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  • Question 1 - A 72-year-old man visits the Practice Nurse for his international normalised ratio (INR)...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits the Practice Nurse for his international normalised ratio (INR) test. He is anticoagulated for atrial fibrillation and his INR has historically been unstable (recommended range 2–3). His last INR, 14 days ago, was 2.5. He is taking 4 mg of warfarin daily. The point-of-care INR reads 5.8. He has no active bleeding.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Reduce warfarin dose to 3 mg daily and repeat in seven days

      Correct Answer: Withhold warfarin for 48 hours, then restart at 4 mg daily

      Explanation:

      Managing High INR Levels in Patients on Warfarin: Choosing the Right Course of Action

      When a patient on warfarin presents with a high international normalised ratio (INR), prompt management is crucial to prevent haemorrhage. The appropriate course of action depends on the severity of the INR elevation and whether the patient is bleeding.

      If the patient has no active bleeding and their INR is between 5-8, warfarin should be withheld for 24-48 hours and restarted at a reduced dose. The INR should be rechecked 2-3 days later, and the cause investigated.

      If the patient is bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous vitamin K administered. It can be restarted once the INR is below 5.

      For an INR greater than 8 in a patient with no bleeding, the correct management is to stop warfarin, give vitamin K orally, and repeat the INR in 24 hours.

      Dose reduction alone is not sufficient for an INR greater than 5, and warfarin should also be withheld for 1-2 days, with rechecking sooner (3-4 days).

      While a confirmatory laboratory sample may be reasonable, it should not delay action being taken. Point-of-care testing is comparable in accuracy to laboratory samples, and management should reflect this.

      In summary, managing high INR levels in patients on warfarin requires careful consideration of the severity of the INR elevation and whether the patient is bleeding. Prompt action and appropriate monitoring can prevent haemorrhage and ensure optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a red and sticky...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of a red and sticky right eye that started yesterday. She mentions experiencing mild discomfort but is generally feeling fine. Upon examination, you observe swollen conjunctiva with redness in the eyelid and yellow-green discharge. Her visual acuity is normal. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking paracetamol, codeine, methotrexate, and folic acid. You suspect that she has bacterial conjunctivitis.

      Which of the following topical eye drops should be avoided in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol

      Explanation:

      Patients who are taking bone marrow suppression drugs, particularly methotrexate, should not use chloramphenicol eye drops.

      Chloramphenicol is the appropriate choice, as it can exacerbate the effects of methotrexate on bone marrow suppression.

      Cefuroxime, ciprofloxacin, gentamicin, and levofloxacin are not associated with bone marrow suppression.

      Aplastic anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells due to a poorly functioning bone marrow. It is most commonly seen in individuals around the age of 30 and is marked by a reduction in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets. While lymphocytes may be relatively spared, the overall effect is a condition known as pancytopenia. In some cases, aplastic anaemia may be the first sign of acute lymphoblastic or myeloid leukaemia. A small number of patients may later develop paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria or myelodysplasia.

      The causes of aplastic anaemia can be idiopathic, meaning that they are unknown, or they can be linked to congenital conditions such as Fanconi anaemia or dyskeratosis congenita. Certain drugs, such as cytotoxics, chloramphenicol, sulphonamides, phenytoin, and gold, as well as toxins like benzene, can also cause aplastic anaemia. Infections such as parvovirus and hepatitis, as well as exposure to radiation, can also contribute to the development of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 3 - John, a 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean man visited his GP complaining of various symptoms. He...

    Correct

    • John, a 35-year-old Afro-Caribbean man visited his GP complaining of various symptoms. He reported feeling feverish, fatigued, and experiencing unintentional weight loss of around 2kg. He also mentioned having muscle aches and pains. John was not taking any medication.

      Upon examination, all of John's observations were normal.

      The GP ordered a full blood count, and the results were as follows:

      - Hb 110 g/L Male: (130 - 180)
      - Platelets 160 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 4.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Lymphocytes 3.0 * 109/L (1.0 - 4.5)
      - Mean corpuscular volume 92 fL (76 - 98)
      - Mean corpuscular haemoglobin 31 pg (27 - 32)

      Ferritin 40 ng/mL (20 - 230)

      The GP suspected that John may have systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and ordered further blood tests.

      What test, if positive, would provide the best indication that John likely has SLE?

      Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA

      Explanation:

      The sensitivity of ANA is high, making it a valuable test for ruling out SLE, but its specificity is low. Anti-histone antibodies are typically utilized as an indicator for drug-induced SLE. ESR is not a serum antibody and is not employed for diagnosing or ruling out SLE.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 4 - A 51-year-old man who is a non-smoker has routine blood tests as part...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old man who is a non-smoker has routine blood tests as part of a 'well man' check. His full blood count comes back with a haematocrit of 0.59 (Normal: 0.35-0.55) and a haemoglobin level of 182 g/l (Normal: 135-175 g/l).
      Which of the following is the most likely complication of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Myelofibrosis

      Correct Answer: Stroke

      Explanation:

      Understanding Polycythemia Rubra Vera: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Polycythemia rubra vera is a rare blood disorder that causes the body to produce too many red blood cells. A person with this condition may experience generalized pruritus, splenomegaly, thrombocytosis, and neutrophil leukocytosis. To confirm the diagnosis, a blood test for a specific mutation (JAK2) present in more than 95% of people with polycythemia vera is necessary.

      Without treatment, the life expectancy of a person with polycythemia rubra vera is only 6-18 months. This is due to the high risk of thrombosis, which can lead to ischaemic stroke and myocardial infarction. Venous and arterial thrombosis can also cause other complications such as pulmonary emboli, renal failure, intestinal ischaemia, and peripheral arterial emboli. Bleeding is also a common complication, usually resulting from vascular occlusion due to thrombosis or hyperviscosity. Acute leukaemia, myelofibrosis, and peptic ulcer disease are also possible complications.

      However, with treatment to maintain a normal haematocrit, the life expectancy of a person with polycythemia rubra vera can increase to an average of 20 years. While this is still reduced compared to the general population, it is a significant improvement. It is important for individuals with this condition to receive proper medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 5 - A 9-year-old girl develops widespread purpuric spots and is presented to the General...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl develops widespread purpuric spots and is presented to the General Practitioner by her parents. She has recently been unwell with a sore throat, which resolved without antibiotics. She is otherwise well but is found to have a platelet count of 20 × 109/l (normal range 150–400 × 109/l). The rest of her full blood count is normal, as is her erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Monitor symptoms and avoid contact sports

      Explanation:

      Management of Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura in Children

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a self-limiting disorder that commonly occurs in children following an infection or immunization. Treatment is based on clinical symptoms rather than platelet count alone. In children with severe thrombocytopenia, who are often asymptomatic, avoiding antiplatelets and non-contact sports and reporting any change in symptoms urgently is recommended. Splenectomy is rarely indicated and only used in life-threatening bleeding or severe symptoms present for 12-24 months. High-dose dexamethasone is a second-line treatment used when first-line treatments, such as prednisolone, have failed. Platelet transfusions are rarely used in emergency management. Prednisolone is the first-line management if significant symptoms or a clinical need to raise the platelet count are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up on his hereditary haemochromatosis...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up on his hereditary haemochromatosis treatment, which involves venesection every two weeks. The GP seeks to evaluate the efficacy of the treatment.

      What tests would be most beneficial in determining its effectiveness?

      Your Answer: Ferritin and transferrin saturation

      Explanation:

      Ferritin levels greater than 500 ug/L in women indicate iron overload in the blood, as ferritin is the main protein responsible for storing iron within cells. Transferrin saturation, which measures the amount of iron bound to transferrin (the primary iron transporter in the blood), also correlates with iron overload and can be used to assess the effectiveness of venesection.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Investigation and Management

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that causes iron accumulation in the body due to mutations in the HFE gene. The best investigation to screen for haemochromatosis is still a topic of debate. For the general population, transferrin saturation is considered the most useful marker, while genetic testing for HFE mutation is recommended for testing family members. Diagnostic tests include molecular genetic testing for the C282Y and H63D mutations and liver biopsy using Perl’s stain.

      A typical iron study profile in patients with haemochromatosis includes high transferrin saturation levels, raised ferritin and iron, and low TIBC. The first-line treatment for haemochromatosis is venesection, which involves removing blood from the body to reduce iron levels. Transferrin saturation should be kept below 50%, and the serum ferritin concentration should be below 50 ug/l to monitor the adequacy of venesection. If venesection is not effective, desferrioxamine may be used as a second-line treatment. Joint x-rays may also show chondrocalcinosis, which is a characteristic feature of haemochromatosis.

      It is important to note that there are rare cases of families with classic features of genetic haemochromatosis but no mutation in the HFE gene. As HFE gene analysis becomes less expensive, guidelines for investigating and managing haemochromatosis may change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 7 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of haemolysis in a...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of haemolysis in a patient with G6PD deficiency?

      Your Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - What advice would you give to the travel companion of a patient who...

    Incorrect

    • What advice would you give to the travel companion of a patient who has been diagnosed and treated for malaria?

      Your Answer: Full adherence to malaria prophylaxis provides complete protection

      Correct Answer: Travellers visiting friends and family are more at risk of malaria than tourists

      Explanation:

      Malaria Risk and Prevention

      Travellers visiting friends and family are at a higher risk of contracting malaria compared to tourists due to their likelihood of visiting rural areas. To accurately diagnose malaria, repeat blood films should be taken after 12-24 hours and again at 24 hours. The gold standard for diagnosis is the thick and thin blood films, while the antigen test is less sensitive. It is important to note that even with full adherence to prophylaxis, it is still possible to develop malaria. While most cases of P.falciparum present within 6 months of exposure, infection with other species can present months or even years after exposure due to reactivation of the dormant liver stage. By taking preventative measures and seeking prompt medical attention, the risk of contracting and spreading malaria can be greatly reduced.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 9 - What is the correct statement about megaloblastic anaemia from the given list? ...

    Correct

    • What is the correct statement about megaloblastic anaemia from the given list?

      Your Answer: Folic acid alone should not be given if vitamin B12 deficiency has not been ruled out

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Importance of Vitamin B12 in Megaloblastic Anemia Treatment

      Megaloblastic anemia is a condition characterized by the presence of abnormally large red blood cells. It is commonly caused by deficiencies in vitamin B12 and/or folic acid. However, it is important to note that folic acid deficiency alone is rare in developed countries and a diagnosis should be made with consideration of other nutrient deficiencies.

      When treating megaloblastic anemia, it is crucial to rule out vitamin B12 deficiency before starting folic acid therapy. This is because folic acid can improve anemia but not the neurological complications of vitamin B12 deficiency, which can worsen if left untreated. Both vitamin B12 and folic acid should be given if B12 deficiency has not been ruled out or if treatment with B12 has already been initiated.

      It is also important to note that the neurological and hematological complications of megaloblastic anemia can present independently of each other. Some patients may present with neurological impairment without anemia and vice versa.

      Treatment with vitamin B12 can stop the progression of the condition and improve neurological deficits in most patients. However, the response to treatment may vary depending on the severity of the deficiency and the time elapsed between the onset of symptoms and initiation of therapy. Treatment with folic acid, on the other hand, is usually slow and may take weeks or months to show clinical improvement.

      When using hydroxocobalamin to treat megaloblastic anemia, the dosage and frequency of injections will depend on the presence of neurological involvement. For pernicious anemia and other macrocytic anemias without neurological involvement, the initial dose is 1 mg three times a week for two weeks, followed by 1 mg every 2-3 months. For those with neurological involvement, the initial dose is 1 mg on alternate days until no further improvement, then 1 mg every two months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old man with sickle cell anaemia complains of fatigue, paleness, and a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man with sickle cell anaemia complains of fatigue, paleness, and a headache. Laboratory findings reveal a haemoglobin level of 66 g/L and a reticulocyte count of 0.8%. The patient is suspected to have contracted parvovirus.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aplastic crisis

      Explanation:

      An aplastic crisis, often caused by parvovirus infection, is characterized by a sudden decrease in haemoglobin levels without a corresponding increase in reticulocytes.

      Understanding Sickle-Cell Crises

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a condition that is characterized by periods of good health with intervening crises. There are different types of crises that are recognized, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crisis, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are usually triggered by infection, dehydration, or deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically, and infarcts can occur in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, causing pooling of blood and worsening of the anaemia. Acute chest syndrome is another type of crisis that is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, leading to infarction in the lung parenchyma. This can result in dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management of acute chest syndrome includes pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus, leading to a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression causes a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and are characterized by a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. Understanding the different types of sickle-cell crises is important for effective management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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Haematology (6/10) 60%
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