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Question 1
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You are the pediatric doctor on call. The nurses ask you to come and review a patient, as she is acting ‘odd’. Her eyes are open spontaneously, she is withdrawing to pain and she is making incomprehensible sounds.
What is this patient’s Glasgow Coma Score (GCS)?Your Answer: 11
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a total possible score of 15.
A patient with a GCS score of 11 is showing M5 (localising response to pain), E4 (incomprehensible speech), and V2 (eye opening in response to pain). This indicates that the patient is obeying commands, oriented, and has spontaneous eye opening.
It is important to note that the GCS score is just one aspect of a patient’s overall assessment and should be used in conjunction with other clinical findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset severe headache. She complains of pain behind the eyes and photophobia. She has vomited twice since the headache came on. She says it is the worst headache she has ever had by far. There is no past history of migraine. Examination reveals no neurological deficit.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation?Your Answer: Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the head
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Headache: CT Scan, Lumbar Puncture, Plasma Viscosity, MRI, and Angiography
Headaches can have various causes, and it is important to determine the underlying condition to provide appropriate treatment. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify the cause of a headache:
1. CT Scan of the Head: This imaging test is the initial investigation of choice when subarachnoid haemorrhage is suspected. It can show the presence of blood in the subarachnoid or intraventricular spaces.
2. Lumbar Puncture: If there is doubt about the presence of subarachnoid haemorrhage, a lumbar puncture may be considered 12 hours after the onset of symptoms. Multiple cerebrospinal fluid samples should be sent for microscopy to look for the persistent presence of red blood cells and xanthochromia.
3. Plasma Viscosity: This test is useful when temporal arthritis is suspected as a cause of headache. It will typically be highly elevated. However, it is not useful in the diagnosis of subarachnoid haemorrhage.
4. MRI of the Head: This imaging test may be considered later in the diagnostic process if other diagnoses are being considered. However, CT scan is a more appropriate first-line test.
5. Angiography: This test is usually performed to identify an aneurysm that may be amenable to intervention, either with open surgery or commonly interventional radiology.
In conclusion, the appropriate diagnostic test for a headache depends on the suspected underlying condition. A thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary to determine the most appropriate course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden-onset painful right eye and visual loss. Upon examination, the doctor observes visual loss to counting fingers on the right, right eye proptosis, conjunctival injection, and acute tenderness on palpation. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is 12 mm/hour. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Optic neuritis
Correct Answer: Carotid cavernous fistula
Explanation:Differentiating Acute Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Management
Carotid Cavernous Fistula: This condition presents with sudden painful visual loss, proptosis, conjunctival injection, and a firm, tender, and pulsatile eyeball. It is caused by an abnormal communication between the carotid artery and venous system within the cavernous sinus. Endovascular surgery is the recommended management to obliterate the fistula.
Giant Cell arthritis: This is a medical emergency that is uncommon in individuals under 50 years old. Symptoms include acute visual loss, tenderness over the temporal artery, jaw claudication, and an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) of >50 mm/hour. Diagnosis is confirmed through a temporal artery biopsy.
Optic Neuritis: This condition presents as painful visual loss but is not associated with proptosis or changes to the conjunctiva. Optic disc pallor is a common symptom.
Keratoconus: This is a degenerative disorder that causes distortion of vision, which may be painful, due to structural changes within the cornea. It does not present acutely.
Acute Cavernous Sinus Thrombosis: Symptoms include retro-orbital pain, ophthalmoplegia (often complete, with involvement of the oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), and loss of sensation over the ophthalmic division on the trigeminal nerve ipsilateral. Horner’s syndrome may also occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hoarseness in her voice for a few weeks. She underwent a thyroidectomy a decade ago. During the examination, the doctor observed decreased breath sounds in the left upper lobe. The patient has a smoking history of 75 pack years and quit five years ago. A chest X-ray revealed an opacity in the left upper lobe. Which cranial nerve is likely to be impacted?
Your Answer: Glossopharyngeal
Correct Answer: Vagus
Explanation:Cranial Nerves and their Functions: Analysis of a Patient’s Symptoms
This patient is experiencing a hoarse voice and change in pitch, which is likely due to a compression of the vagus nerve caused by an apical lung tumor. The vagus nerve is the 10th cranial nerve and provides innervation to the laryngeal muscles. The other cranial nerves, such as the trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal, and hypoglossal, have different functions and would not be affected by a left upper lobe opacity. Understanding the functions of each cranial nerve can aid in diagnosing and treating patients with neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents to the Neurology Clinic with a complaint of droopy eyelids that have been present for the past 6 months. She reports experiencing intermittent double vision that varies in severity. She has also noticed difficulty swallowing her food at times. Upon examination, she displays mild weakness in eyelid closure bilaterally and mild lower facial weakness. Additionally, there is mild weakness in neck flexion and bilateral shoulder abduction. Reflexes are normal throughout, and the remainder of the examination is unremarkable. Electromyography is performed, revealing a 30% decrease in the compound motor action potential (CMAP) upon repetitive nerve stimulation (right abductor pollicis brevis muscle). Single-fibre electromyography shows normal fibre density and jitter. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lambert–Eaton myasthenic syndrome
Correct Answer: Autoimmune myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Differentiating Myasthenia Gravis from Other Neuromuscular Disorders
Myasthenia gravis (MG) is an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness and fatigue. It occurs when antibodies block the acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction, leading to impaired muscle function. This can be detected through electromyographic testing, which measures fatigability. However, other neuromuscular disorders can present with similar symptoms, making diagnosis challenging.
Congenital myasthenia gravis is a rare form that occurs in infants born to myasthenic mothers. Guillain-Barré syndrome, although typically presenting with ophthalmoplegia, can also cause muscle weakness and reflex abnormalities. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is caused by autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels and is characterized by absent reflexes. Polymyalgia rheumatica, an inflammatory disorder of the soft tissues, can cause pain and weakness in the shoulder girdle but does not affect nerve conduction or facial muscles.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation and diagnostic testing are necessary to differentiate MG from other neuromuscular disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP), complaining of bleeding gums every time she brushes her teeth. She reports that this is very concerning to her and has gotten to the point where she has stopped brushing her teeth.
Her past medical history is significant for hypertension, for which she takes lisinopril. She takes no anticoagulants or antiplatelet medication.
Her observations are as follows:
Temperature 37.1°C
Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg
Heart rate 68 bpm
Respiratory rate 16 breaths/min
Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 98% (room air)
Examination of the oral cavity reveals red, swollen gingiva, with bleeding easily provoked with a periodontal probe.
Which of the following is the next best step?Your Answer: Vitamin K
Correct Answer: Referral to a neurologist
Explanation:Medical Recommendations for Gingival Overgrowth
Gingival overgrowth is a condition where the gum tissues grow excessively, leading to the formation of pockets that can harbor bacteria and cause inflammation. This condition can be caused by certain medications like phenytoin, calcium channel blockers, and ciclosporin. Here are some medical recommendations for managing gingival overgrowth:
Referral to a Neurologist: If the patient is taking antiepileptic medication, a neurologist should review the medication to determine if it is causing the gingival overgrowth.
Avoid Brushing Teeth: Although brushing can exacerbate bleeding, not brushing can lead to poor oral hygiene. The cause of the gingival overgrowth needs to be addressed.
Epstein–Barr Virus Testing: Patients with oral hairy leukoplakia may benefit from Epstein–Barr virus testing.
Pregnancy Test: A pregnancy test is not indicated in patients with gingival overgrowth unless medication is not the likely cause.
Vitamin K: Vitamin K is indicated for patients who require warfarin reversal for supratherapeutic international normalized ratios (INRs). It is not necessary for patients who are clinically stable and not actively bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with Parkinson's disease comes in with sudden shaking, vertigo, and upward eye movement. What could be the probable reason for his abrupt onset?
Your Answer: Stroke
Correct Answer: Oculogyric crisis
Explanation:Oculogyric Crisis
Oculogyric crisis is a common ocular dystonic reaction that often occurs as a side effect of neuroleptic drug treatment. This condition is characterized by a sustained upward deviation of the eyes, which may be accompanied by other symptoms such as restlessness, agitation, malaise, and a fixed stare. The onset of a crisis may be paroxysmal or stuttering over several hours, and the eyes may also converge, deviate upward and laterally, or deviate downward.
In addition to the ocular symptoms, oculogyric crisis may also be associated with other findings such as backwards and lateral flexion of the neck, widely opened mouth, tongue protrusion, and ocular pain. The causes or triggering factors of this condition include various medications such as neuroleptics, benzodiazepines, and tricyclics, as well as medical conditions like postencephalitic Parkinson’s, Tourette’s syndrome, multiple sclerosis, neurosyphilis, and head trauma.
It is important to recognize and manage oculogyric crisis promptly to prevent potential complications and improve patient outcomes. Healthcare providers should be aware of the medications and medical conditions that may trigger this condition and monitor patients closely for any signs or symptoms of oculogyric crisis. Treatment options may include discontinuing the offending medication, administering anticholinergic or antihistaminic agents, or using benzodiazepines or other sedatives to manage symptoms. With proper management, most patients with oculogyric crisis can recover fully and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old cleaner presents with a complaint of gradual numbness on the left side of her hand and forearm. Upon examination, there is no indication of muscle wasting, but there is slight weakness in finger adduction and flexion. Reflexes are normal. Sensory testing reveals a decrease in pinprick sensation in the tips of the ring and little fingers and over the hypothenar eminence.
What is the location of the lesion?Your Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome
Correct Answer: Ulnar neuropathy
Explanation:Differentiating between nerve lesions: Ulnar neuropathy, C6/C7 root lesion, carpal tunnel syndrome, radial neuropathy, and peripheral neuropathy
When assessing a patient with neurological symptoms in the upper limb, it is important to differentiate between different nerve lesions. An ulnar neuropathy will affect the small muscles of the hand, except for a few supplied by the median nerve. Sensory loss will be felt in the ring and little fingers, as well as the medial border of the middle finger.
A C6/C7 root lesion will cause weakness in elbow and wrist flexion/extension, as well as finger extensors. Sensory loss will be felt in the thumb and first two fingers, but not the lateral border of the ring finger. Reflexes for biceps and triceps will be lost.
Carpal tunnel syndrome affects the median nerve, causing atrophy of the thenar eminence and paraesthesiae in the lateral three and a half digits.
A radial neuropathy will cause a wrist drop and sensory loss over the dorsal aspect of the hand.
Finally, a peripheral neuropathy will be symmetrical, with loss of sensation over both hands and weakness in distal muscles.
By understanding the specific symptoms associated with each nerve lesion, healthcare professionals can make a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old retired teacher is brought to the general practitioner (GP) by her concerned son. He tells you that his mother had got lost when returning home from shopping yesterday, a trip that she had been carrying out without problems for over 20 years. He also notes that she has had a general decline in her memory function over the past year or so, frequently repeating stories, and not being able to remember if she had eaten a meal or not that day when questioned. The son would like to know if his mother could be tested for Alzheimer’s disease, a condition that also affected her maternal grandmother.
Deposition of which of the following is associated with the development of Alzheimer’s disease?Your Answer: TARDBP-43
Correct Answer: Amyloid precursor protein (APP)
Explanation:Proteins Associated with Neurodegenerative Diseases
Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain and spinal cord. Several proteins have been identified as being associated with these diseases. For example, Alzheimer’s disease is associated with both amyloid precursor protein (APP) and tau proteins. Lewy body disease and Parkinson’s disease are associated with alpha-synuclein, while fronto-temporal dementia and ALS are associated with TARDBP-43 and tau protein. Additionally, Huntington’s disease is associated with huntingtin. Other changes, such as bunina bodies and Pick bodies, are also seen in certain neurodegenerative diseases and can serve as markers of neuronal degeneration. Understanding the role of these proteins in disease pathology is crucial for developing effective treatments for these devastating conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 15-year-old Caucasian girl who has been feeling unwell for a few days. She has been experiencing intermittent fevers and chills and complains of extreme fatigue. Suddenly, half an hour before her admission to the hospital, she lost all vision in her left eye.
During the examination, the patient appears pale and unwell. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.5°C, pulse 120/minute, regular, blood pressure 100/55 mmHg, and respiratory rate 22/minute. A pansystolic murmur is audible at the apex and lower left sternal border. Both lungs are clear.
The right pupil reacts normally to light, but there is no reaction from the left pupil, which remains fixed and dilated. The patient has complete loss of vision in the left eye, and the left fundus appears paler than the right, without papilloedema. The only additional finding on examination was a paronychia on her right thumb, and light pressure on the nail bed was very uncomfortable.
Investigations reveal the following results: Hb 109 g/L (115-165), WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7), Lymphocytes 4.8 ×109/L (1.5-4), Monocytes 0.29 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.01 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), and Platelets 550 ×109/L (150-400).
What is the most crucial investigation to determine the cause of her illness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood cultures
Explanation:Complications of Chronic Paronychia
Chronic paronychia can lead to serious complications such as osteomyelitis and endocarditis. The most common causative organism for these complications is Staphylococcus aureus. Endocarditis can cause emboli, which are fragments of vegetation that can block or damage blood vessels in any part of the body. This can result in severe consequences such as blindness, stroke, or paralysis.
To properly assess and manage a patient with chronic paronychia and its complications, several investigations may be necessary. However, the most crucial immediate investigations are blood cultures and echocardiography. These tests can help identify the causative organism and determine the extent of damage to the heart valves. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further complications and improve the patient’s prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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