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Question 1
Incorrect
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A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married for two years and has yet to conceive. The following are the findings of blood tests: Luteinizing hormone levels are low. Low levels of follicle stimulating hormone. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low. Prolactin-high. What is the most effective way to deal with infertility?
Your Answer: Clomiphene citrate
Correct Answer: Bromocriptine
Explanation:The most common treatment approach is with the dopamine receptor agonists, bromocriptine, and cabergoline. Bromocriptine normalizes prolactin and decreases tumour size in 80%–90% of patients with microadenomas. Bromocriptine should be given to this patient who has developed hyperprolactinemia anovulation.
Women with hyperprolactinaemic anovulation are treated with dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine.
This patient has also developed symptoms of a low-functioning pituitary gland tumour, which bromocriptine will assist to shrink. Before starting bromocriptine, a head MRI scan should be considered to confirm the suspected diagnosis.Clomiphene is an oestrogen receptor modulator that is selective. It works by competing with oestrogen receptors in the hypothalamus. This disrupts normal negative feedback mechanisms, causing the release of pituitary gonadotropins, particularly LH, to rise, triggering ovulation.
When the levels of gonadotropins and oestrogen are normal but the women still have ovulatory dysfunction, it is successful in inducing ovulation. In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism patients, clomiphene is frequently ineffective. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which increases the risk for developing endometrial cancer?
Your Answer: Early menopause before the age of 45
Correct Answer: Early menarche
Explanation:Endometrioid endometrial carcinoma is oestrogen-responsive, and the main risk factor for this disease is long-term exposure to excess endogenous or exogenous oestrogen without adequate opposition by a progestin.
Early age at menarche is a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma in some studies; late menopause is less consistently associated with an increased risk of the disease. Both of these factors result in prolonged oestrogen stimulation and at times of the reproductive years during which anovulatory cycles are common
Other risk factors include
obesity,
nulliparity,
diabetes mellitus, and
hypertension.The risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma with oestrogen therapy can be significantly reduced by the concomitant administration of a progestin. In general, combined oestrogen-progestin preparations do not increase the risk of endometrial hyperplasia.
Endometrial carcinoma usually occurs in postmenopausal women (mean age at diagnosis is 62 years). Women under age 50 who develop endometrial cancer often have risk factors such as obesity or chronic anovulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.
Explanation:Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Regarding monozygotic twins, all of the following are correct, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a constant incidence 1:600 births
Explanation:The incidence of monozygotic twins is constant worldwide (approximately 4 per 1000 births). Approximately two thirds of twins are dizygotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Regarding oogenesis & ovulation:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The 1st meiotic division is arrested in the diplotene stage until just before ovulation
Explanation:The oocyte (eggs, ova, ovum) is arrested at an early stage of the first meiosis (first meiotic) division as a primary oocyte (primordial follicle) within the ovary. Following puberty, during each menstrual cycle, pituitary gonadotrophin stimulates completion of meiosis 1 the day before ovulation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cell Biology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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At the 18th week of her pregnancy, a 32-year-old woman presents with a fishy-smelling, thin, white homogeneous, and offensive vaginal discharge. Under light microscopy, a sample of the discharge contains clue cells. Which of the following assertions about this condition is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is a relapse rate of over 50% in 6 months
Explanation:Reported cure rates for an episode of acute BV vary but have been estimated to be between 70% and 80%. Unfortunately, more than 50% of BV cases will recur at least once within the following 12 months. Because the aetiology of BV is still not entirely understood, identifying the cause of recurrent cases is challenging. Reinfection may play a role in explaining recurrent BV, but
treatment failure is a more likely contributor. There are several theories that try to explain recurrence and persistent symptoms. The existence of a biofilm in the vagina is one such theory and is the subject of ongoing research. Biofilms occur when microorganisms adhere to surfaces. G vaginalis, one of the primary organismsBV is not a sexually transmitted infection. The antibiotic of choice to treat BV is Metronidazole. Reassurance is not acceptable as a means of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is the typical volume increase of a non-pregnant uterus to term uterus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 10ml to 5000ml
Explanation:Uterine blood flow increases 40-fold to approximately 700 mL/min at term. The uterus is 50–60 g with a volume of approximately 10ml prior to pregnancy and 1000 – 1200 g with a volume of 5000ml by term.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What percentage of pregnant women have asymptomatic vaginal colonisation with candida?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 40%
Explanation:90% of genital candida infections are the result of Candida albicans. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She admits she stopped her COCP treatment 18 months ago. Her blood exams reveal the following: FSH=8, LH=7, Prolactin=400, Oestradiol=500. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhea
Explanation:Functional Hypothalamic Amenorrhea (FHA) is a form of chronic anovulation, due to non-identifiable organic causes and often associated with stress, weight loss, excessive exercise, or a combination thereof. Investigations should include assessment of systemic and endocrinologic aetiologies, as FHA is a diagnosis of exclusion. A multidisciplinary treatment approach is necessary, including medical, dietary, and mental health support. Medical complications include, among others, bone density loss and infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A patient is seen in the gynaecology outpatient clinic and is noted to have large volume genital warts perianally and near the urethral meatus. You discuss treatment options and the patient opts for LASER therapy. Which of the following is the most appropriate type of LASER to use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CO2
Explanation:Vulval intraepithelial neoplasia is a premalignant condition which is associated with HPV or lichen sclerosis. Biopsy is essential for diagnosis. Treatment depends of the patients choice and include surgical excision of the area or laser therapy with CO2. Other treatment modalities include immunomodulating creams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Biophysics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the following best describes the mechanism of action of Promethazine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Histamine H1-receptor antagonist
Explanation:Promethazine is type of antihistamine that acts on the H1 receptor. In pregnancy NICE guidelines advise oral promethazine or oral cyclizine should be used as 1st line drug management of nausea and vomiting. Both are H1 antagonists.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of feeling unwell. Her last menstrual period was eight weeks ago. Normally, she has regular monthly periods. She reports that she had heavy vaginal bleeding on the previous day; the bleeding had reduced today. On examination, she appears unwell, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min, BP is 110/60 mmHg, and temperature is 39.5°C Suprapubic tenderness and guarding is noted on abdominal examination. There is no evidence of a pelvic mass. Speculum examination shows that the cervix is open and apparent products of conception are present in the upper vagina. From the following, choose the most appropriate treatment option for optimal management of this patient.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cervical swabs for microscopic assessment and culture.
Explanation:This woman has experienced a septic abortion. Therefore the first step is commencement of intensive antibiotic treatment as soon as cervical swabs have been taken.
The next step is evacuation of the uterus. Curettage can be performed after a few hours, to extract any remaining infected products of conception from the uterine cavity.
The choice of antibiotics depends on the most likely microorganism involved. Therefore, prior to commencing any other procedure, it is vital to take cervical swabs for microscopic examination to guide further antibiotic therapy (correct answer).
If curettage is performed immediately there is a risk that the infection would spread.
However, if Clostridium welchii infection is suspected from the cervical smear (particularly if encapsulation of the microorganisms is present), then curettage should be performed immediately along with commencing antibiotic treatment.
Curettage can be delayed for up to 12-24 hours if other microorganisms are suspected; unless a significant increase in bleeding occurs.
Ergometrine is not essential as an immediate treatment measure as the patient is not bleeding heavily and reports that her bleeding has decreased. However, ergometrine is commonly given when curettage is performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Regarding the Pituitary gland which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is surrounded by the sella turcica
Explanation:The Sella turcica is composed of three parts:
1. The tuberculum sellae (horn of saddle): a variable slight to prominent median elevation forming the posterior
boundary of the prechiasmatic sulcus and the anterior boundary of the hypophysial fossa.
2. The hypophysial fossa (pituitary fossa): a median depression (seat of saddle) in the body of the sphenoid that accommodates the pituitary gland (L. hypophysis).
3. The dorsum sellae (back of saddle): a square plate of bone projecting superiorly from the body of the sphenoid.
It forms the posterior boundary of the Sella turcica, and its prominent superolateral angles make up the posterior clinoid processes. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady with a 4-year history of hypertension is planning to conceive. She has never been pregnant before and has stopped using contraception recently. She has a past medical history of asthma and the only medication she is on is ramipril 10 mg daily. On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/85 mm/Hg. From the following which is the most appropriate initial management of her hypertension?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cease ramipril and start methyldopa
Explanation:In the given case pre-pregnancy counselling and management of chronic hypertension is very much essential.
Some commonly prescribed antihypertensive drugs like ACE inhibitors, angiotensin receptor antagonists, diuretics and most beta blockers are contraindicated or is best to be avoided before conception and during pregnancy.
Methyldopa is considered as the first line drug for the management of mild to moderate hypertension in pregnancy and is the most commonly prescribed antihypertensive for this indication.
Hydralazine can be used during any hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy.
Intake of Angiotensin receptor blockers and ACE inhibitors during the first trimester can lead to complications as they are both teratogenic; use of these drugs during second and third trimesters can result in foetal renal dysfunction, oligohydramnios and skull hypoplasia.
Diuretics can cause foetal electrolyte disturbances and significant reduction in maternal blood volume.
All beta blockers, except labetalol, can result in foetal bradycardia, and growth restriction in case its long-term use.
Calcium channel antagonists, except nifedipine, are avoided during pregnancy due to its high risk for maternal hypotension and foetal hypoxia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old lady comes into your office complaining of post-coital bleeding. Each sexual activity results in 5-6 mL of blood. She had never had a cervical cancer screening. Ultrasound of the abdomen and pelvis is normal. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do a Cervical Screening test as well liquid base cytology
Explanation:Postcoital bleeding refers to spotting or bleeding unrelated to menstruation that occurs during or after sexual intercourse. It can be a sign of serious underlying pathology and is usually alarming for patients. About one-third of patients also have abnormal uterine bleeding that is not associated with coitus and about 15 percent have dyspareunia. The most serious cause of postcoital bleeding is cervical cancer. About 11 percent of women with cervical cancer present with postcoital bleeding. The patient should undergo cervical cancer screening according to local guidelines. Postcoital bleeding is not an indication for cervical cytology if previous screening tests are up-to-date and normal.
Cervical screening and liquid based cytology are superior to transvaginal ultrasound.
Coagulation profile can be done if cytology is normal to rule out bleeding diathesis.
Tranexamic acid can be considered once malignancy is ruled out and cause of bleeding has been established.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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In normal pregnancy, levels of all of the following hormones increases, EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) in the 2nd & 3rd trimesters
Explanation:In order to maintain fetal bone growth, the maternal compartment undergoes adjustments that provide a net transfer of sufficient calcium to the foetus. Maternal compartment changes that permit calcium accumulation include increases in maternal dietary intake, increases in maternal 1, 25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 levels, and increases in parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels. The levels of total calcium and phosphorus decline in maternal serum, but ionized calcium levels remain unchanged. During pregnancy, the placenta forms a calcium pump in which a gradient of calcium and phosphorus is established which favours the foetus. Thus, circulating fetal calcium and phosphorus levels increase steadily throughout gestation. Furthermore, fetal levels of total and ionized calcium, as well as phosphorus, exceed maternal levels at term. By 10-12 weeks’ gestation, the fetal parathyroid glands secrete PTH. Fetal plasma levels of PTH are low during gestation, but increase after delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A patient has returned to your clinic. She presented with painful periods 18 months earlier and laparoscopy confirmed endometriosis. She now gets pain on opening her bowels as well as low back pain. What structure is likely to be involved?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uterosacral ligament
Explanation:Lower abdominal pain during menstrual periods and lower back or leg pain are associated with endometriosis in the uterosacral ligaments. Endometriosis can cause diarrhoea and IBS type symptoms. Note Endometriosis on the uterosacral ligament can cause tender nodules to form. These can be palpated during pelvic exam. Tender nodules are specific to endometriosis of the uterosacral ligament so if the question mentions feeling a tender nodule during PV exam think endometriosis of the Uterosacral ligaments!
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital malformations of the uterus
Explanation:Anomalies of the cervico-uterus are widely diagnosed by HSG. The diagnostic value of HSG in the detection of anomalies varies, depending on the type of malformation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding Management of Beta Thalassaemia in Pregnancy is not part of the RCOG guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Folic acid 5 mg daily should be commenced 12 months prior to conception
Explanation:Women with Beta-Thalassaemia require significant extra input during pregnancy. Folic acid 5 mg daily should be commenced 3 months prior to conception in these patients. NOTE Women with thalassaemia who have undergone splenectomy OR have a platelet count >600 should continue or be commenced on Aspirin (75 mg/day)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia with incidence rates in the UK approximately 30 per 100,000 The majority of patients are postmenopausal women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady is diagnosed with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) of the cervix after standard pap smear testing. She was referred to a gynaecologist, who effectively treated her. This patient has now been returned to you. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colposcopy and cervical cytology at 4 to 6 months
Explanation:Monitoring after treatment for HSIL includes:
– colposcopy and cervical cytology at 4 to 6 months followed by HPV typing at 12 months and annually until a negative test is obtained on 2 subsequent check ups.
-2 yearly screening interval can be done afterwards. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old obese woman presents to your office for advice regarding pregnancy. Her body mass index is 40, and she is normotensive and has a normal serum glucose level. On examination she was tested positive for glucose in urine. What would be your advice to her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She will be checked for pre-existing diabetes in early pregnancy and, for gestational diabetes at 26 weeks
Explanation:Counselling her about the risks associated with obesity during pregnancy will be the best possible advice to give this patient. A combined follow up by an obstetrician and a diabetes specialist at a high-risk pregnancy clinic is required to formulate the best ways in management of gestation with obesity.
An oral glucose tolerance test should be done at 26 weeks of her pregnancy, along with advising her on controlling her weight by diet and lifestyle modifications. During the early weeks of their pregnancy all obese patients must be routinely tested for pre-existing diabetes.It is highly inappropriate to advice her not to get pregnant.
Without making a proper diagnosis of diabetes, it is wrong to ask her to start oral hypoglycemic agent and/or insulin.
Checking urinary proteins is not indicated at this stage, but can be considered as a part of antenatal check up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following tests is used to detect antibodies or complement bound to red blood cell antigens in vivo?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct Coombs
Explanation:When the red cells are coated with immune IgG antibody, the cells do not agglutinate but when anti-IgG antiserum is added to these sensitized cells visible agglutination occurs. This is known as a positive direct coombs test.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dating ultrasound along with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97 percent
Explanation:Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.
The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old third-generation Australian woman presents with intermittent lower abdominal pain. An abdominal ultrasound was performed and showed a probable malignancy involving the left ovary. The report suggests that the ovarian lesion may represent a metastatic disease. Which one of the following is the most appropriate investigation that will likely show the site of the primary tumour?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy.
Explanation:This woman presents with a metastatic tumour of the ovary. Being from Australia is a hint in this question as the likely site of the primary tumour can vary depending on the country the patient is in and the availability of screening mammography. In underdeveloped countries, breast cancer is usually diagnosed later in life as screening mammography is generally not available, making the most likely site of the primary tumour in the breast. In Japan, where the incidence of stomach cancer is much higher than in western countries, the most likely primary site would be the stomach with a Krukenberg tumour in both ovaries. In Australia, mammographic screening is recommended every other year for all women over the age of 50, and so the most likely primary site would be the colon.
The most appropriate work-up to find the primary tumour in this patient would be performing a colonoscopy. A computed tomography (CT) of the abdomen may miss a small tumour, and an ultrasound examination would not be able to diagnosis a colon cancer. Mammography would be the correct response in under-developed countries. A lung malignancy would be detectable by chest X-ray, but would rarely cause a metastasis in the ovary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following is/are needed by women in increased amounts during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:The nutritional status of a woman before and during pregnancy is important for a healthy pregnancy outcome. Pregnancy is a state of increased requirement of macro and micronutrients, and malnourishment or inadequate dietary intake before and during pregnancy, can lead to adverse perinatal outcomes. Many nutritional interventions have been proposed for pregnant mothers. These include multiple micronutrients (MMN), iron/folate, balanced protein energy, calcium, zinc and folic acid supplementation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which one of the following dimensions relates to the greatest diameter of the fetal head?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occipitomental
Explanation:Occipitomental diameter is the greatest diameter of the fetal scalp and runs from chin to the prominent portion on the occiput. It measure about 12.5cm in diameter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 28
Incorrect
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During the inflammatory phase of wound healing what is the predominant cell type found in the wound during days 3-4?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:Wound healing is initiated when inflammation begins. Macrophages predominate after neutrophils and peak 3-4 days after inflammation begins. They destroy and phagocytose the organism and debris using enzymes. The next step is the resolution of inflammation and healing of the wound.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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If your patient is 8 weeks pregnant which one of the following USS measurements is most useful?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crown rump length
Explanation:Fetal crown-rump length (CRL) is recommended over last menstrual period for estimating GA when measured in early pregnancy i.e. before 9 to 13+6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following arteries branches directly from the aorta?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ovarian
Explanation:The uterine and vaginal arteries branch from the internal iliac artery. The ovarian artery branches direct from the aorta.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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