medical setting at a single point in time.
For patients over the age of 80, their daytime average ABPM or average HBPM (hospital blood pressure monitoring) blood pressure should be less than 145/85 mmHg. This is according to NICE guidelines, which state that for people under 80 years old, the daytime average ABPM or average HBPM blood pressure should be lower than 135/85 mmHg.
It’s important to note that ABPM targets are different from clinic BP targets. This is because ABPM provides a more accurate and comprehensive picture of a patient’s blood pressure over a 24-hour period, rather than just a single reading in a medical setting. By using ABPM, healthcare professionals can better monitor and manage a patient’s blood pressure, especially for those over the age of 80.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to clinic for a routine check-up. He is concerned about his risk for heart disease as his father had a heart attack at the age of 50. He reports a non-smoking history, a blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg, and a body mass index of 25 kg/m.
His recent blood work reveals the following results:
- Sodium: 142 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
- Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 78 mol/L
- Total cholesterol: 6.8 mmol/L
- HDL cholesterol: 1.3 mmol/L
- LDL cholesterol: 4.5 mmol/L
- Triglycerides: 1.2 mmol/L
- Fasting glucose: 5.1 mmol/L
Based on these results, his QRISK2 score is calculated to be 3.5%. What is the most appropriate plan of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer him to a specialist lipids clinic
Explanation:The 2014 NICE lipid modification guidelines provide recommendations for familial hyperlipidaemia. Individuals with a total cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre and a family history of premature coronary heart disease should be investigated for familial hypercholesterolaemia as described in NICE clinical guideline 71. Those with a total cholesterol concentration exceeding 9.0 mmol/litre or a nonHDL cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre should receive specialist assessment, even if they do not have a first-degree family history of premature coronary heart disease.
Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines
Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to the GP clinic for a follow-up on her heart failure management. She is currently on lisinopril 20 mg and carvedilol 25 mg BD. Her main symptoms include shortness of breath on minimal exercise and occasional episodes of paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea. During the examination, her BP is 136/74, her pulse is 80 and regular. There are bibasal crackles but no other significant findings. The test results show a haemoglobin level of 128 g/L (115-165), white cells count of 7.9 ×109/L (4-11), platelets count of 201 ×109/L (150-400), sodium level of 139 mmol/L (135-146), potassium level of 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine level of 149 μmol/L (79-118), and an ejection fraction of 38% on echocardiogram. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add spironolactone to her regime
Explanation:Treatment Guidelines for Chronic Heart Failure
Chronic heart failure can be managed with a combination of medications, including beta blockers and ACE inhibitors. However, if heart failure control is not optimised on this dual therapy, NICE guidelines (NG106) recommend adding an ARB or aldosterone antagonist. For patients who cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors or ARBs, nitrate and hydralazine can be used earlier in the treatment pathway.
It is important to note that routine referral for revascularisation is not recommended in patients without symptoms of angina. Additionally, cardiac resynchronisation therapy should not be recommended until the patient’s therapy is further optimised. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can effectively manage chronic heart failure and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old female, recently diagnosed with hypertension, presents to the emergency department after collapsing. She reports feeling dizzy just before the incident and had recently begun a new medication prescribed by her GP. Her medical history includes type II diabetes mellitus, glaucoma, and diverticular disease.
Which medication is most likely responsible for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:First-dose hypotension is a potential side effect of ACE inhibitors like ramipril, which is commonly used as a first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetic patients. If a patient experiences dizziness or lightheadedness, it may be a warning sign of impending syncope.
Prochlorperazine is not indicated for any of the patient’s medical conditions and is unlikely to cause syncope. Fludrocortisone, on the other hand, can increase blood pressure and is therefore not a likely cause of syncope.
Metformin is not known to cause hypoglycemia frequently, so it is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s collapse. While beta-blockers can cause syncope, it is unlikely to occur after the application of eye drops.
ACE inhibitors are a type of medication that can have side-effects. One common side-effect is a cough, which can occur in around 15% of patients and may happen up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased levels of bradykinin. Another potential side-effect is angioedema, which may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are also possible side-effects, especially in patients taking diuretics.
There are certain cautions and contraindications to be aware of when taking ACE inhibitors. Pregnant or breastfeeding women should avoid these medications. Patients with renovascular disease may experience significant renal impairment if they have undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis. Aortic stenosis may result in hypotension, and patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at increased risk of hypotension. Individuals with hereditary or idiopathic angioedema should also avoid ACE inhibitors.
Monitoring is important when taking ACE inhibitors. Urea and electrolytes should be checked before treatment is initiated and after increasing the dose. A rise in creatinine and potassium levels may be expected after starting treatment, but acceptable changes are an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. It is important to note that different guidelines may have slightly different acceptable ranges for these changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents to her GP with breathlessness and leg swelling. She has heart failure (ejection fraction 33%), rheumatoid arthritis and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Her medications are 7.5mg bisoprolol once daily, 10 mg lisinopril once daily, 20 mg furosemide twice daily, 500mg metformin three times daily and 1g paracetamol four times daily.
During examination, she has mild bibasal crackles, heart sounds are normal and there is bilateral pedal pitting oedema. Heart rate is 72 beats per minute and regular, respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations are 94% on room air, blood pressure is 124/68 mmHg and her temperature is 36.2oC.
Bloods from an appointment two weeks previously:
Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 23 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 6.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 114 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What medication would be most appropriate to initiate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:For individuals with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction who continue to experience symptoms, it is recommended to add a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, such as spironolactone, to their current treatment plan of an ACE inhibitor (or ARB) and beta-blocker. Prior to starting or increasing the dosage of a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist, it is important to monitor serum sodium, potassium, renal function, and blood pressure. Amiodarone is not typically used as a first line treatment for heart failure and should only be prescribed in consultation with a cardiology specialist. Digoxin may be recommended if heart failure worsens or becomes severe despite initial treatment, but it is important to note that a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist should be prescribed first. Ivabradine may also be used in heart failure, but it should not be prescribed if the patient’s heart rate is below 75 and is not typically used as a first line treatment.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presented with an ulcer over the left ankle, which had developed over the previous nine months. She had a history of right deep vein thrombosis (DVT) five years previously.
On examination she had a superficial slough-based ulcer, 6 cm in diameter, over the medial malleolus with no evidence of cellulitis.
What investigation is required prior to the application of compression bandaging?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral lower limb arteriogram
Explanation:Venous Ulceration and Arterial Disease
Venous ulcerations are the most common type of ulcer affecting the lower extremities, often caused by venous insufficiency leading to venous congestion. Treatment involves controlling oedema, treating any infection, and compression, but compressive dressings or devices should not be used if arterial circulation is impaired. Therefore, it is crucial to identify any arterial disease, which can be done through the ankle-brachial pressure index. If indicated, a lower limb arteriogram may be necessary.
In cases where there is no clinical sign of infection, ruling out arterial insufficiency is more important than a bacterial swab. If there is a suspicion of deep vein thrombosis, a duplex or venogram is necessary to determine the need for anticoagulation. By identifying and addressing both venous ulceration and arterial disease, proper treatment can be administered to promote healing and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents with palpitations and feeling dizzy. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 130 beats per minute. His blood pressure is within normal limits and there are no other notable findings upon examination of his cardiorespiratory system. He has a medical history of controlled asthma (treated with salbutamol and beclomethasone) and depression (managed with citalopram). He has been experiencing these symptoms for approximately three days. What is the most suitable medication for controlling his heart rate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diltiazem
Explanation:Prescribing a beta-blocker is not recommended due to her asthma history, which is a contraindication. Instead, NICE suggests using a calcium channel blocker that limits the heart rate. Additionally, it is important to consider antithrombotic therapy.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes chest pain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pleuritic pain is sharp and localised and aggravated by coughing
Explanation:Pain and Innervation in the Diaphragm, Lungs, and Pericardium
The diaphragm is innervated by the phrenic nerve, which only supplies the central portion of the muscle. Therefore, pain originating in the outer diaphragm will not be referred to the tip of the shoulder. Additionally, the lung parenchyma and visceral pleura are insensitive to pain, meaning that any discomfort felt in these areas is likely due to surrounding structures.
Pericarditis, inflammation of the pericardium surrounding the heart, can cause chest pain. However, this pain is typically relieved by sitting forward. This is because the pericardium is attached to the diaphragm and sternum, and sitting forward can reduce pressure on these structures, alleviating the pain. Understanding the innervation and sensitivity of these structures can aid in the diagnosis and management of chest pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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