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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening pain and fever...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with worsening pain and fever following a dental extraction 5 days ago. He is usually in good health. On examination, he has a tender swelling in the left submandibular region and mild trismus. His tongue is slightly displaced upwards and he is unable to protrude it. There is no respiratory distress or stridor. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe antibiotics and refer to maxillofacial surgery ‘hot clinic’ for assessment later that week

      Correct Answer: Arrange a 999 ambulance for immediate transfer to hospital

      Explanation:

      Ludwig’s Angina is a medical emergency that falls under the domain of ENT. The patient in question is displaying symptoms and indications that suggest the presence of this rare infection, which affects the soft tissues of the neck and the floor of the mouth. While it is typically caused by dental issues, it can also arise from other types of soft tissue infections in the neck. Due to the effectiveness of modern antibiotics and dental hygiene, Ludwig’s Angina is now quite uncommon, and many physicians may not be familiar with its presentation. However, it can lead to rapid deterioration and airway obstruction within a matter of minutes, necessitating immediate airway management and aggressive surgical intervention. If there is any suspicion of Ludwig’s Angina, it is crucial to transfer the patient to the emergency department without delay.

      Understanding Ludwig’s Angina

      Ludwig’s angina is a serious form of cellulitis that affects the soft tissues of the neck and the floor of the mouth. It is usually caused by an infection that originates from the teeth and spreads to the submandibular space. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as neck swelling, fever, and difficulty swallowing.

      Ludwig’s angina is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention as it can lead to airway obstruction, which can be life-threatening. The management of this condition involves airway management and the administration of intravenous antibiotics.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 2 - A 36-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for the past three weeks for...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for the past three weeks for otitis externa with flumetasone/clioquinol 0.02%/1%, followed by gentamicin 0.3% w/v and hydrocortisone acetate 1% ear drops. She acquired the condition while on vacation in Spain. She is now experiencing increasing itchiness in her ears. During examination, her ears have abundant discharge with black spots on a white background. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Clotrimazole solution

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Fungal Otitis Externa

      Fungal otitis externa is a common ear infection that can be difficult to diagnose and treat. Patients who have had prolonged courses of steroid and antibiotic drops are particularly susceptible to this type of infection. Symptoms include pruritus and discharge, which may not respond to antibiotics. The most common fungal agents are Aspergillus and Candida, which can be treated with topical clotrimazole. Topical ciprofloxacin is not effective against fungal infections, and co-amoxiclav tablets should not be used. Sofradex® ear drops, which contain steroids, may exacerbate symptoms. If initial treatment with antifungal medication is unsuccessful, referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist may be necessary for further evaluation and treatment.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 3 - Which medication is most strongly linked to an increased risk of cleft palate...

    Correct

    • Which medication is most strongly linked to an increased risk of cleft palate during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Medications and their effects on pregnancy

      The incidence of orofacial malformations such as cleft lip and cleft palate is about 1:1000. While some cases are obvious due to external appearance, isolated palatal defects require close inspection and palpation of the palate during neonatal examination to be detected.

      Phenytoin has been linked to congenital defects, particularly cleft lip and palate. Antiepileptic drugs, in general, have been studied closely with regard to congenital malformations, and evidence suggests that monotherapy with an antiepileptic drug during pregnancy doubles the risk of major congenital malformation, while polytherapy triples the risk.

      Aspirin can be used in pregnancy, but caution should be exercised as it can cause impaired platelet function and risk of haemorrhage. Carbimazole can be used for the treatment of hyperthyroidism, but it has been linked to aplasia cutis of the newborn. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) should only be used during pregnancy if the benefits of treatment outweigh the risks. Methyldopa is a centrally acting antihypertensive agent that can be used for the management of hypertension in pregnancy.

      It is important to consider the potential effects of medications on pregnancy and to weigh the risks and benefits before prescribing them. Close monitoring and follow-up are also necessary to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the developing fetus.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old female, originally from Malta, presents with complaints of oral and genital...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female, originally from Malta, presents with complaints of oral and genital ulcers. She has a history of recurrent ulcers and scarring from previous episodes. Other than the ulcers, she appears to be in good health. Upon reviewing her medical records, it is noted that she has a history of arthritis and anterior uveitis. What is the most probable diagnosis that connects all of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Correct Answer: Behçet's disease

      Explanation:

      Oral and Genital Ulceration: A Sign of Behçet’s Disease

      Oral ulceration can be a symptom of various diseases, both local and systemic. However, when combined with genital ulceration, the differential diagnosis narrows down, and clinicians should consider potential systemic causes. One such disease is Behçet’s disease, a multisystem vasculitic disorder that typically presents with recurrent oral and genital ulcers. Patients with Behçet’s may also experience arthritis and uveitis. This disease is more common in individuals of Mediterranean and eastern backgrounds.

      Inflammatory bowel disease is also a possible differential diagnosis, but it typically presents with gastrointestinal symptoms such as abdominal pain, blood/mucous in the stool, and altered bowel habits. Crohn’s disease can cause oral ulceration and perianal disease, while ulcerative colitis can cause aphthous ulcers in the mouth. Eye problems and arthritis are also associated with inflammatory bowel disease.

      Reactive arthritis is characterized by a triad of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis, but ulceration is not a feature. Rheumatoid arthritis is another multisystem vasculitic disorder that can have various clinical manifestations, including eye problems, but recurrent oral and genital ulcers are not typical. Stevens-Johnson syndrome, on the other hand, is an acute problem characterized by blistering and mucous membrane erosions triggered by drugs, infections, or systemic illnesses, but it doesn’t involve arthritis or uveitis.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman presents with bilateral inflamed tonsils, an inability to swallow both...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with bilateral inflamed tonsils, an inability to swallow both solids and liquids, and inflamed cervical lymph nodes.
      Select the most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer: Referral to hospital for admission

      Explanation:

      When to Admit a Patient with a Sore Throat: Indications and Recommendations

      Admission to the hospital for a sore throat is necessary in certain cases. One such case is when the patient cannot swallow, making oral treatments ineffective. A Paul-Bunnell test may be considered, but it is not the first-line management. An ultrasound scan is only necessary for unexplained cervical lymphadenopathy.

      According to NICE, hospital admission is recommended for sore throat cases that are immediately life-threatening, such as acute epiglottitis or Kawasaki disease. Other indications include dehydration or reluctance to take fluids, suppurative complications like quinsy, immunosuppression, and signs of being markedly systemically unwell.

      It is important to be aware of these indications and recommendations to ensure proper management and treatment of sore throat cases.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 6 - A 27-year-old man urgently books an appointment at your clinic. He complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man urgently books an appointment at your clinic. He complains of left-sided facial pain and malaise that has been ongoing for two weeks. He mentions that his symptoms initially improved after a week, but then worsened again, and he now feels worse than he did initially. He has no significant medical history.

      During the examination, you note a low-grade fever of 37.9 degrees, but all other observations are normal. Anterior rhinoscopy reveals a purulent discharge from the left middle meatus, but there are no abnormalities in the eyes or periorbital tissues.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bacterial sinusitis

      Explanation:

      The man’s symptoms suggest bacterial sinusitis, as he has experienced a double sickening where his symptoms initially improved but then suddenly worsened. This is often caused by a secondary bacterial infection following a viral rhinosinusitis. The presence of a fever and purulent discharge seen on rhinoscopy further support this diagnosis.

      Trigeminal neuralgia would not cause a fever, while sialadenitis would result in swelling of only one salivary gland. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a rare complication of bacterial sinusitis and is not likely in this case.

      Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a painful discharging...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of a painful discharging right ear and a mild unilateral right-sided hearing loss that has been going on for 3 days. During examination, the doctor observes an intact tympanic membrane and copious purulent liquid discharge. The patient has a normal heart rate of 70 bpm and is not running a fever.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe topical antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Otitis Externa

      Otitis externa is a common condition characterized by pain, itching, and discharge in the ear canal. Here are some management options for this condition:

      Prescribe Topical Antibiotics: Topical antibiotics are the first-line treatment for otitis externa. Neomycin or clioquinol are recommended, and they may be combined with a topical corticosteroid if there is inflammation and eczema. Aminoglycosides should be used cautiously as second line if there is perforation of the eardrum.

      Prescribe Oral Antibiotics: Oral antibiotics may be necessary if the patient is systemically unwell or there is preauricular lymphadenitis or cellulitis. Flucloxacillin or erythromycin is the drug of choice.

      Refer to Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) for Ear Wick Insertion: If there is extensive swelling of the auditory canal, an ear wick may be used. This is impregnated with antibiotic-steroid combination and is inserted into the auditory canal. However, if the tympanic membrane is visible, topical antibiotics would be the first-line treatment.

      Prescribe Analgesia Only: Paracetamol or ibuprofen is usually sufficient for analgesia in cases of otitis externa. However, analgesia should be used in combination with antibiotics to aid in curing and preventing the worsening of symptoms.

      Do Not Prescribe Topical Antifungals: Topical antifungals are not indicated in simple cases of otitis externa. They may be necessary if there is a secondary fungal infection, but this is not described in this case.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his GP. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes in for a routine check-up with his GP. He is a non-smoker and has been feeling generally well. However, he has noticed that his gums have been bleeding when he brushes his teeth. He admits that he has been under a lot of stress lately and has not been brushing his teeth as regularly as he should.

      Upon examination, there are no signs of ulceration or leukoplakia. The margins of his gums appear red but are not actively bleeding. There is no evidence of a dental abscess, and he has no fever.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action based on his current presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise he should arrange routine dental review

      Explanation:

      Patients who present with gingivitis should be advised to regularly visit a dentist for routine check-ups. Antibiotics are typically not necessary for this condition.

      There is no need for urgent dental review, as there are no signs of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis or oral malignancy. Benzydamine mouthwash may provide temporary pain relief, but it is not recommended for gingivitis. Chlorhexidine mouthwash may be used as an adjunct to dental review and antibiotic therapy for necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis.

      In cases of simple gingivitis, antibiotics are generally not prescribed.

      Understanding Gingivitis and its Management

      Gingivitis is a dental condition that is commonly caused by poor oral hygiene. It is characterized by red and swollen gums that bleed easily. In severe cases, it can lead to acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, which is accompanied by painful bleeding gums, bad breath, and ulcers on the gums.

      For patients with simple gingivitis, regular dental check-ups are recommended, and antibiotics are usually not necessary. However, for those with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, it is important to seek immediate dental attention. In the meantime, oral metronidazole or amoxicillin may be prescribed for three days, along with chlorhexidine or hydrogen peroxide mouthwash and simple pain relief medication.

      It is crucial to maintain good oral hygiene to prevent gingivitis from developing or worsening. This includes brushing teeth twice a day, flossing daily, and using mouthwash regularly. By understanding the causes and management of gingivitis, individuals can take steps to protect their oral health and prevent complications.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about an unusual patch inside...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about an unusual patch inside his cheek. He noticed a red-white patch while brushing his teeth, but he is unsure how long it has been there. He has a smoking history of 35 pack years and drinks approximately 18 units of alcohol per week. There is no family history of oral cancer. On examination, he appears to be in good health, and no cervical lymphadenopathy is detected. There is a 2cm red and white macule with a velvety texture on the buccal vestibule of the oral cavity, consistent with erythroleukoplakia. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral (within 2 weeks) for assessment by head and neck team

      Explanation:

      Immediate investigation is necessary for any oral cavity lesion that appears suspicious for erythroplakia or leukoplakia due to the risk of malignancy.

      When to Refer Patients with Mouth Lesions for Oral Surgery

      Mouth lesions can be a cause for concern, especially if they persist for an extended period of time. In cases where there is unexplained oral ulceration or mass that lasts for more than three weeks, or red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding, a referral to oral surgery should be made within two weeks. Additionally, if a patient experiences one-sided pain in the head and neck area for more than four weeks, which is associated with earache but doesn’t result in any abnormal findings on otoscopy, or has an unexplained recent neck lump or a previously undiagnosed lump that has changed over a period of three to six weeks, a referral should be made.

      Patients who have persistent sore or painful throats or signs and symptoms in the oral cavity that last for more than six weeks and cannot be definitively diagnosed as a benign lesion should also be referred. It is important to note that the level of suspicion should be higher in patients who are over 40, smokers, heavy drinkers, and those who chew tobacco or betel nut (areca nut). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with mouth lesions receive timely and appropriate care. For more information on this topic, please refer to the link provided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 10 - A 9-year-old patient had a tonsillectomy 4 days ago. His father has brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old patient had a tonsillectomy 4 days ago. His father has brought him to the clinic as earlier today he noticed a small amount of bright red bleeding from his mouth. He is otherwise recovering well and has been eating and drinking normally.

      What is the best course of action for managing this patient's bleeding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer immediately to ENT for assessment

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences bleeding after a tonsillectomy, it is important to seek urgent assessment from the operating team. While simple analgesia may be appropriate for those experiencing only pain, the presence of bleeding requires immediate attention. Prescribing oral antibiotics in the community would not be appropriate in this context, and techniques such as silver nitrate cautery should only be performed by a specialist after a thorough assessment.

      Complications after Tonsillectomy

      Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, like any surgery, it carries some risks and potential complications. One of the most common complications is pain, which can last for up to six days after the procedure.

      Another complication that can occur after tonsillectomy is haemorrhage, or bleeding. There are two types of haemorrhage that can occur: primary and secondary. Primary haemorrhage is the most common and occurs within the first 6-8 hours after surgery. It requires immediate medical attention and may require a return to the operating room.

      Secondary haemorrhage, on the other hand, occurs between 5 and 10 days after surgery and is often associated with a wound infection. It is less common than primary haemorrhage, occurring in only 1-2% of all tonsillectomies. Treatment for secondary haemorrhage usually involves admission to the hospital and antibiotics, but severe bleeding may require surgery.

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      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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