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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl is diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. She is an only child and lives at home with her mother. Her mother has a history of epilepsy treated with valproate.
What prophylaxis should be given to the mother?Your Answer: Erythromycin
Correct Answer: Rifampicin
Explanation:Choosing the Right Antibiotic for Epilepsy Patients
When it comes to choosing an antibiotic for patients with epilepsy, it’s important to consider the history of epilepsy. Rifampicin is the best option in this case, although it may reduce the effectiveness of other medications like phenytoin. Ofloxacin is an alternative, but it’s not recommended for patients with epilepsy. Ciprofloxacin is generally preferred for chemoprophylaxis, but it’s contraindicated for patients with epilepsy or conditions that increase the risk of seizures. However, in patients being treated with phenytoin, the benefits may outweigh the risks. It’s crucial to carefully consider the patient’s medical history and medication regimen before selecting an appropriate antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 2
Correct
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A 20-year-old man presents with headache and chills, accompanied by a persistent dry cough. The cough has been present for some weeks. He is off his food and feels very lethargic. Temperature is 37.8°C and he has a rash consistent with erythema multiforme.
Respiratory examination reveals scattered wheeze throughout both lung fields.
Investigations show:
Haemoglobin 119 g/L (135-180)
White cell count 10.1 ×109/L (4-10)
Platelets 189 ×109/L (150-400)
Sodium 139 mmol/L (134-143)
Potassium 4.5 mmol/L (3.5-5)
Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-120)
ESR 62 s (<10)
CXR Left lower lobe consolidation
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Mycoplasma
Explanation:Mycoplasma Infection: Diagnosis and Treatment
The symptoms of a young man with a chronic course, less severe chest signs than x-ray appearance, and erythema multiforme suggest mycoplasma infection. However, culture of mycoplasma is difficult, so diagnosis is mainly done through serology and PCR. The incubation period is around three weeks, and the infection is more common in the first two decades of life, especially in summer and autumn. Macrolides like erythromycin or clarithromycin are the primary treatment, with doxycycline as an alternative. With appropriate antibiotics, full recovery without long-term sequelae is expected. For more information on mycoplasma pneumonia, refer to the BMJ Best Practice and Clinical Features and Management articles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with severe, left, renal, angle pain. On examination he has severe, left, renal, angle tenderness, his BP is elevated at 155/90 mmHg, and his pulse is 95. He is apyrexial. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 121 g/L (135-180) White cell count 6.1 ×109/L (4-10) Platelets 201 ×109/L (150-400) Sodium 140 mmol/L (134-143) Potassium 4.9 mmol/L (3.5-5) Creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-120) Urine blood +++ Which one of the following would be your best next step?
Your Answer: Arrange an abdominal x ray
Correct Answer: Give him an injection of IM diclofenac
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from acute renal colic due to a calcium-containing renal stone. IM diclofenac is the initial step in management, along with increased fluid intake and arranging for a urology opinion. Antispasmodics should not be offered. Assess response to initial treatment and admit if no response within 1 hour. Offer urgent imaging to confirm diagnosis and assess likelihood of spontaneous stone passage. Offer NSAIDs for pain relief, and consider opioids if necessary. Do not offer antispasmodics. Provide written information on renal and ureteric stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male comes to the clinic with a deep wound on his hand caused by a terrier bite. The wound is accompanied by swelling. After receiving tetanus immunisation and wound cleaning, what would be the most suitable antibiotic regimen for this patient?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav oral
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim oral
Explanation:Prophylactic Antibiotics in Dog Bites
The use of prophylactic antibiotics in dog bites is a controversial topic. However, evidence supports their use in deep wounds, bites to the hands, and signs of infection. It is also important to consider immune compromise as an indication, along with involvement of deep structures such as joints or tendons, or in the presence of prosthetic joints.
For complicated animal bites, including those from cats or humans, co-amoxiclav is recommended as the first-line treatment. It is important to note that the treatment of animal bites, especially those on the hand, may require more than just antibiotics. Seeking the advice of a plastic surgeon for debridement or tendon repair may also be necessary. Proper treatment and care can help prevent further complications and promote healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents with complaints of feeling tired and lethargic for the past six months. She also reports experiencing generalised abdominal discomfort and constipation. Despite denying depression, her academic performance has declined this year. On examination, she appears pale and thin, with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg and no postural drop in BP. Her laboratory results show a Hb of 134 g/L (115-165), WBC of 4.8 ×109/L (4-11), Platelet of 290 ×109/L (150-400), ESR of 7 mm/hr (<10), Na of 131 mmol/L (135-144), K of 2.7 mmol/L (3.4-4.5), Urea of 3.0 mmol/L (3-7), Creat of 90 µmol/L (50-100), Bicarbonate of 35 mmol/L (20-28), Alkaline phosphatase of 90 IU/L (50-110), Bilirubin of 12 µmol/L (0-17), AST of 30 IU/L (5-40), and Albumin of 36 g/L (33-44). Her CXR is normal. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Correct Answer: Pheochromocytoma
Explanation:Diagnosis Considerations for a Patient with Anorexia Nervosa
This patient is presenting with anorexia nervosa and self-induced vomiting, which can explain the low levels of sodium, potassium, and alkalosis. It is important to note that hypoalbuminemia may not be present until later stages of the disease.
When considering other potential diagnoses, Addison’s disease can cause hyponatremia and hyperkalemic acidosis, but the patient’s clinical presentation doesn’t align with this diagnosis. Additionally, there is no postural drop in blood pressure, which is not supportive of Addison’s disease.
Cushing’s disease can cause hypokalemic alkalosis, but again, the patient’s presentation doesn’t fit with this diagnosis.
Conn’s syndrome, which is associated with adrenal adenoma, can cause hypertension and hypokalemia. However, this diagnosis is not likely in this case.
In summary, the patient’s symptoms and laboratory results are consistent with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa with self-induced vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to you urgently with a facial issue. He has been feeling unwell for a few weeks since returning from a camping trip in Hampshire. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. He initially experienced a flu-like illness with painful widespread arthralgia. He also has a rash, which has gradually increased in size and now measures approximately 5 cm in diameter on his leg. You observe a central spot surrounded by clear skin ringed by an outer erythematous area. There is local lymphadenopathy. He reports that he blacked out earlier this week. He hoped to recover from the illness, but when he developed a facial problem, he became concerned and made an appointment to see you. During the cranial nerve examination, you discover an isolated lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy. You also perform an ECG due to the loss of consciousness history, which reveals first-degree heart block. What is the underlying cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Granulomatous disease
Correct Answer: Viral infection
Explanation:Lyme Disease: A Tick-Borne Infection
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted through tick bites. The disease was first described in Lyme, Connecticut, USA, and is also prevalent in areas such as the New Forest in Hampshire, UK. Not all patients remember being bitten, so a lack of tick bite history doesn’t rule out the disease.
Symptoms of Lyme disease include lethargy, arthralgia, and cognitive impairment, as well as lymphadenopathy, myocarditis, meningitis, cranial nerve palsies, and neuropathy. The typical rash, erythema chronicum migrans, presents as a papule that develops into a large spreading annular lesion with central fading. This rash can last up to three months, and multiple lesions can develop.
This patient has developed the typical rash and acute illness with a facial nerve palsy and evidence of myocarditis on the background of a trip to an area where infection is endemic. Serological diagnosis is needed to confirm infection, and treatment is with antibiotics active against the causative bacterium. Early treatment is essential, and treatment with antibiotics doesn’t preclude later testing. A common regime is several weeks’ treatment with doxycycline, provided treatment is started early.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48 hour history of dysuria and visible blood in his urine. He also reports some frequency of urination. However, he denies fever, abdominal pain or loin pain and feels generally well. He mentions that his urine has gradually cleared and looks normal again since he first noticed the frank blood. On examination, he appears systemically well with a regular pulse rate of 76 and blood pressure of 138/76 mmHg. His abdomen and loins are unremarkable on palpation. A urine sample is obtained and dipstick testing reveals leucocytes ++ and blood+++. You prescribe antibiotics to cover a urinary tract infection. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Refer him urgently to a urologist due to the visible haematuria
Correct Answer: Send a urine sample to establish accurately the presence of a urinary infection
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Painless Visible Haematuria
Male or female patients who present with painless visible haematuria should be referred urgently for specialist assessment. However, if a patient presents with dysuria and visible haematuria, it is important to establish whether there is a urinary tract infection. If an infection is present, it can be treated appropriately, and referral for further investigation of the haematuria may not be necessary.
On the other hand, if an infection is not confirmed, urgent referral is warranted to investigate the haematuria with speed. Therefore, the next most appropriate step is to establish if a urinary tract infection is present. It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of haematuria to ensure prompt and effective treatment. Early referral and assessment can help prevent potential complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. He seldom attends asthma clinic. During previous consultations, his best peak flow measurements have been 500 L/min. What is the indication of acute severe asthma in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heart rate 105/min
Explanation:Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma
The British Thoracic Society provides clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document, as questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams.
Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. The goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain SpO2 levels between 94-98%.
It is important to note that there is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients to determine the severity of their asthma. It depends on their personal best reading or predicted peak flow reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, it is a marker of an acute severe attack.
For example, a peak flow rate of 400 L/min in a patient with a personal best of 500 L/min equates to 80% of their best and would not be considered a marker of an acute severe attack. However, a pulse of 115 would be considered a marker of acute severe asthma because the threshold is 110/min or greater.
If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening shortness of breath and wheezing over the past few hours. She has a history of asthma but has not been consistent with her medication. During previous consultations, her best peak flow measurements were recorded at 300 L/min. What is the identifying characteristic of acute severe asthma in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >20/min
Explanation:Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma
Questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams. To address this, the British Thoracic Society has provided clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document.
Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of best or predicted, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. The goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain SpO2 at 94-98%.
It is important to note that increasing symptoms is a vague description that only indicates a moderate asthma exacerbation and is not a marker of an acute severe attack. The only indicator of an acute severe asthma attack in this case is the patient’s inability to complete sentences in one breath.
If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 75-year old woman with diabetes and end stage renal failure is visited for a home visit. She is receiving at-home dialysis through a Tenckhoff catheter. She has been feeling increasingly unwell for the past 24 hours, experiencing vomiting and abdominal pain. She had a normal bowel movement this morning.
During the examination, she appears to be dehydrated with a blood pressure of 96/68 mmHg and a pulse rate of 108. Her temperature is 38.1℃. She experiences diffuse abdominal pain and general tenderness throughout the abdomen upon superficial palpation.
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aluminium toxicity
Explanation:Peritonitis in a Patient with Tenckhoff Catheter
This patient has a Tenckhoff catheter in-situ for peritoneal dialysis, which puts them at risk of peritonitis, most commonly caused by Staphylococci. Symptoms such as pyrexia, low BP, tachycardia, and diffuse abdominal pain make peritonitis the most likely answer. Cloudy dialysis fluid is also a common sign of peritonitis.
Aluminium toxicity is now rare due to the removal of aluminium from dialysate, which has reduced the incidence of dialysis dementia. Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome is a phenomenon that occurs with haemodialysis, not peritoneal dialysis, and is characterised by symptoms such as disorientation, headache, blurred vision, nausea, and seizures.
Hernias and exit site infections can develop at the site of the Tenckhoff catheter, but they would not typically cause systemic unwellness such as pyrexia and diffuse abdominal pain. Bowel obstruction can occur secondary to a hernia, but peritonitis is a much more likely answer in this case. Exit site infections are characterised by localised erythema and sometimes pus exudation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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