-
Question 1
Correct
-
Which statement accurately describes Wernicke's area?
Your Answer: Horizontal rather than vertical nystagmus is more common
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.
The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.
Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is not associated with the Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
Your Answer: Hyperemesis gravidarum
Correct Answer: Motor neuron disease
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.
The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.
Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
What is the duration of time that LSD can be detected in urine based on the presence of its metabolite (2-oxo-3-hydroxy-LSD)?
Your Answer: 5 days
Explanation:The latest LSD immunoassays are created to detect 2-oxo-3-hydroxy-LSD, the main metabolite that can be found in higher concentrations in urine, potentially enhancing the accuracy of detection.
Drug Screening
Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.
People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.
Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A woman reporting vivid dreams, increased sleep and an increased appetite, is most likely to be experiencing which of the following?
Your Answer: Cocaine withdrawal
Explanation:Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A 30 year old patient needs medication for opiate withdrawal, during a regular physical check-up it is discovered that they have a significantly low blood pressure.
What should be avoided in this case?Your Answer: Methadone
Correct Answer: Lofexidine
Explanation:Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
Which of the following is classified as class B under the Misuse of Drugs Act?
Your Answer: Cannabis
Explanation:Class B substances are elevated to the status of Class A when they are administered through injection.
Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)
The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.
The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.
It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.
Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
What is the main cannabinoid responsible for the psychoactive effects of cannabis?
Your Answer: Tetrahydrocannabinol
Explanation:Cannabis, also known as marijuana, grass, pot, weed, tea, of Mary Jane, is a plant that contains over 60 unique cannabinoids. The primary psychoactive component of cannabis is delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (Delta 9-THC), which is rapidly converted into 11-hydroxy-delta 9-THC, the active metabolite in the central nervous system. Specific cannabinoid receptors, including CB1 and CB2 receptors, have been identified in the body. CB1 receptors are found mainly at nerve terminals, where they inhibit transmitter release, while CB2 receptors occur mainly on immune cells and modulate cytokine release. The cannabinoid receptor is found in highest concentrations in the basal ganglia, hippocampus, and cerebellum, with lower concentrations in the cerebral cortex. Cannabis use has been associated with the amotivational syndrome, characterized by apathy, anergy, weight gain, and a lack of persistence in tasks requiring prolonged attention of tenacity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
Which of the following is not a symptom of niacin deficiency?
Your Answer: Constipation
Explanation:Pellagra (niacin deficiency) is associated with diarrhea instead of constipation.
Pellagra: A Vitamin B3 Deficiency Disease
Pellagra is a disease caused by a lack of vitamin B3 (niacin) in the body. The name pellagra comes from the Italian words pelle agra, which means rough of sour skin. This disease is common in developing countries where corn is a major food source, of during prolonged disasters like famine of war. In developed countries, pellagra is rare because many foods are fortified with niacin. However, alcoholism is a common cause of pellagra in developed countries. Alcohol dependence can worsen pellagra by causing malnutrition, gastrointestinal problems, and B vitamin deficiencies. It can also inhibit the conversion of tryptophan to niacin and promote the accumulation of 5-ALA and porphyrins.
Pellagra affects a wide range of organs and tissues in the body, so its symptoms can vary. The classic symptoms of pellagra are known as the three Ds: diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. Niacin deficiency can cause dementia, depression, mania, and psychosis, which is called pellagra psychosis. The most noticeable symptom of pellagra is dermatitis, which is a hyperpigmented rash that appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin. This rash is usually symmetrical and bilateral, and it is often described as Casal’s necklace when it appears on the neck.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 42-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department on a Saturday evening seeking to speak with the on-call psychiatrist regarding his dependence on opioids.
He explains that he recently relocated to the area and has exhausted his supply of buprenorphine, which he requires to prevent relapse into heroin use.
He plans to establish care with a primary care physician next week to obtain ongoing prescriptions.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient's situation?Your Answer: Request a urine drug screen
Explanation:To ensure safe and appropriate treatment, it is crucial to verify the patient’s history of heroin dependence and methadone treatment through a urine drug screen and obtaining collateral information. Neglecting this step may result in prescribing methadone, which can be misused by the patient and potentially lead to fatal overdose if combined with injectable heroin. Additionally, methadone has a potential street value and can be sold illegally.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
Which of the following experiences is most similar to the effects of using magic mushrooms?
Your Answer: LSD
Explanation:Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)
The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.
The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.
It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.
Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Which statement about phencyclidine intoxication is accurate?
Your Answer: Benzodiazepines are contraindicated in phencyclidine intoxication
Correct Answer: Nystagmus is a common feature
Explanation:PCP Intoxication: A Dangerous Hallucinogenic
Phencyclidine (PCP), also known as angel dust, is a hallucinogenic drug that is popular for inducing feelings of euphoria, superhuman strength, and social and sexual prowess. It is a NMDA receptor antagonist that has dissociative properties, similar to ketamine. PCP was previously used as an anesthetic and animal tranquilizer, but was soon recalled due to its adverse effects, including psychosis, agitation, and dysphoria post-operatively.
PCP is available in various forms, including white crystalline powder, tablets, crystals, and liquid. It can be snorted, smoked, ingested, of injected intravenously or subcutaneously. People who have taken PCP often present with violent behavior, nystagmus, tachycardia, hypertension, anesthesia, and analgesia. Other symptoms include impaired motor function, hallucinations, delusions, and paranoia.
PCP intoxication is best managed with benzodiazepines along with supportive measures for breathing and circulation. Antipsychotics are not recommended as they can amplify PCP-induced hyperthermia, dystonic reactions, and lower the seizure threshold. However, haloperidol may be useful for treating PCP-induced psychosis in patients who are not hyperthermic. Most deaths in PCP-intoxicated patients result from violent behavior rather than direct effects of the drug.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
Which principle is not included in motivational interviewing?
Your Answer: Develop discrepancy
Correct Answer: Encourage confrontation
Explanation:Motivational interviewing aims to prevent conflict and necessitates the therapist to maintain a neutral stance.
Motivational Interviewing: A Model for Resolving Ambivalence and Facilitating Change
Motivational interviewing (MI) is an evidence-based method used for people with substance misuse problems. It was introduced by William Miller in 1983, based on his experience with alcoholics. MI focuses on exploring and resolving ambivalence and centres on the motivational process that facilitates change. It is based on three key elements: collaboration, evocation, and autonomy.
There are four principles of MI: expressing empathy, supporting self-efficacy, rolling with resistance, and developing discrepancy. MI involves the use of micro-counseling skills called OARS, which stands for open-ended questions, affirmations, reflections, and summaries.
Change talk is defined as statements by the client that reveal consideration of, motivation for, of commitment to change. In MI, the therapist aims to guide the client to expression of change talk. Types of change talk can be remembered by the mnemonic DARN-CAT, which stands for desire, ability, reason, need, commitment, activation, and taking steps.
Overall, MI is a model for resolving ambivalence and facilitating change that emphasizes collaboration, evocation, and autonomy. It is a useful tool for therapists working with clients with substance misuse problems.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A woman with schizophrenia attends the day hospital. She appears giddy, a little sleepy and you notice she has red injected conjunctiva. Which of the following drugs do you suspect she has consumed?
Your Answer: Cannabis
Explanation:Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.
Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.
Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.
MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.
Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.
Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.
Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 14
Correct
-
Which of the following statements is not an example of change talk observed in motivational interviewing?
Your Answer: Regret
Explanation:Motivational Interviewing: A Model for Resolving Ambivalence and Facilitating Change
Motivational interviewing (MI) is an evidence-based method used for people with substance misuse problems. It was introduced by William Miller in 1983, based on his experience with alcoholics. MI focuses on exploring and resolving ambivalence and centres on the motivational process that facilitates change. It is based on three key elements: collaboration, evocation, and autonomy.
There are four principles of MI: expressing empathy, supporting self-efficacy, rolling with resistance, and developing discrepancy. MI involves the use of micro-counseling skills called OARS, which stands for open-ended questions, affirmations, reflections, and summaries.
Change talk is defined as statements by the client that reveal consideration of, motivation for, of commitment to change. In MI, the therapist aims to guide the client to expression of change talk. Types of change talk can be remembered by the mnemonic DARN-CAT, which stands for desire, ability, reason, need, commitment, activation, and taking steps.
Overall, MI is a model for resolving ambivalence and facilitating change that emphasizes collaboration, evocation, and autonomy. It is a useful tool for therapists working with clients with substance misuse problems.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
What patient history factors indicate a diagnosis of Marchiafava-Bignami disease?
Your Answer: Alcoholism
Explanation:Marchiafava-Bignami Disease: A Rare Disorder Associated with Alcoholism and Malnutrition
Marchiafava-Bignami disease is a rare condition that is commonly observed in individuals with alcoholism and malnutrition. The disease is characterized by the progressive demyelination and subsequent necrosis of the corpus callosum, which can lead to a range of nonspecific clinical symptoms such as motor of cognitive disturbances. The course of the disease can be either acute of chronic, and patients may experience dementia, spasticity, dysarthria, and an inability to walk. The outcome of the disease is unpredictable, with some patients lapsing into a coma and dying, while others may survive for many years in a demented state, of even recover.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
What is the truth about the use of chlordiazepoxide in alcohol withdrawal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is a good first line treatment
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.
Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old retiree presents with a four hour history of confusion and restlessness. He has a history of alcohol abuse but has been sober for the past week.
During examination, he appears sweaty, agitated, and disoriented. He reports seeing hallucinations on the walls.
His vital signs include a temperature of 37.5°C, a regular pulse of 110 bpm, and a blood pressure of 152/74 mmHg. His FBC and U&Es are both within normal limits.
Further investigations reveal:
Plasma glucose 4.6 mmol/L (3.6-6)
Which of the following medications would be the most appropriate treatment for this individual?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral lorazepam
Explanation:Delirium tremens (DTs) is a serious medical emergency that can occur in individuals who abruptly reduce their alcohol intake after prolonged excessive drinking. It is estimated that 24% of adults in the UK drink in a hazardous way, with the highest rates in the North East, North West, and Yorkshire and Humber regions. About 20% of patients admitted to hospital for non-alcohol-related illnesses are also drinking at potentially hazardous levels, highlighting the importance of screening all patients for alcohol use.
Withdrawal symptoms typically appear about 8 hours after a significant drop in blood alcohol levels, with the peak occurring on day two and significant improvement by day five. Minor withdrawal symptoms include insomnia, fatigue, tremors, anxiety, nausea, vomiting, headache, sweating, palpitations, anorexia, depression, and craving. Alcoholic hallucinosis can occur 12-24 hours after stopping alcohol and involves visual, auditory, and tactile hallucinations. Withdrawal seizures can occur 24-48 hours after cessation and are generalized tonic-clonic seizures. DTs can occur 48-72 hours after cessation and is characterized by altered mental status, hallucinations, confusion, delusions, severe agitation, and seizures. It is a hyperadrenergic state and is often associated with tachycardia, hyperthermia, hypertension, tachypnea, tremor, and mydriasis. Patients at increased risk include those with a previous history of DTs of alcohol withdrawal seizures, co-existing infections, abnormal liver function, and older patients.
DTs should be treated as a medical emergency with oral lorazepam as first-line treatment. If symptoms persist of medication is refused, parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol, of olanzapine should be given. Intensive care may be required. If DTs develop during treatment for acute withdrawal, the reducing regime should be reviewed. The mortality rate can be up to 35% if untreated, which reduces to 5% with early recognition and treatment.
Patients with alcohol withdrawal seizures should be given a quick-acting benzodiazepine such as lorazepam. Phenytoin should not be given. Patients at high risk of alcohol withdrawal but with no of mild symptoms are typically given a reducing dose of chlordiazepoxide of diazepam over 5-7 days. Chlormethiazole may also be offered as an alternative, but is rarely used due to the risk of fatal respiratory depression, especially in patients with liver cirrhosis.
It is also important to administer high-potency B vitamins, specifically thiamine (e.g. pabrinex), to all patients with a history of high alcohol intake to reduce the risk of Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for amphetamine on drug screening tests?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pseudoephedrine
Explanation:Pseudoephedrine belongs to the phenethylamine and amphetamine chemical classes and acts as a sympathomimetic drug. Its primary purpose is to alleviate nasal and sinus congestion.
Drug Screening
Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.
People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.
Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man, who has a past of opioid addiction, is interested in exploring pharmacological maintenance therapy in conjunction with psychosocial interventions. What would be your recommendation for the most suitable choice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Buprenorphine
Explanation:Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification
Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.
Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.
Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.
Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.
Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
In the UK, Methadone is categorized under which controlled drug schedule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:Drug Misuse (Law and Scheduling)
The Misuse of Drugs Act (1971) regulates the possession and supply of drugs, classifying them into three categories: A, B, and C. The maximum penalty for possession varies depending on the class of drug, with Class A drugs carrying a maximum sentence of 7 years.
The Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001 further categorizes controlled drugs into five schedules. Schedule 1 drugs are considered to have no therapeutic value and cannot be lawfully possessed of prescribed, while Schedule 2 drugs are available for medical use but require a controlled drug prescription. Schedule 3, 4, and 5 drugs have varying levels of restrictions and requirements.
It is important to note that a single drug can have multiple scheduling statuses, depending on factors such as strength and route of administration. For example, morphine and codeine can be either Schedule 2 of Schedule 5.
Overall, the Misuse of Drugs Act and Regulations aim to regulate and control the use of drugs in the UK, with the goal of reducing drug misuse and related harm.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
What combination of substances is included in Suboxone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Naloxone and buprenorphine
Explanation:Suboxone vs. Subutex: What’s the Difference?
Suboxone and Subutex are both medications used to treat opioid addiction. However, there are some key differences between the two.
Suboxone is a combination of buprenorphine and naloxone. The naloxone is added to prevent people from injecting the medication, as this was a common problem with pure buprenorphine tablets. If someone tries to inject Suboxone, the naloxone will cause intense withdrawal symptoms. However, if the tablet is swallowed as directed, the naloxone is not absorbed by the gut and does not cause any problems.
Subutex, on the other hand, contains only buprenorphine and does not include naloxone. This means that it may be more likely to be abused by injection, as there is no deterrent to prevent people from doing so.
Overall, both Suboxone and Subutex can be effective treatments for opioid addiction, but Suboxone may be a safer choice due to the addition of naloxone.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Which statement accurately reflects safe alcohol consumption limits?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Department of Health currently recommends weekly safe drinking limits of 14 U for men and 14 U for women
Explanation:The safe drinking limit recommended by the BMA for both men and women is 21 U per week.
Alcohol Units and Safe Drinking Limits in the UK
The issue of safe drinking limits is a controversial one, with different bodies having different recommendations. In the UK, recommendations are sometimes given in grams of pure alcohol, with one unit equaling 8g. The UK government first recommended in 1992 that for a single week, 21 units for men and 14 units for women was the safe drinking limit. However, in 1995 they produced a report called ‘sensible drinking’, which effectively raised the weekly limits to 28 units for men and 21 units for women. The British Medical Association (BMA) responded to this change, along with the Royal College of Psychiatrists, saying that the original limits should not be relaxed.
In August 2016, the UK Chief Medical Officers Low Risk Drinking Guidelines revised the limits down so that the upper safe limit is now 14 units for both men and women. The Royal College of Psychiatrists welcomed this new guidance, stating that both men and women drinking less than 14 units of alcohol per week (around 7 pints of ordinary strength beer) will be at a low risk for illnesses like heart disease, liver disease, of cancer. However, for people who do drink, they should have three of more alcohol-free days to allow their bodies the opportunity to recover from the harmful effects of alcohol. The BMA also supports this new guidance.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
What is the relationship between cannabis use and the likelihood of developing schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The younger a person starts using cannabis the higher their subsequent risk
Explanation:Consistent evidence suggests a link between cannabis use and schizophrenia risk, with the risk increasing as the age of first use decreases.
Schizophrenia and Cannabis Use
The relationship between cannabis use and the risk of developing schizophrenia is a topic of ongoing debate. However, research suggests that cannabis use may increase the risk of later schizophrenia of schizophreniform disorder by two-fold (Arseneault, 2004). The risk of developing schizophrenia appears to be higher in individuals who start using cannabis at a younger age. For instance, regular cannabis smokers at the age of 15 are 4.5 times more likely to develop schizophrenia at the age of 26, compared to those who did not report regular use until age 18 (Murray, 2004).
A systematic review published in the Lancet in 2007 found that the lifetime risk of developing psychosis increased by 40% in individuals who had ever used cannabis (Moore, 2007). Another meta-analysis reported that the age at onset of psychosis was 2.70 years younger in cannabis users than in non-users (Large, 2011). These findings suggest that cannabis use may have a significant impact on the development of schizophrenia and related disorders.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A senior citizen who has been on diazepam for a number of years has recently been encouraged to stop them. You see them in clinic soon after they have started a reduction regime and they complain of a number of problems. Which of the following symptoms would most likely be related to them reducing their diazepam?:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weakness
Explanation:Benzodiazepines and Addiction
Benzodiazepines are known to be addictive and should only be prescribed as a hypnotic or anxiolytic for a maximum of 4 weeks. Withdrawal symptoms can be physical of psychological, including stiffness, weakness, GI disturbance, paraesthesia, flu-like symptoms, visual disturbance, anxiety, insomnia, nightmares, depersonalisation, decreased memory and concentration, delusions, and hallucinations. Patients who wish to withdraw from short-acting benzodiazepines should first be converted to diazepam, which has a longer half-life and produces less severe withdrawal. The table provides approximate equivalent doses for different benzodiazepines. These guidelines are from the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
If a man consumes alcohol daily and increases his intake on weekends, but abstains on Monday due to a crucial work meeting, and then experiences a seizure during the meeting, what would you suspect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcohol withdrawal
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.
Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
What is the percentage of individuals who experience delirium tremens during alcohol withdrawal?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5%
Explanation:Alcohol withdrawal is characterized by overactivity of the autonomic nervous system, resulting in symptoms such as agitation, tremors, sweating, nausea, vomiting, fever, and tachycardia. These symptoms typically begin 3-12 hours after drinking stops, peak between 24-48 hours, and can last up to 14 days. Withdrawal seizures may occur before blood alcohol levels reach zero, and a small percentage of people may experience delirium tremens (DT), which can be fatal if left untreated. Risk factors for DT include abnormal liver function, old age, severity of withdrawal symptoms, concurrent medical illness, heavy alcohol use, self-detox, previous history of DT, low potassium, low magnesium, and thiamine deficiency.
Pharmacologically assisted detox is often necessary for those who regularly consume more than 15 units of alcohol per day, and inpatient detox may be needed for those who regularly consume more than 30 units per day. The Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) can be used to assess the severity of withdrawal symptoms and guide treatment decisions. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay of treatment, as chronic alcohol exposure results in decreased overall brain excitability and compensatory decrease of GABA-A neuroreceptor response to GABA. Chlordiazepoxide is a good first-line agent, while oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam are useful in patients with liver disease. Clomethiazole is effective but carries a high risk of respiratory depression and is not recommended. Thiamine should be offered to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and long-acting benzodiazepines can be used as prophylaxis for withdrawal seizures. Haloperidol is the treatment of choice if an antipsychotic is required.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
What is a known factor that can lead to inaccurate positive results for benzodiazepines on drug screening tests?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Drug Screening
Drug testing can be conducted through various methods, but urinalysis is the most common. Urine drug tests can be either screening of confirmatory. Screening tests use enzymatic immunoassays to detect drug metabolites of classes of drug metabolites in the urine. However, these tests have limitations, such as false positives due to cross-reactivity. Therefore, any positive test should be confirmed through gas chromatography of mass spectrometry.
People may try to manipulate drug testing procedures by adulterating the sample. Normal urine parameters, such as temperature, specific gravity, and pH, can assist in detecting adulterated samples. Adulterants include household items like vinegar, detergent, and ammonia, as well as commercially available products. Diluted urine may also yield false negatives.
Detection times vary from person to person, and the approximate drug detection time in urine can be found in a table provided by Nelson (2016). False positives can occur due to cross-reactivity, as illustrated by Moeller (2017). Clinicians should be aware of the limitations of urine drug tests and the potential for manipulation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
What is a correct statement about the pathology of Wernicke's encephalopathy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is demyelination of periventricular grey matter
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that is characterized by confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. However, the complete triad is only present in 10% of cases, which often leads to underdiagnosis. The condition results from prolonged thiamine deficiency, which is commonly seen in people with alcohol dependency, but can also occur in other conditions such as anorexia nervosa, malignancy, and AIDS.
The onset of Wernicke’s encephalopathy is usually abrupt, but it may develop over several days to weeks. The lesions occur in a symmetrical distribution in structures surrounding the third ventricle, aqueduct, and fourth ventricle. The mammillary bodies are involved in up to 80% of cases, and atrophy of these structures is specific for Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
Treatment involves intravenous thiamine, as oral forms of B1 are poorly absorbed. IV glucose should be avoided when thiamine deficiency is suspected as it can precipitate of exacerbate Wernicke’s. With treatment, ophthalmoplegia and confusion usually resolve within days, but the ataxia, neuropathy, and nystagmus may be prolonged of permanent.
Untreated cases of Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is characterized by memory impairment associated with confabulation. The mortality rate associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy is 10-20%, making early diagnosis and treatment crucial.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A middle-aged woman addicted to alcohol visits her GP. Her GP advises her to stop drinking and the woman replies that she enjoys drinking as it helps her forget about her problems. She does, however, acknowledge that her drinking has caused problems in her relationships and at work. According to the stages of change model, which stage is she currently at?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contemplation
Explanation:The individual is currently in the contemplative stage, which is marked by conflicting thoughts and emotions and a sense of ambivalence towards their cannabis use. This indicates that they are experiencing a duality of perspectives. In contrast, someone in the pre-contemplative stage would not possess such a nuanced understanding of their behavior.
Stages of Change Model
Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.
The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.
The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
What is a distinguishing trait of being intoxicated with phencyclidine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Analgesia
Explanation:PCP Intoxication: A Dangerous Hallucinogenic
Phencyclidine (PCP), also known as angel dust, is a hallucinogenic drug that is popular for inducing feelings of euphoria, superhuman strength, and social and sexual prowess. It is a NMDA receptor antagonist that has dissociative properties, similar to ketamine. PCP was previously used as an anesthetic and animal tranquilizer, but was soon recalled due to its adverse effects, including psychosis, agitation, and dysphoria post-operatively.
PCP is available in various forms, including white crystalline powder, tablets, crystals, and liquid. It can be snorted, smoked, ingested, of injected intravenously or subcutaneously. People who have taken PCP often present with violent behavior, nystagmus, tachycardia, hypertension, anesthesia, and analgesia. Other symptoms include impaired motor function, hallucinations, delusions, and paranoia.
PCP intoxication is best managed with benzodiazepines along with supportive measures for breathing and circulation. Antipsychotics are not recommended as they can amplify PCP-induced hyperthermia, dystonic reactions, and lower the seizure threshold. However, haloperidol may be useful for treating PCP-induced psychosis in patients who are not hyperthermic. Most deaths in PCP-intoxicated patients result from violent behavior rather than direct effects of the drug.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Substance Misuse/Addictions
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)