-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 45-year-old pig farmer presents to the GP with complaints of abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea. Upon initial investigations, the patient is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection. Which immunoglobulin plays a primary role in eliminating this organism?
Your Answer: IgE
Explanation:IgE provides protection against parasitic infections, particularly helminths, by providing immunity. It also triggers the release of histamine. IgA fights off various infections but not primarily parasites, and is found in saliva, tears, and breast milk. IgD plays a role in activating B cells. IgG protects against a range of pathogens and aids in the phagocytosis of viruses and bacteria. It is also involved in rhesus disease as it can cross the placenta.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
You are evaluating a 67-year-old woman with breast cancer in an oncology center who is experiencing decreased sensation in her fingers and toes. She has just commenced vincristine therapy and is curious if her symptoms could be related to the medication.
During which phase of the cell cycle does this drug exert its action?Your Answer: Anaphase
Correct Answer: Metaphase
Explanation:During metaphase, Vincristine, a dimeric catharanthus alkaloid, binds to tubulin and disrupts microtubules in actively dividing cells. This action makes it an effective treatment for cancers such as leukaemias, lymphomas, and advanced-stage breast cancer. However, its use is limited by its neurotoxicity, which mainly manifests as peripheral neuropathy. Vincristine’s toxicity affects small sensory fibres and causes axonal neuropathy due to the disruption of microtubules within axons and interference with axonal transport. Paraesthesia in the fingertips and feet is usually the earliest symptom experienced by patients, and almost all patients experience some degree of neuropathy.
Mitosis: The Process of Somatic Cell Division
Mitosis is a type of cell division that occurs in somatic cells during the M phase of the cell cycle. This process allows for the replication and growth of tissues by producing genetically identical diploid daughter cells. Before mitosis begins, the cell prepares itself during the S phase by duplicating its chromosomes. The phases of mitosis include prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis. During prophase, the chromatin in the nucleus condenses, and during prometaphase, the nuclear membrane breaks down, allowing microtubules to attach to the chromosomes. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the middle of the cell, and in anaphase, the paired chromosomes separate at the kinetochores and move to opposite sides of the cell. Telophase occurs when chromatids arrive at opposite poles of the cell, and cytokinesis is the final stage where an actin-myosin complex in the center of the cell contacts, resulting in it being pinched into two daughter cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A group of teachers in the kindergarten team want to establish the levels of literacy skills among their students.
They collect data over the course of a month and compare their results against the National Association for the Education of Young Children (NAEYC) guidelines for kindergarten literacy skills and find that they recommend all students should have basic literacy skills.
After the first month, they find that only 25% of their students have basic literacy skills.
They go on to develop a literacy program and repeat the data collection one month later. They find the levels of basic literacy skills have now improved to 75%.
What type of project is this?Your Answer: Clinical audit
Explanation:The purpose of a clinical audit is to identify areas where clinical practice falls short of the required standard and to implement interventions to improve these shortcomings. Developing interventions, such as electronic prompts, is a crucial aspect of clinical audits.
A case-control study is not applicable in this scenario. Case-control studies compare two groups based on different outcomes and retrospectively look for possible causal factors. However, in this case, there is only one group being evaluated, and the team is not looking for cause and effect.
Similarly, a cohort study is not appropriate. Cohort studies compare two groups with different characteristics over time to observe differing outcomes. This is a type of research study, which is not the aim of the clinical audit.
A risk assessment is also not relevant. Risk assessments evaluate the potential risks of an activity and are not appropriate for this scenario. A risk assessment may be conducted to assess the safety of oxygen delivery systems or the harms of not delivering oxygen to patients. However, the purpose of a clinical audit is to identify areas for improvement in clinical practice.
Likewise, a service evaluation is not the correct option. Service evaluations review clinical services for performance and outcomes, but not against any defined standards. Improving a service is an inherent part of a clinical audit and does not need to be explicitly mentioned.
Understanding Clinical Audit
Clinical audit is a process that aims to improve the quality of patient care and outcomes by systematically reviewing care against specific criteria and implementing changes. It is a quality improvement process that involves the collection and analysis of data to identify areas where improvements can be made. The process involves reviewing current practices, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to improve patient care and outcomes.
Clinical audit is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. It helps to identify areas where improvements can be made and provides a framework for implementing changes. The process involves a team of healthcare professionals working together to review current practices and identify areas for improvement. Once areas for improvement have been identified, changes can be implemented to improve patient care and outcomes.
In summary, clinical audit is a quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change. It is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. By identifying areas for improvement and implementing changes, clinical audit helps to improve patient care and outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 7-year-old boy is brought to your clinic by his mother because he has been experiencing a runny nose for the past two months. The discharge is clear and he reports sneezing frequently when playing outside. During the examination, you observe a skin crease across the bridge of his nose, which is indicative of an 'allergic salute'. The patient's mother had asthma in the past, and given the family history of atopy and the patient's symptoms, you suspect he may have hay fever. Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is most commonly associated with atopy?
Your Answer: Ig E
Explanation:Type 1 hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE.
Examples of type 1 hypersensitivity reactions include atopy, hay fever, and asthma, all of which are mediated by IgE. The act of rubbing or wiping the nose in response to allergies is sometimes referred to as an allergic salute, which can cause a crease to form across the bridge of the nose.
The table below shows the mediators of various hypersensitivity reactions.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 24-year-old man has been admitted to the emergency department after falling off a roof and has been diagnosed with a Colles' fracture by the radiologist. The medical team plans to perform a closed reduction of the fracture, and they intend to use a haematoma block with lidocaine to facilitate a quick and painless reduction. What is a potential side effect that may occur after a haematoma block with lidocaine?
Your Answer: Low blood pressure
Correct Answer: Mental status change
Explanation:Lidocaine has been known to affect mental status by crossing the blood-brain barrier quickly and blocking inhibitory neurons in the brain. This can lead to a decrease in seizure threshold and a decline in mental function. While hypertension is a recognized side effect of lidocaine, it does not cause hypotension. While constipation can be a side effect of lidocaine, it is not known to cause diarrhea. While there is no evidence to suggest that lidocaine causes sexual dysfunction, it is used in the treatment of premature ejaculation. Lidocaine is a class 1b anti-arrhythmic drug used to treat ventricular arrhythmias and does not cause them.
Overview of Local Anaesthetic Agents
Local anaesthetic agents are drugs that block nerve impulses and provide pain relief in a specific area of the body. Lidocaine is a commonly used amide local anaesthetic that is also used as an antiarrhythmic drug. It is metabolized in the liver, protein-bound, and excreted in the urine. Toxicity can occur with excessive administration or in patients with liver dysfunction or low protein states. Acidosis can also cause lidocaine to detach from protein binding. Treatment for local anaesthetic toxicity involves the use of IV 20% lipid emulsion. Drug interactions with lidocaine include beta blockers, ciprofloxacin, and phenytoin. Cocaine is another local anaesthetic agent that is rarely used in mainstream surgical practice. Bupivacaine has a longer duration of action than lidocaine and is useful for topical wound infiltration. However, it is cardiotoxic and contraindicated in regional blockage. Levobupivacaine is a less cardiotoxic alternative. Prilocaine is less cardiotoxic than other local anaesthetic agents and is preferred for intravenous regional anaesthesia. Adrenaline can be added to local anaesthetic drugs to prolong their duration of action and permit higher doses, but it is contraindicated in patients taking MAOI’s or tricyclic antidepressants. The maximum total doses of local anaesthetic agents depend on the type of drug and are based on ideal body weight.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Lauren formulates a null hypothesis that taking aspirin every day decreases the risk of a heart attack in individuals over the age of 50. When testing this hypothesis, she wants to determine the likelihood of avoiding a type II error.
What is the term used to describe this probability and how can it be improved?Your Answer: Power - increasing the sample size
Explanation:Power refers to the likelihood of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, which is also the probability of avoiding a type II error. In contrast, a type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted despite being false, resulting in a false negative. The sample size, or the number of subjects analyzed, plays a crucial role in determining power. Increasing the sample size leads to more precise results and a higher probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis, while decreasing the sample size results in less accurate results and a lower power. It is important to note that a type I error refers to rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true, while a type III error is not a recognized term in statistics.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A couple has approached you for genetic counselling. The husband, Felix, is worried about passing on a mitochondrial disease to his future child as his sister died at a young age due to complications associated with the same disease. The wife, Melissa, has no family history of any such disease. Both parents identify as cisgender.
Felix undergoes testing for the mitochondrial disease, and the results come back positive.
What is the probability of their first child being affected by this mitochondrial disease?Your Answer: 0%
Explanation:Mitochondrial diseases are caused by a small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria, which encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. These diseases are inherited only via the maternal line, as the sperm contributes no cytoplasm to the zygote. None of the children of an affected male will inherit the disease, while all of the children of an affected female will inherit it. Mitochondrial diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases, and there is poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, which means that within a tissue or cell, there can be different mitochondrial populations. Muscle biopsy typically shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome, MERRF syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and sensorineural hearing loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic with a rash that has spread all over his body. The rash is extremely itchy. The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease and asthma. Upon examination, the rash is symmetrical and present on the scalp, shoulders, elbows, and buttocks. It is made up of clusters of papules and vesicles on a red base, which seem to be somewhat scratched.
The blood tests reveal that the patient has anaemia caused by a lack of iron.
What is the most common association with this rash?Your Answer: HLA-DR4
Correct Answer: HLA-DR3
Explanation:Dermatitis herpetiformis is commonly associated with HLA-DR3, as indicated by its appearance and its connection to coeliac disease. This condition is more prevalent in men than in women. While HLA-A3 is linked to haemochromatosis, it is not associated with dermatitis herpetiformis. Similarly, HLA-B27 is typically associated with ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis, not dermatitis herpetiformis. HLA-B51 is linked to Behcet’s disease, but it is not commonly associated with dermatitis herpetiformis.
HLA Associations: Diseases and Antigens
HLA antigens are proteins encoded by genes on chromosome 6. There are two classes of HLA antigens: class I (HLA A, B, and C) and class II (HLA DP, DQ, and DR). Diseases can be strongly associated with certain HLA antigens. For example, HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis, HLA-B51 with Behcet’s disease, and HLA-B27 with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and acute anterior uveitis. Coeliac disease is associated with HLA-DQ2/DQ8, while narcolepsy and Goodpasture’s are associated with HLA-DR2. Dermatitis herpetiformis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and primary biliary cirrhosis are associated with HLA-DR3. Finally, type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with HLA-DR3 but more strongly associated with HLA-DR4, specifically the DRB1 gene (DRB1*04:01 and DRB1*04:04).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 39-year-old man presents for a follow-up after experiencing an acute gout attack 10 days ago. He has a history of similar episodes and currently has no symptoms. He consumes three glasses of alcohol daily and has a BMI of 32 kg/m2. His vital signs are within normal limits, and his lab results are as follows:
- Calcium: 2.4 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate: 1.1 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
- Uric acid: 8.2 mmol/L (0.18 - 0.48)
The patient is prescribed first-line management for urate-lowering therapy. Which mechanism of action corresponds to the prescribed medication?Your Answer: Inhibition of xanthine oxidase
Explanation:Allopurinol is a medication that inhibits the xanthine oxidase enzyme, which is responsible for converting hypoxanthine to uric acid. This makes it a commonly used first-line urate-lowering therapy for patients with recurrent episodes of gout. Gout is a painful condition caused by the deposition of sodium urate crystals in the joint cavity, leading to inflammation and swelling. Allopurinol reduces the production of uric acid, which can exacerbate gout flares. However, it should not be used during acute gout flares as it can worsen symptoms. Urate-oxidase analogues like pegloticase are third-line therapies that convert uric acid to allantoin, a water-soluble compound. NSAIDs are cyclooxygenase inhibitors that can help manage acute gout flares but do not lower uric acid levels. Colchicine inhibits microtubule polymerization and is used for acute gout flares but does not lower uric acid levels.
Allopurinol can interact with other medications such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and theophylline. It can lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine when used with azathioprine, reduced renal clearance when used with cyclophosphamide, and an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline. Patients at a high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A four-week-old baby boy is brought to the emergency department with persistent jaundice since birth. Despite one week of phototherapy, the yellowing has not improved. The mother reports that the baby was born at 39 weeks' gestation without any birth trauma or injury. Newborn screening tests, including a thyroid function test, were normal. The mother and baby are both blood group O and Rh-negative, with no known family history of haematological conditions or liver problems. The mother has also noticed that the baby has been passing pale stools and dark urine.
On examination, the baby appears healthy and has no fever, with scleral icterus present. The baby is moving all four limbs and has symmetrical Moro's reflex. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no palpable masses.
What is the likely condition affecting this four-week-old baby boy?Your Answer: Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
Correct Answer: Conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
Explanation:If a newborn has jaundice for more than 14 days, it is likely due to conjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This type of prolonged neonatal jaundice is usually caused by post-hepatic factors, such as biliary atresia or choledochal cysts. Haemolysis may also cause jaundice, but in this case, it is unlikely due to the absence of conjunctival pallor, no family history of haematological conditions, and both the mother and baby being blood group O and Rh-negative. Congenital infections, like cytomegalovirus infection, may also cause jaundice, but the baby appears healthy and does not show any signs of TORCH infections.
Understanding Jaundice in Newborns
Jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. The severity and duration of jaundice can vary depending on the cause and age of the baby. Jaundice in the first 24 hours is always considered pathological and can be caused by conditions such as rhesus haemolytic disease, ABO haemolytic disease, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency.
Jaundice in the neonate from 2-14 days is usually physiological and affects up to 40% of babies. It is more commonly seen in breastfed babies and is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. However, if jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days if premature), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed to identify the cause. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, TFTs, FBC and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and U&Es and LFTs.
Prolonged jaundice can be caused by conditions such as biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections like CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. It is important to identify the cause of prolonged jaundice as some conditions like biliary atresia require urgent surgical intervention, while others like hypothyroidism can lead to developmental delays if left untreated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain, malaise, and visible jaundice. Upon taking his history, a junior doctor notes that the pain began after breakfast and has been worsening throughout the day. The patient's partner noticed his jaundice a few days ago, but he did not seek medical attention. The man has type II diabetes, which is well controlled with metformin, and he does not smoke. He drinks 16 units of alcohol per week and had unprotected sexual intercourse with a casual partner three days ago. He recently returned from a business trip to India, where he ate at a hotel and a client's home. One week ago, he experienced vomiting and diarrhea after eating undercooked chicken at a local restaurant. Based on this history, the junior doctor suspects hepatitis A. What aspect of the patient's history is most supportive of this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Recent food poisoning
Correct Answer: Trip to India three weeks ago
Explanation:Hepatitis A typically has a 2-4 week incubation period and is usually a mild, self-limiting illness. Symptoms may include jaundice, abdominal pain, and tender hepatomegaly. The virus is spread through the faecal-oral route, making it important to obtain a detailed history going back several weeks. India is an endemic area for hepatitis A, and eating at a local’s house may increase the risk of exposure.
While contaminated shellfish is a common source of hepatitis A, it is unlikely to be transmitted through chicken in the UK. Unprotected sex is a risk factor for hepatitis B and C, but not for hepatitis A. Type II diabetes is associated with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, but not with an increased risk of viral hepatitis. Chronic hepatitis C infection may increase the risk of developing diabetes.
Although the patient’s alcohol consumption is slightly above the recommended limit of 14 units per week, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of viral hepatitis. However, it may be worth discussing reducing alcohol intake to promote overall liver health.
Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.
While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).
It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 12
Correct
-
A 42-year-old male visits the clinic with complaints of fatigue, dark urine, and pale stools after returning from a trip to Turkey. During the examination, the patient is found to be jaundiced. What is the expected incubation period of the virus that could be causing these symptoms?
Your Answer: 2-4 weeks
Explanation:The typical incubation period for hepatitis A is between 2 and 4 weeks. Symptoms may include fatigue, fever, nausea, loss of appetite, jaundice, dark urine, diarrhea, and abdominal discomfort. A period of 4-6 weeks would be longer than expected, while 3-5 days would be shorter. A period of 2-4 months is more commonly associated with chronic hepatitis.
Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.
While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).
It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 7-year-old girl presents to her pediatrician with worsening shortness of breath during physical activity. She has no significant developmental delays.
During the physical exam, the child appears comfortable at rest. However, a systolic murmur is heard upon auscultation and subsequent echocardiography confirms the diagnosis of supravalvular aortic stenosis. Genetic testing reveals a 7q11.23 deletion, which is consistent with Williams syndrome.
Despite having a functional gene segment on the unaffected chromosome, the patient still displays symptoms of the condition.
What is the term used to describe this genetic phenomenon?Your Answer: Haplo-insufficiency
Explanation:Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Characteristics and Complicating Factors
Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This means that both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and there is no carrier state. Both males and females can be affected, and only affected individuals can pass on the disease. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.
However, there are complicating factors that can affect the inheritance of autosomal dominant diseases. One of these factors is non-penetrance, which refers to the lack of clinical signs and symptoms despite having an abnormal gene. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis may not show any symptoms. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, which occurs when there is a new mutation in one of the gametes. This means that 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.
In summary, autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by certain patterns of inheritance, but there are also complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Understanding these factors is important for genetic counseling and for predicting the risk of passing on the disease to future generations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl is being treated by a rheumatologist for chronic knee pain, fever, and rash. The diagnosis is Still's disease and the doctor prescribes canakinumab, a monoclonal antibody. What is the specific site of action for this medication?
Your Answer: CD20
Correct Answer: Interleukin 1 (IL-1)
Explanation:Canakinumab is a monoclonal antibody that specifically targets interleukin-1 beta receptor binding. Interleukin-1 beta is a potent pro-inflammatory cytokine that triggers an immune response when released in response to an insult to the innate immune system. Canakinumab is not commonly prescribed and is indicated for Still’s disease and gouty arthritis in patients who have not responded to other treatments. It is important to note that infliximab, not canakinumab, targets tissue necrosis factor and is prescribed for a different set of conditions.
The Role of Interleukin 1 in the Immune Response
Interleukin 1 (IL-1) is a crucial mediator of the immune response, secreted primarily by macrophages and monocytes. Its main function is to act as a costimulator of T cell and B cell proliferation. Additionally, IL-1 increases the expression of adhesion molecules on the endothelium, leading to vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. This can cause shock in sepsis, making IL-1 one of the mediators of this condition. Along with IL-6 and TNF, IL-1 also acts on the hypothalamus, causing pyrexia.
Due to its significant role in the immune response, IL-1 inhibitors are increasingly used in medicine. Examples of these inhibitors include anakinra, an IL-1 receptor antagonist used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis, and canakinumab, a monoclonal antibody targeted at IL-1 beta used in systemic juvenile idiopathic arthritis and adult-onset Still’s disease. These inhibitors help to regulate the immune response and manage conditions where IL-1 plays a significant role.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old woman is prescribed doxazosin, an alpha-1-receptor antagonist, for hypertension. What side effects should she be informed about?
Your Answer: Flushing
Correct Answer: Postural hypotension
Explanation:Doxazosin, an alpha-1 antagonist, is known to cause postural hypotension as a prominent side effect. This is due to its ability to cause vasodilation and lead to pooling of venous blood in the legs, which can result in dizziness and syncope when standing from a sitting position. Dry cough, palpitations, and flushing are not commonly associated with doxazosin.
antihypertensive drugs are used to treat high blood pressure, but they can also have side-effects. ACE inhibitors can cause coughing and high levels of potassium in the blood. Bendroflumethiazide can lead to gout, low levels of potassium and sodium in the blood, and impaired glucose tolerance. Calcium channel blockers may cause headaches, flushing, and swelling in the ankles. Beta-blockers can cause bronchospasm (especially in people with asthma), fatigue, and cold extremities. Doxazosin can cause a drop in blood pressure when standing up. It is important to be aware of these potential side-effects when taking antihypertensive medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
A teenage girl is hospitalized with E-coli 0157 following a trip to Germany during an outbreak. What statement about the condition is false?
Your Answer: Adults typically develop haemolytic uraemic syndome.
Explanation:This complication is typically developed by children.
Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.
Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
A researcher is investigating the function of regulatory proteins in intracellular trafficking. He has discovered several intracellular proteins marked with significant ubiquitination.
To which organelles are these proteins targeted?Your Answer: Proteasome
Explanation:Proteins are marked with ubiquitin for degradation in both proteasomes and lysosomes.
Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of fever, chills, headache, muscle aches, and difficulty breathing for the past 24 hours. During the medical interview, she recalls leaving her tampon in for approximately 48 hours after her last menstrual cycle. The medical team suspects staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome as the underlying cause of her symptoms.
What is the potential reason for her symptoms if this diagnosis is accurate?Your Answer: Staphylococcus enterotoxin A
Correct Answer: TSST-1 superantigen toxin
Explanation:Understanding Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome is a severe reaction to staphylococcal exotoxins, specifically the TSST-1 superantigen toxin. It gained attention in the 1980s due to cases related to infected tampons. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention have established diagnostic criteria for this syndrome, which includes fever, hypotension, a diffuse erythematous rash, desquamation of the rash (especially on the palms and soles), and involvement of three or more organ systems. These organ systems may include the gastrointestinal system, mucous membranes, kidneys, liver, blood platelets, and the central nervous system.
The management of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome involves removing the source of infection, such as a retained tampon, and administering intravenous fluids and antibiotics. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if any of the symptoms of this syndrome are present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 19
Correct
-
A 30-year-old woman presents with similar symptoms as the previous case. She complains of shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and haemoptysis. Her vital signs are heart rate 110 bpm, blood pressure 110/65 mmHg, oxygen saturation 93% on room air, and respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute. A CT pulmonary angiography is ordered.
During the procedure, the patient's blood pressure drops to 80/50 mmHg, and she develops swollen lips and hives on her skin. The on-call physician administers IM adrenaline.
What is the purpose of the medication given?Your Answer: Acts on alpha-adrenergic receptors and causes vasoconstriction
Explanation:Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be treated with a combination of medications, including 1:1000 adrenaline, hydrocortisone, and chlorphenamine. Adrenaline should be administered immediately upon diagnosis as it acts on alpha-adrenergic receptors and causes vasoconstriction, which can help alleviate symptoms.
While hydrocortisone is also used in anaphylaxis, it takes time to work as it reduces the number of mast cells. Therefore, the administration of adrenaline should not be delayed due to hydrocortisone. Similarly, chlorphenamine is effective in treating anaphylaxis but should not delay the administration of adrenaline.
It is important to note that fluids are typically used to increase intravascular volume in hypovolemic shock, but in this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest anaphylaxis rather than hypovolemia.
Lastly, it is worth noting that while the patient is suspected to have a pulmonary embolism, adrenaline was not given as a thrombolytic agent but rather to treat the anaphylaxis.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 22-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of continuous dizziness and headache. The laboratory is requested to perform a full blood count and other tests. Upon manual examination of the specimen, the biochemist observes increased levels of haemoglobin with a normal appearance, indicating polycythemia. What characteristic of this protein suggests that it possesses quaternary structure?
Your Answer: It has exactly four polypeptide subunits
Correct Answer: It comprises multiple polypeptide chains
Explanation:A protein with a quaternary structure is haemoglobin, which is composed of multiple polypeptide subunits. While some quaternary proteins contain inorganic subgroups, others do not. Haemoglobin has four subunits, but the number of subunits in other quaternary proteins may vary. It is not exclusive to quaternary proteins to experience loss of function when a subunit changes. The size of a protein is not a determining factor in its structure.
Proteins and Peptides: Structure and Function
Proteins and peptides are essential molecules in the human body, made up of 20 amino acids bonded together by peptide bonds. Peptides are short chains of amino acids, while proteins are longer chains of 100 or more amino acids with more complex structures. The process of protein synthesis begins in the nucleus, where DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA, which is then translated by transfer RNA on cell ribosomes. The resulting protein folds into its destined structure, with primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary modifications.
The primary structure of a protein refers to the order of amino acids in the basic chain, while the secondary structure refers to the spatial arrangement of the primary structure. The tertiary structure is formed from structural changes and influences the protein’s role, while the quaternary structure is formed from multiple proteins to make a functional protein. The function of a protein is governed by its structure, with globular proteins having a wide range of roles, including enzymes.
Enzymes have an active site with a structure specific for one substrate, and when substrate and enzyme meet, they temporarily bond to form the enzyme-substrate complex. The substrate undergoes a biochemical change facilitated by the enzyme, resulting in the breakdown of the complex. Proteins also have structural roles, forming structures within the body such as keratin and collagen, and key roles in cell signaling and homeostasis, acting as mediators of transmembrane transport, cell receptors, and cell signaling. The endocrine system is an example of this, where hormones bind to cell surface receptors, triggering a cascade of protein interactions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
As a 2nd-year medical student on placement in a GP surgery in early February, you encounter a 79-year-old woman who comes in for a follow-up appointment due to fatigue. During the consultation, the GP reviews her blood tests and discovers a vitamin deficiency. The GP informs the patient that if left untreated, this deficiency can lead to bone softening. Can you explain how this vitamin increases serum calcium levels in the body?
Your Answer: Raises absorption of calcium in the small intestine
Explanation:The primary way in which vitamin D increases serum calcium levels is by enhancing its absorption through the small intestine.
Understanding Vitamin D
Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.
The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.
A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 5-year-old boy is taken to the doctor by his father due to a sore throat. Upon examination, the doctor determines that it is probably caused by a viral infection.
What structures will display antigens to activate cytotoxic T cells and initiate an immune response against this infection?Your Answer: MHC class II molecules
Correct Answer: MHC class I molecules
Explanation:Cytotoxic T cells identify antigens that are displayed by MHC class I molecules. CD8 receptors, which are present on cytotoxic T cells, can bind with MHC class I molecules.
On the other hand, MHC class II molecules can bind with CD4 receptors that are expressed on T helper cells. MHC class III molecules do not exist.
Antibodies are generated by the body to aid the immune response and do not participate in presenting antigens to immune cells.
The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.
B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
You are conducting interviews with a group of elderly patients from the cardiology department to gather information about the adverse effects of their medications. Your focus is on nicorandil, and you plan to create a worksheet outlining the adverse effect profiles of cardiology drugs. Which of the following adverse effects is most likely to be included on your list?
Your Answer: Sleep disturbances
Correct Answer: Flushing
Explanation:Nicorandil can cause flushing as an unwanted effect, along with lethargy, hypotension, dyspepsia, chest pain, and anal ulceration. Beta-blockers are not recommended for asthmatics due to their potential to cause cold peripheries, sleep disturbances, and bronchospasm. Calcium channel blockers may lead to ankle edema, constipation, and dyspepsia by relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter.
Side-Effects of Anti-Anginal Drugs
Anti-anginal drugs are used to treat angina, a condition characterized by chest pain or discomfort caused by reduced blood flow to the heart. However, like any other medication, these drugs can also cause side-effects. Here are some of the common side-effects of anti-anginal drugs:
Calcium channel blockers can cause headache, flushing, and ankle oedema. Verapamil, a type of calcium channel blocker, can also cause constipation.
Beta-blockers can cause bronchospasm, especially in asthmatics, fatigue, cold peripheries, and sleep disturbances.
Nitrates can cause headache, postural hypotension, and tachycardia.
Nicorandil can cause headache, flushing, and anal ulceration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 24
Correct
-
A patient in his 60s has just been released from the hospital following a STEMI. As part of his new medication regimen, he has been instructed to take an antiplatelet, commonly known as aspirin, on a daily basis for the remainder of his life. The doctor has informed him that this will lower his chances of developing blood clots that could be fatal.
What is the mode of action of this medication?Your Answer: Inhibits the formation of thromboxane A2
Explanation:Aspirin reduces platelet aggregation by decreasing the formation of thromboxane A2, which is a potent vasoconstrictor and facilitates platelet aggregation. This is achieved by irreversibly binding to cyclooxygenase (COX), an enzyme that converts arachidonic acid into various prostaglandin molecules, including thromboxane A2.
Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs), such as rivaroxaban, work by directly inhibiting clotting factor Xa. They are effective anticoagulants that require less monitoring than warfarin, which inhibits the production of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factor II, factor VII, factor IX, and factor X. Warfarin also inhibits some pro-thrombotic molecules, which initially increases the risk of thrombosis.
Dabigatran is a thrombin inhibitor and is another form of DOAC. It is currently the only DOAC with a reversal agent.
Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that prevents the activation of the glycoprotein GPIIb/IIIa complex, which is an essential mechanism for platelet aggregation.
How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease
Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.
Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) are commonly found in elderly patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). However, they can also be found in around 9% of elderly people without the condition. Therefore, as a test for diagnosing SLE, ANA has low:
Positive predictive value
15%
Sensitivity
19%
Specificity
56%
Negative predictive value
9%
Incidence
1%
If a test is falsely positive in 9% of the elderly population then that test has poor specificity.
Low specificity tests have many false positives (those without the condition test positive).
Low sensitivity tests have many false negatives (those with the condition are missed).Your Answer: Specificity
Explanation:If a medical test is unable to accurately identify individuals who have a particular condition, it is said to have poor specificity. This means that the test produces a high number of false positives, indicating that individuals who do not have the condition are incorrectly identified as having it. Conversely, if a test has low sensitivity, it misses a significant number of individuals who actually have the condition, resulting in false negatives.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 26
Correct
-
A 75-year-old man is brought to the hospital with a urinary tract infection. He has a history of hypertension and mild cognitive impairment.
The medical team observes that he has had recurrent urinary tract infections caused by Escherichia coli in the past year.
Which culture medium is required for the growth of this microorganism?Your Answer: MacConkey agar
Explanation:The correct medium for culturing Escherichia coli and obtaining pink colonies is MacConkey agar. This is because E. coli is a lactose-fermenting bacteria, and MacConkey’s agar contains lactose that is utilized by such bacteria to produce acid, resulting in the formation of pink colonies. Charcoal-yeast agar, chocolate agar, and Lowenstein-Jensen agar are not appropriate for culturing E. coli as they are used for isolating other bacteria that cause different illnesses.
Culture Requirements for Common Organisms
Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).
To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 27
Correct
-
A 14-year-old boy visits the GP clinic with his father, complaining of lower abdominal pain. He has a fever and has vomited twice in the last 24 hours. The GP suspects appendicitis and recommends further evaluation at the hospital. However, the patient refuses, becoming emotional and stating that he has an important sports game coming up. Despite the GP's attempts to explain the potential risks of refusing treatment, the patient continues to shake his head and refuses to discuss the matter further. His father becomes agitated, insisting that his son needs to go to the hospital for treatment. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this situation?
Your Answer: Ask the mother to consent to further treatment - as a parent in this instance, her decision overrides that of her daughter
Explanation:The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided guidance for doctors on the ethical principles surrounding consent to treatment in children in their publication ‘0-18 years: guidance for all doctors’ (2007). According to this guidance, if a child lacks capacity, their parents can provide consent for investigations and treatment that are deemed to be in the child’s best interests.
In this scenario, the patient is not displaying a sufficient level of maturity to comprehend the risks associated with refusing treatment. As the patient is under 16 years old, it can be assumed that they lack the capacity to make such a decision. Therefore, the responsibility of making a decision in the patient’s best interests falls to their mother.
The options of allowing the patient to go home or return the following day are not appropriate as appendicitis can become a serious and potentially life-threatening condition if left untreated. Asking the mother to leave would also not be a suitable course of action as her reaction is understandable given the circumstances and it is not in the patient’s best interests.
References:
General Medical Council. 0-18 years: guidance for all doctors. London: General Medical Council, 2007. p. 11-13.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
When it comes to obtaining consent in children, the General Medical Council has provided guidelines. For children aged 16 and above, they can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to decide. However, for those under 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines their capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
In terms of providing contraceptives to patients under 16, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and their physical or mental health is likely to suffer without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency for contraception and Gillick competency for general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused. For consistency over competence in children, it is crucial to follow these guidelines when obtaining consent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old boy has been brought to see the family physician by his mother. He has been unwell for the past 3 days with spiking temperatures, the highest one being 38.7ºC. He has been complaining of abdominal pain. He has not had diarrhoea or vomiting, although he complains of nausea. He has coryzal symptoms and you feel that the most likely cause of his illness is a viral infection. As you are about to discharge with some advice on supportive measures and pain-relief, the mother asks you to prescribe some aspirin for his fever and pain-relief because paracetamol has not helped at all. The physician explains that aspirin is not suitable for children younger than 16 years of age and that there is only one exception to this rule.
What is the reason for not prescribing aspirin in children under 16 years of age and what is the only exception to this rule?Your Answer: Aspirin use in children causes Reye's syndrome and the only exception is its use in viral respiratory tract infections
Correct Answer: Causes encephalopathy and brain damage, and the only exception is its use in the management of Kawasaki disease
Explanation:The majority of cases of Reye’s syndrome in children are linked to the use of aspirin (salicylate).
Kawasaki disease is a type of vasculitis that mainly affects children under the age of 5, causing symptoms such as high fever, swollen blood vessels, and enlarged lymph nodes. Aspirin is an exception and may be used in children under 16 years of age to treat this condition, which can also lead to heart damage.
Buerger’s disease is not treated with aspirin, so the second option is incorrect.
How Aspirin Works and its Use in Cardiovascular Disease
Aspirin is a medication that works by blocking the action of cyclooxygenase-1 and 2, which are responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandin, prostacyclin, and thromboxane. By blocking the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, aspirin reduces their ability to aggregate, making it a widely used medication in cardiovascular disease. However, recent trials have cast doubt on the use of aspirin in primary prevention of cardiovascular disease, and guidelines have not yet changed to reflect this. Aspirin should not be used in children under 16 due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome, except in cases of Kawasaki disease where the benefits outweigh the risks. As for its use in ischaemic heart disease, aspirin is recommended as a first-line treatment. It can also potentiate the effects of oral hypoglycaemics, warfarin, and steroids. It is important to note that recent guidelines recommend clopidogrel as a first-line treatment for ischaemic stroke and peripheral arterial disease, while the use of aspirin in TIAs remains a topic of debate among different guidelines.
Overall, aspirin’s mechanism of action and its use in cardiovascular disease make it a valuable medication in certain cases. However, recent studies have raised questions about its effectiveness in primary prevention, and prescribers should be aware of the potential risks and benefits when considering its use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following defines the standard error of the median?
Your Answer: Number of patients / square root (mean)
Correct Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
Explanation:Understanding Confidence Interval and Standard Error of the Mean
The confidence interval is a widely used concept in medical statistics, but it can be confusing to understand. In simple terms, it is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention. The likelihood of the true effect lying within the confidence interval is determined by the confidence level, which is the specified probability of including the true value of the variable. For instance, a 95% confidence interval means that the range of values should contain the true effect of intervention 95% of the time.
To calculate the confidence interval, we use the standard error of the mean (SEM), which measures the spread expected for the mean of the observations. The SEM is calculated by dividing the standard deviation (SD) by the square root of the sample size (n). As the sample size increases, the SEM gets smaller, indicating a more accurate sample mean from the true population mean.
A 95% confidence interval is calculated by subtracting and adding 1.96 times the SEM from the mean value. However, if the sample size is small (n < 100), a 'Student's T critical value' look-up table should be used instead of 1.96. Similarly, if a different confidence level is required, such as 90%, the value used in the formula should be adjusted accordingly. In summary, the confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention, and its calculation involves using the standard error of the mean. Understanding these concepts is crucial in interpreting statistical results in medical research.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A medical resident is performing an incision on a groin 'abscess' in a drug user who is injecting intravenously. Regrettably, the 'abscess' turns out to be a false aneurysm, leading to profuse bleeding. In the chaos of the moment, the resident accidentally pricks himself in the finger. Later on, it is discovered that the patient has Hepatitis B and the resident has not received any immunization. What classification does Hepatitis B belong to?
Your Answer: Single stranded DNA virus
Correct Answer: Double stranded DNA virus
Explanation:Hepatitis B is a hepadnavirus that contains DNA.
Understanding Hepatitis B: Causes, Symptoms, Complications, Prevention, and Management
Hepatitis B is a virus that spreads through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, including from mother to child during birth. The incubation period is typically 6-20 weeks. Symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases. Complications of the infection can include chronic hepatitis, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.
Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of an individual with hepatitis B, individuals receiving regular blood transfusions, chronic kidney disease patients, prisoners, and chronic liver disease patients. The vaccine is given in three doses and is typically effective, although around 10-15% of adults may not respond well to the vaccine.
Management of hepatitis B typically involves antiviral medications such as tenofovir, entecavir, and telbivudine, which aim to suppress viral replication. Pegylated interferon-alpha was previously the only treatment available and can still be used as a first-line treatment, but other medications are increasingly being used. A better response to treatment is predicted by being female, under 50 years old, having low HBV DNA levels, being non-Asian, being HIV negative, and having a high degree of inflammation on liver biopsy.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, complications, prevention, and management of hepatitis B is important for both healthcare professionals and the general public. Vaccination and early detection and treatment can help prevent the spread of the virus and reduce the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 31
Correct
-
A 32-year-old woman (gravida 2 para 2) has just given birth and is considering breastfeeding her newborn. She has heard that breast milk can provide immunoglobulins to protect her baby. What is the main type of immunoglobulin found in breast milk?
Your Answer: IgA
Explanation:Breast milk contains the highest concentration of IgA, which is the primary immunoglobulin present. Additionally, IgA can be found in the secretions of various bodily systems such as the digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 32
Correct
-
Which section of an antibody is targeted by immune cells?
Your Answer: Fc region
Explanation:Cells of the immune system attach to the fragment crystallizable (Fc) region of immunoglobulins during crystallization.
Antibodies, also known as immunoglobulins, can be categorized into two primary pairs:
1. Fab region, which is responsible for binding to antigens
2. Fc region, which is the tail end of an antibody that interacts with receptors on the surface of cells.Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 33
Correct
-
A 25-year-old female visits her doctor at 24 weeks of pregnancy. She underwent a sexual health screening that included a complement fixation test for herpes simplex virus, which came back positive. The doctor explains to her that the antibody tested for is typically the first antibody produced in response to an infection and may indicate a recent or new herpes virus infection. The patient is curious if her baby will be immune to herpes if she has developed antibodies during pregnancy.
What specific herpes simplex virus antibody was tested in this patient, and what counseling should be provided to her?Your Answer: IgM has been tested for - it does not cross the placenta
Explanation:The antibody that fixes complement but does not pass to the fetal circulation is IgM. Complement fixation tests are used to detect IgM and IgG class antibodies against specific microbial antigens, indicating a humoral immune response. IgM is the first antibody released in response to infection and is used in herpes simplex virus complement fixation testing. It does not cross the placenta. IgA is the predominant antibody in breast milk, while IgG is the only antibody that crosses the placenta. Therefore, options regarding IgG would be incorrect in this scenario.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
You are developing a research project investigating the pathophysiology of abetalipoproteinemia. You determine that a viable focus would be the rate-limiting enzyme involved in lipogenesis.
Which enzyme will be the target of your investigation?Your Answer: Glycogen phosphorylase
Correct Answer: Acetyl CoA carboxylase
Explanation:The enzyme that limits the rate of lipogenesis is acetyl CoA carboxylase.
During lipogenesis, fatty acids are produced from acetyl-CoA. Acetyl CoA carboxylase is the enzyme that controls the rate of this process.
Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I is the enzyme that limits the rate of the urea cycle.
Glycogen phosphorylase is the enzyme that controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the enzyme that limits the rate of the citric acid cycle.
Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes
Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.
For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.
The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 35
Correct
-
A 28-year-old primigravida at 31 weeks gestation experiences spontaneous labor. Why is she administered betamethasone intramuscularly?
Your Answer: To enhance foetal lung maturation
Explanation:The development of the respiratory system in a foetus begins at around the 4th week of gestation. Type II alveolar epithelial cells, also known as pneumocytes, secrete pulmonary surfactant which helps to lower surface tension at the air-liquid interface of the alveolus. The secretion of surfactant by foetuses starts at 24-28 weeks, but the lungs are not considered fully mature until around 35 weeks when alveoli have developed following the saccular phase and surfactant production is sufficient to prevent airway collapse.
In cases where premature labour is a concern, betamethasone, a corticosteroid, can be administered antenatally to stimulate foetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory complications in the newborn.
Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants
Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.
The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.
Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with vomiting and diarrhoea after consuming undercooked meat at a family gathering. She has no significant medical history and is typically healthy.
Her ABG results are as follows:
Reference Range
pH 7.48 7.35-7.45
pCO2 6.1kPa 4.5-6.0kPa
pO2 10.2kPa 10-13kPa
Cl 100mmol/L 95-105mmol/L
Na 142mmol/L 135-145mmol/L
K 3.2mmol/L 3.5-5 mmol/L
HCO3 30mEq/L 22-26mEq/L
What is the probable cause of her ABG findings?Your Answer: Vomiting and diarrhoea
Correct Answer: Vomiting
Explanation:The correct answer is vomiting, which can lead to metabolic alkalosis through the loss of stomach acids. This is supported by the ABG showing an alkalosis with high HCO3 and low potassium, likely due to bacterial gastroenteritis from undercooked meat. Acute kidney injury, diarrhoea, and laxative abuse are incorrect as they would cause metabolic acidosis, and the ABG shows an alkalosis.
Understanding Metabolic Alkalosis and Its Causes
Metabolic alkalosis is a condition that occurs when there is a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate in the body. This condition is mainly caused by problems in the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Some of the common causes of metabolic alkalosis include vomiting, diuretics, liquorice, carbenoxolone, primary hyperaldosteronism, Cushing’s syndrome, and Bartter’s syndrome.
The mechanism of metabolic alkalosis is primarily due to the activation of the renin-angiotensin II-aldosterone (RAA) system. This system is responsible for the reabsorption of sodium ions in exchange for hydrogen ions in the distal convoluted tubule. When there is a loss of sodium and chloride ions due to vomiting or diuretics, the RAA system is activated, leading to an increase in aldosterone levels.
In cases of hypokalaemia, where there is a shift of potassium ions from cells to the extracellular fluid, alkalosis occurs due to the shift of hydrogen ions into cells to maintain neutrality. Understanding the causes and mechanisms of metabolic alkalosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man is brought to the hospital due to acute delirium. Upon assessment, he appears disoriented to time and place, and is exhibiting responses to unseen stimuli. His family reports that he has been experiencing increased confusion over the past week, as well as complaining of stomach pains and constipation.
The patient has not been prescribed any new medications, but is regularly taking atorvastatin and ramipril. It is important to note that he is currently receiving palliative treatment for lung adenocarcinoma. The suspected cause of his delirium is paraneoplastic production of parathyroid hormone-related protein.
Which set of blood test results would best match the patient's clinical presentation?Your Answer: Raised parathyroid hormone, low calcium and high phosphate
Correct Answer: Low parathyroid hormone, high calcium and low phosphate
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms of hypercalcemia caused by a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with lung cancer, specifically squamous cell, adenocarcinoma, and small cell. Paraneoplastic syndromes occur when cancer cells produce hormones that disrupt the body’s normal balance. In this case, the cancer cells are producing a parathyroid-like hormone, which increases bone turnover and releases calcium, resulting in elevated serum calcium and decreased phosphate levels. The malignancy is producing an ectopic form of parathyroid hormone, which suppresses the body’s natural supply. If the patient had elevated parathyroid hormone levels, it would suggest primary hyperparathyroidism, which typically causes high calcium and low phosphate levels. Normal parathyroid hormone levels would indicate that the body’s homeostatic mechanisms are functioning properly, resulting in normal calcium and phosphate levels. Low parathyroid hormone levels, along with low calcium and high phosphate levels, may indicate primary hypoparathyroidism.
Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism
Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 38
Correct
-
A 25-year-old male is undergoing treatment for a complex skin infection that has not improved with flucloxacillin and vancomycin. You contact microbiology for advice on the best antimicrobial therapy, and they suggest daptomycin due to its effective coverage against gram-positive bacteria.
What is the mechanism of action of this medication?Your Answer: Interferes with the outer membrane of gram positive bacteria resulting in cell death
Explanation:Daptomycin causes cell death in gram-positive bacteria by interfering with their outer membrane. Aminoglycosides are bactericidal antibiotics that bind to the 30s ribosome subunit, leading to the misreading of mRNA and the synthesis of abnormal peptides that accumulate intracellularly, ultimately resulting in cell death. Quinolones inhibit bacterial DNA from unwinding and duplicating by blocking DNA topoisomerase. Trimethoprim inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis by binding to dihydrofolate reductase and preventing the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF), which is an essential precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway. Terbinafine blocks the biosynthesis of ergosterol, a crucial component of fungal cell membranes, by inhibiting squalene epoxidase.
The mechanism of action of antibiotics can be categorized into inhibiting cell wall formation, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, and RNA synthesis. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, macrolides, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid. Quinolones, metronidazole, sulphonamides, and trimethoprim inhibit DNA synthesis, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 39
Correct
-
A 22-year-old woman comes to the early pregnancy unit for her 12-week scan. She reports no pain or bleeding. The radiologist's ultrasound scan shows no foetal heart rate and a foetal pole corresponding to 8-week gestation, leading to a diagnosis of miscarriage. As this is her first pregnancy, she expresses her preference for medication over expectant management. You decide to prescribe a prostaglandin analogue.
What medication do you prescribe?Your Answer: Misoprostol
Explanation:Misoprostol is a medication that mimics the effects of prostaglandin E1 and is commonly used in medical miscarriage. It can be taken orally, sublingually, or as a vaginal pessary to induce strong uterine contractions and cervical ripening, leading to the expulsion of fetal tissue. Patients may experience abdominal pain and diarrhea as side effects. Desogestrel, on the other hand, is a progesterone-only pill that prevents ovulation and thickens cervical mucus, but it is not used in miscarriage. Mifepristone, an anti-progestogenic steroid, is often used in combination with misoprostol for miscarriage and termination of pregnancy. It blocks progesterone effects, sensitizes the myometrium to prostaglandin-induced contractions, and ripens the cervix. Methotrexate, which inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, is used in pregnancy termination and ectopic pregnancies that meet specific criteria. It is also used as a chemotherapy agent and immunological suppressant.
Drugs Used in Obstetrics and Gynaecology
Syntocinon is a synthetic form of oxytocin that is utilized in the active management of the third stage of labor. It aids in the contraction of the uterus, which reduces the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Additionally, it is used to induce labor. Ergometrine, an ergot alkaloid, is an alternative to oxytocin in the active management of the third stage of labor. It can decrease blood loss by constricting the vascular smooth muscle of the uterus. Its mechanism of action involves stimulating alpha-adrenergic, dopaminergic, and serotonergic receptors. However, it can cause coronary artery spasm as an adverse effect.
Mifepristone is used in combination with misoprostol to terminate pregnancies. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog that causes uterine contractions. Mifepristone is a competitive progesterone receptor antagonist. Its mechanism of action involves blocking the effects of progesterone, which is necessary for the maintenance of pregnancy. However, it can cause menorrhagia as an adverse effect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old patient with bronchiectasis complains of shortness of breath, fever, and productive cough with green sputum. The medical team takes cultures and prescribes gentamicin as an antibiotic. What is the mode of action of gentamicin?
Your Answer: Inhibit the 50S subunit of ribosomes
Correct Answer: Inhibit the 30S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:The inhibition of the 30S subunit of ribosomes is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides such as gentamicin. By preventing the production of essential proteins required for bacterial survival, these antibiotics are effective against bacterial infections. Other antibiotics, such as macrolides, clindamycin, and chloramphenicol, inhibit the 50S subunit, while beta-lactams and Vancomycin target cell wall synthesis. Quinolones inhibit DNA synthesis, and rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.
Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis work by targeting specific components of the bacterial ribosome, which is responsible for translating genetic information into proteins. Aminoglycosides bind to the 30S subunit of the ribosome, causing errors in the reading of mRNA. Tetracyclines also bind to the 30S subunit, but block the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA. Chloramphenicol and clindamycin both bind to the 50S subunit, inhibiting different steps in the process of protein synthesis. Macrolides also bind to the 50S subunit, but specifically inhibit the movement of tRNA from the acceptor site to the peptidyl site.
While these antibiotics can be effective in treating bacterial infections, they can also have adverse effects. Aminoglycosides are known to cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity, while tetracyclines can cause discolouration of teeth and photosensitivity. Chloramphenicol is associated with a rare but serious side effect called aplastic anaemia, and clindamycin is a common cause of C. difficile diarrhoea. Macrolides can cause nausea, especially erythromycin, and can also inhibit the activity of certain liver enzymes (P450) and prolong the QT interval. Despite these potential side effects, these antibiotics are still commonly used in clinical practice, particularly in patients who are allergic to penicillin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old woman visits the sexual health clinic with complaints of altered vaginal discharge and a burning sensation while urinating. She is worried about contracting sexually transmitted infections due to a recent sexual encounter.
During the examination, a high vaginal swab is taken, and stippled vaginal epithelial cells are observed under the microscope. Additionally, the whiff test yields a positive result.
Which organism is the probable culprit behind her symptoms?Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis
Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis, which leads to a decrease in aerobic lactobacilli and an increase in vaginal pH. Although not a sexually transmitted infection, BV is commonly found in sexually active women. Clue cells, or stippled vaginal epithelial cells, are a characteristic finding in BV, and a positive whiff test (fishy odor after the addition of potassium hydroxide) is also indicative of the condition. Yeast infections are caused by Candida, while Chlamydia trachomatis causes chlamydia, and lactobacilli are naturally occurring in the vagina.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old motorcyclist is admitted to the emergency department following a collision with a car. Upon secondary survey, a deep penetrating injury is discovered in the patient's left lateral thigh. The wound is surgically debrided and the patient is subsequently admitted to the neurological intensive care unit.
After a few days, the patient develops a fever and experiences significant swelling in the affected area. Upon applying pressure, crackling sounds are heard, leading to a suspected diagnosis of gas gangrene.
What is the mechanism behind the bacterial toxin responsible for the patient's clinical symptoms?Your Answer: ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor II
Correct Answer: Degradation of phospholipids
Explanation:The correct answer is degradation of phospholipids. Gas gangrene, which is characterized by deep tissue crepitus surrounding a penetrating wound, is caused by Clostridium perfringens, an organism that releases an alpha-toxin, a lecithinase enzyme that degrades phospholipids.
The mechanisms of diphtheria toxin and pseudomonas exotoxin A involve ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor II, which inhibits protein synthesis in human cells but does not cause gas gangrene.
Protein A, a virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus, binds the Fc region of IgA, but infection with Staphylococcus aureus is not associated with gas gangrene.
The tetanus toxin inhibits presynaptic GABA release, causing trismus and opisthotonus rather than gas gangrene.
Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences
Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.
Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.
On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.
Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old pregnant woman presents to the emergency department complaining of fever and abdominal pain. She recently returned from a trip to Thailand where she experienced a brief episode of food poisoning after consuming raw seafood.
During the physical examination, the patient displays mild bruising on her extremities and jaundice. Her abdomen is distended and tender to the touch, with hepatomegaly. Initial laboratory tests reveal abnormal liver function.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hepatitis A
Correct Answer: Hepatitis E
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis E
Hepatitis E is a type of RNA hepevirus that is transmitted through the faecal-oral route. Its incubation period ranges from 3 to 8 weeks. This disease is common in Central and South-East Asia, North and West Africa, and in Mexico. It causes a similar illness to hepatitis A, but with a higher mortality rate of about 20% during pregnancy. Unlike other types of hepatitis, Hepatitis E does not cause chronic disease or an increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. Although a vaccine is currently in development, it is not yet widely available.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old has recently been diagnosed with a sarcoma. Due to their young age, further genetic investigations were ordered which showed a p53 mutation. Their family history was assessed and they have been diagnosed with Li-Fraumeni syndrome.
What other condition is this person most susceptible to developing?Your Answer: Lymphoma
Correct Answer: Leukaemia
Explanation:Li-Fraumeni syndrome, which is caused by a mutation in the p53 gene, is a rare autosomal dominant disorder that increases the risk of early-onset breast cancer, sarcoma, and leukaemia. While basal cell carcinomas are not linked to p53 mutations and are instead associated with UV exposure, bladder cancer is more strongly associated with smoking than with p53 mutations. Additionally, while the risk of lymphoma increases with age, individuals with a p53 mutation are more likely to develop leukaemia.
Understanding p53 and its Role in Cancer
p53 is a gene that helps suppress tumours and is located on chromosome 17p. It is frequently mutated in breast, colon, and lung cancer. The gene is believed to be essential in regulating the cell cycle, preventing cells from entering the S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired. Additionally, p53 may play a crucial role in apoptosis, the process of programmed cell death.
Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterised by the early onset of various cancers, including sarcoma, breast cancer, and leukaemia. The condition is caused by mutations in the p53 gene, which can lead to a loss of its tumour-suppressing function. Understanding the role of p53 in cancer can help researchers develop new treatments and therapies for those affected by the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 45
Correct
-
A 9-month old baby is brought to the GP with developmental delay, failure to thrive, and poor feeding. The infant shows reluctance to play and cannot sit independently. Physical examination reveals small hands and feet, blond hair, pale skin, and a squint. Additionally, there is poor muscle tone centrally and unilaterally undescended testes. What syndrome is indicated by these clinical findings?
Your Answer: Prader-Willi syndrome
Explanation:The key factors in this scenario are the child’s physical characteristics and developmental delays. The child is not meeting their developmental milestones in gross motor skills and social interaction, and they exhibit physical features that suggest Prader-Willi syndrome, such as hypopigmentation, esotropia, small hands and feet, loss of muscle tone, and undescended testes. Prader-Willi syndrome is also known to cause failure to thrive in the first year or so, followed by hyperphagia and obesity.
While Klinefelter syndrome can also cause developmental delays, undescended or small testes, and reduced muscle strength, it does not typically present with the same physical features as Prader-Willi syndrome.
Marfan syndrome is characterized by different physical features, such as long, thin fingers and cardiovascular and respiratory issues, and does not typically cause the same symptoms as Prader-Willi syndrome.
DiGeorge syndrome can cause developmental delays, feeding difficulties, and hypotonia, but it also typically presents with facial abnormalities, hearing issues, and cardiac problems, which are not mentioned in this scenario.
Russell-Silver syndrome can cause developmental delays, poor muscle tone, feeding difficulties, and growth issues, but it also typically presents with distinct facial and skeletal abnormalities that are not mentioned in this scenario. Therefore, based on the information provided, Prader-Willi syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Prader-Willi Syndrome
Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. This disorder is an example of genetic imprinting, where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. If the gene is deleted from the father, it results in Prader-Willi syndrome, while if it is deleted from the mother, it results in Angelman syndrome.
There are two main causes of Prader-Willi syndrome. The first is a microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13, which accounts for 70% of cases. The second is maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15. This means that both copies of chromosome 15 are inherited from the mother, and there is no active Prader-Willi gene from the father.
The features of Prader-Willi syndrome include hypotonia during infancy, dysmorphic features, short stature, hypogonadism and infertility, learning difficulties, childhood obesity, and behavioral problems in adolescence. These symptoms can vary in severity and may require lifelong management.
In conclusion, Prader-Willi syndrome is a complex genetic disorder that affects multiple aspects of an individual’s health and development. Understanding the causes and features of this syndrome is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 46
Correct
-
You are the foundation year one doctor who has been asked to clerk a 70 year old male patient presenting to the medical admissions unit. He has been referred to you from the emergency department following triage. He presented with worsening shortness of breath and lethargy. On questioning you find that four weeks ago he could walk one mile on the flat without becoming breathless. He is now breathless at rest. He has no significant past medical history.
You review the chart and find the patient to be tachycardic (110 beats per minute - irregular), hypotensive (90/52 mmHg) with a Himalayan appearance to his temperature chart. He has spiked three temperatures above 38ºC since admission. He has no peripheral stigmata of disease with a normal JVP. Upon auscultation you note the patient to have evidence of a 3/6 pan systolic murmur. There is also evidence of bibasal crackles.
You commence oxygen and fluids, insert a urinary catheter and conduct an arterial blood gas (ABG). What other feature of the sepsis six should be commenced before prescribing antibiotics?Your Answer: Blood cultures
Explanation:1. Intravenous fluids (such as normal saline)
2. Placement of a urinary catheter
3. Administration of oxygen
4. Measurement of lactate levels (through venous or arterial blood gas analysis)
5. Prescription of antibioticsUnderstanding Sepsis: Classification and Management
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. The Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognise sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, while septic shock is a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favour, with quick SOFA (qSOFA) score being used to identify adult patients outside of ICU with suspected infection who are at heightened risk of mortality.
Management of sepsis involves identifying and treating the underlying cause of the patient’s condition, as well as providing support regardless of the cause or severity. NICE guidelines recommend using red flag and amber flag criteria for risk stratification. If any of the red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started straight away, which includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.
To help identify and categorise patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasising the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old cattle farmer who complains of nonspecific discomfort in the right upper quadrant. He denies any gastrointestinal symptoms but reports feeling generally unwell. Upon physical examination, the liver edge is palpable 6 cm below the costal margin and he has no fever.
An ultrasound is ordered and reveals a solitary large cyst in the liver. Due to the cyst's size, the decision is made to perform surgical resection in conjunction with optimal medical therapy.
What is the most probable causative organism responsible for this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Enterobius vermicularis
Correct Answer: Echinococcus granulosus
Explanation:On ultrasound, hepatic cysts are detected in a sheep farmer.
Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
A 13-year-old girl, who recently moved from South America to Canada, is brought to the hospital with jaw swelling. She is immediately referred to a specialist team for further evaluation. Upon testing, she is found to be positive for the Epstein-Barr virus. A sample of the mass is taken for microscopy, revealing a characteristic 'starry sky' appearance.
What oncogene is commonly linked to the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: ABL
Correct Answer: c-MYC
Explanation:Burkitt’s lymphoma is often linked to the c-MYC gene, which codes for a transcription factor. The diagnosis of Burkitt’s lymphoma is supported by the patient’s demographics, presentation, positive Epstein-Barr virus finding, and the characteristic starry sky appearance on microscopy. This cancer is typically associated with a reciprocal translocation involving the c-MYC gene, usually t(8:14).
The ABL gene codes for a cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase and is commonly involved in the fusion gene BCR-ABL1, which is associated with chronic myeloid leukemia.
BCL-2 codes for an apoptosis regulatory protein and is frequently mutated in follicular lymphoma.
RAS genes code for small proteins involved in G-protein coupled receptor signal transduction and are often mutated in various cancers, particularly pancreatic cancer.
Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.
In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 49
Correct
-
A 7-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by her father. The girl has distinct ‘elfin’ facies and is well known for her friendliness to all the practice staff. On examination, an ejection systolic murmur is heard. A Fluorescent in-situ hybridisation study confirms the diagnosis.
What is the most probable cause of her condition?Your Answer: Microdeletion on chromosome 7
Explanation:William’s syndrome is caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7 and is characterised by distinct facial features and extreme friendliness. Trinucleotide repeats are associated with Fragile X, Huntington’s, and Myotonic Dystrophy, while chromosomal trisomy can cause Down syndrome, Edwards syndrome, and Patau syndrome. Turner syndrome is caused by a karyotype of 46 XO. Viral infections at birth are not specifically associated with these conditions. Diagnosis for William’s syndrome is made with a FISH study.
Understanding William’s Syndrome
William’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects neurodevelopment and is caused by a microdeletion on chromosome 7. The condition is characterized by a range of physical and cognitive symptoms, including elfin-like facial features, short stature, learning difficulties, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. One of the most notable features of William’s syndrome is the individual’s friendly and social demeanor, which is often described as characteristic-like affect. Additionally, many individuals with William’s syndrome may also experience supravalvular aortic stenosis, a narrowing of the aorta that can lead to heart problems.
Diagnosis of William’s syndrome is typically made through FISH studies, which can detect the microdeletion on chromosome 7. While there is no cure for William’s syndrome, early intervention and support can help individuals with the condition to manage their symptoms and lead fulfilling lives. With proper care and attention, individuals with William’s syndrome can thrive and make meaningful contributions to their communities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 50
Correct
-
A 46-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of nosebleeds and bruising that started yesterday. He denies any recent injuries. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and had a recent flare-up that required treatment. The doctor suspects that the patient may have a deficiency in vitamin K, which clotting factor is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Factor VII
Explanation:In cases of malabsorption, such as Crohn’s disease, a deficiency in fat soluble vitamins (A,D,E and K) may occur. This can lead to symptoms such as easy bruising and epistaxis. Among the vitamin K dependent factors (II, VII, IX and X), factor VII is the first to decrease in the event of a deficiency. With a half-life of only 6 hours, a deficiency in factor VII can occur quickly and is likely responsible for the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Vitamin K
Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.
Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 51
Correct
-
A newborn is found to have ambiguous genitalia. Further examinations indicate the absence of epididymis, seminal vesicles, and ductus deferens. What is the typical embryonic structure that develops into these organs?
Your Answer: Mesonephric duct
Explanation:The male reproductive structures are derived from the mesonephric (Wolffian) duct, while it regresses in females. The allantois regresses and forms the urachus. The pharyngeal arches give rise to the structures of the head and neck. The internal female reproductive structures are derived from the paramesonephric duct. The kidney is formed from the ureteric bud.
Urogenital Embryology: Development of Kidneys and Genitals
During embryonic development, the urogenital system undergoes a series of changes that lead to the formation of the kidneys and genitals. The kidneys develop from the pronephros, which is rudimentary and non-functional, to the mesonephros, which functions as interim kidneys, and finally to the metanephros, which starts to function around the 9th to 10th week. The metanephros gives rise to the ureteric bud and the metanephrogenic blastema. The ureteric bud develops into the ureter, renal pelvis, collecting ducts, and calyces, while the metanephrogenic blastema gives rise to the glomerulus and renal tubules up to and including the distal convoluted tubule.
In males, the mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct) gives rise to the seminal vesicles, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, and ductus deferens. The paramesonephric duct (Mullerian duct) degenerates by default. In females, the paramesonephric duct gives rise to the fallopian tube, uterus, and upper third of the vagina. The urogenital sinus gives rise to the bulbourethral glands in males and Bartholin glands and Skene glands in females. The genital tubercle develops into the glans penis and clitoris, while the urogenital folds give rise to the ventral shaft of the penis and labia minora. The labioscrotal swelling develops into the scrotum in males and labia majora in females.
In summary, the development of the urogenital system is a complex process that involves the differentiation of various structures from different embryonic tissues. Understanding the embryology of the kidneys and genitals is important for diagnosing and treating congenital abnormalities and disorders of the urogenital system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
The concept of number needed to harm can be described as what?
Your Answer: The number of patients that do not receive a particular treatment for one patient to experience an adverse outcome.
Correct Answer: The number of patients that must receive a particular treatment for one additional patient to experience an adverse outcome.
Explanation:The concept of number needed to treat refers to the number of patients who need to be exposed to a certain risk-factor in order for one additional patient to benefit. Similarly, the number needed to harm refers to the number of patients who need to be exposed to a certain risk-factor in order for one additional patient to be harmed. To calculate the number needed to harm, one can use the formula 1/absolute risk reduction, which is the same formula used to calculate the number needed to treat. However, while the number needed to treat typically applies to therapeutic treatments, the number needed to harm applies to risk-factors for disease.
Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 53
Correct
-
While working in a paediatric unit, a 15-year-old patient is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. After his diagnosis you have a lengthy discussion with him and decide that he is competent to make the decision to begin treatment and that this is in his best interests. His parents ask to speak to you alone afterwards and they tell you that they do not want him to be treated as they have heard about the side-effects of treatment.
What is the most appropriate advice you can give them?Your Answer: Tell them that because the treatment is in his best interests and because he is competent to give consent, they cannot overrule his decision
Explanation:Even if parents disagree, a young person’s competent consent to treatment cannot be overridden if it is deemed to be in their best interests. This is according to the GMC’s guidance on 0-18 year olds.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
When it comes to obtaining consent in children, the General Medical Council has provided guidelines. For children aged 16 and above, they can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to decide. However, for those under 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines their capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
In terms of providing contraceptives to patients under 16, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and their physical or mental health is likely to suffer without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency for contraception and Gillick competency for general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused. For consistency over competence in children, it is crucial to follow these guidelines when obtaining consent.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 54
Correct
-
Samantha is 49-years-old and is being treated for hypertension and gout. Besides a recent gout flare-up, she is currently in good health. Her current medications include Lisinopril, Amlodipine, Bendroflumethiazide, Naproxen, and Allopurinol. During her bi-annual GP review, a random venous glucose test shows a reading of 12.1 mmol/L, and a subsequent oral glucose tolerance test reveals a result of 9.2 mmol/L. What is the most probable reason for her abnormal glucose levels?
Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide
Explanation:Drugs that can cause impaired glucose tolerance
Impaired glucose tolerance can be caused by certain medications. These drugs include thiazides, furosemide (although less common), steroids, tacrolimus, ciclosporin, interferon-alpha, nicotinic acid, and antipsychotics. Beta-blockers can also cause a slight impairment of glucose tolerance and should be used with caution in diabetics as they can interfere with the metabolic and autonomic responses to hypoglycemia. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential side effects and monitor patients accordingly, especially those with pre-existing diabetes or at risk for developing diabetes. Adequate management and monitoring can help prevent further complications and ensure optimal patient care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
During a hand examination of a 75-year-old woman, it was observed that her fingers had a swan-neck deformity and her thumbs had a Z-shape deformity on both hands. After conducting blood tests, the rheumatologist confirmed the presence of anti-CCP antibodies, indicating a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Which cells, originating from pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells, are responsible for producing antigen-specific immunoglobulins?
Your Answer: T cells
Correct Answer: B cells
Explanation:B cells produce antibodies, which are essential in fighting off new pathogens. T helper cells assist B cells by promoting the production of targeted antibodies.
Mast cells release inflammatory mediators, contributing to the body’s immune response.
Dendritic cells present antigens to help recruit white blood cells.
T cells are responsible for immunological memory and the adaptive immune response.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 56
Correct
-
A 26-year-old female patient visits her doctor with a complaint of dysuria that has been bothering her for the last 48 hours. She reports that her urine appears cloudier than usual. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the doctor observes positive results for both leukocytes and nitrites. As a result, the doctor prescribes a 3-day course of trimethoprim to treat the suspected urinary tract infection.
What is the mode of action of the selected antibiotic?Your Answer: Inhibits folic acid formation
Explanation:Trimethoprim inhibits the formation of folic acid, making it an effective antibiotic. Other antibiotics, such as penicillin, disrupt bacterial cell wall formation, macrolides inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of ribosomes, aminoglycosides inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30S subunit of ribosomes, and rifampicin is an RNA polymerase inhibitor.
Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
What is the process called for the removal of non-coding sequences from pre-mRNA and what is the term used for the genes that are removed?
Your Answer: Splicing - exons
Correct Answer: Splicing - introns
Explanation:RNA splicing is the process of removing non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joining the protein-coding sequences (exons) to form mature RNA ready for translation into a protein. This process occurs in spliceosomes and is catalysed by small nuclear ribonucleoproteins. The coding sections that remain are known as exons. Capping and polyadenylation are not the correct answers as they refer to different processes that protect mRNA from degradation. The term for the non-coding genes being removed is introns, not exons.
Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 58
Correct
-
What is true about dependent variables?
Your Answer: They are affected by changes of independent variables
Explanation:Understanding Variables in Research
Variables are characteristics, numbers, or quantities that can be measured or counted. They are also known as data items and can vary between data units in a population. Examples of variables include age, sex, income, expenses, and grades. In a typical study, there are three main variables: independent, dependent, and controlled.
The independent variable is the one that the researcher purposely changes during the investigation. The dependent variable is the one that is observed and changes in response to the independent variable. Controlled variables are those that are not changed during the experiment.
Dependent variables are affected by independent variables but not by controlled variables. For instance, in a weight loss medication study, the dosage of the medication is the independent variable, while the weight of the participants is the dependent variable. The researcher splits the participants into three groups, with each group receiving a different dosage of the medication. After six months, the participants’ weights are measured.
Understanding variables is crucial in research as it helps researchers to identify the factors that influence the outcome of their studies. By manipulating the independent variable, researchers can observe how it affects the dependent variable. Controlled variables help to ensure that the results are accurate and reliable.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 59
Correct
-
A study is conducted at a GP practice examining the records of alcohol consumption in enrolled patients. Out of the 600 patients at the practice, 120 are categorized as regular drinkers in the system on that day.
What is the most appropriate way to describe this?Your Answer: Point prevalence
Explanation:The point prevalence is calculated by dividing the number of cases in a defined population by the number of people in the same population at a specific time. In this study, the point prevalence of current smokers was determined among enrolled patients at a GP practice on a single day.
Understanding Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.
To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.
Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 60
Correct
-
A familiar alcohol dependent woman arrives at the emergency department with ophthalmoplegia, ataxia and confusion. She is administered IV pabrinex to rectify the probable vitamin deficiency causing her symptoms.
What is the function of this vitamin within the body?Your Answer: Catabolism of sugars and amino acids
Explanation:Thiamine plays a crucial role in breaking down sugars and amino acids. When there is a deficiency of thiamine, it can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is commonly seen in individuals with alcohol dependence or malnutrition.
The deficiency of thiamine affects the highly aerobic tissues of the brain and heart, resulting in conditions like Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome or beriberi.
Retinal production requires Vitamin A, while collagen synthesis needs Vitamin C. Vitamin D helps in increasing plasma calcium and phosphate levels.
The Importance of Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) in the Body
Vitamin B1, also known as thiamine, is a water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It plays a crucial role in the body as one of its phosphate derivatives, thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP), acts as a coenzyme in various enzymatic reactions. These reactions include the catabolism of sugars and amino acids, such as pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, and branched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase complex.
Thiamine deficiency can lead to clinical consequences, particularly in highly aerobic tissues like the brain and heart. The brain can develop Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which presents symptoms such as nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Meanwhile, the heart can develop wet beriberi, which causes dilated cardiomyopathy. Other conditions associated with thiamine deficiency include dry beriberi, which leads to peripheral neuropathy, and Korsakoff’s syndrome, which causes amnesia and confabulation.
The primary causes of thiamine deficiency are alcohol excess and malnutrition. Alcoholics are routinely recommended to take thiamine supplements to prevent deficiency. Overall, thiamine is an essential vitamin that plays a vital role in the body’s metabolic processes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
A research group evaluating the effectiveness of a new exercise program in reducing blood pressure. A group of 200 volunteers was recruited. Half of the volunteers were over the age of 50 and were given the exercise program. The other half of the volunteers were under the age of 50 and were not given the exercise program.
The group was followed-up over the next 6 months. Blood pressure readings were taken at the beginning and end of the study. Results were divided into 2 categories: volunteers who had a decrease in blood pressure and volunteers who did not have a decrease in blood pressure.
At the end of the study, the results obtained were as follows:
Outcome Exercise program No exercise program
Decrease in blood pressure (over 50 years old) 25 10
Decrease in blood pressure (under 50 years old) 20 15
No decrease in blood pressure (over 50 years old) 10 15
No decrease in blood pressure (under 50 years old) 30 30
The researchers are unsure of the significance of the results obtained.
Which of the following statistical tests would be most appropriate?Your Answer: Paired t-test
Correct Answer: Pearson's chi-square test
Explanation:The paired t-test is a statistical test used to compare the means of two related groups, such as before and after measurements of the same individuals. It is appropriate when the data is continuous and normally distributed.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 62
Correct
-
A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant has visited her general practitioner complaining of pain during urination. She has no other symptoms and no significant medical or drug history. Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the results show positive for nitrites and leukocytes. The general practitioner suspects a potential urinary tract infection and wants to prescribe antibiotics. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe in this situation?
Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
You are preparing a presentation on cell cycle for the biology students allocated to you. You have created a table to compare the different stages of the cell cycle. A template of the table is shown below:
Stage Important points to note
G0
G1
S
G2
Mitosis
Which one of the following notes should be added to the notes section for mitosis?Your Answer: Centrosome duplication
Correct Answer: Shortest phase of the cell cycle
Explanation:The cell cycle consists of various stages, with mitosis being the briefest. The resting phase is known as G0, while the length of the cycle is determined by G1. The interphase is the longest phase, and centrosome duplication takes place during DNA synthesis.
The Cell Cycle and its Regulation
The cell cycle is a process that regulates the growth and division of cells. It is controlled by proteins called cyclins, which in turn regulate cyclin-dependent kinase (CDK) enzymes. The cycle is divided into four phases: G0, G1, S, G2, and M. During the G0 phase, cells are in a resting state, while in G1, cells increase in size and determine the length of the cell cycle. Cyclin D/CDK4, Cyclin D/CDK6, and Cyclin E/CDK2 regulate the transition from G1 to S phase. In the S phase, DNA, RNA, and histones are synthesized, and centrosome duplication occurs. Cyclin A/CDK2 is active during this phase. In G2, cells continue to increase in size, and Cyclin B/CDK1 regulates the transition from G2 to M phase. Finally, in the M phase, mitosis occurs, which is the shortest phase of the cell cycle. The cell cycle is regulated by various proteins, including p53, which plays a crucial role in the G1 phase. Understanding the regulation of the cell cycle is essential for the development of new treatments for diseases such as cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 64
Correct
-
A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother after she found him having seizures. She reports that he has not eaten anything all day. The child is hyperventilating.
Blood results reveal:
- Low fasting glucose
- High urea
- Normal sodium
- Normal potassium
- High triglycerides
- pH of 7.29
Upon palpation of his abdomen, hepatomegaly is noted.
An ultrasound scan of the abdomen shows enlarged kidneys.
Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis and underlying cause of this child's presentation?Your Answer: A defect in glucose-6-phosphatase
Explanation:Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency is the cause of Von Gierke’s disease. This condition is characterized by an inability to maintain adequate blood glucose levels during the post-absorptive hours of each day, which can lead to seizures due to hypoglycemia. Excessive lactate and urate generation also occur, resulting in hyperuricemia and organ damage. Children are typically diagnosed at 2 years of age and may present with hepatomegaly, hyperventilation, respiratory distress, vomiting, and other manifestations of hypoglycemia. Other enzyme deficiencies and their associated conditions include galactocerebrosidase deficiency in Krabbe’s disease, alpha-L iduronidase deficiency in Hurler’s disease, N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphate transferase deficiency in Inclusion cell disease, lysosomal acid alpha-glucosidase deficiency in Pompe disease, Hexosaminidase A deficiency in Tay-Sachs disease, and alpha-galactosidase deficiency in Fabry’s disease.
Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies
Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.
Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.
Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.
Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 65
Correct
-
A 85-year-old male presents with a 2-week history of urinary frequency and urgency. He explains the symptoms are particularly bothersome at night where he wakes up three to four times to urinate. Additionally, he feels as though he cannot fully empty his bladder.
During examination, a digital rectal exam reveals a smooth enlarged prostate.
What is the mechanism of action of the medication prescribed for symptomatic relief?Your Answer: Steroidal 5α-reductase inhibitor
Explanation:Understanding Finasteride: Its Uses and Side Effects
Finasteride is a medication that works by inhibiting the activity of an enzyme called 5 alpha-reductase. This enzyme is responsible for converting testosterone into dihydrotestosterone, a hormone that contributes to the development of benign prostatic hyperplasia and male-pattern baldness. By blocking this enzyme, finasteride can help alleviate the symptoms of these conditions.
Finasteride is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, a condition in which the prostate gland becomes enlarged and causes urinary problems. It is also used to treat male-pattern baldness, a genetic condition that causes hair loss in men. However, like any medication, finasteride can cause side effects. Some of the most common side effects of finasteride include impotence, decreased libido, ejaculation disorders, gynaecomastia, and breast tenderness. Additionally, finasteride can cause decreased levels of serum prostate-specific antigen, a protein that is often used to screen for prostate cancer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 66
Correct
-
You receive the results of a 50-year-old male's annual blood test. He has not reported any new symptoms. He has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation, hypertension, hypothyroidism, end-stage kidney failure and a renal transplant. His current medications are bisoprolol, levothyroxine, ramipril and tacrolimus.
The results of his blood test are as follows:
Hb 145 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 322 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 4.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
HbA1c 65 mmol/mol (<42)
What is the most likely cause of this patient's abnormal blood results?Your Answer: Tacrolimus
Explanation:Tacrolimus is the most likely cause of hyperglycaemia in this patient. This is because the BNF lists diabetes mellitus as a common/very common side effect of tacrolimus.
Beta-blockers, such as bisoprolol, do not typically affect HbA1c levels. Their side effects include fatigue, poor circulation, and gastrointestinal upset.
Levothyroxine also does not typically affect HbA1c levels. Its common side effects include increased appetite, weight loss, and anxiety.
ACE-inhibitors, like ramipril, do not typically cause changes in HbA1c levels. However, their side effects can include dry cough, hyperkalaemia, and angioedema.
Tacrolimus: An Immunosuppressant for Transplant Rejection Prevention
Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant drug that is commonly used to prevent transplant rejection. It belongs to the calcineurin inhibitor class of drugs and has a similar action to ciclosporin. The drug works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. It binds to FKBP, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells. This is different from ciclosporin, which binds to cyclophilin instead of FKBP.
Compared to ciclosporin, tacrolimus is more potent, resulting in a lower incidence of organ rejection. However, it is also associated with a higher risk of nephrotoxicity and impaired glucose tolerance. Despite these potential side effects, tacrolimus remains an important drug in preventing transplant rejection and improving the success of organ transplantation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
A 6-year-old girl presents to the GP with blood in her urine for the past 2 days. Her mother reports that this is the first time this has happened to the child, and that the child did not complain of any pain during micturition. The child's medical history is significant for having an episode of fever and pharyngitis four weeks ago, which was associated with a swollen, 'strawberry' tongue and an erythematous sandpapery rash. She was treated with a 10-day course of amoxicillin, which has been successfully completed. The child has recovered entirely from that episode, and did not have any residual symptoms. There is no other known medical conditions or known drug allergies.
On examination, the GP notes mild periorbital swelling and pedal oedema. An abdominal examination is performed and is unremarkable. Examination of the oral cavity is also unremarkable, and no rashes are noted. The child's blood pressure is 140/95 (normal range: SBP 97-115 mmHg, DBP: 57-76 mmHg) and her temperature is 36.5ºC.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this 6-year-old girl who presents with blood in her urine?Your Answer: Goodpasture syndrome
Correct Answer: Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Scarlet fever is a probable cause of the child’s recent infection, given the symptoms of fever, pharyngitis, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a sandpapery rash. This infection is caused by group A Streptococcus, which can lead to post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN) as a potential complication. PSGN can present as nephritic syndrome, which is evident in the child’s current symptoms of haematuria, hypertension, and oedema. PSGN typically occurs 10-30 days after the acute infection due to molecular mimicry.
Another possible cause of nephritic syndrome is IgA nephropathy, which is triggered by an acute infection. However, it usually occurs during or immediately after the acute infection, is more common in males, and peaks in the second to third decade of life.
While urinary tract infection can cause haematuria, the child’s lack of dysuria and fever makes it unlikely. Additionally, urinary tract infections do not typically cause hypertension or oedema.
Henoch-Schonlein Purpura (HSP) can manifest 1-3 weeks after an upper respiratory tract infection. However, the child does not exhibit other HSP symptoms such as abdominal pain or arthralgia, making it an unlikely diagnosis.
Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease is spread through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. Scarlet fever is usually a mild illness, but it may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be started immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes. The rash is often described as having a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture, and children often have a flushed appearance with circumoral pallor. Invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, and necrotizing fasciitis are rare but may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man complains of back pain that has been progressively worsening over the past 2 months. He also reports experiencing nocturia, urinary urgency, and frequency. The possibility of malignancy is being considered.
What is the embryological origin of the primary cancer that is most likely causing these symptoms in this patient?Your Answer: Ureteric bud
Correct Answer: Urogenital sinus
Explanation:The prostate gland originates from the urogenital sinus, which also gives rise to the bulbourethral glands in males and Bartholin and Skene glands in females. The patient in question is likely suffering from prostate cancer, which has a tendency to spread to the vertebrae. The urethral fold gives rise to the ventral shaft of the penis in males and the labia minora in females, while the genital tubercle gives rise to the glans penis, corpus cavernosum, and spongiosum in males and the glans clitoris and vestibular bulbs in females. Finally, the labioscrotal swelling gives rise to the scrotum in males and the labia majora in females.
Urogenital Embryology: Development of Kidneys and Genitals
During embryonic development, the urogenital system undergoes a series of changes that lead to the formation of the kidneys and genitals. The kidneys develop from the pronephros, which is rudimentary and non-functional, to the mesonephros, which functions as interim kidneys, and finally to the metanephros, which starts to function around the 9th to 10th week. The metanephros gives rise to the ureteric bud and the metanephrogenic blastema. The ureteric bud develops into the ureter, renal pelvis, collecting ducts, and calyces, while the metanephrogenic blastema gives rise to the glomerulus and renal tubules up to and including the distal convoluted tubule.
In males, the mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct) gives rise to the seminal vesicles, epididymis, ejaculatory duct, and ductus deferens. The paramesonephric duct (Mullerian duct) degenerates by default. In females, the paramesonephric duct gives rise to the fallopian tube, uterus, and upper third of the vagina. The urogenital sinus gives rise to the bulbourethral glands in males and Bartholin glands and Skene glands in females. The genital tubercle develops into the glans penis and clitoris, while the urogenital folds give rise to the ventral shaft of the penis and labia minora. The labioscrotal swelling develops into the scrotum in males and labia majora in females.
In summary, the development of the urogenital system is a complex process that involves the differentiation of various structures from different embryonic tissues. Understanding the embryology of the kidneys and genitals is important for diagnosing and treating congenital abnormalities and disorders of the urogenital system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of constipation, low mood, and back pain.
Her blood results are as follows:
Hb 125 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
Calcium 3.1 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 0.6 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
Magnesium 0.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 4.5 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 9.0 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 80 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:The likely diagnosis for the patient’s condition is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is characterized by an excess release of parathyroid hormone (PTH) that stimulates osteoclast activity and causes an increase in blood calcium levels while decreasing phosphate levels. This is different from secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is caused by kidney damage that reduces vitamin D hydroxylation and results in lower/normal calcium levels and higher phosphate levels. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism presents with high levels of PTH, calcium, and phosphate. Hypothyroidism is not the cause as there are no abnormalities in TSH and free T4 levels. Although multiple myeloma also presents with high calcium levels, it is usually accompanied by anemia and renal failure, which are not present in this case as the patient’s hemoglobin and creatinine levels are normal.
Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism
Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
What is the rate limiting enzyme of the citric acid cycle?
Your Answer: Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
Correct Answer: Isocitrate dehydrogenase
Explanation:Isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate limiting enzyme for the TCA cycle, which occurs in the mitochondrial matrix in the presence of oxygen and results in the complete oxidation of acetyl Co-A in aerobic respiration. phosphofructokinase-1 is the rate limiting enzyme for glycolysis, while glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase are the rate limiting enzymes for glycogenesis and glycogenolysis, respectively. The rate limiting enzyme for the pentose phosphate pathway is glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase.
Rate-Determining Enzymes in Metabolic Processes
Metabolic processes involve a series of chemical reactions that occur in living organisms to maintain life. Enzymes play a crucial role in these processes by catalyzing the reactions. However, not all enzymes have the same impact on the rate of the reaction. Some enzymes are rate-determining, meaning that they control the overall rate of the process. The table above lists the rate-determining enzymes involved in common metabolic processes.
For example, in the TCA cycle, isocitrate dehydrogenase is the rate-determining enzyme. In glycolysis, phosphofructokinase-1 controls the rate of the process. In gluconeogenesis, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase is the rate-determining enzyme. Similarly, glycogen synthase controls the rate of glycogenesis, while glycogen phosphorylase controls the rate of glycogenolysis.
Other metabolic processes, such as lipogenesis, lipolysis, cholesterol synthesis, and ketogenesis, also have rate-determining enzymes. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase controls the rate of lipogenesis, while carnitine-palmitoyl transferase I controls the rate of lipolysis. HMG-CoA reductase is the rate-determining enzyme in cholesterol synthesis, while HMG-CoA synthase controls the rate of ketogenesis.
The urea cycle, de novo pyrimidine synthesis, and de novo purine synthesis also have rate-determining enzymes. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I controls the rate of the urea cycle, while carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II controls the rate of de novo pyrimidine synthesis. Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase is the rate-determining enzyme in de novo purine synthesis.
Understanding the rate-determining enzymes in metabolic processes is crucial for developing treatments for metabolic disorders and diseases. By targeting these enzymes, researchers can potentially regulate the rate of the process and improve the health outcomes of individuals with these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 71
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with seizures. She reports experiencing headaches, nausea, vomiting, and fevers for the past week. She was diagnosed with HIV 3 years ago but has been noncompliant with her medication due to forgetfulness. On lumbar puncture, her CSF shows a high opening pressure and India ink staining. A head CT reveals cerebral edema.
What is the probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Encephalitis
Correct Answer: Cryptococcus neoformans
Explanation:Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungal infection that commonly affects the central nervous system and is often associated with HIV. This patient is at risk of developing neurological complications due to non-compliance with medication. Symptoms of Cryptococcus neoformans infection include seizures, headache, nausea, vomiting, and focal neurological deficits. A lumbar puncture will reveal high opening pressure and a positive India ink test.
AIDS dementia complex typically has a more gradual onset than the acute symptoms seen in this patient. Patients with AIDS dementia complex may experience behavioral changes and motor impairment over a longer period of time.
Encephalitis is a potential differential diagnosis for patients with neurological symptoms suggestive of infection, but the findings on lumbar puncture in this patient make Cryptococcus neoformans infection more likely.
PML is caused by JC virus infection of oligodendrocytes. Patients with PML typically experience subacute onset of symptoms such as behavioral changes, speech impairment, motor impairment, or visual impairment. CT scans may show single or multiple lesions, but the CSF will not stain with India ink.
Neurological complications are common in patients with HIV. Focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis can cause symptoms such as headache, confusion, and drowsiness. Toxoplasmosis is the most common cause of cerebral lesions in HIV patients and is treated with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine. Primary CNS lymphoma, which is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus, is treated with steroids, chemotherapy, and whole brain irradiation. Differentiating between toxoplasmosis and lymphoma is important for proper treatment. Generalized neurological diseases such as encephalitis, cryptococcus, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), and AIDS dementia complex can also occur in HIV patients. Encephalitis may be due to CMV or HIV itself, while cryptococcus is the most common fungal infection of the CNS. PML is caused by infection of oligodendrocytes by JC virus, and AIDS dementia complex is caused by the HIV virus itself. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these neurological complications is crucial for improving outcomes in HIV patients.
Neurological Complications in HIV Patients
Introduction to the common neurological complications in HIV patients, including focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis.
Details on the diagnosis and treatment of toxoplasmosis and primary CNS lymphoma, including the importance of differentiating between the two.
Overview of generalized neurological diseases in HIV patients, including encephalitis, cryptococcus, PML, and AIDS dementia complex.
Importance of proper diagnosis and treatment for improving outcomes in HIV patients with neurological complications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
You are attending a journal club run for the senior doctors of the geriatrics department, where you are completing a rotation. In this session, one of the doctors presents a paper that is examining the impact of a new medication on elderly patients.
Throughout the presentation, the doctor highlights several limitations of the study and mentions that the likelihood of a type II error is significant.
What does this mean in terms of the study's findings?Your Answer: The null hypothesis may have been rejected incorrectly
Correct Answer: The null hypothesis may have been accepted incorrectly
Explanation:A type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted even though it is false. This means that the study fails to detect a difference that actually exists. It is important to note that a type II error does not necessarily indicate a flaw in the study design, but rather a lack of sufficient evidence to reject the null hypothesis.
It is possible for a study to use appropriate methods and still produce a type II error. Therefore, it is important to analyze the evidence separately from the study design.
In contrast, a type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected incorrectly.
The probabilities of type I and type II errors are not directly related, as they are influenced by different factors.
The P value is a measure of the likelihood that the results are due to chance, and should be considered separately from the possibility of a type II error.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
A study examines the effectiveness of adding a new antiplatelet drug to aspirin for patients over the age of 60 who have had a stroke. One hundred and fifty patients over the age of 60 are recruited for the study, with 100 receiving the new drug in addition to aspirin and the remaining 50 receiving only aspirin. After 5 years, 12 patients who received the new drug had a further stroke compared to 8 patients who just received aspirin. What is the number needed to treat?
Your Answer: 8
Correct Answer: 20
Explanation:Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old male patient visits the neurology clinic for a routine follow-up of his Parkinson's disease, which he has been diagnosed with for a few years now. Despite trying various medications, the patient's symptoms have been progressively deteriorating. The neurologist decides to add amantadine to his treatment regimen, in addition to other medications. Apart from its dopaminergic effects, the drug also possesses antiviral properties.
What is the mechanism of action of amantadine's antiviral activity?Your Answer: Inhibits neuraminidase
Correct Answer: Inhibits uncoating of virus in cell
Explanation:Amantadine inhibits the uncoating of viruses in cells by targeting the M2 protein channel. Although it is no longer commonly used to treat influenzae, its mechanism of action is still relevant for exams. Amantadine also has the ability to release dopamine from nerve endings.
Interferon-alpha is an antiviral agent that inhibits mRNA synthesis and is used to treat chronic hepatitis B and C.
Oseltamivir works by inhibiting neuraminidase and is used to treat influenzae.
acyclovir and ganciclovir inhibit viral DNA polymerase and are used to treat various viral infections, including varicella-zoster virus and herpes simplex virus.
Ribavirin interferes with the capping of viral mRNA and is used to treat chronic hepatitis C.
Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.
In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of frequent urination at night for the past three months. The GP orders several blood tests, and the results are as follows:
- Hb: 118 g/L (Female: 115-160)
- Platelets: 320 * 109/L (150-400)
- WBC: 6.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
- Na+: 137 mmol/L (135-145)
- K+: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
- Urea: 5.8 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
- Creatinine: 98 µmol/L (55-120)
- CRP: 3 mg/L (<5)
- Blood glucose: 15.8 mmol/L
The patient's medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, ulcerative colitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis treated with a liver transplant. Which of her medications could be contributing to her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tacrolimus
Explanation:Tacrolimus: An Immunosuppressant for Transplant Rejection Prevention
Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant drug that is commonly used to prevent transplant rejection. It belongs to the calcineurin inhibitor class of drugs and has a similar action to ciclosporin. The drug works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. It binds to FKBP, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells. This is different from ciclosporin, which binds to cyclophilin instead of FKBP.
Compared to ciclosporin, tacrolimus is more potent, resulting in a lower incidence of organ rejection. However, it is also associated with a higher risk of nephrotoxicity and impaired glucose tolerance. Despite these potential side effects, tacrolimus remains an important drug in preventing transplant rejection and improving the success of organ transplantation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male patient complains of lymphadenopathy, fatigue, and weight loss. Upon diagnosis, he is found to have tuberculosis. What is the most similar pathological process underlying this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are characterized by the formation of granulomas, which are observed in tuberculosis.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP clinic to see the nurse for a follow-up evaluation of a deep cut injury that happened 4 weeks ago while preparing food, requiring multiple stitches. She has no significant medical history and is in good health. The nurse observes that the wound appears smaller than before and that a pale scar has begun to develop. The nurse informs the patient that this is a positive sign, but that this stage of the healing process takes the longest time.
Which stage of the healing process is the nurse likely referring to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Remodelling
Explanation:The remodelling phase of wound healing is the lengthiest, lasting from six weeks to a year. Given that the injury happened a few weeks ago, it is probable that the patient is currently in this stage of the healing process.
The Four Phases of Wound Healing
Wound healing is a complex process that involves four distinct phases: haemostasis, inflammation, regeneration, and remodelling. During the haemostasis phase, the body works to stop bleeding by constricting blood vessels and forming a clot. This is followed by the inflammation phase, during which immune cells migrate to the wound site to fight infection and release growth factors that stimulate the production of new tissue. Fibroblasts, which are cells that produce collagen, also migrate to the wound site during this phase.
The regeneration phase is characterized by the production of new tissue, including blood vessels and collagen. This phase can last several weeks and is critical for the formation of granulation tissue, which is a type of tissue that forms at the wound site and helps to promote healing. Finally, during the remodelling phase, the body works to remodel the new tissue and form a scar. This phase can last up to a year or longer and involves the differentiation of fibroblasts into myofibroblasts, which help to facilitate wound contraction.
Overall, wound healing is a complex process that involves multiple phases and a variety of different cell types. By understanding these phases, researchers and clinicians can develop new treatments and therapies to help promote healing and reduce the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
A new medication for treating high blood pressure is currently in phase III of development. The study has established a margin, represented by -delta to +delta, for the mean reduction in blood pressure. If the confidence interval of the difference between the new medication and the current standard treatment, ramipril, falls within this margin, the trial will be considered successful. What type of study design is this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Equivalence trial
Explanation:When a new drug is introduced, there are various study design options available. One of these options is a placebo-controlled trial, which can provide strong evidence but may be considered unethical if established treatments are available. Additionally, it does not offer a comparison with standard treatments. Therefore, if a drug is to be compared to an existing treatment, a statistician must determine whether the trial is intended to show superiority, equivalence, or non-inferiority.
Superiority trials may seem like the natural aim of a trial, but they require a large sample size to demonstrate a significant benefit over an existing treatment. On the other hand, equivalence trials define an equivalence margin (-delta to +delta) on a specified outcome. If the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs falls within the equivalence margin, the drugs may be assumed to have a similar effect. Non-inferiority trials are similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to fall within the equivalence margin (i.e. -delta). These trials require smaller sample sizes. Once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior, large studies may be conducted to demonstrate superiority.
It is important to note that drug companies may not necessarily aim to show superiority over an existing product. If they can demonstrate that their product is equivalent or even non-inferior, they may compete on price or convenience.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old male patient presents to his doctor with complaints of coughing up green phlegm and experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. Upon examination, the doctor detects crackles in the lower region of the patient's left lung and bronchial breathing. The patient also has reduced chest expansion on the left side. The doctor diagnoses the patient with pneumonia and prescribes amoxicillin. What is the most prevalent immunoglobulin found in the patient's serum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgG
Explanation:In blood, IgG is the antibody that is present in the highest amount.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
Which of the following poses the most significant threat to the external validity of a research?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Representativeness of the sample
Explanation:Validity refers to how accurately something measures what it claims to measure. There are two main types of validity: internal and external. Internal validity refers to the confidence we have in the cause and effect relationship in a study. This means we are confident that the independent variable caused the observed change in the dependent variable, rather than other factors. There are several threats to internal validity, such as poor control of extraneous variables and loss of participants over time. External validity refers to the degree to which the conclusions of a study can be applied to other people, places, and times. Threats to external validity include the representativeness of the sample and the artificiality of the research setting. There are also other types of validity, such as face validity and content validity, which refer to the general impression and full content of a test, respectively. Criterion validity compares tests, while construct validity measures the extent to which a test measures the construct it aims to.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
A new test to screen for breast cancer in patients with a positive family history is tested on 920 patients. The test is positive in 18 of the 22 patients who are proven to have breast cancer. Of the remaining patients, only 12 have a positive test. What is the negative predictive value of the new test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 890/894 = 99.6%
Explanation:The negative predictive value can be calculated using the formula TN / (TN + FN), where TN represents true negative and FN represents false negative. In the given data, a contingency table can be created with the categories of ovarian cancer and no ovarian cancer, and the results of the test being positive or negative. Using this table, the negative predictive value can be determined as 890 / (890 + 4) = 890/894.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 82
Incorrect
-
In the Vaughan Williams classification of antihypertensives, lisinopril is an example of a:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class IV agent
Explanation:The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics
The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.
Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.
Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.
Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.
Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.
Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.
It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a hot, swollen big toe. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus managed with metformin, drinks 2-3 glasses of wine daily, does not smoke, and has no allergies. Upon examination, the doctor observes that the patient's right metatarsophalangeal joint is swollen, red, and tender to the touch. The patient's vital signs are normal. The doctor prescribes colchicine, suspecting acute gout. What is the organelle affected by colchicine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microtubules
Explanation:Microtubules play a crucial role in intracellular transport by guiding movement and binding internal organelles. They are composed of alpha- and beta-tubulin heterodimers and form hollow tube-like structures.
Mitochondria are responsible for producing ATP through aerobic metabolism.
Lysosomes, which are single-membrane enclosed compartments, are responsible for enzymatic degradation of cellular components.
The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is associated with ribosomes and is primarily responsible for manufacturing and packaging proteins in vesicles for transport, often through the Golgi apparatus.
The Golgi apparatus receives proteins from the RER and modifies them for exocytosis outside the cell.
Microtubules: Components of the Cytoskeleton
Microtubules are cylindrical structures found in the cytoplasm of all cells except red blood cells. They are composed of alternating α and β tubulin subunits that polymerize to form protofilaments. Microtubules are polarized, having a positive and negative end. They play a crucial role in guiding movement during intracellular transport and binding internal organelles.
Molecular transport is facilitated by attachment proteins called dynein and kinesin, which move up and down the microtubules. Dynein moves in a retrograde fashion, down the microtubule towards the centre of the cell (+ve → -ve), while kinesin moves in an anterograde fashion, up the microtubule away from the centre, towards the periphery (-ve → +ve).
In summary, microtubules are essential components of the cytoskeleton that help maintain cell shape and facilitate intracellular transport. Dynein and kinesin play a crucial role in molecular transport by moving up and down the microtubules.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is true about placebos?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The same compound has been found to have a more powerful placebo effect if it is branded than if it is unbranded
Explanation:Understanding the Placebo Effect
The placebo effect refers to the phenomenon where a patient experiences an improvement in their condition after receiving an inert substance or treatment that has no inherent pharmacological activity. This can include a sugar pill or a sham procedure that mimics a real medical intervention. The placebo effect is influenced by various factors, such as the perceived strength of the treatment, the status of the treating professional, and the patient’s expectations.
It is important to note that the placebo effect is not the same as receiving no care, as patients who maintain contact with medical services tend to have better outcomes. The placebo response is also greater in mild illnesses and can be difficult to separate from spontaneous remission. Patients who enter randomized controlled trials (RCTs) are often acutely unwell, and their symptoms may improve regardless of the intervention.
The placebo effect has been extensively studied in depression, where it tends to be abrupt and early in treatment, and less likely to persist compared to improvement from antidepressants. Placebo sag refers to a situation where the placebo effect is diminished with repeated use.
Overall, the placebo effect is a complex phenomenon that is influenced by various factors and can have significant implications for medical research and treatment. Understanding the placebo effect can help healthcare professionals provide better care and improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old cattle farmer has been referred for an ultrasound scan of his liver by his doctor due to experiencing upper abdominal discomfort and nausea for the past 6 months. There are no specific triggers for his symptoms, but he mentions that he has had a stressful year as a few of his cattle have been ill and required treatment for parasites.
Upon examination, he has mild tenderness in the upper right abdominal quadrant, but no other significant findings. The ultrasound reveals hepatic cysts.
Which organism is most likely responsible for his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echinococcus granulosus
Explanation:A sheep farmer has been diagnosed with hepatic cysts on ultrasound, which is likely caused by Echinococcus granulosus infection.
Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm commonly found in farmers who raise sheep. The tapeworm is transmitted through the ingestion of hydatid cysts by dogs, which then spread the infection through their feces. Symptoms may not appear for a long time as the cysts grow slowly, but patients may experience abdominal discomfort and nausea. Hepatic cysts can be detected through liver ultrasound.
Clonorchis sinensis infection is caused by consuming undercooked fish and can lead to biliary tract obstruction, resulting in symptoms such as abdominal pain, jaundice, and nausea. It is also a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma.
Enterobius vermicularis, or pinworm, is usually asymptomatic but can cause perianal itching, especially at night. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area under a microscope.
Strongyloides stercoralis is a roundworm commonly found in soil. Infected patients may experience diarrhea, abdominal pain, and papulovesicular lesions where the larvae have penetrated the skin.
Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 86
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with lock-jaw and muscle spasms throughout her body, particularly in the abdomen and back. She reports cutting her hand on a rusty knife covered in soil while gardening a week ago.
During the examination, the patient displays trismus, an arched back, and visible distress. The palm of her hand shows a four-inch cut with redness, warmth, and pus.
Which neurotransmitter is involved in the pathophysiology of the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GABA
Explanation:The correct answer is GABA. Tetanus toxin, also known as tetanospasmin, inhibits the release of GABA and glycine, which are neurotransmitters that normally prevent excessive motor neuron activity. When these inhibitory neurotransmitters are blocked, the motor neurons become overactive, leading to muscle spasms and lockjaw. If left untreated, this can progress to respiratory paralysis, which is a medical emergency.
Acetylcholine is not the correct answer. While acetylcholine is an excitatory neurotransmitter at some neuromuscular synapses, it is not involved in tetanus toxin release. Botulinum toxin, on the other hand, blocks the release of acetylcholine, causing muscle paralysis.
Glutamate is also not the correct answer. While glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system, it is not involved in the peripheral nervous system, which is affected by tetanus toxin.
Noradrenaline is not the correct answer either. Noradrenaline is not released in the peripheral somatic system and does not affect skeletal muscles. It is primarily released in the sympathetic nervous system and acts on smooth muscle in various parts of the body.
Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences
Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.
Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.
On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.
Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
A study is being conducted to investigate the effectiveness of ibuprofen in providing pain relief for individuals with recent rotator cuff injuries. A total of 350 participants are recruited and randomly assigned to either the ibuprofen or placebo group. After a few hours of taking the medication, participants are asked about their pain relief experience. The results show that out of 200 participants who took ibuprofen, 120 reported significant pain relief, while only 30 out of 150 participants who took the placebo reported the same. What is the relative risk of experiencing pain relief with ibuprofen compared to the placebo?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials
Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.
To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 88
Incorrect
-
A pediatrician is considering whether or not to prescribe a new medication for a young patient.
Upon researching, the pediatrician discovers that a reputable medical journal had rejected a well-conducted study that found no significant difference between the medication and a placebo.
However, the same journal later published a study that showed positive results for the medication.
What type of bias is demonstrated in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Publication bias
Explanation:Publication bias refers to the tendency of journals to prioritize the publication of studies with positive results, leading to the failure to publish valid studies that show negative or uninteresting results. In this case, the original study was not published due to its negative outcome.
Expectation bias, on the other hand, occurs when observers unconsciously report or measure data in a way that supports the expected outcome of the study. This is only a concern in non-blinded trials.
Selection bias arises when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the study’s outcome.
The Hawthorne effect is a phenomenon where a group alters its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnoses the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
A study is conducted to evaluate the association between gender and systolic blood pressure. Which of the following statements about calculating the correlation coefficient, r, is not accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May be used to predict systolic blood pressure for a given age
Explanation:Systolic blood pressure can be predicted using linear regression in this scenario.
Understanding Correlation and Linear Regression
Correlation and linear regression are two statistical methods used to analyze the relationship between variables. While they are related, they are not interchangeable. Correlation is used to determine if there is a relationship between two variables, while regression is used to predict the value of one variable based on the value of another variable.
The degree of correlation is measured by the correlation coefficient, which can range from -1 to +1. A coefficient of 1 indicates a strong positive correlation, while a coefficient of -1 indicates a strong negative correlation. A coefficient of 0 indicates no correlation between the variables. However, correlation coefficients do not provide information on how much the variable will change or the cause and effect relationship between the variables.
Linear regression, on the other hand, can be used to predict how much one variable will change when another variable is changed. A regression equation can be formed to calculate the value of the dependent variable based on the value of the independent variable. The equation takes the form of y = a + bx, where y is the dependent variable, a is the intercept value, b is the slope of the line or regression coefficient, and x is the independent variable.
In summary, correlation and linear regression are both useful tools for analyzing the relationship between variables. Correlation determines if there is a relationship, while regression predicts the value of one variable based on the value of another variable. Understanding these concepts can help in making informed decisions and drawing accurate conclusions from data analysis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
You are asked to speak to a 72-year-old man in the respiratory clinic regarding his recent diagnosis of tuberculosis (TB). He originally presented with a 4-week history of productive cough and night sweats. Samples taken from a broncho-alveolar lavage showed a dense infiltration of macrophages which had formed a granuloma.
What cytokines are produced by this cell type?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interleukin-1
Explanation:Macrophages are the primary source of IL-1, which plays a crucial role in acute inflammation and the fever response. Th1 cells produce interferon-γ, which activates macrophages. IL-2, produced by T helper 1 cells, is essential for the growth and development of various immune cells, including T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells, to combat infections. T helper 2 cells produce IL-4, which aids in the proliferation and differentiation of B cells, while IL-5 stimulates the production of eosinophils.
Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions
Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.
In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 91
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old G1P0 female, who had missed all antenatal appointments, delivers a neonate vaginally at 35 weeks gestation following premature preterm rupture of membrane (PPROM). The baby has an APGAR score of 6 and 6 at 1 and 5 minutes of life respectively. During examination in the delivery room, the baby appears lethargic, grunting with use of intercostal muscles, and has tachypnea and tachycardia. The baby's temperature is measured to be 39.1ºC. What is the most likely organism responsible for this baby's presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group B Streptococcus
Explanation:Early-onset neonatal sepsis in the UK is commonly caused by group B streptococcus infection, which is likely the case for this baby who is exhibiting symptoms within 24 hours of birth. Symptoms of neonatal sepsis include fever, tachycardia, respiratory distress, jaundice, and seizures. The mother’s lack of antenatal appointments increases the likelihood of an untreated GBS infection. Escherichia coli is another common cause, while Listeria monocytogenes is rare and typically only seen during outbreaks. Hospital-acquired infections from coagulase-negative staphylococci are unlikely in this case as the baby has not undergone any invasive procedures.
Neonatal sepsis is a serious bacterial or viral infection in the blood that affects babies within the first 28 days of life. It is categorized into early-onset (EOS) and late-onset (LOS) sepsis, with each category having distinct causes and presentations. The most common causes of neonatal sepsis are group B streptococcus (GBS) and Escherichia coli. Premature and low birth weight babies are at higher risk, as well as those born to mothers with GBS colonization or infection during pregnancy. Symptoms can range from subtle signs of illness to clear septic shock, and may include respiratory distress, jaundice, seizures, and poor feeding. Diagnosis is usually established through blood culture, and treatment involves early identification and use of intravenous antibiotics. Other important management factors include maintaining adequate oxygenation and fluid/electrolyte status, and preventing or managing hypoglycemia and metabolic acidosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 92
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old plumber comes to the emergency department complaining of jaw pain that has been present for 1 day. Upon further inquiry, the patient reveals that he had stepped on a rusty nail a few days ago. He received immunizations when he was 17 years old, but he cannot recall what they were for.
During the examination, the patient experiences sustained masseter spasms and is in significant discomfort.
The patient is suspected to have tetanus, and anti-toxin immunoglobulin is administered.
What is the likely cause of the patient's presentation, resulting in impaired neurotransmitter release?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glycine
Explanation:The correct answer is glycine. When a person is inoculated with tetanus, the tetanus toxin blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters GABA and glycine, resulting in continuous motor neuron activity. This leads to progressive upper motor neuron spasticity, which is evident in the patient’s history of cutting himself on a rusty object. The sustained contraction and tetany of skeletal muscle are caused by the inhibition of glycine and GABA release from inhibitory Renshaw cells in the spinal cord.
It is important to note that acetylcholine release is not inhibited by tetanus toxin, as it is the primary neurotransmitter of the peripheral nervous system. Glutamate release is also not inhibited by tetanus toxin, as it is an excitatory neurotransmitter released in the central nervous system and may be dysregulated in seizure activity. Similarly, norepinephrine release is not inhibited by tetanus toxin, as it is a neurotransmitter secreted by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system, regulating blood pressure and heart rate.
Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences
Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.
Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.
On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.
Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 93
Incorrect
-
A 38-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of numbness and tingling in his right thenar eminence for the past 6 months, which is most severe in the mornings. Upon examination, the doctor observes reduced sensation and muscle wasting in the thenar eminence of the right hand. The doctor suspects carpal tunnel syndrome as the likely diagnosis and informs the patient that excessive protein breakdown in the muscles of the thenar eminence has caused the muscle wasting. Which molecule plays a crucial role in this biological process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ubiquitin
Explanation:Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 94
Incorrect
-
Which cellular component is responsible for lipid synthesis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation:Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 95
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy visits his doctor with a complaint of dark brown urine for the past 2 days. He mentions feeling unwell for the past week with a fever and a sore throat. The doctor conducts a urinalysis and finds the following results:
- Glucose: Negative
- Ketones: Negative
- Blood: Positive
- Protein: Negative
- Leucocytes: Negative
- Nitrites: Negative
The doctor explains to the patient that he likely had an upper respiratory tract infection last week. The most commonly produced immunoglobulin in his body has combined with infection cells and deposited in his kidneys, causing blood in his urine.
What type of immunoglobulin is responsible for this patient's condition, based on the given information?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA
Explanation:The most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body is IgA, which is also associated with Berger’s disease or IgA nephropathy. This condition is often characterized by macroscopic haematuria following an upper respiratory tract strep infection, with urinalysis revealing blood and sometimes protein. IgA is frequently involved in type 3 immune-complex mediated hypersensitivity reactions, along with IgG.
IgD’s specific role in immunology is still being studied, but it is believed to activate B cells. Meanwhile, IgE is primarily known for its role in preventing parasites, although it is also associated with type 1 hypersensitivity reactions like asthma, eczema, and hay-fever. IgG, on the other hand, is the immunoglobulin with the highest concentration in the blood, but it is not produced as much as IgA and is not implicated in Berger’s disease.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 96
Incorrect
-
Samantha, a 49-year-old teacher, visits her GP complaining of menopausal symptoms that have been bothering her for more than a year. She experiences hot flushes, headaches, and fatigue. Samantha has not had her period for 12 months, has three adult children, and has never undergone surgery. She insists on being prescribed an oestrogen-only hormone replacement therapy (HRT) regimen, citing poor tolerance of combined HRT as reported on the internet.
What are the reasons why oestrogen-only HRT should not be recommended for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oestrogen-only HRT should not be prescribed to patients with a uterus
Explanation:Women with a uterus require HRT that contains a progestogen to reduce the risk of uterine cancer. The choice of HRT should be individualised based on age, symptoms, and comorbidities. Lifestyle advice should be given, but the decision to use HRT is personal. Perimenopause occurs before periods stop, and oestrogen-only HRT can be prescribed to patients without a uterus. Headaches are not a contraindication, but caution should be taken in patients with migraine. Absolute contraindications include certain cancers, vaginal bleeding, and thromboembolism. HRT should not be prescribed to pregnant patients.
Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.
The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.
HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.
HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 97
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man is referred to the gastroenterologist for ongoing nausea and epigastric pain. He recently returned from a trip to southeast Asia. Blood tests show he has iron deficiency anemia, and faecal microscopy reveals hookworm eggs. What type of immune cell is responsible for protecting against helminths?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eosinophils
Explanation:The defence against parasites, including helminths and protozoa, is carried out by eosinophils, which are innate cells. The role of basophils in the immune system is not well understood, but they are closely linked to mast cells. Neutrophils, on the other hand, are crucial phagocytic cells present in acute inflammation.
Innate Immune Response: Cells Involved
The innate immune response is the first line of defense against invading pathogens. It involves a variety of cells that work together to quickly recognize and eliminate foreign invaders. The following cells are primarily involved in the innate immune response:
Neutrophils are the most common type of white blood cell and are the primary phagocytic cell in acute inflammation. They contain granules that contain myeloperoxidase and lysozyme, which help to break down and destroy pathogens.
Basophils and mast cells are similar in function and both release histamine during an allergic response. They also contain granules that contain histamine and heparin, and express IgE receptors on their cell surface.
Eosinophils defend against protozoan and helminthic infections, and have a bi-lobed nucleus.
Monocytes differentiate into macrophages, which are involved in phagocytosis of cellular debris and pathogens. They also act as antigen-presenting cells and are a major source of IL-1.
Natural killer cells induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells, while dendritic cells act as antigen-presenting cells.
Overall, these cells work together to provide a rapid and effective response to invading pathogens, helping to protect the body from infection and disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 98
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old man is invited by his family physician to participate in a research study on colorectal cancer. The study involves a procedure called flexible sigmoidoscopy, where a small camera is inserted into the anus to examine the last part of the intestine for any abnormalities known as polyps. The purpose of the study is to prevent the progression of polyps to colorectal cancer. Participants who accept the invitation will be followed up by the researchers, along with a group of individuals who were not selected to receive the procedure. The researchers will compare the proportion of cancer cases in both groups. What type of research study is being described here?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Randomised controlled study
Explanation:1. A prospective cohort study involves two groups of individuals, one exposed to a risk factor and the other not exposed, to measure the incidence of an outcome and understand the effect of the risk factor. Researchers must control for confounding factors that may also have a relationship with both the risk factor and the outcome.
2. A randomized controlled study is advantageous because the two randomized groups are similar in all aspects except for the intervention being given, minimizing confounding factors. This makes it a better option than a prospective cohort study.
3. A cross-sectional study measures the prevalence of a disease or condition in a population at a specific point in time.
4. In a case-control study, researchers compare two groups of individuals with a disease to identify past risk factors. However, this study is subject to recall bias as participants rely on their memory of past exposures, reducing data accuracy.
5. A case study describes a single case, such as a clinical case or a specific group or situation of interest to researchers, that has not been extensively studied before. For example, a doctor may write a case study about an atypical presentation of myocardial infarction, including how the case evolved and how the diagnosis was made.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 99
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman presents with a 4 week history of weakness that worsens towards the end of the day. She has difficulty getting out of her chair in the evening and complains of difficulty keeping her eyes open while driving at night, despite not feeling tired.
During examination, bilateral facial nerve weakness, complex ophthalmoplegia, and symmetrical proximal power loss (MRC power 4/5) are noted. Repetitive stimulation of movements reveals fatigability.
What Gell and Coombs hypersensitivity class is likely causing her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 5
Explanation:The individual is a young woman who is exhibiting symptoms of proximal myopathy and complex ophthalmoplegia, along with signs of fatigue. These symptoms are indicative of myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disorder that occurs due to the presence of antibodies that target acetylcholine nicotinic postsynaptic receptors.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 100
Incorrect
-
A research lab is exploring a novel therapy for beta thalassaemia that involves manipulating the RNA splicing process within the cells of affected individuals.
Where does this process primarily occur within the organelles?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nucleus
Explanation:RNA splicing occurs primarily within the nucleus.
The nucleus is where RNA splicing takes place, which involves removing non-coding introns from pre-mRNA and joining coding exons to form mRNA. Alternative splicing can also occur, resulting in different configurations of exons and the ability for a single gene to code for multiple proteins.
Proteasomes are organelles found in eukaryotic cells that break down large proteins.
Ribosomes are responsible for translating mRNA into peptide structures.
Proteins are folded into their proper shape within the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of steroids and lipids.
Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 101
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old man with a history of cystic fibrosis presents to the respiratory ward after feeling unwell for 4 days. He reports experiencing pleuritic chest pain, shortness of breath, and producing more purulent sputum than usual. Upon examination, his heart rate is 110 beats per minute, his temperature is 38.2ºC, and his blood pressure is 126/86mmHg.
A sputum sample is collected and reveals the presence of gram-negative encapsulated bacilli, which are negative on Ziehl-Neelsen stain.
What is the most likely pathogen responsible for this patient's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Explanation:The organism responsible for causing lower respiratory tract infections in cystic fibrosis patients is Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa: A Gram-negative Rod Causing Various Infections
Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in the environment. It is a Gram-negative rod that can cause a range of infections in humans. Some of the infections it causes include chest infections, skin infections such as burns and wound infections, otitis externa, and urinary tract infections.
In the laboratory, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is identified as a Gram-negative rod that does not ferment lactose and is oxidase positive. The bacteria produce both an endotoxin and exotoxin A. The endotoxin causes fever and shock, while exotoxin A inhibits protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2.
Overall, Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a pathogenic bacteria that can cause a variety of infections in humans. Its ability to produce toxins makes it particularly dangerous and difficult to treat. Proper hygiene and infection control measures can help prevent the spread of this bacteria.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 102
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a sudden loss of consciousness upon standing up from a chair. He has a medical history of asthma, migraine, atrial fibrillation, and benign prostate hypertrophy.
The radiology reports come back normal, but his vital signs show a lying blood pressure of 120/77 mmHg and a standing blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg.
After reviewing his medication chart, the doctor decides to discontinue a drug that may have caused his current condition.
Which medication did the doctor discontinue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Doxazosin
Explanation:Doxazosin is known to cause postural hypotension as an adverse effect. This medication is an alpha-1 blocker and is commonly used to manage hypertension and benign prostate hypertrophy. It is important to note that doxazosin can increase the risk of postural hypotension, especially when used in combination with other antihypertensive medications. As a result, it is likely that this medication would have been discontinued.
On the other hand, paracetamol and venlafaxine are not typically associated with a decrease in blood pressure. Instead, they may cause an increase in blood pressure.
Prednisolone, on the other hand, is known to raise blood pressure and would not be the correct answer in this scenario.
Adrenoceptor Antagonists: Types and Examples
Adrenoceptor antagonists are drugs that block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on specific receptors in the body. There are two main types of adrenoceptor antagonists: alpha antagonists and beta antagonists. Alpha antagonists block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on alpha receptors, while beta antagonists block their action on beta receptors.
Examples of alpha antagonists include doxazosin, which blocks alpha-1 receptors, and tamsulosin, which acts mainly on urogenital tract by blocking alpha-1a receptors. Yohimbine is an example of an alpha-2 antagonist, while phenoxybenzamine, previously used in peripheral arterial disease, is a non-selective alpha antagonist.
Beta antagonists include atenolol, which blocks beta-1 receptors, and propranolol, which is a non-selective beta antagonist. Carvedilol and labetalol are examples of mixed alpha and beta antagonists.
Overall, adrenoceptor antagonists are important drugs that can be used to treat a variety of conditions, including hypertension, heart failure, and angina.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 103
Incorrect
-
An academic clinician is investigating whether the use of clot retrieval after thrombolysis provides significant improvements in patient outcomes compared to using thrombolysis alone in elderly patients with recent ischaemic stroke. She is testing the null hypothesis that there is no significant difference in patient outcomes between the two treatment methods.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The use of clot retrieval in addition to thrombolysis provides no additional benefit
Explanation:The null hypothesis for this study is that the addition of clot retrieval to thrombolysis does not result in a significant improvement in patient outcomes compared to thrombolysis alone.
Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 104
Incorrect
-
A 5-day-old infant has undergone newborn blood spot screening test before being discharged from the hospital. The test suggests a possible diagnosis of medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), which can be caused by the disturbance of RNA splicing.
Which organelle is responsible for carrying out this process?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nucleus
Explanation:RNA splicing occurs within the nucleus, where pre-mRNA is transcribed and spliced before it moves out of the nucleus to a ribosome. This process involves removing introns and joining exons to create the final mRNA sequence. In MCADD, disruption of a splicing enhancer can lead to exon skipping and a missense mutation, causing difficulty in breaking down fat as an energy source. The Golgi apparatus, mitochondrion, and nucleolus are not involved in RNA splicing, but have other important cellular functions.
Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 105
Incorrect
-
A pediatrician is conducting a study of asthma in her clinic's population, looking at data over the past year. In total, the clinic has 1500 patients registered last year. Using the medical record searching system, she discovers that, in total, twenty patients registered to her practice are currently living with asthma. This includes ten new cases of asthma. Five patients have also died from the disease.
What are the incidence and prevalence, respectively, per 100,000 people?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 80 and 140
Explanation:Incidence measures the number of new cases, while prevalence is a snapshot of existing cases. The correct answers for the incidence and prevalence of lung cancer in the GP’s practice population, scaled up to 100,000 people, are 80 and 140 respectively. The figures of 20 and 35 are the incidence and prevalence for the practice population’s size, while the figures of 48 and 80 refer to the mortality rate and incidence per 100,000 people. The mortality rate is the number of deaths in a given unit of time, and in this case, it is 48 deaths per 100,000 people.
Understanding Incidence and Prevalence
Incidence and prevalence are two terms used to describe the frequency of a condition in a population. The incidence refers to the number of new cases per population in a given time period, while the prevalence refers to the total number of cases per population at a particular point in time. Prevalence can be further divided into point prevalence and period prevalence, depending on the time frame used to measure it.
To calculate prevalence, one can use the formula prevalence = incidence * duration of condition. This means that in chronic diseases, the prevalence is much greater than the incidence, while in acute diseases, the prevalence and incidence are similar. For example, the incidence of the common cold may be greater than its prevalence.
Understanding the difference between incidence and prevalence is important in epidemiology and public health, as it helps to identify the burden of a disease in a population and inform healthcare policies and interventions. By measuring both incidence and prevalence, researchers can track the spread of a disease over time and assess the effectiveness of prevention and treatment strategies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 106
Incorrect
-
A new blood test to screen patients for dementia is trialled on 500 patients. The test was positive in 60 of the 70 patients shown to have dementia by cognitive assessment. It was also positive in 30 patients who were shown not to have dementia. What is the positive predictive value of the test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.66
Explanation:The positive predictive value can be calculated using the formula TP / (TP + FP), where TP represents true positives and FP represents false positives. Based on the given data, a contingency table can be created with the following values:
Heart failure No heart failure
Test positive 40 20
Test negative 10 430Using the formula, the positive predictive value can be calculated as 40 / (40 + 20) = 0.66.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 107
Incorrect
-
A team of pediatricians are gathering for a conference. The caterer in charge of preparing the snacks has a cut on their hand. Roughly 30 minutes after consuming the snacks, the team experiences intense nausea. What is the probable cause for this phenomenon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of enterotoxin from Staphylococcus aureus in the food
Explanation:The release of an enterotoxin by Staphylococcus aureus is characterized by preformed toxins that cause a quick onset of symptoms in those affected.
Overview of Surgical Microbiology
Surgical microbiology is a vast topic that covers various organisms causing common surgical infections. Staphylococcus aureus is a gram-positive coccus that is a common cause of cutaneous infections and abscesses. It is ideally treated with penicillin, but many strains have become resistant through beta-lactamase production. Streptococcus pyogenes is a gram-positive bacteria that produces beta haemolysis on blood agar plates. It releases virulence factors into the host, resulting in rapid tissue destruction. Escherichia coli is a gram-negative rod that produces lethal toxins resulting in haemolytic-uraemic syndrome. It is resistant to many antibiotics used to treat gram-positive infections and acquires resistance rapidly. Campylobacter jejuni is a curved, gram-negative, non-sporulating bacteria that is one of the commonest causes of diarrhoea worldwide. Helicobacter pylori is a gram-negative, helix-shaped rod that colonises the gastric antrum and irritates, resulting in increased gastrin release and higher levels of gastric acid.
In summary, surgical microbiology covers a wide range of organisms that can cause infections. It is essential to understand the characteristics of these organisms to diagnose and treat infections effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 108
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old man with a history of uncontrolled HIV presents with dyspnea and hemoptysis. Diagnostic tests reveal invasive aspergillosis, and he is prescribed amphotericin B. What is the mode of action of amphotericin B?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Binds with ergosterol
Explanation:The mechanism of action of Amphotericin B involves binding with ergosterol, a key component of fungal cell membranes. This binding results in the formation of pores that cause the cell wall to lyse, ultimately leading to fungal cell death.
Flucytosine, on the other hand, is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil. This compound inhibits thymidylate synthase, which in turn disrupts fungal protein synthesis.
Caspofungin works by inhibiting the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major component of the fungal cell wall.
Griseofulvin interacts with microtubules, leading to the disruption of the mitotic spindle.
Anti-viral agents like acyclovir function by inhibiting viral DNA polymerase.
Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 109
Incorrect
-
A five-day-old boy is brought to the pediatrician for jaundice that started on his third day of life. The mother reports a normal pregnancy and vaginal delivery without any birth injuries. There is no family history of any blood disorders, and the baby's initial blood tests were all normal. The mother is concerned about the frequency of the baby's diaper changes.
During the examination, the baby appears comfortable and afebrile. He has mild jaundice with slight scleral icterus. His extremities are well-perfused, and there are no signs of bruising or cephalohaematoma. The abdominal examination reveals no organomegaly.
Further laboratory investigations show that the baby's total serum bilirubin is below the phototherapy threshold for his age.
What advice should the pediatrician give to the mother regarding the baby's jaundice at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advice the mother that the baby's jaundice is physiological, and that it typically resolves spontaneously within 14 days
Explanation:Physiological jaundice is the most likely diagnosis for the baby, which is caused by the immature bilirubin metabolism in neonates. This condition will resolve on its own within 14 days. Breastfeeding jaundice and underlying haematological conditions are unlikely due to the baby’s clinical presentation and blood tests. An ultrasound scan is not necessary at this point, as prolonged neonatal jaundice is not present. The baby does not show any signs of infection and can safely be discharged home.
Understanding Jaundice in Newborns
Jaundice is a common condition in newborns that occurs due to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood. The severity and duration of jaundice can vary depending on the cause and age of the baby. Jaundice in the first 24 hours is always considered pathological and can be caused by conditions such as rhesus haemolytic disease, ABO haemolytic disease, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency.
Jaundice in the neonate from 2-14 days is usually physiological and affects up to 40% of babies. It is more commonly seen in breastfed babies and is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. However, if jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days if premature), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed to identify the cause. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, TFTs, FBC and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and U&Es and LFTs.
Prolonged jaundice can be caused by conditions such as biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections like CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. It is important to identify the cause of prolonged jaundice as some conditions like biliary atresia require urgent surgical intervention, while others like hypothyroidism can lead to developmental delays if left untreated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 110
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his roommate after experiencing difficulty speaking and breathing for the past hour. The man had recently returned from a one-week vacation and had been feeling well. Before heading out for his regular Saturday football game, he had some homemade pineapple jam. The man has no significant medical history and has not been hospitalized recently. There is no significant family history. The attending physician recognizes the condition and begins treatment immediately. The emergency medicine resident explains the situation to the roommate. What is the most likely mechanism that has been affected in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Release of the acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction
Explanation:The symptoms presented by this man are consistent with a diagnosis of Clostridium botulinum toxicity, which occurs when contaminated food is ingested. The bacteria responsible for this condition, Clostridium botulinum, thrive in the anaerobic environment of home-canned food. The toxin produced by these bacteria prevents the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, resulting in neuromuscular impairment.
1: The Clostridium botulinum toxin does not affect the muscarinic or nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. Autoantibodies to the muscarinic receptors are responsible for the destruction of these receptors in myasthenia gravis.
2: The spread of depolarization along the myelinated axon at the nodes of Ranvier is not affected by the Clostridium botulinum toxin.
3: The influx of calcium ions into the presynaptic terminal through voltage-gated calcium channels triggers the release of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft. Autoantibodies to these calcium channels are responsible for the Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome.
4: The Clostridium botulinum toxin prevents the release of acetylcholine by cleaving the SNARE protein complex, which is necessary for the fusion of the pre-formed synaptic vesicles with the presynaptic membrane.
5: The process of loading, docking, priming, fusion, and endocytosis of synaptic vesicles is not affected by the Clostridium botulinum toxin.Understanding Botulism: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Botulism is a rare but serious illness caused by the bacterium Clostridium botulinum. This gram-positive anaerobic bacillus produces botulinum toxin, a neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine, leading to flaccid paralysis and other symptoms. There are seven serotypes of the bacterium, labeled A-G. Botulism can result from eating contaminated food, particularly tinned food, or from intravenous drug use.
The neurotoxin produced by Clostridium botulinum often affects bulbar muscles and the autonomic nervous system. Symptoms of botulism include diplopia, ataxia, and bulbar palsy. Patients are usually fully conscious with no sensory disturbance, but they experience flaccid paralysis.
Treatment for botulism involves administering botulism antitoxin and providing supportive care. However, the antitoxin is only effective if given early, as once the toxin has bound, its actions cannot be reversed. Therefore, it is important to seek medical attention immediately if botulism is suspected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 111
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old male visits the doctor complaining of a slow development of memory loss and diarrhoea. During the examination, a dermatitis rash is observed around his neck, leading to a diagnosis of pellagra. What vitamin deficiency is responsible for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Niacin (B3)
Explanation:The Importance of Vitamin B3 (Niacin) in the Body
Vitamin B3, also known as niacin, is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. It is a crucial nutrient that serves as a precursor to NAD+ and NADP+, which are essential for various metabolic processes in the body. Niacin is synthesized in the body from tryptophan, an amino acid found in protein-rich foods. However, certain conditions such as Hartnup’s disease and carcinoid syndrome can reduce the absorption of tryptophan or increase its metabolism to serotonin, leading to niacin deficiency.
Niacin deficiency can result in a condition called pellagra, which is characterized by a triad of symptoms: dermatitis, diarrhea, and dementia. Pellagra is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications if left untreated. Therefore, it is important to ensure that you are getting enough niacin in your diet or through supplements to maintain optimal health and prevent the risk of niacin deficiency.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 112
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man is recuperating on the surgical ward after undergoing a right hemicolectomy for colon cancer. The surgery involved creating a primary anastomosis and there were no complications during the procedure. The patient had no significant medical history prior to the surgery.
After 5 days, the patient has not had a bowel movement. What is the probable reason for this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paralytic ileus
Explanation:Paralytic ileus is a common issue following surgery, which can be caused by factors such as handling of the bowel, hyperkalemia, and acidosis. A low fibre diet, anastomotic leak, and volvulus are less likely causes in this clinical scenario.
Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by reduced bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.
The management of postoperative ileus typically involves nil-by-mouth initially, which may progress to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemic, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. Overall, postoperative ileus is a common complication that requires careful management to ensure a successful recovery.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 113
Incorrect
-
A 17-year-old female comes to the doctor's office. She had unprotected sex five days ago and is now five days into her pregnancy. At what stage is the fertilized tissue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blastocyst
Explanation:After the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte, the germinal vesicle breakdown is stimulated by the LH surge, leading to the completion of meiosis and the formation of the first polar body. Following fertilization, pronuclear and zygote formation occur, followed by rapid cleavage, compaction, and polarization.
Around day 5, the blastocyst is formed, and implantation occurs between days 5 and 6. On day 1, the zygote is formed, and by late day 1, it reaches the 2-cell stage. The 4-cell stage is reached early on day 2, the 8-cell stage early on day 3, and the 16-cell stage late on day 3. The morula is formed on day 4, and the blastocyst is formed on day 5.
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.
As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 114
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old male patient, who has recently returned from India, presents to the clinic with fever, right upper quadrant abdominal pain, and two episodes of profuse, bloody stools. Physical examination indicates tenderness in the right upper quadrant but no guarding or rigidity. The vital signs show a heart rate of 96 beats/min, a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, a temperature of 37.2ºC (98.96ºF), and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min. Ultrasound abdomen reveals a hypoechoic mass in the posterior liver. CT scan of the abdomen detects a low-density mass with peripheral enhancing rim consistent with an abscess on the posterior part of the right lobe of the liver.
What is the most likely organism responsible for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Entamoeba histolytica
Explanation:Entamoeba histolytica is the cause of amoebiasis, a disease that affects a significant portion of the population and spreads through the faecal-oral route. While some patients may not show any symptoms, others may experience mild or severe symptoms such as fever, abdominal pain, profuse bloody diarrhoea, and liver or colonic abscess. Amoebic liver abscess typically appears as a single mass in the right lobe, sometimes multiple, with contents resembling ‘anchovy sauce’.
Bacillus cereus is an incorrect answer as it causes food poisoning through contaminated foods like rice, potatoes, and cheese, leading to watery diarrhoea.
Campylobacter jejuni can cause bloody diarrhoea, but it is usually preceded by prodromal symptoms like fever, rigours, dizziness, and body aches. It spreads through raw milk, undercooked poultry, and contaminated water.
Clostridium difficile is also incorrect as it causes antibiotic-associated diarrhoea, which occurs after antibiotic treatment alters the microbial flora of the large intestine, making it susceptible to infection by Clostridium difficile.
Understanding Amoebiasis
Amoebiasis is a disease caused by Entamoeba histolytica, a type of protozoan that spreads through the faecal-oral route. It is a prevalent disease, with an estimated 10% of the world’s population being chronically infected. The infection can be asymptomatic, cause mild diarrhoea, or severe amoebic dysentery. Amoebiasis can also lead to liver and colonic abscesses.
Amoebic dysentery is a severe form of the disease that causes profuse, bloody diarrhoea. The incubation period for this type of amoebiasis can be long, and stool microscopy may show trophozoites if examined within 15 minutes or kept warm. Treatment for amoebic dysentery is with metronidazole.
Amoebic liver abscess is another type of amoebiasis that usually appears as a single mass in the right lobe, although it may be multiple. The contents of the abscess are often described as ‘anchovy sauce,’ and the patient may experience fever and RUQ pain. Serology is positive in more than 90% of cases.
Treatment for invasive amoebiasis should be followed by a luminal amoebicide to eradicate the cystic stage, which is resistant to metronidazole and tinidazole, the drugs used against the invasive stage. Understanding the different types of amoebiasis and their symptoms is crucial in diagnosing and treating this disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 115
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man is being treated for community-acquired pneumonia by his physician.
As the patient has allergies to penicillin and doxycycline, the physician opts to prescribe a macrolide antibiotic, clarithromycin.
What is the mechanism of action of macrolide antibiotics?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit inhibits protein synthesis by blocking translocation
Explanation:Macrolides work by binding to 23S rRNA of the 50S ribosomal subunit, which blocks translocation and inhibits protein synthesis. Antibiotics like clarithromycin and erythromycin fall under this class, but it’s important to note that antibiotics ending in ‘-mycin’ come from different classes. Clarithromycin is often prescribed to patients with a history of penicillin allergy.
Rifampicin, on the other hand, prevents RNA synthesis by stopping the elongation of the RNA molecule. This antibiotic is commonly used to manage tuberculosis along with isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol.
Beta-lactams, such as penicillin and amoxicillin, inhibit the synthesis of the peptidoglycan bacterial cell wall. Clinicians should be cautious when prescribing antibiotics ending in ‘-cillin’ as they come from the beta-lactam class and could trigger an allergic reaction in patients with a history of penicillin allergy.
Quinolones, like ciprofloxacin, prevent DNA synthesis by inhibiting bacterial DNA topoisomerase. All drugs in this class end in ‘-floxacin’. However, it’s important to note that quinolones have side effects such as an increased risk of tendon damage/rupture and a lowered seizure threshold.
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 116
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman has come in with symptoms of loin pain and dysuria and has been diagnosed with pyelonephritis. She was treated with intravenous amoxicillin and gentamicin and has responded well. The consultant has decided to follow local guidelines and switch her to oral co-trimoxazole. What are the components of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole
Explanation:Understanding Sulfonamides and Their Adverse Effects
Sulfonamides are a type of drug that work by inhibiting dihydropteroate synthetase. This class of drugs includes antibiotic sulfonamides such as sulfamethoxazole, sulfadiazine, and sulfisoxazole. Co-trimoxazole, a combination of sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim, is commonly used in the management of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. Non-antibiotic sulfonamides like sulfasalazine and sulfonylureas also exist.
However, the use of co-trimoxazole may lead to adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia, headache, and rash, including the potentially life-threatening Steven-Johnson Syndrome. It is important to understand the potential risks associated with sulfonamides and to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 117
Incorrect
-
A 14-year-old unvaccinated girl visits her doctor with her father, reporting a fever, sore throat, and occasional cough. The doctor orders a throat swab for testing.
After a few days, the microbiology lab contacts the doctor to report the identification of an organism on Loeffler's medium.
What is the probable causative agent?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Corynebacterium diphtheriae
Explanation:Corynebacterium diphtheriae is the correct answer for the cause of the child’s symptoms. The child’s lack of vaccination increases the likelihood of this diagnosis. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is typically grown in Loeffler’s medium, an enrichment medium.
Bordetella pertussis is an incorrect answer. Although it can cause similar symptoms, it is grown in Bordet-Gengou agar.
Haemophilus influenzae is also an incorrect answer. It can cause serious infections, but it is grown in chocolate agar.
Staphylococcus aureus is an unlikely cause of the child’s symptoms and can be grown on general unenriched culture media such as blood agar.
Culture Requirements for Common Organisms
Different microorganisms require specific culture conditions to grow and thrive. The table above lists some of the culture requirements for the more common organisms. For instance, Neisseria gonorrhoeae requires Thayer-Martin agar, which is a variant of chocolate agar, and the addition of Vancomycin, Polymyxin, and Nystatin to inhibit Gram-positive, Gram-negative, and fungal growth, respectively. Haemophilus influenzae, on the other hand, grows on chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin).
To remember the culture requirements for some of these organisms, some mnemonics can be used. For example, Nice Homes have chocolate can help recall that Neisseria and Haemophilus grow on chocolate agar. If I Tell-U the Corny joke Right, you’ll Laugh can be used to remember that Corynebacterium diphtheriae grows on tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. Lactating pink monkeys can help recall that lactose fermenting bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, grow on MacConkey agar resulting in pink colonies. Finally, BORDETella pertussis can be used to remember that Bordetella pertussis grows on Bordet-Gengou (potato) agar.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 118
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of hot flashes and vaginal dryness. She reports no menstrual bleeding in the past year and has no significant medical or surgical history. Despite trying lifestyle changes for 6 months, she desires hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for symptom relief. What HRT preparation should be recommended to her?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Estradiol with norethisterone
Explanation:Women with a uterus taking HRT need a preparation with a progestogen to prevent excess growth and cancer risk. Estradiol with norethisterone is the correct option. Depo-Provera is a progesterone-only contraceptive and estradiol is given to women without a uterus. Norethisterone alone has no effect on menopause symptoms.
Hormone Replacement Therapy: Uses and Varieties
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves administering a small amount of estrogen, combined with a progestogen (in women with a uterus), to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed significantly over the past decade due to the long-term risks that have become apparent, primarily as a result of the Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study.
The most common indication for HRT is vasomotor symptoms such as flushing, insomnia, and headaches. Other indications, such as reversal of vaginal atrophy, should be treated with other agents as first-line therapies. HRT is also recommended for women who experience premature menopause, which should be continued until the age of 50 years. The most important reason for giving HRT to younger women is to prevent the development of osteoporosis. Additionally, HRT has been shown to reduce the incidence of colorectal cancer.
HRT generally consists of an oestrogenic compound, which replaces the diminished levels that occur in the perimenopausal period. This is normally combined with a progestogen if a woman has a uterus to reduce the risk of endometrial cancer. The choice of hormone includes natural oestrogens such as estradiol, estrone, and conjugated oestrogen, which are generally used rather than synthetic oestrogens such as ethinylestradiol (which is used in the combined oral contraceptive pill). Synthetic progestogens such as medroxyprogesterone, norethisterone, levonorgestrel, and drospirenone are usually used. A levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (e.g. Mirena) may be used as the progestogen component of HRT, i.e. a woman could take an oral oestrogen and have endometrial protection using a Mirena coil. Tibolone, a synthetic compound with both oestrogenic, progestogenic, and androgenic activity, is another option.
HRT can be taken orally or transdermally (via a patch or gel). Transdermal is preferred if the woman is at risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), as the rates of VTE do not appear to rise with transdermal preparations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 119
Incorrect
-
A 2-month-old boy is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with microcephaly. He is in the 5th percentile for weight and length, and his head circumference is <3rd percentile for his age. Upon physical examination, his lungs are clear and there are no audible murmurs, but his liver edge is palpable at the level of the umbilicus. Further investigations reveal ventriculomegaly with periventricular calcifications on a CT scan of the head. What is the most likely cause of this congenital infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:Congenital CMV infection can lead to various symptoms such as hearing loss, low birth weight, petechial rash, microcephaly, and seizures. This condition is typically acquired during pregnancy, and if the fetus is exposed to CMV during the first trimester, it may result in intrauterine growth retardation and central nervous system damage, leading to hearing and sight impairments.
Infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus is an uncommon cause of congenital defects. Herpes simplex virus may cause skin rashes and microcephaly, but it is not typically associated with calcifications and hepatomegaly. Toxoplasmosis often presents with macrocephaly and diffuse parenchymal calcifications rather than periventricular calcifications. Congenital syphilis can result in various symptoms such as sensorineural deafness, mulberry molars, bone lesions, saddle nose, and Hutchinson’s teeth.
Congenital Infections: Rubella, Toxoplasmosis, and Cytomegalovirus
Congenital infections are infections that are present at birth and can cause various health problems for the newborn. The three most common congenital infections encountered in medical examinations are rubella, toxoplasmosis, and cytomegalovirus. Of these, cytomegalovirus is the most common in the UK, and maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
Each of these infections can cause different characteristic features in newborns. Rubella can cause sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, glaucoma, cerebral calcification, chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, low birth weight, and purpuric skin lesions. Toxoplasmosis can cause growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, cerebral palsy, anaemia, and microcephaly. Cytomegalovirus can cause visual impairment, learning disability, encephalitis/seizures, pneumonitis, hepatosplenomegaly, anaemia, jaundice, and cerebral palsy.
It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these congenital infections and their potential effects on newborns. Early detection and treatment can help prevent or minimize the health problems associated with these infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 120
Incorrect
-
A woman presents with complaints of neck stiffness, photophobia, nausea, and vomiting. She is initiated on three different parenteral antibiotics. However, after a few days, she observes a significant decline in her hearing ability in both ears. Which antibiotic is accountable for this adverse reaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:Aminoglycosides are known to cause ototoxicity, which is an important adverse effect. Among the antibiotics listed, only gentamicin belongs to this class. Ceftriaxone is a cephalosporin that can lead to diarrhoea and C. difficile colitis, while penicillin is associated with a higher risk of anaphylactic reactions compared to other antibiotics. Erythromycin, a macrolide, can cause arrhythmias.
Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic known as an aminoglycoside. It is not easily dissolved in lipids, so it is typically administered through injection or topical application. It is commonly used to treat infections such as infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, gentamicin can have adverse effects on the body, such as ototoxicity, which can cause damage to the auditory or vestibular nerves. This damage is irreversible. Gentamicin can also cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity increases when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Lower doses and more frequent monitoring are necessary to prevent these adverse effects. Gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. To ensure safe dosing, plasma concentrations of gentamicin are monitored. Peak levels are measured one hour after administration, and trough levels are measured just before the next dose. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 121
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. During a speculum examination, an open cervical os and a small amount of bleeding are observed. An ultrasound confirms the presence of intrauterine fetal tissue, but no heartbeat is detected. The physician diagnoses an inevitable miscarriage and discusses management options with the patient. She opts for medical management using misoprostol. What is the purpose of this medication in the treatment of miscarriage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostaglandin analog that causes uterine contractions
Explanation:Misoprostol is a medication that mimics the effects of prostaglandins, leading to the contraction of the uterus and the expulsion of fetal tissue. It is commonly used in the medical treatment of miscarriage, but it does not have any pain-relieving properties. Pain during a miscarriage is typically managed with other medications like ibuprofen, paracetamol, and codeine. Misoprostol also does not have any effect on blood loss, which is usually light and does not require treatment. In contrast, methotrexate is a medication that destroys rapidly dividing cells and is used to manage ectopic pregnancies. Finally, it’s important to note that misoprostol does not stimulate the release of oxytocin.
Drugs Used in Obstetrics and Gynaecology
Syntocinon is a synthetic form of oxytocin that is utilized in the active management of the third stage of labor. It aids in the contraction of the uterus, which reduces the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Additionally, it is used to induce labor. Ergometrine, an ergot alkaloid, is an alternative to oxytocin in the active management of the third stage of labor. It can decrease blood loss by constricting the vascular smooth muscle of the uterus. Its mechanism of action involves stimulating alpha-adrenergic, dopaminergic, and serotonergic receptors. However, it can cause coronary artery spasm as an adverse effect.
Mifepristone is used in combination with misoprostol to terminate pregnancies. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog that causes uterine contractions. Mifepristone is a competitive progesterone receptor antagonist. Its mechanism of action involves blocking the effects of progesterone, which is necessary for the maintenance of pregnancy. However, it can cause menorrhagia as an adverse effect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 122
Incorrect
-
A patient in their 50s seeks your advice regarding their concern of contracting hepatitis C from a known positive individual. Can you provide information on the most common mechanism of transmission for this virus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parenteral, sexual and vertical
Explanation:Hepatitis C can be transmitted through three routes: parenteral, sexual, and vertical. The virus is an RNA virus that can be spread through needlestick injuries, blood transfusions (although this is rare due to screening), and giving birth (especially if the mother is co-infected with HIV). It is important to note that the virus cannot be spread through direct contact or indirect contact on surfaces, as it requires direct blood-to-blood exposure to remain infectious.
Hepatitis C is a virus that is expected to become a significant public health issue in the UK in the coming years, with around 200,000 people believed to be chronically infected. Those at risk include intravenous drug users and individuals who received a blood transfusion before 1991, such as haemophiliacs. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks. Transmission can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child, and sexual intercourse, although the risk is relatively low. There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.
After exposure to the virus, only around 30% of patients will develop symptoms such as a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia. HCV RNA is the preferred diagnostic test for acute infection, although patients who spontaneously clear the virus will continue to have anti-HCV antibodies. Chronic hepatitis C is defined as the persistence of HCV RNA in the blood for 6 months and can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinaemia.
The management of chronic hepatitis C depends on the viral genotype and aims to achieve sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, and a combination of protease inhibitors with or without ribavirin is currently used. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, fatigue, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia. Women should not become pregnant within 6 months of stopping ribavirin as it is teratogenic.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 123
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man is hospitalized with pneumonia, which is suspected to be a complication of a recent infection. He had visited his doctor a week ago, complaining of a high fever and symptoms resembling a cold. Additionally, he had developed a red rash around his hairline that seemed to be spreading down his neck. Based on this information, what is the primary method of transmission for the initial infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aerosol
Explanation:The most likely mode of transmission for measles is through aerosols. The woman’s symptoms and subsequent rash near the hairline indicate a measles infection, which is highly contagious and can be spread through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes. While contaminated surfaces may also transmit the virus, it is not the primary mode of transmission. Measles is not transmitted through the faecal-oral route or intravenously, as it is found in the nose and throat of an infected person and not in their faeces or blood.
Measles: A Highly Infectious Disease
Measles is a viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious viruses known and is spread through aerosol transmission. The incubation period is 10-14 days, and the virus is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop.
The prodromal phase of measles is characterized by irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. These white spots on the buccal mucosa typically develop before the rash. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.
Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered for immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. It is a notifiable disease, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia, encephalitis, subacute sclerosing panencephalitis, febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.
If an unvaccinated child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 124
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old surgical trainee (ST) is conducting a research study in orthopedics to investigate the effectiveness of a new pain relief medication compared to a placebo. The ST wants to ensure that the study has enough power to detect a significant difference between the two groups if one truly exists.
What is the statistical parameter that the ST is attempting to optimize in the design of the study?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Power
Explanation:Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 125
Incorrect
-
A woman is advised to start taking folic acid supplements before getting pregnant to prevent neural tube defects. At what stage of pregnancy are these defects most likely to occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Week 4
Explanation:The closure of the neural tube takes place in the 4th week of embryonic development. Prior to this, during the first three weeks of pregnancy, the trilaminar disc has not yet formed, making it too early for neural tube closure to occur. The neural tube originates from a specialized part of the ectoderm.
During the fourth week, the embryo becomes a trilaminar germ disc, marking the beginning of primary neurulation. At this stage, folds develop at the lateral edges of the neural plate, which then rise and fold at hinge points, ultimately meeting and fusing in the midline.
In the fifth week, secondary neurulation occurs at the caudal end of the embryo. This process is distinct from neural tube closure and involves a rearrangement of cells and canalisation.
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.
As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 126
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old man presents to your clinic with numerous raised tumour-like growths on his body and hyperpigmented patches on his back and trunk. He reports experiencing frequent headaches, flushing, and palpitations. Upon genetic analysis, a mutation in the NF1 tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 17 is identified.
If this man were to have a child with his asymptomatic wife, what is the likelihood that the child would inherit the same condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Characteristics and Complicating Factors
Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This means that both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and there is no carrier state. Both males and females can be affected, and only affected individuals can pass on the disease. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.
However, there are complicating factors that can affect the inheritance of autosomal dominant diseases. One of these factors is non-penetrance, which refers to the lack of clinical signs and symptoms despite having an abnormal gene. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis may not show any symptoms. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, which occurs when there is a new mutation in one of the gametes. This means that 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.
In summary, autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by certain patterns of inheritance, but there are also complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Understanding these factors is important for genetic counseling and for predicting the risk of passing on the disease to future generations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 127
Incorrect
-
A 46-year-old male visits a tuberculosis clinic to discuss his medication as his disease has become resistant to one of the drugs he is taking. The doctor explains that the drug is metabolized differently in each person and it is possible that the patient metabolizes the drug too quickly, leading to its rapid clearance from his system. The drug in question is metabolized by N-acetyltransferase, an enzyme in the liver, and has three distinct phenotypes that determine the rate of clearance and clinical response. What is the name of the drug that the patient has developed resistance to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Isoniazid’s metabolism in the liver is influenced by acetylator status. Fast acetylators may develop resistance due to rapid clearance, while slow acetylators are at higher risk of hepatotoxicity due to delayed clearance. Ethambutol is metabolized through oxidation, pyrazinamide through oxidation in the liver, and rifampicin is activated through deacetylation in the liver before being excreted in bile and urine.
Understanding Drug Metabolism: Phase I and Phase II Reactions
Drug metabolism involves two types of biochemical reactions, namely phase I and phase II reactions. Phase I reactions include oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis, which are mainly performed by P450 enzymes. However, some drugs are metabolized by specific enzymes such as alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase. The products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic. On the other hand, phase II reactions involve conjugation, where glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate, and other groups are typically involved. The products of phase II reactions are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile. The majority of phase I and phase II reactions take place in the liver.
First-Pass Metabolism and Drugs Affected by Zero-Order Kinetics and Acetylator Status
First-pass metabolism is a phenomenon where the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation due to hepatic metabolism. This effect is seen in many drugs, including aspirin, isosorbide dinitrate, glyceryl trinitrate, lignocaine, propranolol, verapamil, isoprenaline, testosterone, and hydrocortisone.
Zero-order kinetics describe metabolism that is independent of the concentration of the reactant. This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated, resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time. Drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics include phenytoin, salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin), heparin, and ethanol.
Acetylator status is also an important consideration in drug metabolism. Approximately 50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase. Drugs affected by acetylator status include isoniazid, procainamide, hydralazine, dapsone, and sulfasalazine. Understanding these concepts is important in predicting drug efficacy and toxicity, as well as in optimizing drug dosing.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 128
Incorrect
-
A study aims to evaluate the effectiveness of a new proton pump inhibitor (PPI) in older adults who are on aspirin therapy. The new PPI is administered to 120 patients, while the standard PPI is given to a control group of 240 individuals. During a five-year follow-up, 24 patients in the new PPI group experienced upper gastrointestinal bleeding, whereas 60 patients in the standard PPI group had the same outcome. What is the absolute risk reduction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5%
Explanation:Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 129
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man with Crohn's disease presents to his general practitioner with complaints of worsening dyspnea. Upon initial investigations, he is diagnosed with iron-deficiency anemia. Which part of his intestine may be currently affected by his Crohn's disease due to this deficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:The duodenum is where iron absorption primarily occurs. Inflammatory conditions affecting this area can hinder iron absorption and potentially result in anaemia. The ascending colon, ileum, and jejunum are not the main sites of iron absorption, as they primarily absorb water, vitamin B12 and bile acids, and sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids, respectively.
Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion
Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.
The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.
In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 130
Incorrect
-
A saturation curve is created to demonstrate the impact of cyanide on the function of cytochrome oxidase. As a non-competitive inhibitor of cytochrome oxidase, what will be the effect of cyanide on the enzyme's Km value?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No effect on Km
Explanation:Enzyme kinetics is the study of how enzymes catalyze chemical reactions. Catalysts increase the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed or altering the position of equilibrium between substrates and products. Enzyme-catalyzed reactions display saturation kinetics, meaning that there is not a linear response to increasing levels of substrate. Vmax is the maximum rate of the catalyzed reaction, while Km is the concentration of substrate that leads to half-maximal velocity. Enzymes with a low Km have a high affinity for their substrate. The Michaelis-Menten model of a single substrate reaction demonstrates the saturation curve for an enzyme, showing the relationship between substrate concentration and reaction rate. Linear plots of the Michaelis-Menten model are used to estimate Vmax. The Lineweaver-Burk plot of kinetic data shows how the y-intercept equals 1/Vmax, and as the y-intercept increases, Vmax decreases. There are three types of inhibitors: competitive, non-competitive, and uncompetitive. Each type has a different effect on Vmax and Km. Competitive inhibitors compete with the substrate for the enzyme’s active binding site, while non-competitive inhibitors bind outside the enzyme’s active binding site. Uncompetitive inhibitors are rare and bind to the enzyme, enhancing the binding of substrate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 131
Incorrect
-
Sophie is a 2-year-old child being cared for in a neonatal intensive care unit for multi-system organ failure, she is unlikely to see her fourth birthday.
Her older brother, Jack, is a 9-year-old child who is healthy and doing well in school, except his PE teacher has noticed that Jack has mild difficulties with balance and coordination.
Genetic testing identified both Sophie and Jack have the same disease affecting their mitochondria, which they inherited from their mother but not from their father.
What is the most probable biological reason for why Sophie's condition is significantly more severe than Jack's?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitochondrial heteroplasmy
Explanation:Mitochondrial heteroplasmy is the presence of multiple types of mitochondrial DNA within an individual, which can result in variable expression of mitochondrial disease. It is likely that Tom and Emily’s mother has mitochondrial heteroplasmy, which caused her to produce eggs with mitochondria containing different genomes. If a mitochondrion contains unhealthy DNA, it may be poorly functional and result in symptoms such as poor balance and coordination, as seen in Emily. Tom, on the other hand, likely developed from an egg with a high proportion of unhealthy mitochondria, leading to multi-system organ failure and a short life expectancy.
The condition cannot be autosomal recessive as Tom would need to inherit the condition from both parents, not just his mother. Genetic mosaicism is also unlikely as the question states that the condition was inherited from their mother. X-linked dominant inheritance is also ruled out as it only requires one affected chromosome to cause disease.
It is important to note that mitochondrial disease severity can be influenced by various factors, including mitochondrial heteroplasmy, genetic mosaicism, and autosomal recessive mutations.
Mitochondrial diseases are caused by a small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria, which encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. These diseases are inherited only via the maternal line, as the sperm contributes no cytoplasm to the zygote. None of the children of an affected male will inherit the disease, while all of the children of an affected female will inherit it. Mitochondrial diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases, and there is poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, which means that within a tissue or cell, there can be different mitochondrial populations. Muscle biopsy typically shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome, MERRF syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and sensorineural hearing loss.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 132
Incorrect
-
A 4-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father who is concerned that his daughter seems to be very weak compared to what he had previously experienced with his elder daughter who had a normal development. The father also reports that he noticed that his daughter is always hungry and her constant craving for food has resulted in a significant weight gain. The girl is not being breastfed anymore but the father does confirm her sucking seemed to be very weak at the time. The girl was born via a cesarean section and there were no complications at birth. Upon examination, the pediatrician confirms that the girl has poor muscle tone as well as undeveloped genitals. The pediatrician makes a referral to the pediatrician geneticist and upon genetic testing, the girl is diagnosed with a condition which often leads to significant obesity as one of the main features of the disease. What is the main genetic mechanism of inheritance for this disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Imprinting
Explanation:The individual exhibited indications and manifestations that strongly suggest the presence of Prader-Willi syndrome, a hereditary disorder that typically manifests in early childhood and is characterized by hypotonia, hyperphagia, and obesity. Additionally, cognitive impairment leading to intellectual disability may also be observed.
Understanding Prader-Willi Syndrome
Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. This disorder is an example of genetic imprinting, where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. If the gene is deleted from the father, it results in Prader-Willi syndrome, while if it is deleted from the mother, it results in Angelman syndrome.
There are two main causes of Prader-Willi syndrome. The first is a microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13, which accounts for 70% of cases. The second is maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15. This means that both copies of chromosome 15 are inherited from the mother, and there is no active Prader-Willi gene from the father.
The features of Prader-Willi syndrome include hypotonia during infancy, dysmorphic features, short stature, hypogonadism and infertility, learning difficulties, childhood obesity, and behavioral problems in adolescence. These symptoms can vary in severity and may require lifelong management.
In conclusion, Prader-Willi syndrome is a complex genetic disorder that affects multiple aspects of an individual’s health and development. Understanding the causes and features of this syndrome is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 133
Incorrect
-
Which one of the following best describes the function of the p53 gene?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Encodes proteins which regulate the cell cycle
Explanation:Although p53 can induce cell cycle arrest to facilitate DNA repair, it does not directly participate in repairing DNA.
Understanding p53 and its Role in Cancer
p53 is a gene that helps suppress tumours and is located on chromosome 17p. It is frequently mutated in breast, colon, and lung cancer. The gene is believed to be essential in regulating the cell cycle, preventing cells from entering the S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired. Additionally, p53 may play a crucial role in apoptosis, the process of programmed cell death.
Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterised by the early onset of various cancers, including sarcoma, breast cancer, and leukaemia. The condition is caused by mutations in the p53 gene, which can lead to a loss of its tumour-suppressing function. Understanding the role of p53 in cancer can help researchers develop new treatments and therapies for those affected by the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 134
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of a swollen and painful left leg. He has no medical history and does not take any regular medications. Upon examination, an irregular, red area is observed on his left shin, which is warm and tender to the touch. The patient's vital signs are as follows: temperature of 37.9ºC, oxygen saturation of 98% on air, heart rate of 115 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 118/82 mmHg. What is the most probable cause of this man's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:Cellulitis, a bacterial infection that affects the deep layers of skin and muscle, is commonly caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes. If left untreated, it can lead to serious complications. Symptoms include pain, swelling, and redness at the site of infection, as well as systemic signs like fever and rapid heartbeat. While cellulitis most often affects the legs, it can occur anywhere on the body. Other rare causes of cellulitis include Streptococcus viridans (associated with human bite wounds), anaerobes, Eikenella, Haemophilus influenzae (seen in facial cellulitis in unvaccinated children), and Pseudomonas aeruginosa (associated with puncture wounds in the hands or feet). Contrary to popular belief, spider bites have not been proven to cause cellulitis.
Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 135
Incorrect
-
Barbara, a 50-year-old woman presents to the emergency department following a drunken altercation with another woman outside a bar. Barbara is visibly intoxicated and has some facial bruises. During the examination, the junior doctor on-call observes a bite wound on her left shoulder. The wound is cleaned, and Barbara is discharged with a prescription for co-amoxiclav.
What is the bacterial organism that can infect this bite wound?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eikenella
Explanation:Eikenella is a bacterial organism that is known to cause infections following human bites. Symptoms of an infection with this bacteria may include fever, tenderness, and swelling in the affected area.
While a human bite can put the patient at risk for hepatitis C infection, this question specifically asks for a bacterial organism, and hepatitis C is a virus. Symptoms of hepatitis C infection may include jaundice, fatigue, and easy bruising or bleeding.
Pasteurella multocida is a bacterial organism commonly found in animal bites, but the stem refers to a human bite. Infection with this bacteria may cause redness, swelling, and pain in the affected area.
Rabies is a viral infection typically associated with animal bites. Initial symptoms may include pain and tingling at the site of the bite, as well as fever. Without proper treatment, the virus can spread to the central nervous system and lead to death.
Animal bites are a common occurrence in everyday practice, with dogs and cats being the most frequent culprits. These bites are usually caused by multiple types of bacteria, with Pasteurella multocida being the most commonly isolated organism. To manage these bites, it is important to cleanse the wound thoroughly. Puncture wounds should not be sutured unless there is a risk of cosmesis. The current recommendation is to use co-amoxiclav, but if the patient is allergic to penicillin, doxycycline and metronidazole are recommended.
On the other hand, human bites can cause infections from a variety of bacteria, including both aerobic and anaerobic types. Common organisms include Streptococci spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Eikenella, Fusobacterium, and Prevotella. To manage these bites, co-amoxiclav is also recommended. It is important to consider the risk of viral infections such as HIV and hepatitis C when dealing with human bites.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 136
Incorrect
-
At 28 years old, Gwen seeks pre-conception advice from her haematologist regarding her Von Willebrand Disease (VWD). She is concerned about the potential risks of bleeding during pregnancy and childbirth, as well as the likelihood of passing on her condition to her child. Gwen is a carrier of VWD, while her partner Dylan does not have the condition. What is the probability of their child inheriting VWD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:The offspring of Gwen and Dylan will have the Vv allele combination, resulting in inheriting VWD with a probability of 50%.
Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Characteristics and Complicating Factors
Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This means that both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and there is no carrier state. Both males and females can be affected, and only affected individuals can pass on the disease. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.
However, there are complicating factors that can affect the inheritance of autosomal dominant diseases. One of these factors is non-penetrance, which refers to the lack of clinical signs and symptoms despite having an abnormal gene. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis may not show any symptoms. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, which occurs when there is a new mutation in one of the gametes. This means that 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.
In summary, autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by certain patterns of inheritance, but there are also complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Understanding these factors is important for genetic counseling and for predicting the risk of passing on the disease to future generations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 137
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by the police after he was reported by a bar for violent behavior. He was involved in a physical altercation with another patron and also assaulted the police officers who intervened. He claims to have special powers to protect people at the bar. Despite his agitation, he allows the doctor to examine him. On examination, his pupils are dilated and he has a heart rate of 105 beats per minute, respiratory rate of 19 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 145/94 mmHg. What treatment options are available for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzodiazepines
Explanation:The individual displayed symptoms consistent with amphetamine or cocaine intoxication, including agitated behavior and the potential for cardiac arrest and seizures. Treatment options may include benzodiazepines or alpha-blockers to manage the effects of cocaine, while flumazenil may be used for benzodiazepine intoxication. N-acetylcysteine is effective in treating paracetamol overdose by replenishing glutathione levels, and naloxone is used to manage opioid overdose, such as with heroin.
The management of overdoses and poisonings involves specific treatments for each toxin. For example, in cases of paracetamol overdose, activated charcoal may be given if ingested within an hour, and N-acetylcysteine or liver transplantation may be necessary. Salicylate overdose may require urinary alkalinization with IV bicarbonate or haemodialysis. Opioid/opiate overdose can be treated with naloxone, while benzodiazepine overdose may require flumazenil, although this is only used in severe cases due to the risk of seizures. Tricyclic antidepressant overdose may require IV bicarbonate to reduce the risk of seizures and arrhythmias, while lithium toxicity may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline or haemodialysis. Warfarin overdose can be treated with vitamin K or prothrombin complex, while heparin overdose may require protamine sulphate. Beta-blocker overdose may require atropine or glucagon. Ethylene glycol poisoning can be treated with fomepizole or ethanol, while methanol poisoning may require the same treatment or haemodialysis. Organophosphate insecticide poisoning can be treated with atropine, and digoxin overdose may require digoxin-specific antibody fragments. Iron overdose may require desferrioxamine, and lead poisoning may require dimercaprol or calcium edetate. Carbon monoxide poisoning can be treated with 100% oxygen or hyperbaric oxygen, while cyanide poisoning may require hydroxocobalamin or a combination of amyl nitrite, sodium nitrite, and sodium thiosulfate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 138
Incorrect
-
In the Vaughan Williams classification of antihypertensives, lisinopril is an example of a:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Class III agent
Explanation:The Vaughan Williams Classification of Antiarrhythmics
The Vaughan Williams classification is a widely used system for categorizing antiarrhythmic drugs based on their mechanism of action. The classification system is divided into four classes, each with a different mechanism of action. Class I drugs block sodium channels, Class II drugs are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists, Class III drugs block potassium channels, and Class IV drugs are calcium channel blockers.
Class Ia drugs, such as quinidine and procainamide, increase the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. However, quinidine toxicity can cause cinchonism, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, tinnitus, and thrombocytopenia. Procainamide may also cause drug-induced lupus.
Class Ib drugs, such as lidocaine and mexiletine, decrease the duration of the action potential by blocking sodium channels. Class Ic drugs, such as flecainide and propafenone, have no effect on the duration of the action potential but still block sodium channels.
Class II drugs, such as propranolol and metoprolol, are beta-adrenoceptor antagonists that decrease the heart rate and contractility of the heart.
Class III drugs, such as amiodarone and sotalol, block potassium channels, which prolongs the duration of the action potential.
Class IV drugs, such as verapamil and diltiazem, are calcium channel blockers that decrease the influx of calcium ions into the heart, which slows down the heart rate and reduces contractility.
It should be noted that some common antiarrhythmic drugs, such as adenosine, atropine, digoxin, and magnesium, are not included in the Vaughan Williams classification.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 139
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening dyspnoea, a purulent cough and a fever over the past month. He reports that he lost 5kg in this period, and also experiences night sweats. One month ago, he returned to the UK from a two-month-long mission trip to India, where he worked as a volunteer in mission hospitals.
On examination, he appears to be tachypnoeic and uncomfortable. Crepitations are heard at the apices of both lungs, and a productive cough is noted.
He is admitted to the isolation ward, and the attending physician obtains samples for an acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear. However, why is an AFB smear alone insufficient in achieving a definitive diagnosis for this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: AFB smear is not specific for TB as all mycobacteria will stain positive
Explanation:An AFB smear is not a definitive test for TB as it can also detect other mycobacteria. However, it is one of the initial investigations for patients with symptoms suggestive of TB, such as this man with a purulent cough, fever, night sweats, and weight loss, especially if they have a travel history to an endemic area like India. A culture is necessary to confirm the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis and determine its susceptibility to antimicrobial agents. The AFB smear is a quick and simple test that can be performed in most healthcare institutions, and it can detect both active and latent TB.
Tuberculosis can be screened for using the Mantoux test, which involves injecting a small amount of purified protein derivative (PPD) into the skin and reading the results a few days later. A positive result indicates hypersensitivity to the tuberculin protein, which may be due to previous TB infection or BCG vaccination. False negative results can occur in certain situations, such as in very young children or individuals with certain medical conditions. The Heaf test, which was previously used in the UK, has since been discontinued.
To diagnose active tuberculosis, a chest x-ray may reveal upper lobe cavitation or bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. Sputum smear tests involve examining three specimens for the presence of acid-fast bacilli using the Ziehl-Neelsen stain. While this test is rapid and inexpensive, its sensitivity is between 50-80% and is decreased in individuals with HIV. Sputum culture is considered the gold standard investigation, as it is more sensitive than a smear and can assess drug sensitivities. However, it can take 1-3 weeks to obtain results. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) allow for rapid diagnosis within 24-48 hours, but are less sensitive than culture.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 140
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman is brought to the hospital with symptoms of dizziness, headache, and mild confusion. Her family members also report experiencing similar symptoms that have been developing slowly over the past few weeks. Upon testing, her arterial blood gas reveals a COHb level of 13% (normal < 0.5%) and a measured SpO2 of 86%, despite the oxygen saturation probe indicating 100%.
Assuming the diagnosis is correct, what effect would you anticipate on the oxygen dissociation curve?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shift to the left and downwards
Explanation:The correct answer is that carbon monoxide poisoning causes a shift to the left and downwards in the oxygen dissociation curve. This is because CO binds to haemoglobin with a much higher affinity than oxygen, leading to a reduced oxygen-binding capacity and increased affinity for subsequent molecules of oxygen. The downward shift reflects this reduced capacity, while the leftward shift reflects the increased affinity for oxygen. A shift to the right and downwards is not correct, as this would reflect a reduced affinity for oxygen, which is not the case with CO poisoning.
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 141
Incorrect
-
Most of the signals carried within the brain of a developing child are excitatory, with a neurotransmitter causing activation of the postsynaptic neuron. Glutamate is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter within the developing brain.
Which of the following receptors can only be activated by glutamate if the postsynaptic neuron is already depolarised?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: NMDA receptor
Explanation:Glutamate is an amino acid that is not considered essential as it can be produced by the body. It plays a crucial role in metabolism, particularly in the clearance of excess nitrogen from the body. Glutamate can also act as an energy source in the cell and is used in the synthesis of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA. However, loss of the enzyme responsible for this conversion can result in stiff person syndrome, a neurological disorder characterized by muscle stiffness and spasms. Glutamate also acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system and plays a role in long-term potentiation, which is important in memory and learning. However, high levels of glutamate may contribute to excitotoxicity following a stroke. Glutamate can bind to various receptors, including NMDA, AMPA, Kainate, and Metabotropic types I, II, and III, to have actions on the postsynaptic membrane.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 142
Incorrect
-
A middle-aged man visits the doctor and presents with multiple skin nodules and cafe au lait spots on his body. The doctor suspects neurofibromatosis and advises genetic counselling. The patient is informed that if he has children, they may inherit the condition with variable manifestations that could be more or less severe than his own. What genetic concept is the doctor trying to convey?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Variable expressivity
Explanation:Expressivity refers to the degree to which a particular genotype is manifested in an individual’s phenotype in genetics.
Understanding Penetrance and Expressivity in Genetic Disorders
Penetrance and expressivity are two important concepts in genetics that help explain why individuals with the same gene mutation may exhibit different degrees of observable characteristics. Penetrance refers to the proportion of individuals in a population who carry a disease-causing allele and express the related disease phenotype. In contrast, expressivity describes the extent to which a genotype shows its phenotypic expression in an individual.
There are several factors that can influence penetrance and expressivity, including modifier genes, environmental factors, and allelic variation. For example, some genetic disorders, such as retinoblastoma and Huntington’s disease, exhibit incomplete penetrance, meaning that not all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition. On the other hand, achondroplasia shows complete penetrance, meaning that all individuals with the disease-causing allele will develop the condition.
Expressivity, on the other hand, describes the severity of the phenotype. Some genetic disorders, such as neurofibromatosis, exhibit a high level of expressivity, meaning that the phenotype is more severe in affected individuals. Understanding penetrance and expressivity is important in genetic counseling and can help predict the likelihood and severity of a genetic disorder in individuals and their families.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 143
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old agricultural laborer has consumed a pesticide. What is the probable mechanism by which the substance is causing bronchoconstriction, excessive salivation, diarrhea, and a decrease in heart rate and blood pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholine metabolism
Explanation:Organophosphate poisoning occurs when acetylcholinesterase is inhibited, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. Symptoms such as excessive salivation, diarrhea, hypotension, bradycardia, and bronchoconstriction indicate parasympathetic nervous system activity. Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter used in the neuromuscular junction and select points in the autonomic nervous system, with muscarinic receptors being the most relevant in this scenario. The correct answer for the causative mechanism of the symptoms is the inhibition of acetylcholine metabolism, as excessive amounts of organophosphates in pesticides act as potent inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase. Answer options relating to noradrenaline are incorrect as they would increase the neurotransmitter and potentiate the sympathetic nervous system effects.
Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning
Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when an individual is exposed to insecticides containing organophosphates. This type of poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.
The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine, which can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD. These symptoms include salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/diarrhea, cardiovascular issues such as hypotension and bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.
The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine to counteract the effects of acetylcholine accumulation. The role of pralidoxime in treating this condition is still unclear, as meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 144
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old male has received his test results for a recent STD test. He has tested positive. According to a study on the test, 894 patients with a positive test result for the STD are true positives and 496 are false positives. Additionally, out of 1240 patients with a negative test result, 1120 are true negatives and 120 are false negatives. What is the positive predictive value of this test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 64%
Explanation:Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 145
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old woman suddenly collapses following a wasp sting. Upon reaching her, you observe significant swelling in her face and a noticeable wheezing sound. Anaphylaxis is suspected. Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is commonly linked to this type of reaction?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ig E
Explanation:The correct answer for the mediator of type 1 hypersensitivity reaction, such as anaphylaxis, is IgE.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 146
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department after experiencing an urticarial rash and itching due to peanut exposure at a school event. Upon admission, blood is drawn. What would be the most elevated level you would anticipate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgE
Explanation:Type 1 hypersensitivity is mediated by IgE, an antibody that triggers an inflammatory response when it cross-links with the high-affinity IgE receptor. This reaction is typically triggered by antigens found in certain foods, drugs, or venoms. While anaphylaxis does not cause an increase in IgE levels, individuals who experience anaphylaxis often have higher levels of serum IgE. On the other hand, IgM is an antibody that is not associated with anaphylaxis and is commonly present during the early stages of infection.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 147
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old female visits the doctor after being diagnosed with HIV. Her CD4 count was last recorded at 45 cells/mL and she reports experiencing blurred vision and blind spots. She expresses fear about the impact of HIV on her eyes. What is the most severe eye complication associated with HIV infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis
Explanation:Understanding HIV-Related Cytomegalovirus Retinitis
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis is a common condition that affects individuals with a CD4 count of less than 50. It is diagnosed clinically as there are no specific diagnostic tests available. The condition is characterized by visual impairment, such as blurred vision, and can be identified through fundoscopy, which shows a characteristic appearance of retinal haemorrhages and necrosis, often referred to as a pizza retina.
Management of CMV retinitis involves the use of IV ganciclovir, which was previously a lifelong treatment. However, new evidence suggests that it may be discontinued once the CD4 count reaches 150 after HAART. Alternatively, IV foscarnet or cidofovir may be used as an alternative treatment option.
In summary, CMV retinitis is a common condition that affects individuals with a low CD4 count. It is diagnosed clinically and can be identified through fundoscopy. Management involves the use of IV ganciclovir, which may be discontinued once the CD4 count reaches 150 after HAART, or alternative treatments such as IV foscarnet or cidofovir.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 148
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of severe constipation and nausea. She reports feeling excessively thirsty and experiencing increased urination over the past month. Additionally, she admits to feeling low. A blood test reveals elevated calcium levels, and she is referred to an endocrinologist. The diagnosis of a parathyroid adenoma is confirmed through a sestamibi parathyroid scan. Which pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the inferior parathyroid glands?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Third pharyngeal pouch
Explanation:The 3rd pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the inferior parathyroid glands, while the 1st pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum. The Palatine tonsils originate from the 2nd pharyngeal pouch, and the superior parathyroid glands develop from the 4th pharyngeal pouch. Additionally, the 5th pharyngeal pouch contributes to the formation of the thyroid C-cells, which are part of the 4th pharyngeal pouch.
Embryology of Branchial (Pharyngeal) Pouches
During embryonic development, the branchial (pharyngeal) pouches give rise to various structures in the head and neck region. The first pharyngeal pouch forms the Eustachian tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum. The second pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the palatine tonsils. The third pharyngeal pouch divides into dorsal and ventral wings, with the dorsal wings forming the inferior parathyroid glands and the ventral wings forming the thymus. Finally, the fourth pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the superior parathyroid glands.
Understanding the embryology of the branchial pouches is important in the diagnosis and treatment of certain congenital abnormalities and diseases affecting these structures. By knowing which structures arise from which pouches, healthcare professionals can better understand the underlying pathophysiology and develop appropriate management strategies. Additionally, knowledge of the embryology of these structures can aid in the development of new treatments and therapies for related conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 149
Incorrect
-
A 20-year-old college student comes to you with complaints of fever, lethargy, and painful swollen submandibular lymph nodes. After diagnosis, you find out that he has infectious mononucleosis. What advice would you give him?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should avoid rugby
Explanation:Patients should refrain from engaging in contact sports for a period of 4 weeks due to the risk of splenic rupture. However, swimming is considered a safe activity. It is important to advise patients accordingly.
Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis
Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic symptoms of sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.
The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophile antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 150
Incorrect
-
In the realm of evidence based medicine, what is the purpose of utilizing the GRADE approach?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Assessing the quality of evidence
Explanation:Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine
In order to evaluate the quality of evidence in evidence-based medicine, levels or grades are often used to organize the evidence. Traditional hierarchies placed systematic reviews or randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each. On the other hand, the GRADE system is a grading approach that classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, or very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical or important, and the evidence is gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence. Evidence can be promoted or downgraded based on certain circumstances. The use of levels and grades of evidence helps to evaluate the quality of evidence and make informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 151
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old patient visits his doctor with concerns about enlarged breast tissue causing him embarrassment. He has a medical history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, bipolar disorder, and diabetes mellitus. He previously used cocaine and now takes methadone. He recently completed a course of amoxicillin for a chest infection. He has not gained weight and wonders if any of his medications could be responsible for his condition.
Which medication is most likely responsible for the patient's complaint?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Digoxin
Explanation:Digoxin is a medication that can cause gynecomastia as a side effect. It belongs to the group of cardiac glycoside drugs and is commonly used to treat heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and atrial flutter.
Amoxicillin, on the other hand, is an antibiotic that is not known to cause gynecomastia.
Atenolol is a beta-blocker that is used to manage hypertension, angina, and acute myocardial infarction. It is a selective beta-1-adrenergic antagonist and can cause side effects such as bronchospasm, bradycardia, diarrhea, confusion, headache, erectile dysfunction, and peripheral coldness. However, it is not associated with gynecomastia, except for galactorrhea.
Methadone, a medication used to treat opioid addiction, has been shown to increase plasma prolactin levels after administration. This effect is reversible with dopamine agonist administration, as pituitary prolactin release is inhibited by dopamine secreted from hypothalamic neurons.
Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity
Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and can cause toxicity even when the concentration is within the therapeutic range.
Toxicity may present with symptoms such as lethargy, nausea, vomiting, confusion, and yellow-green vision. Arrhythmias and gynaecomastia may also occur. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor as it increases the inhibitory effects of digoxin. Other factors include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, and various electrolyte imbalances. Certain drugs, such as amiodarone and verapamil, can also contribute to toxicity.
If toxicity is suspected, digoxin concentrations should be measured within 8 to 12 hours of the last dose. However, plasma concentration alone does not determine toxicity. Management includes the use of Digibind, correcting arrhythmias, and monitoring potassium levels.
In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, monitoring, and potential toxicity of digoxin is crucial for its safe and effective use in clinical practice.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 152
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of toothache that has been bothering him for two days. He is prescribed a new anti-inflammatory medication that works by preventing the conversion of arachidonic acid to endoperoxides.
What specific enzyme is likely being inhibited by this drug?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclooxygenase
Explanation:The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves several steps, with cyclooxygenase playing a key role in converting it to endoperoxides. Additionally, lipoxygenase is responsible for the conversion of arachidonic acid to hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoic acid (HPETEs), while phospholipase A breaks down phospholipids to release arachidonic acid. The end products of arachidonic acid metabolism include leukotrienes A4, B4, C4, D4, and E4.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 153
Incorrect
-
Mrs Green is admitted via the emergency department and found to have a large liver abscess. She undergoes CT guided aspiration and the fluid is sent off for analysis. Initial microscopy demonstrates a large population of neutrophils.
Which of the following cytokines is likely to have been responsible for this cell infiltration?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Interleukin-8
Explanation:Interleukins (IL) are cytokines that have various important roles in the immune system. One such IL is IL-8, which is produced by macrophages and is responsible for the chemotaxis of neutrophils. This is crucial in the acute inflammatory response, as neutrophils are recruited to areas of inflammation.
Another important IL is IL-2, which is produced by T helper 1 cells and stimulates the growth and development of various immune cells, including T cells, B cells, and natural killer cells. This makes it essential for fighting infections.
IL-4, produced by T helper 2 cells, activates B cells and can also induce the differentiation of CD4+ T cells into T helper 2 cells. It plays a crucial role in dealing with infections.
IL-5, also produced by T helper 2 cells, primarily stimulates the production of eosinophils.
Finally, IL-10 is produced by both macrophages and T helper 2 cells. It is an anti-inflammatory cytokine that inhibits cytokine production from T helper 1 cells.
Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions
Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.
In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 154
Incorrect
-
A female neonate born prematurely by spontaneous vaginal delivery at 30 weeks gestation is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit with respiratory distress. The neonate is given exogenous surfactant therapy and her respiratory distress improves.
During the discussion of the neonate's ongoing care plan, the paediatrician advises the mother to provide expressed breast milk. What is the primary immunoglobulin class that will be transferred to the infant through this method?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA
Explanation:The most prevalent immunoglobulin in breast milk is IgA. This antibody is crucial for providing immunity to newborns and reducing the risk of infections during their first few weeks of life. IgD is not a significant component of breast milk, as it is primarily found on the surface of B cells and its function is not well understood. IgE and IgG are also present in breast milk, but in lower concentrations than IgA. IgE is involved in antiparasitic immune responses and allergic reactions, while IgG is the most abundant antibody in the bloodstream and is produced after exposure to pathogens.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 155
Incorrect
-
A group of educational researchers want to investigate the effect of technology use on academic performance among middle school students. They plan to select high-achieving, non-tech using students and low-achieving, tech-using students for the study. Then, they will follow up with each group at a later time and compare their academic performance.
The school review board is worried about the study's design. They note a significant risk of selection bias in this study and suggest several modifications.
What is the particular concern of the review board?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is non-random assignment of students to each group
Explanation:Selection bias refers to the non-random allocation of participants to study groups, which can lead to an over or under-representation of certain groups and bias the results. In the case of this study, non-gaming students may perform better due to their prior performance, rather than their lack of gaming experience. To address this, the researchers should ensure that the prior performance of both groups is similar.
The binary categorization of gaming and non-gaming may be imprecise, but it is not a form of bias that would significantly impact the results. To improve the study, the researchers could ask participants to report their average gaming hours and stratify accordingly.
Reporting bias, rather than selection bias, may occur if only the best-performing gamers report their results, leading to an overestimation of the group’s ability.
While there may be confounding variables to consider, such as mental health issues, these are not a form of selection bias.
Attrition bias, where there is a greater loss of participants from one group compared to the other, may occur but is not a form of selection bias. In this study, poor-performing students may be more likely to drop out, leading to a potential underestimation of the effect size.
Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials
Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnoses the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 156
Incorrect
-
A 47-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of dysuria, urinary frequency, and malaise. Upon testing a urine sample, the doctor discovers the growth of E. Coli that is resistant to ampicillin. What is the underlying mechanism of resistance?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-lactamase production
Explanation:The resistance mechanism of penicillins involves the production of beta-lactamase, an enzyme that breaks down the antibiotic’s beta-lactam ring. This is a common cause of resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics, including penicillins, and is observed in many E. Coli strains.
Carbapenemases are a type of beta-lactamase, and some E. Coli strains produce them. However, it is not specified in the question whether the E. Coli in the patient’s urine is resistant to carbapenems.
Resistance against fluoroquinolone and tetracycline antibiotics often occurs due to mutations in the gene encoding the targeted site. Tetracycline resistance can also result from the production of efflux pumps. Protective biofilm production is common in P. aeruginosa and S. pneumoniae infections.
Antibiotic Resistance Mechanisms
Antibiotics are drugs that are used to treat bacterial infections. However, over time, bacteria have developed mechanisms to resist the effects of antibiotics. These mechanisms vary depending on the type of antibiotic being used.
For example, penicillins are often rendered ineffective by bacterial penicillinase, an enzyme that cleaves the β-lactam ring in the antibiotic. Cephalosporins, another type of antibiotic, can become ineffective due to changes in the penicillin-binding-proteins (PBPs) that they target. Macrolides, on the other hand, can be resisted by bacteria that have undergone post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
Fluoroquinolones can be resisted by bacteria that have mutations to DNA gyrase or efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of the antibiotic within the cell. Tetracyclines can be resisted by bacteria that have increased efflux through plasmid-encoded transport pumps or ribosomal protection. Aminoglycosides can be resisted by bacteria that have plasmid-encoded genes for acetyltransferases, adenyltransferases, and phosphotransferases.
Sulfonamides can be resisted by bacteria that increase the synthesis of PABA or have mutations in the gene encoding dihydropteroate synthetase. Vancomycin can be resisted by bacteria that have altered the terminal amino acid residues of the NAM/NAG-peptide subunits to which the antibiotic binds. Rifampicin can be resisted by bacteria that have mutations altering residues of the rifampicin binding site on RNA polymerase. Finally, isoniazid and pyrazinamide can be resisted by bacteria that have mutations in the katG and pncA genes, respectively, which reduce the ability of the catalase-peroxidase to activate the pro-drug.
In summary, bacteria have developed various mechanisms to resist the effects of antibiotics, making it increasingly difficult to treat bacterial infections.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 157
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after a fall at home resulting in a head injury. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin for stroke prevention, with a target INR of 2.5. CT head reveals an acute subdural haemorrhage, and his INR is 5.5. As a healthcare provider, you opt to administer 5 mg of IV vitamin K. What is the mode of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acts as a co-factor in the carboxylation of factors II, VII, IX and X
Explanation:To reverse the effects of warfarin and treat major bleeding, IV vitamin K should be administered as it acts as a cofactor in the carboxylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Prothrombin complex concentrate or fresh frozen plasma may also be given. It is important to note that vitamin K is fat-soluble and its levels may decrease in conditions affecting fat absorption, such as obstructive jaundice. Additionally, it may take up to 4 hours for vitamin K to produce a reduction in INR when given to reverse the effects of warfarin. DOACs such as apixaban, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban directly inhibit factor Xa, while dabigatran works by directly inhibiting thrombin (factor IIa). Heparin, on the other hand, activates antithrombin III, which inactivates factor Xa and thrombin.
Understanding Vitamin K
Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.
Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 158
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old male visits his doctor complaining of weight loss and difficulty breathing for the past 8 months. Upon physical examination, no abnormalities are found, but the doctor orders a chest x-ray.
The radiograph reveals: 'Central trachea. Bilateral hilar lymph nodes are visible, along with a lesion in the left middle zone. The mass measures approximately 5cm in diameter and has a center of caseation. No other clinical findings are present.'
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:The presence of caseating granulomatous inflammation in the lungs is a clear indication of tuberculosis (TB). If a radiograph shows a caseating lesion in the middle zone, it should raise suspicion of TB. It is important to note that mesothelioma, Pancoast tumors, and renal cell carcinoma lung metastases have their own distinct radiographic features and are not associated with caseating granulomas. Sarcoidosis, on the other hand, is a condition characterized by non-caseating granulomas and is not related to TB.
Types of Tuberculosis
Tuberculosis (TB) is a disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis that primarily affects the lungs. There are two types of TB: primary and secondary. Primary TB occurs when a non-immune host is exposed to the bacteria and develops a small lung lesion called a Ghon focus. This focus is made up of macrophages containing tubercles and is accompanied by hilar lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. In immunocompetent individuals, the lesion usually heals through fibrosis. However, those who are immunocompromised may develop disseminated disease, also known as miliary tuberculosis.
Secondary TB, also called post-primary TB, occurs when the initial infection becomes reactivated in an immunocompromised host. Reactivation typically occurs in the apex of the lungs and can spread locally or to other parts of the body. Factors that can cause immunocompromise include immunosuppressive drugs, HIV, and malnutrition. While the lungs are still the most common site for secondary TB, it can also affect other areas such as the central nervous system, vertebral bodies, cervical lymph nodes, renal system, and gastrointestinal tract. Tuberculous meningitis is the most serious complication of extra-pulmonary TB. Understanding the differences between primary and secondary TB is crucial in diagnosing and treating the disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 159
Incorrect
-
A 23-year-old woman with known allergies presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing after eating at a restaurant.
Upon arrival, she exhibits an audible wheeze, swelling of her lips and tongue, and a widespread urticarial rash. Intramuscular adrenaline is promptly administered, resulting in rapid improvement of her condition.
After being observed for a period of time, she is discharged with two auto-injectors containing the same medication for future use and a plan for outpatient follow-up at an allergy clinic.
What is the receptor targeted by this medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: G protein-coupled
Explanation:Adrenaline exerts its effects through G protein-coupled receptors, which are transmembrane proteins that activate intracellular signaling pathways. This mechanism is responsible for the vasoconstriction induced by adrenaline, which is used to counteract the vasodilation and increased vascular permeability seen in anaphylaxis. However, adrenaline does not act on guanylate cyclase receptors, ligand-gated ion channel receptors, or serine/threonine kinase receptors, which are other types of transmembrane proteins that respond to different chemical messengers.
Membrane receptors are proteins located on the surface of cells that receive signals from outside the cell and transmit them inside. There are four main types of membrane receptors: ligand-gated ion channel receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, guanylate cyclase receptors, and G protein-coupled receptors. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors mediate fast responses and include nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, and glutamate receptors. Tyrosine kinase receptors include receptor tyrosine kinase such as insulin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF), and epidermal growth factor (EGF), and non-receptor tyrosine kinase such as PIGG(L)ET, which stands for Prolactin, Immunomodulators (cytokines IL-2, Il-6, IFN), GH, G-CSF, Erythropoietin, and Thrombopoietin.
Guanylate cyclase receptors contain intrinsic enzyme activity and include atrial natriuretic factor and brain natriuretic peptide. G protein-coupled receptors generally mediate slow transmission and affect metabolic processes. They are activated by a wide variety of extracellular signals such as peptide hormones, biogenic amines (e.g. adrenaline), lipophilic hormones, and light. These receptors have 7-helix membrane-spanning domains and consist of 3 main subunits: alpha, beta, and gamma. The alpha subunit is linked to GDP. Ligand binding causes conformational changes to the receptor, GDP is phosphorylated to GTP, and the alpha subunit is activated. G proteins are named according to the alpha subunit (Gs, Gi, Gq).
The mechanism of G protein-coupled receptors varies depending on the type of G protein involved. Gs stimulates adenylate cyclase, which increases cAMP and activates protein kinase A. Gi inhibits adenylate cyclase, which decreases cAMP and inhibits protein kinase A. Gq activates phospholipase C, which splits PIP2 to IP3 and DAG and activates protein kinase C. Examples of G protein-coupled receptors include beta-1 receptors (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dobutamine), beta-2 receptors (epinephrine, salbuterol), H2 receptors (histamine), D1 receptors (dopamine), V2 receptors (vas
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 160
Incorrect
-
A 75-year-old male is admitted to the ICU with a fever, headache, vomiting, and a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13. The medical team suspects herpes simplex encephalitis and orders an MRI while starting the appropriate treatment. What is the likely mechanism of action of the drug administered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Competitively inhibits viral DNA polymerases
Explanation:acyclovir is a highly specific antiviral agent that targets viral DNA polymerase with greater affinity than cellular DNA polymerase. It works by incorporating into the DNA and causing chain termination due to the missing 2′ and 3′ carbons. To become active, acyclovir must first be converted to acyclovir monophosphate by the virus-specific enzyme thymidine kinase (TK), and then to its active triphosphate form by human enzymes. acyclovir is effective against most herpesvirus species.
Penicillins prevent peptidoglycan cross-linking by binding to penicillin-binding-proteins, leading to cell lysis and making them bactericidal. They can be given with β-lactamase inhibitors to prevent antibiotic breakdown, such as co-amoxiclav (amoxicillin with clavulanic acid).
Quinolones are topoisomerase inhibitors that inhibit DNA synthesis and are bactericidal. However, they can cause tendon rupture as a side effect.
Aminoglycosides bind to the 30S subunit, causing mRNA misreading. Gentamicin is an example used to treat various bacterial infections, but it can cause ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity.
Macrolides like clindamycin bind to the 50S subunit, inhibiting translocation. Clindamycin is primarily used to treat anaerobic infections caused by susceptible anaerobic bacteria, including dental, respiratory, skin, and soft tissue infections, as well as peritonitis.
Antiviral agents are drugs used to treat viral infections. They work by targeting specific mechanisms of the virus, such as inhibiting viral DNA polymerase or neuraminidase. Some common antiviral agents include acyclovir, ganciclovir, ribavirin, amantadine, oseltamivir, foscarnet, interferon-α, and cidofovir. Each drug has its own mechanism of action and indications for use, but they all aim to reduce the severity and duration of viral infections.
In addition to these antiviral agents, there are also specific drugs used to treat HIV, a retrovirus. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), protease inhibitors (PI), and non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI) are all used to target different aspects of the HIV life cycle. NRTIs work by inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme, which is needed for the virus to replicate. PIs inhibit a protease enzyme that is necessary for the virus to mature and become infectious. NNRTIs bind to and inhibit the reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing the virus from replicating. These drugs are often used in combination to achieve the best possible outcomes for HIV patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 161
Incorrect
-
You are conducting a research on blood pressure readings in elderly patients. Assuming a normal distribution, what proportion of values fall within two standard deviations of the mean blood pressure reading?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 95.4%
Explanation:The normal distribution, also known as the Gaussian distribution or ‘bell-shaped’ distribution, is commonly used to describe the spread of biological and clinical measurements. It is symmetrical, meaning that the mean, mode, and median are all equal. Additionally, a large percentage of values fall within a certain range of the mean. For example, 68.3% of values lie within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lie within 2 SD, and 99.7% lie within 3 SD. This is often reversed, so that 95% of sample values lie within 1.96 SD of the mean. The range of the mean plus or minus 1.96 SD is called the 95% confidence interval, meaning that if a repeat sample of 100 observations were taken from the same group, 95 of them would be expected to fall within that range. The standard deviation is a measure of how much dispersion exists from the mean, and is calculated as the square root of the variance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 162
Incorrect
-
A 55-year-old man presents to the clinic with a one-month history of progressive burning and tingling sensations in his hands and feet. He enjoys restoring antique cars as a hobby. The patient has no known medical conditions and is not taking any medications. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. His blood pressure is 110/75 mmHg, and his pulse is 72/min. The palms and soles of his feet have hyperkeratosis and scaling. There is weakness in ankle plantarflexion and dorsiflexion, as well as in the interossei and wrist flexors and extensors.
The following are the patient's laboratory results:
Hb 100 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 1.2 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 4.1 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arsenic poisoning
Explanation:If a patient presents with painful sensorimotor polyneuropathy, skin lesions (including hypo- and hyperpigmented and hyperkeratotic lesions), pancytopenia, and mild transaminase elevation, it is important to consider the possibility of arsenic toxicity. This is especially true if the patient has a history of exposure to antique wood. Chronic exposure to arsenic can cause a specific type of neuropathy that affects the hands and feet, causing burning, pain, hypersensitivity, weakness, and reduced reflexes. Later on, patients may develop hyperkeratosis and scaling on the palms and soles.
It is important to differentiate arsenic toxicity from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms. Chronic lead poisoning can also cause neuropathy, but it typically presents with microcytic anemia and does not cause skin changes. Vitamin A deficiency can cause xerophthalmia, night blindness, and follicular hyperkeratosis, but it is not associated with polyneuropathy. Vitamin D deficiency can cause bone pain, myopathy, and an increased risk of fractures.
Heavy metal poisoning is the accumulation of heavy metals in the soft tissues of the body, which can be caused by ingestion, inhalation, or absorption through the skin or mucous membranes. The most commonly linked metals to poisoning are lead, mercury, arsenic, and cadmium, but other metals like iron, thallium, and bismuth may also be implicated. Heavy metal poisoning is rare in the UK, and the incidence of lead poisoning has decreased in affluent countries due to the removal of lead paint. The symptoms and signs of heavy metal poisoning depend on the metal involved, but fatigue, nausea, and vomiting are common. Arsenic, lead, mercury, and cadmium poisoning are the most commonly encountered, and each has its own set of symptoms and signs. Investigations may include a full history, examination, blood and urine levels, and X-rays.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 163
Incorrect
-
You are the nephrology consultant conducting a post-take ward round. The next patient is a 38-year-old man who was admitted after an overdose of aspirin. His wife reported he took 50 tablets.
Upon admission, he received 55g of activated charcoal and IV sodium bicarbonate. You are contemplating initiating haemodialysis for this patient.
What is the rationale behind your decision to proceed with haemodialysis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute renal failure
Explanation:Salicylate overdose can cause a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The respiratory center is initially stimulated, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can later cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.
The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of over 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.
Salicylates can also cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. It is important to recognize the symptoms of salicylate overdose and seek prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 164
Incorrect
-
As the FY1 on a busy surgical ward, you are preparing to discharge an 85-year-old male who underwent a total hip replacement following a neck of femur fracture. He hands you an envelope expressing his gratitude for your care. Upon opening it, you discover a cheque for £400 made out to you. What is your course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thank the patient but refuse the money
Explanation:The issue of accepting gifts from patients can be challenging, but the GMC has provided clear guidance on this matter in their document on financial and commercial arrangements and conflicts of interest. According to their guidelines on gifts, bequests, and donations, healthcare professionals should not encourage patients to give them money or gifts that could benefit them directly or indirectly. However, they may accept unsolicited gifts from patients or their relatives as long as it does not affect the way they provide care or influence patients to offer gifts.
In this scenario, accepting the gift may not affect the way you treat the patient, but it is still advisable to decline it. While this may disappoint the patient, it is the safest course of action to avoid any potential conflicts of interest.
As a doctor, it is important to adhere to the guidelines set forth by the GMC. One such guideline states that doctors should not accept any gifts, inducements, or hospitality from patients, colleagues, or others that could potentially influence or be perceived to influence their treatment, prescription, referral, or commissioning of services for patients. It is crucial to maintain a professional and ethical relationship with patients, and accepting gifts can compromise this relationship. Therefore, doctors should always be mindful of the GMC’s guidance and avoid accepting any gifts that could potentially affect their judgment or decision-making.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 165
Incorrect
-
A nulliparous woman visits her obstetrician at 28 weeks of pregnancy. She has a history of asthma and has noticed a deterioration in her asthma symptoms over the past few days. She is concerned that her asthma may affect her unborn child, as she has read online about the presence of extra antibodies in her blood due to asthma. Which immunoglobulin can be transmitted to her baby?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgG
Explanation:The immunoglobulin that fixes complement and is able to pass to the fetal circulation is IgG. This immunoglobulin is produced by plasma cells and is present in all body fluids, being the most abundant in the body. IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can provide immunity to a fetus by crossing the placenta. It indirectly promotes phagocytosis through complement activation. To remember this, you can associate the letter G with gestation.
On the other hand, IgA is the predominant immunoglobulin found in breast milk and in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. However, it does not transmit to the fetus during pregnancy.
IgD does not pass into the fetal circulation and is poorly understood. It is found on naive B cells and is involved in B cell activation, which in turn activates mast cell release. Mast cells produce antimicrobial factors involved in immune defense.
Finally, IgE is involved in asthma and allergic reactions, as well as in protecting against parasitic worms and other allergens. It acts by binding to the allergen, activating mast cells and basophils. However, it does not pass into the fetal circulation.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 166
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old girl has been brought to the emergency department by her guardians after confessing to taking three boxes of ibuprofen an hour ago.
What is the appropriate course of action for her treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Activated charcoal and N-acetylcysteine
Explanation:If a paracetamol overdose occurs, activated charcoal should be administered within 1 hour for it to be effective. However, if the time has passed, N-acetylcysteine would be the preferred treatment. It is important to note that activated charcoal should not be used as the sole treatment as it does not address the paracetamol that has already been absorbed.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the nomogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE should be consulted for situations outside of the normal parameters. Activated charcoal may be given to patients who present within 1 hour to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line, there is a staggered overdose, or patients present 8-24 hours after ingestion of an acute overdose of more than 150 mg/kg of paracetamol. Acetylcysteine should also be continued if the paracetamol concentration or ALT remains elevated while seeking specialist advice. The infusion time for acetylcysteine has been increased to 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion and restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 167
Incorrect
-
During your placement on a urology ward, you receive a call from microbiology regarding the bacteria found in a urine sample from an older male patient you are managing for urosepsis. What is the most frequent bacteria that causes a urinary tract infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 168
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old male who recently completed chemotherapy for acute lymphoblastic leukemia presents with exertional dyspnea, productive cough, occasional hemoptysis, and fevers.
On a chest x-ray, an intracavitary mass with an air-crescent in the periphery is observed in the upper lobe.
The patient is initiated on IV amphotericin.
What is the accurate explanation of how this medication functions?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Forms a transmembrane channel that leads to monovalent ion leakage
Explanation:Amphotericin B functions by binding to ergosterol, a key component of fungal cell membranes, and creating pores that lead to the destruction of the cell wall and subsequent death of the fungus. The drug’s effectiveness as a fungistatic or fungicidal agent depends on the concentration in body fluids and the susceptibility of the fungus.
Aminoglycosides operate by binding to the 30s ribosome subunit, causing mRNA misreading. This results in the production of abnormal peptides that accumulate within the cell and ultimately lead to its demise. These antibiotics are bactericidal in nature.
Rifampicin works by inhibiting RNA synthesis.
Cephalosporins disrupt the synthesis of the peptidoglycan layer of bacterial cell walls by inhibiting the cross-linking of the peptidoglycan layer. This is achieved through competitive inhibition on PCB (penicillin-binding proteins).
Trimethoprim binds to dihydrofolate reductase and prevents the reduction of dihydrofolic acid (DHF) to tetrahydrofolic acid (THF). THF is a crucial precursor in the thymidine synthesis pathway, and interference with this pathway inhibits bacterial DNA synthesis.
Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 169
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman was referred to gastroenterology to investigate unresolved dyspepsia. She has been receiving NSAID treatment to manage a flare-up of osteoarthritis. Endoscopy reveals the presence of a gastric ulcer.
What factors may have contributed to the endoscopy findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced PGE2 (prostaglandin)
Explanation:The use of NSAIDs can lead to the formation of peptic ulcers by reducing the production of PGE2, which is responsible for increasing gastric mucus secretion. NSAIDs inhibit the COX enzymes that convert arachidonic acid into endoperoxides, which then form PGE2. PGI2 is another product of endoperoxides that causes vasodilation, reduces platelet aggregation, and has no effect on gastric mucus production. Thromboxane A2 is also a product of endoperoxides, but it causes vasoconstriction and increases platelet aggregation without affecting gastric mucus production. Inhibition of COX enzymes does not result in a deficiency of arachidonic acid, which is a precursor for prostaglandins. NSAID use does not affect leukotriene production, which is independent of COX enzymes and causes bronchoconstriction but does not impact gastric mucus production.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
-
Question 170
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor for a regular examination. She is currently 34 weeks pregnant and plans to breastfeed her child. Breastmilk is known to contain various molecules that aid in reducing the incidence of infections in infants. Can you identify the type of antibody present in breastmilk that contributes to this effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA
Explanation:IgA is present in bodily secretions such as breast milk, saliva, tears, and mucus. It provides protection against common infections in newborns and is the only antibody found in significant levels in these secretions. IgG is the most common antibody in human serum and provides long-term immunity, but is not found in secretions. IgD is mainly found on immature B lymphocytes and is not present in secretions. IgM is the first antibody to appear in response to a new antigen, but is too large to pass through the placenta and is not found in secretions.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)