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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to your clinic complaining of wheezing for the past week. His mother mentions that he had a similar issue a couple of years ago but hasn't had any problems since. He was treated with inhalers and recovered quickly at that time. The boy is an animal lover and has always had multiple pets, including dogs, cats, birds, and reptiles. He hasn't acquired any new pets in the last two months. Upon examination, there are no clinical findings. What would be the best next step to take?
Your Answer: Remove all pets from the home
Correct Answer: Peak flow self-monitoring
Explanation:Diagnosis of Wheezing in Children
Wheezing is a common symptom in children, but it can have many causes. While asthma is a common cause of wheezing, it is important not to jump to conclusions and make a diagnosis based on conjecture alone. Instead, the next best course of action is to use a peak flow meter at home and follow up with lung function tests if necessary. It is also important to note that wheezing can sometimes be a symptom of cardiac failure, but this is not the case in the scenario presented.
Removing pets from the home is not a necessary step at this point, as it may cause unnecessary stress for the child. Instead, if a particular pet is identified as the cause of the allergy, it can be removed at a later time. Skin patch tests for allergens are also not useful in this scenario, as they are only done in cases with high suspicion or when desensitization therapy is planned.
In summary, a diagnosis of wheezing in children should not be made based on conjecture alone. Instead, it is important to use objective measures such as peak flow meters and lung function tests to determine the cause of the wheezing. Removing pets or conducting skin patch tests may not be necessary or useful at this point.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old primip is being evaluated on day six postpartum for unilateral breast discomfort. The discomfort began two days ago, and despite continuing to breastfeed, it has not improved. She feels generally fatigued, but she is currently eating and drinking well.
During the examination, you observe an erythematosus, firm, and swollen area in a wedge-shaped distribution on the right breast. There is a small crack in the nipple. The examination is painful.
Her vital signs are stable, and her temperature is 37.5 °C.
What is the most appropriate initial management, given the above information?Your Answer: Advise her to continue breastfeeding and start empirical antibiotics
Explanation:Management of Lactational Mastitis: Advice for Patients
Lactational mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women. It is important to manage this condition promptly to prevent complications such as breast abscesses. Here are some management options for lactational mastitis:
1. Advise her to continue breastfeeding and start empirical antibiotics: If the patient presents with lactational mastitis and has a nipple fissure, it is suggestive of an infective cause. In this case, the patient should be reassured, asked to continue breastfeeding, offered adequate analgesia, and started on empirical antibiotics.
2. Reassure the patient, ask her to continue expressing milk and review if there is no improvement in two days: If there is no evidence of infection, reassurance and advice to continue breastfeeding, as well as simple analgesia, are a good first management option. However, if symptoms do not improve in 24 hours, then there is an indication for starting empirical antibiotics.
3. Admit the patient to hospital for intravenous antibiotics and drainage: Admission is advisable for intravenous antibiotics and drainage if oral antibiotics fail to improve symptoms, the patient develops sepsis, or there is evidence of the development of a breast abscess.
4. Advise her to continue breastfeeding and send a breast milk culture and treat if positive: A breast milk culture should be sent before starting antibiotics, but in this case, given the patient fulfils the criteria for starting empirical treatment, you should not delay antibiotic therapy until the breast milk culture is back.
5. Reassure the patient, advise her to continue breastfeeding and offer simple analgesia: Reassurance, advice to continue breastfeeding, and simple analgesia are offered to women who first present with lactational mastitis. If symptoms do not improve after three days, there is an indication to offer empirical antibiotics.
In conclusion, lactational mastitis should be managed promptly to prevent complications. Patients should be advised to continue breastfeeding, offered adequate analgesia, and started on empirical antibiotics if necessary. If symptoms do not improve, further management options should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 70-year-old known cardiopath is brought to hospital by ambulance, complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. He looks pale and is very sweaty. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 80/55 mmHg, pulse of 135 bpm, SpO2 of 93% and bibasal wet crackles in the chest, as well as peripheral oedema. Peripheral pulses are palpable. A previous median sternotomy is noted. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals regular tachycardia, with QRS complexes of uniform amplitude, a QRS width of 164 ms and a rate of 135 bpm.
What is the most important step in management?Your Answer: DC cardioversion
Explanation:Management of Ventricular Tachycardia in a Patient with Ischaemic Heart Disease
When faced with a patient with a broad-complex tachycardia, it is important to consider ventricular tachycardia as the most common cause, particularly in patients with a history of ischaemic heart disease. In a haemodynamically unstable patient with regular ventricular tachycardia, the initial step is to evaluate for adverse signs or symptoms. If present, the patient should be sedated and synchronised DC shock should be administered, followed by amiodarone infusion and correction of electrolyte abnormalities. If there are no adverse signs or symptoms, amiodarone IV and correction of electrolyte abnormalities should begin immediately.
Other management options, such as primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), IV magnesium, aspirin and clopidogrel, IV furosemide, and oxygen, may be indicated depending on the underlying cause of the ventricular tachycardia, but DC cardioversion is the most important step in a haemodynamically unstable patient. Diuretics are not indicated in a hypotensive patient, and improving cardiac function is the key to clearing fluid from the lungs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 4
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling on his left hip. Upon examination, he is experiencing difficulty walking, tenderness around his left greater trochanter, and his left leg is externally rotated and shortened. He has a medical history of osteoporosis, hypertension, and hypothyroidism. However, he is able to move around without any assistance. An X-ray reveals a subtrochanteric femoral fracture, which is treated with an intramedullary nail. What advice should he be given regarding weight-bearing?
Your Answer: Weight-bear immediately after the operation as tolerated
Explanation:Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.
Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 5
Incorrect
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In which disease would penicillin have the lowest efficacy as a treatment option due to frequent resistance among organisms?
Your Answer: Escherichia coli urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumonia
Explanation:Penicillin’s Spectrum of Activity
Penicillin is an antibiotic that is effective against a range of bacterial infections. Its spectrum of activity includes Gram positive cocci such as Pneumococcus and streptococcal pharyngitis, as well as Gram negative bacteria such as Escherichia coli. Additionally, it is effective against Treponema, the bacterium that causes syphilis.
However, it is important to note that penicillin is not effective against all types of bacteria. For example, Mycoplasma is a rickettsial organism that would be better treated with erythromycin. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the most appropriate treatment for a specific bacterial infection.
In summary, penicillin’s spectrum of activity includes a range of Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria, as well as Treponema. However, it is not effective against all types of bacteria and should be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman and her 14-year-old daughter are apprehended after being caught trying to destroy a statue in the town square. When asked why, they both explain how the statue comes to life and terrorizes them at night, breaking things in their house, whispering violent thoughts in their minds and urging them to kill themselves. The police officer brings them to the Emergency Department where you evaluate them. The mother is a well-known psychiatric patient, but the daughter has never been seen before.
Which of the following is most likely to acutely reverse the psychosis in at least one of the patients?Your Answer: Benzodiazepines
Correct Answer: Separate the patients
Explanation:Treatment Approach for Shared Delusional Disorder
Shared delusional disorder, also known as folie à deux, is a rare psychiatric condition where two individuals develop a paired delusion. In cases where one of the individuals has a history of psychiatric illness, separating the patients is the first step in treating the disorder. This is because the dominant force in the duo may be the source of the delusion, and separating them may resolve the delusion in the other individual.
While benzodiazepines can sedate the patients, they will not acutely reverse psychosis. Similarly, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are not indicated as they take time to work and are not effective in acutely reversing psychosis.
Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is a treatment approach that takes time and is not effective in acutely reversing psychosis in either of the patients. Therefore, in cases of shared delusional disorder, separating the patients and providing anti-psychotic therapy to the dominant individual may be the most effective treatment approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old female presents to the Early Pregnancy Unit with vaginal bleeding and an unknown gestational age. She reports no pain and is stable. This is her first pregnancy. An ultrasound reveals a tubal pregnancy with a visible fetal heartbeat and an unruptured adnexal mass measuring 40mm. Her beta-hCG level is 5,200 IU/L. What is the initial management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Surgical - laparoscopic salpingectomy
Explanation:Surgical management is recommended for all ectopic pregnancies that are larger than 35mm or have a serum B-hCG level greater than 5,000 IU/L.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman visited her doctor after fracturing her humerus in a minor accident. She reported feeling fatigued, weak, and depressed. The doctor conducted the following tests:
Total Ca2+ 3.22 mmol/l (2.12–2.65 mmol/l)
Albumin 40 g/l (35–50 g/l)
PO43− 0.45 mmol/l (0.8–1.5 mmol/l)
Alkaline phosphatase 165 iu/l (30–150 iu/l)
Based on these results, what is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Myeloma
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Primary Hyperparathyroidism: Causes, Symptoms, and Diagnosis
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a medical condition that is usually caused by a parathyroid adenoma or, in rare cases, by multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN) syndromes. This condition is characterized by an increase in parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels, which leads to increased calcium reabsorption and decreased phosphate reabsorption in the kidneys, as well as increased calcium absorption from the bones. As a result, patients with primary hyperparathyroidism typically exhibit hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia, with normal or low albumin levels. Additionally, alkaline phosphatase levels are usually elevated due to increased bone turnover.
The most common symptoms of primary hyperparathyroidism are related to high calcium levels, including weakness, fatigue, and depression. Diagnosis is typically made through blood tests that measure PTH, calcium, phosphate, and alkaline phosphatase levels, as well as imaging studies such as ultrasound or sestamibi scans.
Other conditions that can cause hypercalcemia include excess vitamin D, bone metastases, secondary hyperparathyroidism, and myeloma. However, each of these conditions has distinct diagnostic features that differentiate them from primary hyperparathyroidism. For example, excess vitamin D causes hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia, with normal alkaline phosphatase levels, while bone metastases typically present with elevated alkaline phosphatase levels and normal or elevated phosphate levels.
Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and diagnostic features of primary hyperparathyroidism is essential for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old male comes in for his routine check-up without specific concerns. During the examination, no abnormalities were detected. However, upon reviewing the blood test results sent by the nurse before the appointment, the following values were noted:
Na+ 130 mmol/l
K+ 3.5 mmol/l
Urea 4 mmol/l
Creatinine 85 µmol/l
The patient's medications are now being reviewed. Which medication is the most probable cause of the electrolyte abnormality?Your Answer: Ramipril
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Hyponatraemia is a known side effect of SSRIs, but not of aspirin or bisoprolol. Bisoprolol may cause bradycardia, while aspirin may cause dyspepsia. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with hyperkalaemia in patients with reduced renal function.
Understanding the Side-Effects and Interactions of SSRIs
SSRIs, or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors, are commonly prescribed antidepressants that can have various side-effects and interactions with other medications. The most common side-effect of SSRIs is gastrointestinal symptoms, and patients taking these medications are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. To mitigate this risk, a proton pump inhibitor should be prescribed if the patient is also taking a NSAID. Hyponatraemia, or low sodium levels, can also occur with SSRIs, and patients should be vigilant for increased anxiety and agitation after starting treatment.
Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and citalopram has been associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has advised that citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram has been reduced for certain patient populations.
SSRIs can also interact with other medications, such as NSAIDs, warfarin/heparin, aspirin, and triptans. It is important to review patients after starting antidepressant therapy and to gradually reduce the dose when stopping treatment to avoid discontinuation symptoms. These symptoms can include mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
In summary, understanding the potential side-effects and interactions of SSRIs is crucial for safe and effective treatment of depression and other mental health conditions. Patients should be closely monitored and counseled on the risks and benefits of these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of widespread bone pain and increased difficulty in performing daily activities, such as climbing stairs, due to muscle weakness. The patient reports that her symptoms worsen at night or after exertion. She also mentions experiencing sleep difficulties and fatigue. During the examination, the GP notes tenderness over the spine and muscle weakness in the arms and legs. The patient has been avoiding leaving her house due to the pandemic. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Paget's disease of the bone
Correct Answer: Osteomalacia
Explanation:The diagnosis of osteosarcoma is highly unlikely as the majority of cases occur between 13 and 16 years of age, and the patient’s symptoms and systemic features suggest osteomalacia instead. Polymyalgia rheumatica typically presents with pain and stiffness in the shoulder and hip girdle lasting for more than 1 hour in the morning, which is not consistent with the patient’s clinical picture. While Paget’s disease can cause bone pain, it is usually asymptomatic and found incidentally on x-ray, and it would not cause proximal myopathy, making it an unlikely diagnosis for this patient.
Understanding Osteomalacia
Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs when the bones become soft due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. This condition is commonly seen in adults, while in growing children, it is referred to as rickets. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited conditions, liver disease, and coeliac disease.
The symptoms of osteomalacia include bone pain, muscle tenderness, fractures, especially in the femoral neck, and proximal myopathy, which may lead to a waddling gait. To diagnose osteomalacia, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels, and raised alkaline phosphatase levels. X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.
The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium intake is inadequate. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for osteomalacia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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