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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic for a medication review. He has been prescribed clopidogrel after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack during an overnight hospital stay. Which medication from his repeat prescription is expected to decrease the efficacy of clopidogrel?
Your Answer: Ranitidine
Correct Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Using clopidogrel and omeprazole/esomeprazole at the same time can decrease the effectiveness of clopidogrel.
Research has demonstrated that taking clopidogrel and omeprazole simultaneously can lead to a decrease in exposure to the active metabolite of clopidogrel. This interaction is considered moderate in severity according to the BNF, and the manufacturer recommends avoiding concurrent use. The same holds true for esomeprazole.
There is no evidence to suggest that any of the other medications listed have an impact on the effectiveness of clopidogrel.
Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease
Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.
Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is admitted with ST elevation myocardial infarction and treated with thrombolysis but no angioplasty. What guidance should he receive regarding driving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cannot drive for 4 weeks
Explanation:DVLA guidance following a heart attack – refrain from driving for a period of 4 weeks.
DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving
The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, if the individual has Group 2 Entitlement, they will be disqualified from driving if their resting blood pressure consistently measures 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more.
Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must wait four weeks before driving. If an individual experiences angina symptoms at rest or while driving, they must cease driving altogether. Pacemaker insertion requires a one-week break from driving, while implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) implantation results in a six-month driving ban if implanted for sustained ventricular arrhythmia. If implanted prophylactically, the individual must cease driving for one month, and Group 2 drivers are permanently barred from driving with an ICD.
Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires a two-day break from driving, while an aortic aneurysm of 6 cm or more must be reported to the DVLA. Licensing will be permitted subject to annual review, but an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Finally, individuals who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits your GP practice, who is typically healthy. He had come to see you a few weeks ago with a viral infection, during which you recorded his clinic blood pressure as 168/105 mmHg. You have since arranged for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM), blood tests, urine dip, an ECG, and are now reviewing the results with him.
The ABPM average shows his blood pressure to be 157/100 mmHg. You have also conducted blood tests to check his plasma glucose, electrolytes, creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, serum total cholesterol, and HDL cholesterol. His renal function and glucose levels are normal, and a urine dip for protein and ECG are also normal. Upon checking the back of his eyes, you find that the fundi are normal. His QRisk is calculated to be 28%.
You discuss potential treatment options with the patient. What should be included in your management plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:As a primary prevention measure for cardiovascular disease, it is recommended to discuss and suggest statin therapy to the patient. The target for clinic blood pressure should be less than 140/90 mmHg and less than 135/85 mmHg for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. To achieve this, amlodipine and lifestyle advice should be offered along with atorvastatin.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman is brought to the clinic by her family members. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and low energy levels for the past 6 weeks. Upon conducting an ECG, it is revealed that she has atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 114 / min. Her blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg and a chest x-ray shows no abnormalities. What medication should be prescribed to manage her heart rate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:When it comes to rate control in atrial fibrillation, beta blockers are now the preferred option over digoxin. This is an important point to remember, especially for exams. The patient’s shortness of breath may be related to her heart rate and not necessarily a sign of heart failure, as her chest x-ray was normal. For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man comes to the clinic four weeks after being released from the hospital. He was admitted due to chest pain and was given thrombolytic therapy for a heart attack. Today, he experienced significant swelling of his tongue and face. Which medication is the most probable cause of this reaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Drug-induced angioedema is most frequently caused by ACE inhibitors.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male on long-term warfarin for atrial fibrillation visits the anticoagulation clinic. Despite maintaining a stable INR for the past 3 years on the same dose of warfarin, his INR is found to be 5.4. What is the most probable cause of this sudden change?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cranberry juice
Explanation:St John’s Wort induces the P450 enzyme system, which results in a decrease in the INR instead of an increase.
Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects
Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.
Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimens and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.
Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man is diagnosed with chronic stable angina at his Cardiology Clinic appointment. He has normal left ventricular function on echocardiogram. He presents to his General Practitioner to discuss treatment options. He has no significant medical history or regular medication but is an ex-smoker who quit 20 years ago. On examination, his blood pressure is 120/76 mmHg and his heart rate is 70 bpm.
Which of the following medications is the single most appropriate first therapy for symptom control?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Chronic Angina Pectoris
Beta-blockers are the primary pharmacological treatment for chronic angina pectoris. They are effective in reducing the frequency and duration of anginal episodes, improving exercise tolerance, and preventing some arrhythmias. Beta-blockers work by inhibiting the effects of catecholamines on the beta-adrenergic receptor, which reduces heart rate and improves coronary perfusion. Simvastatin and angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are important for secondary prevention in patients with atherosclerosis, but they do not control angina symptoms. Long-acting nitrates and rate-limiting calcium channel blockers are used for symptom control if beta-blockers are contraindicated or ineffective. However, they are typically added later in treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old-man visits his General Practitioner complaining of syncope without any prodromal features. He has noticed increased dyspnea on exertion in the past few weeks. He denies any chest pain and has no known history of cardiac issues. Upon examination, an electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed which reveals complete heart block.
Which of the following physical findings is most indicative of the diagnosis?
Select ONE answer only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Irregular cannon ‘A’ waves on jugular venous pressure
Explanation:Understanding the Clinical Signs of Complete Heart Block
Complete heart block is a condition where there is a complete failure of conduction through the atrioventricular node, resulting in bradycardia and potential symptoms such as dizziness, fatigue, dyspnea, and chest pain. Here are some clinical signs to look out for when assessing a patient with complete heart block:
Irregular Cannon ‘A’ Waves on Jugular Venous Pressure: Cannon waves are large A waves that occur irregularly when the right atrium contracts against a closed tricuspid valve. In complete heart block, these waves occur randomly due to atrioventricular dissociation.
Low-Volume Pulse: Complete heart block doesn’t necessarily create a low-volume pulse. This is typically found in other conditions such as shock, left ventricular dysfunction, or mitral stenosis.
Irregularly Irregular Pulse: The ‘escape rhythms’ in third-degree heart block usually produce a slow, regular pulse that doesn’t vary with exercise. Unless found in combination with another condition such as atrial fibrillation, the pulse should be regular.
Collapsing Pulse: A collapsing pulse is typically associated with aortic regurgitation and would not be expected with complete heart block alone.
Loud Second Heart Sound: In complete heart block, the intensity of the first and second heart sound varies due to the loss of atrioventricular synchrony. A consistently loud second heart sound may be found in conditions such as pulmonary hypertension.
By understanding these clinical signs, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and manage patients with complete heart block.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to clinic for a routine check-up. He is concerned about his risk for heart disease as his father had a heart attack at the age of 50. He reports a non-smoking history, a blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg, and a body mass index of 25 kg/m.
His recent blood work reveals the following results:
- Sodium: 142 mmol/L
- Potassium: 3.8 mmol/L
- Urea: 5.2 mmol/L
- Creatinine: 78 mol/L
- Total cholesterol: 6.8 mmol/L
- HDL cholesterol: 1.3 mmol/L
- LDL cholesterol: 4.5 mmol/L
- Triglycerides: 1.2 mmol/L
- Fasting glucose: 5.1 mmol/L
Based on these results, his QRISK2 score is calculated to be 3.5%. What is the most appropriate plan of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer him to a specialist lipids clinic
Explanation:The 2014 NICE lipid modification guidelines provide recommendations for familial hyperlipidaemia. Individuals with a total cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre and a family history of premature coronary heart disease should be investigated for familial hypercholesterolaemia as described in NICE clinical guideline 71. Those with a total cholesterol concentration exceeding 9.0 mmol/litre or a nonHDL cholesterol concentration above 7.5 mmol/litre should receive specialist assessment, even if they do not have a first-degree family history of premature coronary heart disease.
Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines
Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 38 year old, asymptomatic man is incidentally found to have a clinic blood pressure reading of 148/92 mmHg. His GP requests ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) to confirm a diagnosis of hypertension. The average ABPM is found to be 144/90 mmHg. He has no significant past medical history and takes no regular medication. Urine dip is negative. His BMI is 35 kg/m². Appropriate further management in this case would be to:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to secondary care
Explanation:For individuals under the age of 40 who have stage 1 hypertension and no signs of target organ damage, NICE suggests referring them to rule out secondary causes of hypertension. It is recommended to conduct a thorough evaluation of potential target organ damage in this age group as risk assessments may not accurately predict the lifetime risk of cardiovascular events.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman has weight loss and heat intolerance.
Investigations:
Free T4 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.50)
Free T3 11.1 pmol/L (3.5-6.5)
She is taking medication for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and type 2 diabetes.
Which drug is most likely to be responsible for these results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Amiodarone and Thyroid Function
Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, it can also cause abnormalities in thyroid function tests. This can result in both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism. Hypothyroidism may occur due to interference with the conversion of thyroxine (T4) to tri-iodothyronine (T3). On the other hand, hyperthyroidism may be caused by thyroiditis or the donation of iodine, as amiodarone contains a large amount of iodine.
Aside from thyroid issues, amiodarone can also lead to other side effects such as pulmonary fibrosis and photosensitivity reactions. It is important to monitor thyroid function tests regularly when taking amiodarone and to report any symptoms of thyroid dysfunction to a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman has a 2-year history of right-sided throbbing headache that comes and goes, accompanied by nausea and sensitivity to light. She often experiences visual disturbances before the headache starts. Despite trying various over-the-counter pain relievers, she has found little relief. Her doctor has prescribed an oral medication to be taken at the onset of the headache, with the option of taking another tablet after 2 hours if needed. What is a typical adverse effect of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tightness of the throat and chest
Explanation:Triptans are prescribed for migraines with aura and should be taken as soon as possible after the onset of the headache. A second dose can be taken if needed, with a minimum interval of 2 hours between doses. However, triptans may cause tightness in the throat and chest.
Understanding Triptans for Migraine Treatment
Triptans are a type of medication used to treat migraines. They work by activating specific receptors in the brain called 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D. Triptans are usually the first choice for acute migraine treatment and are often used in combination with other pain relievers like NSAIDs or paracetamol.
It is important to take triptans as soon as possible after the onset of a migraine headache, rather than waiting for the aura to begin. Triptans are available in different forms, including oral tablets, orodispersible tablets, nasal sprays, and subcutaneous injections.
While triptans are generally safe and effective, they can cause some side effects. Some people may experience what is known as triptan sensations, which can include tingling, heat, tightness in the throat or chest, heaviness, or pressure.
Triptans are not suitable for everyone. People with a history of or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease should not take triptans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female comes to her GP complaining of feeling tired and experiencing episodes of dizziness. During the examination, the GP observes an absent pulse in the patient's left radial artery. The following blood test results are obtained:
- Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l
- Potassium (K+): 4.1 mmol/l
- Urea: 2.3 mmol/l
- Creatinine: 77 µmol/l
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 66 mm/hr
Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Takayasu's arteritis
Explanation:Takayasu’s arteritis is a type of vasculitis that affects the large blood vessels, often leading to blockages in the aorta. This condition is more commonly seen in young women and Asian individuals. Symptoms may include malaise, headaches, unequal blood pressure in the arms, carotid bruits, absent or weak peripheral pulses, and claudication in the limbs during physical activity. Aortic regurgitation may also occur in around 20% of cases. Renal artery stenosis is a common association with this condition. To diagnose Takayasu’s arteritis, vascular imaging of the arterial tree is necessary, which can be done through magnetic resonance angiography or CT angiography. Treatment typically involves the use of steroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a 75-year-old woman.
You saw her several weeks ago with a clinical diagnosis of heart failure and a high brain natriuretic peptide level. You referred her for echocardiography and cardiology assessment. Following the referral she now has a diagnosis of 'Heart failure with reduced ejection fraction'.
Providing there are no contraindications, which of the following combinations of medication should be used as first line treatment in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitor and beta blocker
Explanation:Treatment for Heart Failure with Left Ventricular Systolic Dysfunction
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors and beta-blockers are recommended for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction, regardless of their NYHA functional class. The 2003 NICE guidance suggests starting with ACE inhibitors and then adding beta-blockers, but the 2010 update recommends using clinical judgement to determine which drug to start first. For example, a beta-blocker may be more appropriate for a patient with angina or tachycardia. However, combination treatment with an ACE inhibitor and beta-blocker is the preferred first-line treatment for patients with heart failure due to left ventricular dysfunction. It is important to start drug treatment in a stepwise manner and to ensure the patient’s condition is stable before initiating therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man with ischaemic heart disease experiences chest pain while climbing stairs. He uses his sublingual glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray. What is the most likely side-effect profile of taking the GTN spray?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypotension + tachycardia + headache
Explanation:Understanding Nitrates and Their Effects on the Body
Nitrates are a type of medication that can cause blood vessels to widen, which is known as vasodilation. They are commonly used to manage angina and treat heart failure. One of the most frequently prescribed nitrates is sublingual glyceryl trinitrate, which is used to relieve angina attacks in patients with ischaemic heart disease.
The mechanism of action for nitrates involves the release of nitric oxide in smooth muscle, which activates guanylate cyclase. This enzyme then converts GTP to cGMP, leading to a decrease in intracellular calcium levels. In the case of angina, nitrates dilate the coronary arteries and reduce venous return, which decreases left ventricular work and reduces myocardial oxygen demand.
However, nitrates can also cause side effects such as hypotension, tachycardia, headaches, and flushing. Additionally, many patients who take nitrates develop tolerance over time, which can reduce their effectiveness. To combat this, the British National Formulary recommends that patients who develop tolerance take the second dose of isosorbide mononitrate after 8 hours instead of 12 hours. This allows blood-nitrate levels to fall for 4 hours and maintains effectiveness. It’s important to note that this effect is not seen in patients who take modified release isosorbide mononitrate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You receive blood test results for a patient who has been taking atorvastatin 10 mg for secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. The patient's lipid profile before starting the medication was as follows: cholesterol 6.2 mmol/L, triglycerides 1.8 mmol/L, HDL cholesterol 1.2 mmol/L, LDL cholesterol 4.5 mmol/L, non HDL cholesterol 5.0 mmol/L, and total cholesterol/HDL ratio 5.2 mmol/L. The liver profile was also normal. After three months of treatment, the lipid profile results are as follows: cholesterol 4.8 mmol/L, triglycerides 1.5 mmol/L, HDL cholesterol 1.5 mmol/L, LDL cholesterol 2.8 mmol/L, non HDL cholesterol 3.3 mmol/L, and total cholesterol/HDL ratio 3.2 mmol/L. What is your recommended course of action based on these results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consider increasing the dose of atorvastatin
Explanation:It is important to verify the patient’s adherence to the medication and ensure that they are taking it at the appropriate time (in the evening). Additionally, lifestyle advice should be revisited. Upon further examination of the case, it may be determined that a dose titration is not necessary, but it should be taken into consideration.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has started to experience episodes of pallor in the distal parts of the middle three digits of her hands. A feeling of pain and numbness and cyanosis follows this. Finally, the digits become red and feel warm. This first occurred around six months ago.
Which of the following features is most suggestive that these symptoms occur secondary to an underlying disorder, rather than occurring in isolation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Her age
Explanation:Characteristics of Primary Raynaud’s Phenomenon
Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition characterized by recurrent vasospasm of the fingers and toes, typically triggered by stress or cold exposure. Here are some key characteristics that can help distinguish primary Raynaud’s phenomenon from secondary disease:
Age of onset: Symptoms that develop before age 30 are more likely to be primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, while later onset may suggest an underlying autoimmune disorder.
Gender: Primary Raynaud’s phenomenon is more common in females than males.
Digital ulceration: Absence of digital ulceration is more likely to indicate primary Raynaud’s phenomenon, while secondary disease is associated with more severe symptoms.
Antinuclear antibody: The presence of an antinuclear antibody may suggest an underlying condition, while its absence is more associated with primary Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Symmetry: Symmetrical involvement of digits is more indicative of primary Raynaud’s phenomenon and the absence of an underlying disorder.
By considering these characteristics, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage patients with primary Raynaud’s phenomenon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man collapses in the hospital during a nurse-led hypertension clinic. He is unresponsive and has no pulse in his carotid artery. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30:02:00
Explanation:The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken in the event of a cardiac arrest. Patients are divided into those with ‘shockable’ rhythms (ventricular fibrillation/pulseless ventricular tachycardia) and ‘non-shockable’ rhythms (asystole/pulseless-electrical activity). Key points include the ratio of chest compressions to ventilation (30:2), continuing chest compressions while a defibrillator is charged, and delivering drugs via IV access or the intraosseous route. Adrenaline and amiodarone are recommended for non-shockable rhythms and VF/pulseless VT, respectively. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Following successful resuscitation, oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98%. The ‘Hs’ and ‘Ts’ outline reversible causes of cardiac arrest, including hypoxia, hypovolaemia, and thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 22 year old man is being investigated by a cardiologist for prolonged QT-syndrome. He visits your clinic with a 4 day history of cough with thick, green sputum, fever, and fatigue. During examination, his temperature is found to be 39ºC, oxygen saturation is 96% on air, and crackles are heard at the base of his left lung. Which medication should be avoided in treating his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:The normal corrected QT interval for males is below 430 ms and for females it is below 450 ms. Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a rare condition that can be inherited or acquired, causing delayed repolarisation of the ventricles and increasing the risk of ventricular tachyarrhythmias. This can result in syncope, cardiac arrest, or sudden death. LQTS can be detected incidentally on an ECG, after a cardiac event such as syncope or cardiac arrest, or following the sudden death of a family member.
Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.
There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.
Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 38-year-old woman is 20 weeks pregnant with her first child. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath in recent weeks and has started coughing up pink frothy sputum, particularly when lying down. She reports no chest pain. Blood tests reveal no anemia, but upon listening to her chest, you detect a mid-diastolic heart murmur at the apex. Her chest exam is otherwise normal, and her resting pulse is 90 bpm SR with O2 sats at 96%. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Mitral Stenosis: Symptoms and Findings
Mitral stenosis is a condition where patients experience dyspnoea and pulmonary oedema due to increased left atrial pressure. This is more common in younger patients and can be exacerbated by situations of increased blood volume, such as during pregnancy. As a result, a previously asymptomatic patient may present to their GP during pregnancy.
Typical findings in mitral stenosis include a small pulse that may be irregularly irregular. Jugular venous pressure is only raised if there is heart failure, right ventricular hypertrophy, tapping apex beat, loud S1, loud P2 if pulmonary hypertension, opening snap, mid-diastolic murmur heard at the apex only, or presystolic accentuation murmur if no atrial fibrillation.
In summary, patients with mitral stenosis may experience dyspnoea and pulmonary oedema, and typical findings include a small pulse and irregularly irregular heartbeat. Jugular venous pressure may only be raised in certain situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old caucasian man presents to his GP with the results of 7 days of home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) he was advised to complete following a random clinic blood pressure of 144/92 mmHg. His HBPM is 138/88 mmHg. Baseline investigations show no evidence of end-organ damage. He is a current smoker. His QRISK3 score is calculated to be 11.2%. He has no known medication allergies. Lifestyle and smoking cessation advice is provided. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atorvastatin and ramipril
Explanation:The current prescription of Atorvastatin alone is not sufficient for this patient. In addition to lipid-lowering therapy, he should also be offered an antihypertensive agent. However, it is important to note that due to his age and ethnicity, he should first be offered an ACE and/or angiotensin-II receptor antagonist. If he doesn’t have type 2 diabetes and is aged 55 years or over, or if he is of black African or African-Caribbean family origin and doesn’t have type 2 diabetes (of any age), calcium-channel blockers may be considered as the first-line antihypertensive agent. It is not appropriate to suggest that no treatment is required.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What are the primary indications for administering alpha blockers?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertension + benign prostatic hyperplasia
Explanation:Understanding Alpha Blockers
Alpha blockers are medications that are commonly prescribed for the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia and hypertension. These drugs work by blocking the alpha-adrenergic receptors in the body, which can help to relax the smooth muscles in the prostate gland and blood vessels, leading to improved urine flow and lower blood pressure. Some examples of alpha blockers include doxazosin and tamsulosin.
While alpha blockers can be effective in managing these conditions, they can also cause side effects. Some of the most common side effects of alpha blockers include postural hypotension, drowsiness, dyspnea, and cough. Patients who are taking alpha blockers should be aware of these potential side effects and should speak with their healthcare provider if they experience any symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents for review. He has been recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure. Currently, he takes digoxin 0.25 mg daily, furosemide 40 mg daily and amiloride 5 mg daily.
Routine laboratory studies are normal except for a blood urea of 8 mmol/l (2.5-7.5) and a serum creatinine of 110 μmol/L (60-110).
One month later, the patient continues to have dyspnoea and orthopnoea and has noted a 4 kg reduction in weight. His pulse rate is 96 per minute, blood pressure is 132/78 mmHg. Physical examination is unchanged except for reduced crackles, JVP is no longer visible and there is no ankle oedema.
Repeat investigations show:
Urea 10.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-110)
Sodium 135 mmol/L (137-144)
Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
Digoxin concentration within therapeutic range.
What would be the next most appropriate change to make to his medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add lisinopril 2.5 mg daily
Explanation:The Importance of ACE Inhibitors in Heart Failure Treatment
Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are crucial drugs in the treatment of heart failure. They offer a survival advantage and are the primary treatment for heart failure, unless contraindicated. These drugs work by reducing peripheral vascular resistance through the blockage of the angiotensin converting enzyme. This action decreases myocardial oxygen consumption, improving cardiac output and moderating left ventricular and vascular hypertrophy.
ACE inhibitors are particularly effective in treating congestive heart failure (CHF) caused by systolic dysfunction. However, first dose hypotension may occur, especially if the patient is already on diuretics. These drugs are also beneficial in protecting renal function, especially in cases of significant proteinuria. An increase of 20% in serum creatinine levels is not uncommon and is not a reason to discontinue the medication.
It is important to note that potassium levels can be affected by ACE inhibitors, and this patient is already taking several drugs that can alter potassium levels. The introduction of an ACE inhibitor may increase potassium levels, which would need to be monitored carefully. If potassium levels become too high, the amiloride may need to be stopped or substituted with a higher dose of furosemide. Overall, ACE inhibitors play a crucial role in the treatment of heart failure and should be carefully monitored to ensure their effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You assess a 52-year-old patient with hypertension who has been taking 2.5mg of ramipril for a month. He reports experiencing a persistent tickly cough that is causing him to lose sleep at night. Despite this, his blood pressure is now under control.
What recommendations would you provide to him?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the ramipril and prescribe candesartan
Explanation:When patients are unable to tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the common side effect of a dry, persistent cough, angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs) should be considered as an alternative. For individuals under the age of 55 who experience intolerance to ACE inhibitors, prescribing medications such as candesartan, an ARB, may be the next appropriate step.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with chronic heart failure due to ischaemic heart disease complains of knee pain. An x-ray has revealed osteoarthritis. What medication should be avoided if feasible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral ibuprofen
Explanation:Patients with heart failure should exercise caution when using NSAIDs as they may lead to fluid retention, making oral NSAIDs like ibuprofen unsuitable.
Medications to Avoid in Patients with Heart Failure
Patients with heart failure need to be cautious when taking certain medications as they may exacerbate their condition. Thiazolidinediones, such as pioglitazone, are contraindicated as they cause fluid retention. Verapamil should also be avoided due to its negative inotropic effect. NSAIDs and glucocorticoids should be used with caution as they can also cause fluid retention. However, low-dose aspirin is an exception as many patients with heart failure also have coexistent cardiovascular disease and the benefits of taking aspirin outweigh the risks. Class I antiarrhythmics, such as flecainide, should also be avoided as they have a negative inotropic and proarrhythmic effect. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these medications and their potential effects on patients with heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease is experiencing erectile dysfunction. The decision is made to try sildenafil therapy. Is there any existing medication that can be continued without requiring adjustments?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nateglinide
Explanation:The BNF advises against using alpha-blockers within 4 hours of taking sildenafil.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Mr. Johnson is brought into the clinic by his son, Mark, who is concerned about his father's uncontrolled blood pressure (BP). Mr. Johnson has mild vascular dementia and Mark understands the importance of managing cardiovascular risk factors in this condition.
They have brought some home BP readings which are consistently around 155/85 mmHg. You review Mr. Johnson's medication list and see that he is prescribed ramipril 10 mg and indapamide 2.5mg. He had previously experienced ankle swelling with amlodipine, so it was discontinued. You consider the possibility of non-compliance, but Mark assures you that he reminds his father to take his medications every day.
You measure Mr. Johnson's BP in both arms and find it to be 160/90 mmHg. A standing BP is lower, at 138/80 mmHg, and Mr. Johnson reports no symptoms of dizziness or fainting. His pulse is 84 and regular. You review his recent blood tests and note that his potassium level is 3.7mmol/L.
What is the appropriate treatment for Mr. Johnson's hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do not increase antihypertensive medication
Explanation:Based on the patient’s significant postural drop in blood pressure or symptoms of postural hypotension, treatment should be determined by their standing blood pressure. Therefore, no further increase in antihypertensive medication is necessary for this patient. However, if it were indicated, a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker may be a suitable option as it is less likely to cause ankle swelling than amlodipine. Additionally, spironolactone may be considered. It is important to note that standing blood pressure should be checked in patients with resistant hypertension. Lastly, increasing the dose of ramipril is not recommended as the patient is already taking the maximum dose.
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of calcium channel blockers or thiazide-like diuretics in addition to ACE inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers.
Lifestyle changes are also important in managing hypertension. Patients should aim for a low salt diet, reduce caffeine intake, stop smoking, drink less alcohol, eat a balanced diet rich in fruits and vegetables, exercise more, and lose weight.
Treatment for hypertension depends on the patient’s blood pressure classification. For stage 1 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 135/85 mmHg or higher, treatment is recommended for patients under 80 years old with target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For stage 2 hypertension with ABPM/HBPM readings of 150/95 mmHg or higher, drug treatment is recommended regardless of age.
The first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old or with a background of type 2 diabetes mellitus is an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker. Calcium channel blockers are recommended for patients over 55 years old or of black African or African-Caribbean origin. If a patient is already taking an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic can be added.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled with the optimal or maximum tolerated doses of four drugs, NICE recommends seeking expert advice or adding a fourth drug. Blood pressure targets vary depending on age, with a target of 140/90 mmHg for patients under 80 years old and 150/90 mmHg for patients over 80 years old. Direct renin inhibitors, such as Aliskiren, may be used in patients who are intolerant of other antihypertensive drugs, but their role is currently limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his hypertension. Despite being on atenolol, amlodipine, and ramipril, his blood pressure consistently reads above 170/100 mmHg. During examination, he was found to have grade II hypertensive retinopathy. His test results show sodium levels at 144 mmol/L (137-144), potassium at 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea at 5.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine at 100 mol/L (60-110), glucose at 7.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and HbA1c at 53 mmol/mol (20-46) or 7% (3.8-6.4). Additionally, his ECG revealed left ventricular hypertrophy. What potential diagnosis should be considered as a cause of his resistant hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Primary Hyperaldosteronism
This patient is experiencing resistant hypertension and has a low potassium concentration despite being on an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi), which should have increased their potassium levels. These symptoms are highly suggestive of primary hyperaldosteronism, which can be caused by either an adrenal adenoma (Conn syndrome) or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.
To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, doctors typically look for an elevated aldosterone:renin ratio, which is usually above 1000. This condition can be challenging to diagnose, but it is essential to do so as it can lead to severe complications if left untreated. By identifying the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms, doctors can develop an effective treatment plan to manage their hypertension and potassium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up appointment 6 weeks after undergoing catheter ablation due to unresponsive atrial fibrillation despite antiarrhythmic treatment. He has a medical history of asthma, which he manages with a salbutamol reliever and beclomethasone preventer inhaler, and type II diabetes, which he controls through his diet. The patient is currently receiving anticoagulation therapy in accordance with guidelines. There are no other significant medical histories.
What should be the next course of action in his management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue anticoagulation long-term
Explanation:Patients who have undergone catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation still need to continue long-term anticoagulation based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score. In the case of this patient, who has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 due to age and past medical history of diabetes, it is appropriate to continue anticoagulation.
Amiodarone is typically used for rhythm control of atrial fibrillation, but it is not indicated in this patient who has undergone catheter ablation and has no obvious recurrence of AF.
Beta-blockers and diltiazem are used for rate control of atrial fibrillation, but medication for AF is not indicated in this patient.
Anticoagulation can be stopped after 4 weeks post catheter ablation only if the CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood pressure readings of 155/95 mmHg, 160/100 mmHg, and 164/85 mmHg.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Essential hypertension
Explanation:Understanding Hypertension
Ninety five percent of patients diagnosed with hypertension have essential or primary hypertension, while the remaining five percent have secondary hypertension. Essential hypertension is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, resulting in high blood pressure. On the other hand, secondary hypertension is caused by a specific abnormality in one of the organs or systems of the body.
It is important to understand the type of hypertension a patient has in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan. While essential hypertension may be managed through lifestyle changes and medication, secondary hypertension requires addressing the underlying cause. Regular blood pressure monitoring and consultation with a healthcare professional can help manage hypertension and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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