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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department in Nepal. She had flown from the United Kingdom the previous day for a hiking trip with her friends. She reports feeling light-headed and dizzy in the hotel lobby in the morning. Despite taking a short rest, she continues to feel unwell and complains of nausea and a generalised dull headache. She is overweight and has no history of migraine. Although she is well oriented, she feels that her nausea and headache are getting worse.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Antiemetics and a dose of prophylactic antibiotics
Correct Answer: Administer oxygen and acetazolamide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Mountain Sickness
Acute mountain sickness (AMS) is a common condition that can occur when ascending to high altitudes without proper acclimatization. Symptoms include nausea, headache, difficulty breathing, and dizziness. Here are some treatment options for AMS:
Administer oxygen and acetazolamide: Low-flow oxygen and acetazolamide can effectively relieve symptoms of AMS. Dexamethasone is also an alternative to acetazolamide.
Antiemetics and a dose of prophylactic antibiotics: These can help relieve symptoms in mild cases, but are not sufficient for moderate to severe cases.
Nifedipine: This medication may be effective in treating high-altitude pulmonary edema, but has no role in treating AMS.
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and bed rest: NSAIDs can provide symptomatic relief, but cannot cure the underlying cause of AMS.
Transfer the patient immediately to a location at lower altitude: Descent is always an effective treatment for AMS, but is not necessary unless symptoms are intractable or there is suspicion of illness progression.
Treatment Options for Acute Mountain Sickness
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman presents to the haematology clinic after experiencing four consecutive miscarriages. Her GP ordered routine blood tests which revealed a prolonged APTT and the presence of lupus anticoagulant immunoglobulins. The patient is diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and you recommend long-term pharmacological thromboprophylaxis. However, she has no history of venous or arterial clots. What would be the most appropriate form of thromboprophylaxis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-dose aspirin
Explanation:For patients with antiphospholipid syndrome who have not experienced a thrombosis before, the recommended thromboprophylaxis is low-dose aspirin. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is not advised as studies have shown a higher incidence of clots in antiphospholipid patients on DOACs compared to warfarin. Low-molecular-weight heparin is not recommended for long-term use as it is administered subcutaneously. Warfarin with a target INR of 2-3 is appropriate only for patients who have previously suffered from venous or arterial clots.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female patient complains of photophobia and a painful, red left eye. During examination, a dendritic corneal ulcer is observed. The patient has recently finished taking oral prednisolone for an asthma flare-up. What is the recommended treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical acyclovir
Explanation:The most suitable treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is topical acyclovir. This patient’s symptoms, including a dendritic corneal ulcer, suggest herpes simplex keratitis, which may have been triggered by their recent use of oral prednisolone. Therefore, the most appropriate medication would be topical antivirals, such as acyclovir. It is important to note that acyclovir should be given topically rather than intravenously. Topical ciprofloxacin would be appropriate for bacterial or amoebic keratitis, which is more common in patients who wear contact lenses. Topical chloramphenicol would be suitable for a superficial eye infection like conjunctivitis, but it would not be appropriate for this patient, who likely has a viral cause for their symptoms.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical acyclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A murmur is incidentally discovered by a GP in a 9-year-old girl. The murmur is described as a 'continuous blowing noise' heard below both clavicles. What type of murmur is most likely to be diagnosed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venous hum
Explanation:A venous hum is a harmless murmur commonly found in children. It is characterized by a constant blowing sound that can be heard beneath the collarbones. In contrast, a Still’s murmur is also benign but produces a low-pitched noise on the lower left side of the sternum. A pulmonary flow murmur is another harmless murmur, but it is heard on the upper left side of the sternum. The remaining murmurs are considered pathological.
Innocent murmurs are common in children and are usually harmless. There are different types of innocent murmurs, including ejection murmurs, venous hums, and Still’s murmur. Ejection murmurs are caused by turbulent blood flow at the outflow tract of the heart, while venous hums are due to turbulent blood flow in the great veins returning to the heart. Still’s murmur is a low-pitched sound heard at the lower left sternal edge.
An innocent ejection murmur is characterized by a soft-blowing murmur in the pulmonary area or a short buzzing murmur in the aortic area. It may vary with posture and is localized without radiation. There is no diastolic component, no thrill, and no added sounds such as clicks. The child is usually asymptomatic, and there are no other abnormalities.
Overall, innocent murmurs are not a cause for concern and do not require treatment. However, if a child has symptoms such as chest pain, shortness of breath, or fainting, further evaluation may be necessary to rule out any underlying heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is the way in which ciprofloxacin works?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interference with DNA replication
Explanation:Antibiotics and their Mechanisms of Action
Antibiotics are drugs that are used to treat bacterial infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms within the bacteria to either kill or inhibit their growth. One example is ciprofloxacin, which disrupts the function of DNA gyrase and interferes with DNA synthesis. However, there are many other antibiotics that act by different mechanisms.
Penicillins and cephalosporins, as well as vancomycin, work by inhibiting the cell wall of bacteria. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole, or co-trimoxazole, inhibit folic acid metabolism. Dapsone also works by inhibiting folic acid metabolism. Rifampicin inhibits transcription, while aminoglycosides and tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis at the 30S subunit. Chloramphenicol, macrolides, and clindamycin inhibit protein synthesis at the 50S subunit.
the mechanisms of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a specific bacterial infection. It also helps in preventing the development of antibiotic resistance, as different mechanisms of action can be used in combination to target bacteria in different ways.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 6
Incorrect
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As an F1 in the emergency department, you receive a 15-year-old girl who has been brought in from her high school due to complaints of abdominal pain and nausea. Upon examination, you discover that she is septic and can only provide a brief medical history before becoming drowsy. The surgical team suspects that she may have a perforated appendicitis and requires immediate surgery. Unfortunately, the patient's parents cannot be reached with the contact numbers provided by the school, and the patient is not in a state to provide consent for the operation. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take the patient to surgery immediately
Explanation:According to GMC, it is permissible to administer emergency treatment to a child or young person without their consent in order to save their life or prevent their health from seriously deteriorating. This means that obtaining consent from their parents, seeking permission from others, or obtaining a court order is not required.
Understanding Consent in Children
The issue of consent in children can be complex and confusing. However, there are some general guidelines to follow. If a patient is under 16 years old, they may be able to consent to treatment if they are deemed competent. This is determined by the Fraser guidelines, which were previously known as Gillick competence. However, even if a child is competent, they cannot refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest.
For patients between the ages of 16 and 18, it is generally assumed that they are competent to give consent to treatment. Patients who are 18 years or older can consent to or refuse treatment.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years old, the Fraser Guidelines outline specific requirements that must be met. These include ensuring that the young person understands the advice given by the healthcare professional, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to engage in sexual activity with or without treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without treatment. Ultimately, the young person’s best interests must be taken into account when deciding whether to provide contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.
In summary, understanding consent in children requires careful consideration of age, competence, and best interests. The Fraser Guidelines provide a useful framework for healthcare professionals to follow when providing treatment and advice to young patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female patient comes in with a complaint of excessive menstrual bleeding. She reports having to change her pads every hour due to saturation with blood. She is not experiencing any other symptoms and has no plans of having children in the immediate future. After a routine examination, what is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrauterine system
Explanation:According to NICE CG44, when heavy menstrual bleeding is not caused by any structural or histological abnormality, the first recommended treatment is the intrauterine system, also known as Mirena.
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.
[Insert flowchart here]
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the probable diagnosis for a 15-year-old girl who experiences recurring pelvic pain but has not yet begun menstruating?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haematocolpos
Explanation:Haematocolpos: A Condition of Blood Accumulation in the Vagina
Haematocolpos is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of blood in the vagina. This condition is usually caused by an imperforate hymen, which prevents menstrual blood from flowing out of the body. As a result, the blood accumulates in the vagina, leading to discomfort and pain. Haematocolpos is a rare condition that affects mostly young girls who have not yet started menstruating. It can also occur in women who have undergone surgery to remove the cervix or uterus. Treatment for haematocolpos usually involves surgical intervention to remove the blockage and allow the blood to flow out of the body. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, most women with haematocolpos can recover fully and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man comes in with a fistula in ano. During the anal examination, the Consultant mentions that he is searching for the location of the fistula in relation to a specific anatomical landmark.
What is the landmark he is referring to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pectinate line
Explanation:Anatomy Landmarks in Relation to Fistulae
Fistulae are abnormal connections between two organs or tissues that are not normally connected. In the case of anal fistulae, there are several important anatomical landmarks to consider. One of these is the pectinate line, also known as the dentate line, which marks the junction between the columnar epithelium and the stratified squamous epithelium in the rectum and anus. Fistulae that do not cross the sphincter above the pectinate line can be treated by laying the wound open, while those that do require treatment with a seton.
The anal margin, on the other hand, is not a landmark in relation to fistulae. The ischial spines, which are palpated to assess descent of the baby’s head during labor, are also not directly related to fistulae.
Another important landmark in relation to anal fistulae is the internal anal sphincter, which is an involuntary sphincter that is always in a state of contraction. This muscle is necessary for fecal continence. Finally, the puborectalis muscle, which is part of the levator ani muscle group that makes up the pelvic floor muscles, is also relevant to anal fistulae.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient has a history of irregular menstrual cycles over the past few years. She is well known to you and has seen you regularly with regard to her weight problem, oily skin and acne. She presents to you on this occasion with a 6-month history of amenorrhoea and weight gain.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation in the above scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urine pregnancy test
Explanation:The Most Appropriate Initial Investigation for Amenorrhoea: Urine Pregnancy Test
When a patient presents with amenorrhoea, the most appropriate initial investigation is always a pregnancy test. If pregnancy is excluded, further investigations may be necessary to determine the underlying cause. For example, a diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) may be supported by high levels of free testosterone with low levels of sex-hormone binding globulin, which can be tested after excluding pregnancy. A pelvic ultrasound is also a useful investigation for PCOS and should be done following β-HCG estimation. While a raised LH: FSH ratio may be suggestive of PCOS, it is not diagnostic and not the initial investigation of choice here. Similarly, an oral glucose tolerance test might be useful in patients diagnosed with PCOS, but it would not be an appropriate initial investigation. Therefore, a urine pregnancy test is the most important first step in investigating amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are summoned to the Labour Ward to assess a 29-year-old woman who is receiving consultant-led care for gestational diabetes. She was induced at 38+5 weeks’ gestation and has been on oxytocin for augmentation for one hour. She is currently experiencing regular contractions, with six to seven every ten minutes, each lasting at least 45 s. The cervix is dilated to 5 cm. The cardiotocograph (CTG) displays a fetal heart rate baseline of 130 bpm, variability of 20 bpm, accelerations and variable decelerations lasting > 60 s, with a reduced baseline variability in up to 50% of contractions for 30 minutes or more.
What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduce the oxytocin infusion rate
Explanation:Management of Uterine Hyperstimulation Syndrome and Suspicious CTG in Labor
Uterine hyperstimulation syndrome can lead to a suspicious CTG, which requires prompt management to prevent fetal distress. If the patient presents with uterine hyperstimulation syndrome caused by oxytocin infusion, the first step is to reduce the infusion rate and review the CTG in half an hour. If the CTG shows acute bradycardia or prolonged deceleration for more than three minutes, an emergency Caesarean section should be performed if the patient’s cervix is not fully dilated. Instrumental delivery, in the form of forceps or ventouse, is only indicated under certain circumstances, and the patient must be fully dilated. Increasing the oxytocin infusion rate should be avoided as it exacerbates the symptoms of uterine hyperstimulation. When the CTG is normal, no action is required. Early decelerations occur with uterine contractions and are associated with compression of the fetal head during contraction, leading to vagal nerve stimulation and slowing of the fetal heart rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her Occupational Health Service. She works in the sterile supplies group at her local hospital. Over the past few months, she has noticed increasing shortness of breath with cough and wheeze during the course of a working week, but improves when she takes a week off on holiday. On examination at the general practitioner’s surgery, after a few weeks off, her chest is clear.
Peak flow diary:
Monday p.m 460 l/min (85% predicted)
Tuesday p.m 440 l/min
Wednesday p.m 400 l/min
Thursday p.m 370 l/min
Friday p.m 350 l/min
Saturday a.m 420 l/min
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment choice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Redeployment to another role if possible
Explanation:Managing Occupational Asthma: Redeployment and Avoiding Suboptimal Treatment Options
Based on the evidence from the patient’s peak flow diary, it is likely that they are suffering from occupational asthma. This could be due to a number of agents, such as glutaraldehyde used in hospital sterilisation units. The best course of action would be to redeploy the patient to another role, if possible, and monitor their peak flows at work. Starting medical management for asthma would not be the optimal choice in this case. Other causes of occupational asthma include isocyanates, metals, animal antigens, plant products, acid anhydrides, biological enzymes, and wood dusts. While salbutamol inhaler may provide temporary relief, it is not a long-term solution. Inhaled steroids like beclomethasone or fluticasone/salmeterol may help manage symptoms, but since the cause has been identified, they would not be the most appropriate course of action. A 7-day course of oral prednisolone would only provide temporary relief and is not a realistic long-term treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy comes to the clinic with swelling at the lower end of his right femur. Upon examination, a calcified, nodular shadow is observed in his lung on a chest x-ray. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:Osteogenic Sarcoma: A Common Bone Cancer in Children and Adolescents
Osteogenic sarcoma is a prevalent type of bone cancer that primarily affects children and adolescents. It is the third most common malignancy in this age group. The tumour usually originates in the metaphyseal regions of the distal femur, proximal tibia, and proximal humerus, but it can develop in any bone. The cancer can spread regionally within the same extremity or systemically to other organs, such as the lung. Unfortunately, the prognosis worsens dramatically when the tumour metastasises. A common radiological finding in such cases is chest nodules or cannonball lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of ankle swelling. She has started taking a new medication for her blood pressure. She believes that this medication is responsible for her ankle oedema and wants you to investigate. What is the medication most likely to have caused her ankle swelling?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Nifedipine is more likely to cause ankle swelling than verapamil or other antihypertensive medications. This is because nifedipine is a dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker (CCB), which can cause vasodilation and increased leakage of small blood vessels, leading to fluid accumulation in the interstitial space and resulting in ankle edema. Diltiazem, an alternative CCB, is less likely to cause ankle edema but may increase the risk of heart failure. Doxazosin, an alpha-blocker, can also cause edema but is less commonly used than nifedipine. Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is more likely to cause angioedema than peripheral edema.
Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers
Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is contraindicated for patients with head injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5% Dextrose
Explanation:Management of Severe Brain Injury
Patients with severe brain injury should maintain normal blood volume levels. It is important to avoid administering free water, such as dextrose solutions, as this can increase the water content of brain tissue by decreasing plasma osmolality. Elevated blood sugar levels can worsen neurological injury after episodes of global cerebral ischaemia. During ischaemic brain injury, glucose is metabolised to lactic acid, which can lower tissue pH and potentially exacerbate the injury. Therefore, it is crucial to manage blood sugar levels in patients with severe brain injury to prevent further damage. Proper management of brain injury can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about heparin-induced thrombocytopaenia (HIT) is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIT is a prothrombotic condition
Explanation:Understanding Heparin and its Adverse Effects
Heparin is a type of anticoagulant that comes in two forms: unfractionated or standard heparin, and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. However, heparin can cause adverse effects such as bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia.
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. HIT usually develops after 5-10 days of treatment and is characterized by a greater than 50% reduction in platelets, thrombosis, and skin allergy. To address the need for ongoing anticoagulation, direct thrombin inhibitors like argatroban and danaparoid can be used.
Standard heparin is administered intravenously and has a short duration of action, while LMWH is administered subcutaneously and has a longer duration of action. Standard heparin is useful in situations where there is a high risk of bleeding as anticoagulation can be terminated rapidly, while LMWH is now standard in the management of venous thromboembolism treatment and prophylaxis and acute coronary syndromes. Monitoring for standard heparin is done through activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT), while LMWH does not require routine monitoring. Heparin overdose may be reversed by protamine sulfate, although this only partially reverses the effect of LMWH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old woman comes to the clinic with complaints of warm, swollen, and painful knuckles, as well as large subcutaneous nodules near her elbows. She also reports experiencing joint stiffness lasting more than an hour in the morning. Upon examination, her PIP joints are hyperextended, and her DIP joints are flexed. If a biopsy were performed on the nodules, what would be the most likely histological appearance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by palisading epithelioid cells
Explanation:Differentiating Connective Tissue Pathologies: Histological Characteristics
Connective tissue pathologies can present with a variety of clinical features, making it important to understand their histological characteristics for accurate diagnosis.
Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by swan neck deformity, subcutaneous nodules, and enlarged knuckles. The histological composition of subcutaneous nodules is areas of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded by palisading epithelioid cells.
Gouty tophi, on the other hand, present as an amorphous crystalline mass surrounded by macrophages.
A cystic space caused by myxoid degeneration of connective tissue is more typical of a ganglion cyst.
Nodular tenosynovitis is a well-encapsulated nodule of polygonal cells within a tendon sheath.
Lastly, pigmented villonodular synovitis is characterized by a darkly pigmented synovium with an exuberant, villous growth.
Understanding the histological characteristics of these connective tissue pathologies can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman experiences a sudden and severe headache followed by collapse. Imaging reveals a subarachnoid hemorrhage, but there are no signs of increased intracranial pressure. What medication should be given?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nimodipine
Explanation:To prevent vasospasm in aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhages, nimodipine is utilized. This medication is a calcium channel blocker that lessens cerebral vasospasm and enhances results. It is given to the majority of subarachnoid haemorrhage cases.
A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Megan, a 16-year-old girl, arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a seizure. During the examination, it is noted that she has a unilateral shoulder deformity and her shoulder is stuck in an internally rotated position. A shoulder x-ray has been requested.
What findings would you anticipate on Megan's shoulder x-ray?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior shoulder dislocation
Explanation:FOOSH is commonly associated with anterior shoulder dislocation, while seizures and electric shock are more likely to cause posterior shoulder dislocation.
When a person falls onto an outstretched hand, it can result in an anterior shoulder dislocation, which is characterized by a visible deformity in the affected shoulder. On the other hand, clavicular fracture is often observed in FOOSH cases, which can also cause deformity along the clavicle.
X-rays may not show a normal shoulder in cases where the patient presents with unilateral shoulder deformity.
In contrast, seizures and electric shock are more likely to cause posterior shoulder dislocation, which can also result in a visible deformity in the affected shoulder. While anterior instability and dislocations are still more common in seizures, a shoulder that is locked in an internally rotated position is highly suggestive of a posterior dislocation.
Shoulder dislocations happen when the humeral head becomes detached from the glenoid cavity of the scapula. This is the most common type of joint dislocation, with the shoulder accounting for around half of all major joint dislocations. In particular, anterior shoulder dislocations make up over 95% of cases.
There are many different techniques for reducing shoulders, but there is limited evidence to suggest that one is better than another. If the dislocation is recent, it may be possible to attempt reduction without any pain relief or sedation. However, some patients may require analgesia and/or sedation to ensure that the rotator cuff muscles are relaxed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden-onset painful right eye and visual loss. Upon examination, the doctor observes visual loss to counting fingers on the right, right eye proptosis, conjunctival injection, and acute tenderness on palpation. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 12 mm/hour. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carotid cavernous fistula
Explanation:Differentiating Acute Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Management
Carotid Cavernous Fistula: This condition presents with sudden painful visual loss, proptosis, conjunctival injection, and a firm, tender, and pulsatile eyeball. It is caused by an abnormal communication between the carotid artery and venous system within the cavernous sinus. Endovascular surgery is the recommended management to obliterate the fistula.
Giant Cell arthritis: This is a medical emergency that is uncommon in individuals under 50 years old. Symptoms include acute visual loss, tenderness over the temporal artery, jaw claudication, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of >50 mm/hour. Diagnosis is confirmed through a temporal artery biopsy.
Optic Neuritis: This condition presents as painful visual loss but is not associated with proptosis or changes to the conjunctiva. Optic disc pallor is a common symptom.
Keratoconus: This is a degenerative disorder that causes distortion of vision, which may be painful, due to structural changes within the cornea. It does not present acutely.
Acute Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis: Symptoms include retro-orbital pain, ophthalmoplegia (often complete, with involvement of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), and loss of sensation over the ophthalmic division on the trigeminal nerve ipsilateral. Horner’s syndrome may also occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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You are the on-call general practitioner and are called urgently to the nurses’ room where a 6-year-old boy receiving his school vaccinations has developed breathing difficulties. The child has swollen lips and is covered in a blotchy rash; respiratory rate is 40, heart rate is 140 and there is a wheeze audible without using a stethoscope.
After lying the patient flat and raising his legs, what immediate action is required?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer 150 micrograms of adrenaline intramuscularly (im)
Explanation:Anaphylaxis Management: Administering Adrenaline
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that requires immediate management. The Resuscitation Council guidelines outline three essential criteria for recognizing anaphylaxis: sudden-onset, rapidly progressive symptoms, life-threatening Airway/Breathing/Circulation problems, and skin and mucosal changes.
The first step in anaphylaxis management is to administer adrenaline intramuscularly (im) at a dilution of 1:1000. The appropriate dosage for adrenaline administration varies based on the patient’s age. For a 4-year-old patient, the recommended dose is 150 micrograms im. However, adrenaline iv should only be administered by experienced specialists and is given at a dose of 50 micrograms in adults and 1 microgram/kg in children and titrated accordingly.
Adrenaline administration is only the first step in the treatment of anaphylaxis. It is crucial to follow the anaphylaxis algorithm, which includes establishing the airway and giving high-flow oxygen, iv fluid challenge, and chlorphenamine.
It is essential to note that administering an incorrect dose of adrenaline can be dangerous. For instance, administering 1 mg of adrenaline im is inappropriate for the management of anaphylaxis. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the Resuscitation Council guidelines and administer the appropriate dose of adrenaline based on the patient’s age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents with a painful left hip and groin and is struggling to weight-bear. She completed therapy for acute myeloblastic leukaemia some six months earlier.
On examination, she walks with a limp and there is limitation of hip flexion, internal and external rotation.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Haemoglobin 121 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 191 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 12 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
The left hip X-ray shows joint sclerosis with collapse of the femoral head.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis
Explanation:Differentiating Arthritis Types: Avascular Necrosis, Gout, Osteoarthritis, Pseudogout, and Septic Arthritis
Arthritis is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and inflammation. However, there are different types of arthritis, each with its own causes, symptoms, and treatments. Here are some key points to differentiate between avascular necrosis, gout, osteoarthritis, pseudogout, and septic arthritis:
Avascular necrosis is a condition where the bone tissue dies due to a lack of blood supply. It can be caused by corticosteroid use, malignancy, or trauma. Femoral head collapse is a classic radiographic change in avascular necrosis.
Gout is a type of crystal arthritis that usually affects peripheral joints, such as the big toe, ankle, or knee. It is caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joint, leading to sudden attacks of pain, redness, and swelling.
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that occurs when the cartilage that cushions the joints wears down over time. It is more common in older adults and can affect any joint, but femoral head collapse does not occur in osteoarthritis.
Pseudogout is another type of crystal arthritis that usually affects peripheral joints. It is caused by the buildup of calcium pyrophosphate crystals in the joint, leading to similar symptoms as gout.
Septic arthritis is a bacterial infection of the joint that can cause severe pain, swelling, and fever. It is a medical emergency and requires prompt treatment with antibiotics. While septic arthritis should always be considered in a monoarthritis, it is less likely in cases where there are classic radiographic changes of avascular necrosis, risk factors, and a normal CRP without history of fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling on his left hip. Upon examination, he is experiencing difficulty walking, tenderness around his left greater trochanter, and his left leg is externally rotated and shortened. He has a medical history of osteoporosis, hypertension, and hypothyroidism. However, he is able to move around without any assistance. An X-ray reveals a subtrochanteric femoral fracture, which is treated with an intramedullary nail. What advice should he be given regarding weight-bearing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight-bear immediately after the operation as tolerated
Explanation:Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old woman comes in for her dating scan after discovering she was pregnant 6 weeks ago through a urine pregnancy test. However, her ultrasound reveals that the pregnancy is ectopic and located in her left fallopian tube. The size of the pregnancy is 20mm, unruptured, and has no cardiac activity. The patient is not experiencing any symptoms such as bleeding, cramping, vomiting, or systemic symptoms, and her vitals are normal. Her blood test results show that her β-hCG levels have decreased from 940 IU/L at her booking appointment to 740 IU/L today. She has no significant medical history. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give safety netting advice and ask to return in 48 hours for serum β-hCG levels
Explanation:Expectant management of an ectopic pregnancy is only suitable for an embryo that is unruptured, <35mm in size, has no heartbeat, is asymptomatic, and has a β-hCG level of <1,000 IU/L and declining. In this case, the woman has a small ectopic pregnancy without cardiac activity and a declining β-hCG level. Therefore, expectant management is appropriate, and the woman should be given safety netting advice and asked to return for a follow-up blood test in 48 hours. Admitting her for 12-hourly β-hCG monitoring is unnecessary, and performing a salpingectomy or salpingostomy is not indicated. Prescribing medical management is also inappropriate in this case. Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test. There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility. Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Ms. Johnson, a 48-year-old woman, arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute epigastric abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting that started 24 hours ago. She reports that the pain worsens after eating and lying down, but improves when she leans forward. Although she has experienced colicky upper abdominal pain in the past, she claims that this has never happened before. Upon observation, she appears to be sweating profusely and has a large body habitus. Mild scleral icterus is also noted during examination. While waiting for the results of routine bloods and a serum amylase, what would be the immediate next investigation you would want to perform for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound abdomen
Explanation:In cases of suspected acute pancreatitis, early ultrasound imaging is crucial in determining the underlying cause, which can impact treatment decisions. The patient’s symptoms and medical history suggest the presence of gallstones or biliary colic, making an ultrasound the appropriate initial investigation. This non-invasive test can quickly identify the presence of gallstones and guide management while waiting for blood test results. A CT scan may be necessary if blood tests are inconclusive or to assess the severity of the disease and potential complications. ERCP is not indicated at this stage, and MRI and abdominal x-rays are not typically used to diagnose acute pancreatitis.
Understanding Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.
To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.
Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.
In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A retrospective analysis was conducted on 600 patients referred to the local Tuberculosis (TB) Clinic over a 3-year period with suspected TB. Out of these patients, 40 were diagnosed with TB and underwent testing with an assay called ‘TB-RED-SPOT’, as well as chest radiography and sputum microbiology. Of the patients diagnosed with TB, 36 had a positive TB-RED-SPOT assay result. Additionally, 14 patients without TB had a positive ‘TB-RED-SPOT’ assay result. Based on this analysis, which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The sensitivity of the TB-RED-SPOT assay for TB is 90%
Explanation:Understanding the Performance Metrics of the TB-RED-SPOT Assay for TB
The TB-RED-SPOT assay is a diagnostic test used to detect tuberculosis (TB) in patients. Its performance is measured using several metrics, including sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value (PPV), and negative predictive value (NPV).
The sensitivity of the TB-RED-SPOT assay for TB is 90%, meaning that 90% of patients with TB will test positive for the disease using this test. On the other hand, the specificity of the test is 99%, indicating that 99% of patients without TB will test negative for the disease using this test.
The PPV of the TB-RED-SPOT assay is less than 50%, which means that less than half of the patients who test positive for TB using this test actually have the disease. Specifically, the PPV is calculated as 72%, indicating that 72% of patients who test positive for TB using this test actually have the disease.
The NPV of the TB-RED-SPOT assay is less than 90%, which means that less than 90% of patients who test negative for TB using this test actually do not have the disease. Specifically, the NPV is calculated as 99.2%, indicating that 99.2% of patients who test negative for TB using this test actually do not have the disease.
Understanding these performance metrics is crucial for interpreting the results of the TB-RED-SPOT assay and making informed clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Mrs. Jane is a 55-year-old woman who visits her GP with a complaint of frank haematuria that has been present for a week. She also reports a persistent dry cough and dyspnoea that has been bothering her for the past 3 months, along with a long-standing history of sinusitis and nosebleeds. During the examination, the patient is found to have a saddle-shaped nasal deformity and bilateral crepitations on auscultation. What is the specific antibody that is most closely associated with this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytoplasmic antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cANCA)
Explanation:ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Common Findings and Management
Anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are associated with small-vessel vasculitides such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. First-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.
ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with ANCA. These conditions are more common in older individuals and present with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, and sometimes a vasculitic rash or ear, nose, and throat symptoms. To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis, blood tests for renal function and inflammation, ANCA testing, and chest x-ray. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with varying levels found in different conditions. ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams and the mainstay of treatment is immunosuppressive therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes to you with a history of back pain that has been getting worse over the past year. The pain and stiffness are more severe in the morning but improve with exercise. During your examination, you notice a flexural rash with poorly defined areas of erythema, dry skin, and lichenification. All observations appear normal. The blood test results show an ESR of 84 mm/hr (normal range: 0-22) and a CRP of 6 mg/L (normal range: 0-10). ANA, RhF, and Anti-CCP tests are all negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Explanation:Exercise is typically beneficial for inflammatory back pain, such as that seen in ankylosing spondylitis. The patient’s symptoms, including morning stiffness and improvement with exercise, suggest an inflammatory cause, which is supported by the significantly elevated ESR. While there are several possible diagnoses, including seropositive and seronegative spondyloarthropathies, the most likely explanation is ankylosing spondylitis. Psoriatic arthritis is an incorrect answer, as the patient’s rash is more consistent with dermatitis than psoriasis. Osteoarthritis is also unlikely given the patient’s age and clinical history, while reactive arthritis is less likely due to the duration of symptoms and lack of urethritis or conjunctivitis.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to an ophthalmologist with complaints of vision problems. She reports experiencing blackouts in her peripheral vision and severe headaches. Upon examination, the ophthalmologist notes bitemporal hemianopia in her visual fields. Where is the likely site of the lesion in her optic pathway?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Optic chiasm
Explanation:Understanding the Effects of Lesions in the Visual Pathway
The visual pathway is a complex system that allows us to perceive and interpret visual information. However, lesions in different parts of this pathway can result in various visual field defects. Here is a breakdown of the effects of lesions in different parts of the visual pathway:
Optic Chiasm: Lesions in the optic chiasm can cause bitemporal hemianopia or tunnel vision. This is due to damage to the fibers that receive visual stimuli from the temporal visual fields.
Optic Nerve: Lesions in the optic nerve can result in monocular blindness of the ipsilateral eye. If only one eye has a visual field defect, then the lesion cannot be further back than the optic nerve.
Optic Tract: Lesions in the optic tract can cause homonymous hemianopia of the contralateral visual field. This means that a lesion of the left optic tract causes loss of the right visual field in both eyes.
Lateral Geniculate Nucleus: Any lesions after the optic chiasm will result in a homonymous hemianopia.
Primary Visual Cortex: Lesions in the primary visual cortex can also result in homonymous hemianopia, but with cortical lesions, there is usually macular sparing because of the relatively large cortical representation of the macula. Less extensive lesions are associated with scotoma and quadrantic field loss.
Understanding the effects of lesions in the visual pathway is crucial in diagnosing and treating visual field defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A mother has delivered a baby with significant microcephaly and a missing philtrum. During examination, a pansystolic murmur is detected. The mother did not receive any prenatal care at this hospital and cannot remember if any abnormalities were detected during the prenatal period. What maternal prenatal occurrences could have led to the infant's abnormalities and presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maternal alcohol use
Explanation:If a mother experiences a primary infection between weeks 3-28 of pregnancy, the developing foetus may be affected due to deactivation while still in the womb. This can result in various features such as skin scarring, eye defects (including small eyes, cataracts, or chorioretinitis), and neurological defects (such as reduced IQ, abnormal sphincter function, and microcephaly).
Understanding Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
Fetal alcohol syndrome is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which can lead to various physical and mental abnormalities in the developing fetus. At birth, the baby may exhibit symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, such as irritability, hypotonia, and tremors.
The features of fetal alcohol syndrome include a short palpebral fissure, a thin vermillion border or hypoplastic upper lip, a smooth or absent philtrum, learning difficulties, microcephaly, growth retardation, epicanthic folds, and cardiac malformations. These physical characteristics can vary in severity and may affect the child’s overall health and development.
It is important for pregnant women to avoid alcohol consumption to prevent fetal alcohol syndrome and other potential complications. Early diagnosis and intervention can also help improve outcomes for children with fetal alcohol syndrome. By understanding the risks and consequences of alcohol use during pregnancy, we can work towards promoting healthier pregnancies and better outcomes for children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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