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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty swallowing, and unsteadiness of gait. Upon neurological assessment, he is found to have nystagmus with the quick phase towards the right side and ataxia of the right upper and lower limbs. He reports no hearing loss. There is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the face, and the left side of the limbs and trunk. The patient exhibits drooping of the right side of the palate upon eliciting the gag reflex, as well as right-sided ptosis and miosis.

      Which vessel is most likely to be affected by thromboembolism given these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: The right anterior choroidal artery

      Correct Answer: The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Arterial Territories and Associated Syndromes

      The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery is commonly associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which presents with symptoms such as palatal drooping, dysphagia, and dysphonia. The right anterior choroidal artery, which supplies various parts of the brain, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, loss of sensation, and homonymous hemianopia when occluded. Similarly, occlusion of the left anterior choroidal artery can result in similar symptoms. The right labyrinthine artery, a branch of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, can cause unilateral deafness and vertigo when ischemia occurs. Finally, the right anterior inferior cerebellar artery can lead to ipsilateral facial paresis, vertigo, nystagmus, and hearing loss, as well as facial hemianaesthesia due to trigeminal nerve nucleus involvement. Understanding these arterial territories and associated syndromes can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      72.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old computer programmer had been experiencing increasing right-hand pain during the last...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old computer programmer had been experiencing increasing right-hand pain during the last 3 months, accompanied by loss of strength in his thumb. He was referred to a neurologist who ordered radiographic studies.
      Which condition does this man most likely have?

      Your Answer: Erb’s palsy

      Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Hand and Arm Conditions: Symptoms and Treatments

      Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: This condition is caused by repetitive stress on the tendons in the wrist, leading to inflammation in the carpal tunnel and compression of the median nerve. Symptoms include atrophy of the muscles in the thenar eminence, particularly the flexor pollicis brevis, resulting in weakened thumb flexion. Treatment options include anti-inflammatory drugs and wrist splints, with surgery as a last resort.

      Dupuytren’s Contracture: This condition causes fixed flexion of the hand due to palmar fibromatosis, typically affecting the ring and little fingers. The index finger and thumb are usually not involved.

      Erb’s Palsy: This condition is characterized by paralysis of the arm due to damage to the brachial plexus, often caused by shoulder dystocia during difficult labor.

      Pronator Syndrome: This condition is caused by compression of the median nerve and results in pain and weakness in the hand, as well as loss of sensation in the thumb and first three fingers.

      Wrist Drop: Also known as radial nerve palsy, this condition causes an inability to extend the wrist and can be caused by stab wounds in the chest or fractures of the humerus. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      59.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 87-year-old woman who lives alone is found wandering in the street, she...

    Correct

    • An 87-year-old woman who lives alone is found wandering in the street, she is unable to remember her way home. Past medical history of note includes hypertension for which she takes lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide. She is known to Social Services having been in trouble for stealing from a local grocery store earlier in the year, and for yelling at a neighbor who complained about her loud music. On examination she is agitated and socially inappropriate, she has been incontinent of urine. During your testing she repeats what you say and appears to be laughing at you. Responses to your questions tend to lack fluency and she has trouble naming simple objects. There is rigidity and increased tone on motor examination.
      Bloods:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 250 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 190 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Computed tomography (CT) head scan – evidence of frontal atrophy
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Frontotemporal Dementia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Frontotemporal dementia, also known as Pick’s disease, is a type of dementia that affects the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. One of the hallmark symptoms of this condition is a change in personality, often leading to disinhibition, aggression, and inappropriate behavior. Patients may also exhibit echolalia and echopraxia, repeating words and imitating actions of others.

      Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, frontotemporal dementia often presents with early symptoms of behavioral changes and repetitive behavior, rather than memory loss. Incontinence may also be an early symptom. Diagnosis is typically made through brain imaging, which reveals frontotemporal lobe degeneration and the presence of Pick’s bodies, spherical aggregations of tau proteins in neurons.

      Management of frontotemporal dementia focuses on symptomatic treatment of behavior and support for caregivers and patients. Other conditions, such as Shy-Drager syndrome, multi-infarct dementia, and Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, may present with similar symptoms but can be ruled out through careful evaluation and testing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      52.3
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  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old boy is referred to the Paediatric Neurology Service after his teacher...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is referred to the Paediatric Neurology Service after his teacher raised concerns that the child sometimes appears to ‘stare into space’. The parents brought him to the General Practitioner reporting that they have also noticed that he would look blank for a minute and then looks confused. After these episodes, the boy becomes his normal self and does not remember what happened. The boy says that he sometimes has headaches, which usually occur at home and for which he takes paracetamol. There is no significant past medical or family history.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Focal seizure

      Correct Answer: Absence seizure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Seizures: Symptoms and Characteristics

      One of the most common types of seizures is the absence seizure, which is characterized by brief periods of decreased consciousness. In this type of seizure, the child may stop talking or what they were doing for about 10-15 seconds before returning to their normal self. Absence seizures are a form of generalized seizure and require electroencephalography (EEG) for diagnosis.

      Another type of seizure is the focal seizure, which originates within networks limited to one hemisphere. It can be discretely localized or more widely distributed, and it replaces the terms partial seizure and localization-related seizure.

      Primary generalized seizures usually present with a combination of limb stiffening and limb jerking, known as a tonic-clonic seizure. Patients may also experience tongue biting and incontinence. After the seizure, patients often feel tired and drowsy and do not remember what happened.

      Atonic seizures are a form of primary generalized seizure where there is no muscle tone, causing the patient to drop to the floor. Unlike other forms of seizures, there is no loss of consciousness.

      While migraines can cause neurological symptoms, they do not typically cause an episode such as the one described. Migraines often present with an aura and do not result in loss of consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      53.7
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  • Question 5 - An 85-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion. Preceding this,...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old man presents with a short history of increasing confusion. Preceding this, he fell four weeks ago in the bathroom. In the afternoon he was examined by his GP and he was alert with a normal physical examination. The patient has a history of hypertension for which he takes bendroflumethiazide.

      Four weeks later the patient was visited at home because the dazed state had returned. He is afebrile, has a pulse of 80 per minute regular and blood pressure of 152/86 mmHg. His response to questions is slightly slowed, he is disoriented in time and there is some deficit in recent memory.

      The patient moves slowly, but muscle strength is preserved. Neurologic examination shows slight hyperactivity of the tendon reflexes on the right. Plantar responses are unclear because of bilateral withdrawal. That gives him a GCS score of 14.

      What would be the most appropriate next investigation for this 85-year-old man?

      Your Answer: Computed tomograms of the head

      Explanation:

      Chronic Subdural Haematoma in the Elderly

      The confusion and neurological symptoms that developed after a fall in the past suggest that the patient may have chronic subdural haematoma. The best way to investigate this condition is through a CT scan, which is the preferred diagnostic tool. A skull x-ray may also be useful in detecting any fractures.

      Chronic subdural haematoma is a condition that commonly affects elderly individuals. It occurs when blood accumulates between the brain and the outermost layer of the brain’s protective covering. This can cause pressure on the brain, leading to a range of symptoms such as confusion, headaches, and difficulty with balance and coordination.

      It is important to diagnose and treat chronic subdural haematoma promptly, as it can lead to serious complications if left untreated. Treatment may involve draining the blood from the affected area, and in some cases, surgery may be necessary. Early diagnosis and treatment can greatly improve the patient’s chances of a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      74.2
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  • Question 6 - In which condition is a stiff neck not present in a toddler? ...

    Correct

    • In which condition is a stiff neck not present in a toddler?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Complications of Measles and Other Causes of Neck Stiffness

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to various complications. These include respiratory problems such as croup, bronchitis, bronchiolitis, and pneumonitis. Measles can also cause conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis, which occurs in 1 in 1000-2000 cases. Additionally, measles can make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia.

      Apart from measles, other conditions can also cause neck stiffness. For instance, the involvement of the cervical spine in the arthritis of Still’s disease may lead to neck stiffness. Tuberculosis (TB) may cause tuberculous meningitis or Pott’s disease, both of which can cause neck stiffness. Another recognized cause of neck stiffness with an extended neck is retropharyngeal abscess.

      In summary, measles can lead to various complications, including respiratory problems, conjunctivitis, myocarditis, hepatitis, and encephalitis. It can also make the body more susceptible to ear infections and bacterial pneumonia. Other conditions such as Still’s disease, TB, and retropharyngeal abscess can also cause neck stiffness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      23.8
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  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old retired electrical engineer had a gradual decline in initiating and performing...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old retired electrical engineer had a gradual decline in initiating and performing voluntary movements. His face was expressionless and he had tremors, which were particularly obvious when he was sat idle watching tv. He also showed a marked decrease in blinking frequency but had no evidence of dementia.
      What is the most probable diagnosis associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Parkinson’s disease

      Explanation:

      Movement Disorders and Neurodegenerative Diseases: A Brief Overview

      Movement disorders and neurodegenerative diseases are conditions that affect the nervous system and can lead to a range of symptoms, including tremors, rigidity, and difficulty with voluntary movements. Parkinson’s disease is a common neurodegenerative disease that primarily affects the elderly and is characterized by hypokinesia, bradykinesia, resting tremor, rigidity, lack of facial expression, and decreased blinking frequency. While there is no cure for Parkinson’s disease, current treatment strategies involve the administration of L-dopa, which is metabolized to dopamine within the brain and can help stimulate the initiation of voluntary movements.

      Huntington’s disease is another neurodegenerative disease that typically presents in middle-aged patients and is characterized by movement disorders, seizures, dementia, and ultimately death. Alzheimer’s disease is a degenerative disorder that can also lead to dementia, but it is not typically associated with movement disorders like Parkinson’s or Huntington’s disease.

      In rare cases, damage to the subthalamic nucleus can cause movement disorders like ballism and hemiballism, which are characterized by uncontrolled movements of the limbs on the contralateral side of the body. While these conditions are rare, they highlight the complex interplay between different regions of the brain and the importance of understanding the underlying mechanisms of movement disorders and neurodegenerative diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      29.4
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a three-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with a three-day history of paraesthesia in his feet and hands. He has also noticed weakness in his thighs, particularly when walking down stairs, and weakness affecting his shoulders. Prior to this, he had been well, except for a mild case of gastroenteritis after eating Chinese food. On examination, he appears anxious, but cranial nerve examination and fundoscopy are normal. Upper limb examination reveals reduced tone and absent reflexes bilaterally at both wrists. Lower limb examination shows 2/5 power, absent reflexes, and reduced sensation affecting both feet. A lumbar puncture is performed, yielding the following results: opening pressure 14 cmH2O (5-18), CSF protein 0.40 g/L (0.15-0.45), CSF white cell count 4 cells per ml (<5 cells), CSF red cell count 2 cells per ml (<5 cells), and negative CSF oligoclonal bands. What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Spinal cord compression

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Acute Motor and Sensory Neuropathy

      His symptoms and signs suggest that he may be experiencing an acute motor and sensory neuropathy, which is commonly seen in Guillain-Barré syndrome following an infection. Patients with this condition often experience paraesthesias in their hands and feet, along with weakness. However, sensory abnormalities on examination are usually mild. Brainstem lesions are unlikely due to normal eye movements, and multiple sclerosis is a central demyelinating disorder that does not affect peripheral nerves. Wernicke’s encephalopathy typically presents as acute ataxia and ophthalmoplegia, while spinal cord lesions cause lower motor signs at the level of the lesion with upper motor signs below and a sensory level and bladder involvement. Although neurological complications can occur in systemic lupus erythematosus, including a peripheral neuropathy, the absence of common features such as joint or skin lesions makes this diagnosis unlikely. It is worth noting that cerebrospinal fluid protein is often normal at the onset of symptoms in Guillain-Barré syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      165.5
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  • Question 9 - You see a 92-year-old lady in clinic. Over the past 3 months, her...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 92-year-old lady in clinic. Over the past 3 months, her family believes she is becoming more forgetful. She has also noticed a tremor in her right hand and is generally ‘slowing down’. She takes amlodipine for hypertension and a daily aspirin of her own volition. She has recently been treated for a urinary tract infection by her general practitioner. She also complains of confusion and seeing spiders climbing the walls of her bedroom. She has no other urinary complaints. Her abbreviated mental test score is 5/10. Lying and standing blood pressures are 138/76 and 127/70, respectively.
      Select the most likely diagnosis from the list below.

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's disease

      Correct Answer: Lewy body dementia (LBD)

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between Dementia Types: Lewy Body Dementia, Parkinson’s Disease, Alzheimer’s Disease, Vascular Dementia, and Multisystem Atrophy

      Dementia is a complex condition that can have various underlying causes. Lewy body dementia (LBD) is a type of dementia that is characterized by cognitive impairment, parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, rapid eye movement (REM) sleep disorders, and autonomic disturbance. Treatment for LBD focuses on symptom management, including the use of cholinesterase inhibitors and antidepressants.

      Parkinson’s disease, on the other hand, typically presents with bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, but not cognitive impairment in the initial stages. Autonomic dysfunction is also expected in Parkinson’s disease, which is not evident in the given case. Alzheimer’s disease may cause forgetfulness and slowing down, but visual hallucinations are not typical. Vascular dementia usually presents with a stepwise deterioration that correlates with small cerebrovascular events, but not visual hallucinations. Multisystem atrophy is a rare condition characterized by parkinsonism with autonomic dysfunction, but it is less likely in this case due to the lack of orthostatic hypotension.

      Therefore, distinguishing between different types of dementia is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      44.1
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  • Question 10 - A 9-year-old boy comes to his general practitioner complaining of severe pain in...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy comes to his general practitioner complaining of severe pain in his right elbow area. He reports falling off his bike and landing on his outstretched arm.
      During the examination of the affected limb, the radial pulse appears normal. The patient experiences weakness in finger flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joints in all digits, with the index and middle fingers showing particular weakness. The patient has no feeling in the palmar aspect of the thumb, index finger, and middle finger. Finger extension and abduction remain unaffected.
      Which of these findings is most likely to be linked to this injury?

      Your Answer: Persistent extension of the index and middle fingers when the boy attempts to make a fist

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nerve Injuries in the Hand: Symptoms and Causes

      When a child falls on their outstretched hand, it can result in a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. This type of injury can damage the brachial artery and median nerve, leading to symptoms such as persistent extension of the index and middle fingers when attempting to make a fist. Loss of sensation over the palmar aspect of the lateral three digits and weakness of finger flexion at the proximal interphalangeal joints are also common with median nerve injury. Additionally, the inability to flex the metacarpophalangeal joints of the index and middle fingers (known as the ‘hand of benediction’) is caused by loss of innervation of the first and second lumbrical muscles. Other symptoms of nerve injuries in the hand include loss of thumb adduction, loss of sensation over the medial border of the hand, loss of flexion at the distal interphalangeal joint of the little finger, and loss of function of the hypothenar muscles. Understanding these symptoms and their causes can help with early diagnosis and treatment of nerve injuries in the hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      81.9
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old man reports experiencing fatigue that worsens towards the end of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man reports experiencing fatigue that worsens towards the end of the day. He has also been struggling with swallowing and finds repetitive movements challenging. What is the probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Presynaptic calcium channel antibodies

      Correct Answer: Antibodies against acetylcholine receptors

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Conditions and their Mechanisms

      Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune condition characterized by autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors of the post-synaptic neuronal membranes of skeletal muscle. This inhibits the binding of acetylcholine, blocking neuronal transmission and resulting in muscle weakness. Diagnosis is made through serum testing for antibodies against the acetylcholine receptor, and treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunomodulating drugs.

      In Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome, autoantibodies to presynaptic calcium channel blockers are found, often in association with small cell lung cancer. Demyelinating diseases such as multiple sclerosis are caused by the destruction of the myelin sheath surrounding neuronal axons.

      Understanding Autoimmune Conditions and their Mechanisms

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      53.3
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  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old patient comes in with a spastic hemiparesis on the left side,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old patient comes in with a spastic hemiparesis on the left side, a positive Babinski sign on the left, and facial paralysis on the left lower two-thirds. However, the patient's speech is fluent and they have normal comprehension of verbal and written commands. Which cerebral artery is likely blocked?

      Your Answer: Right middle cerebral

      Correct Answer: Left lenticulostriate

      Explanation:

      Pure Motor Stroke

      A pure motor stroke is a type of stroke that results in a right hemiparesis, or weakness on one side of the body. This type of stroke is caused by a lesion in the left cerebral hemisphere, which is likely to be a lacunar infarct. The symptoms of a pure motor stroke are purely motor, meaning that they only affect movement and not speech or comprehension.

      If the stroke had affected the entire territory of the left middle cerebral artery, then speech and comprehension would also be affected. However, in this case, the lesion is likely to be in the lenticulostriate artery, which has caused infarction of the internal capsule. This leads to a purely motor stroke, where the patient experiences weakness on one side of the body.

      the type of stroke a patient has is important for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan. In the case of a pure motor stroke, rehabilitation and physical therapy may be necessary to help the patient regain strength and mobility on the affected side of the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.8
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old man with a 10-year history of diabetes wakes up with weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a 10-year history of diabetes wakes up with weakness in his right leg. Upon examination, there is weakness in ankle eversion and inversion and loss of dorsiflexion in the big toe. Knee reflexes are normal, and ankle jerks are present with reinforcement. He has also experienced a loss of sensation in his first toe. Where is the lesion located?

      Your Answer: Right common peroneal nerve

      Correct Answer: Right L5 root

      Explanation:

      Nerve Lesions and Their Effects on Motor and Sensory Function in the Lower Limb

      The human body is a complex system of nerves and muscles that work together to allow movement and sensation. When a nerve is damaged or compressed, it can lead to a variety of symptoms depending on the location and severity of the lesion. In the lower limb, there are several nerves that can be affected, each with its own unique pattern of motor and sensory deficits.

      Right L5 Root Lesion

      A lesion at the L5 nerve root will cause weakness of ankle dorsiflexion, eversion, and inversion, as well as loss of sensation over the medial border of the right foot. This specific pattern of motor and sensory pathology is only possible with an L5 nerve root lesion.

      Right Common Peroneal Nerve Palsy

      Damage to the common peroneal nerve will result in weakness of ankle dorsiflexors, foot evertor (but not invertor) and extensor hallucis longus, and sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot, the medial border of the foot, and the anterolateral side of the lower leg. The ankle reflex will be preserved.

      Right Femoral Nerve Lesion

      A lesion at the femoral nerve, which incorporates roots L2, L3, and L4, will cause weakness of the hip flexors and knee extensors, as well as loss of the knee reflex.

      Right Sciatic Nerve Lesion

      The sciatic nerve, the largest nerve in the human body, is made from roots L4 to S2. Damage to this nerve will result in weakness in all muscles below the knee, loss of the ankle reflex, and sensory loss over the foot and the posterolateral aspect of the lower leg.

      Right Lateral Cutaneous Nerve of the Thigh Lesion

      The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh has no motor supply and causes sensory loss over the lateral aspect of the thigh.

      In conclusion, understanding the effects of nerve lesions on motor and sensory function in the lower limb is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old patient with diabetes presents to the Emergency department with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old patient with diabetes presents to the Emergency department with complaints of dizziness and vomiting. Upon examination, the patient is alert and oriented, with an irregularly irregular pulse of 80 and a blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg. Nystagmus is observed on left lateral gaze, and the patient's speech is slurred. Intention tremor and past pointing are noted during examination of the limbs, and the patient is ataxic when mobilized. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cerebellar CVA

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Vertigo and Cerebellar Signs

      This patient presents with a history of vertigo and clinical signs of nystagmus, as well as slurred speech, intention tremor, past pointing, and ataxia. These symptoms suggest an injury to the cerebellum. The patient also has risk factors for cerebrovascular disease, including atrial fibrillation and hypertension.

      Labyrinthitis, which is associated with nystagmus, would not produce cerebellar signs. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, on the other hand, would present with confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. Subacute combined degeneration of the cord is associated with posterior column signs, loss of vibration sensation, and a positive Romberg’s test. Brainstem signs would be expected with a brainstem CVA and impaired conscious level.

      In summary, this patient’s symptoms suggest an injury to the cerebellum, possibly due to cerebrovascular disease. Other potential diagnoses, such as labyrinthitis, Wernicke’s encephalopathy, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, and brainstem CVA, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - Which statement about the facial nerve is accurate in terms of its paragraph...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about the facial nerve is accurate in terms of its paragraph structure?

      Your Answer: Innervates the levator palpebrae superioris

      Correct Answer: Is secretomotor to the lacrimal gland

      Explanation:

      Functions of the Facial Nerve

      The facial nerve, also known as the seventh cranial nerve, has several important functions. It carries secretomotor fibers to the lacrimal gland through the greater petrosal nerve and is secretomotor to the submandibular and sublingual glands. It also supplies the muscles of facial expression and is associated developmentally with the second branchial arch. The facial nerve carries special taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue via the chorda tympani nerve and somatic sensation to the external auditory meatus. However, it does not innervate the levator palpebrae superioris or the principal muscles of mastication, which are supplied by other nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl was stabbed with a knife during a robbery attempt and taken to the Emergency Department of a local hospital. Physical examination revealed a single horizontal stab wound located on the skin 4 mm to the right of the umbilicus.
      In which dermatome was the stab wound located?

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Dermatomes and Pain Referral in the Abdomen

      The human body is divided into dermatomes, which are areas of skin that are mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve. In the abdomen, the T8-T12 dermatomes are important to understand as they can help identify the source of pain referral.

      T8 dermatome is located at the epigastrium, which is approximately at the level of the subcostal margin. T9 dermatome lies just superior to the umbilicus, while T10 dermatome lies at the level of the umbilicus. Pain originating from the small bowel may be referred to the T10 dermatome.

      T11 dermatome lies just inferior to the umbilicus, and pain originating from the large bowel may be referred to the T11-T12 area. T12 dermatome lies at the suprapubic level, and pain originating from the large bowel may also be referred to the T11-T12 area.

      It is important to note that confusion between the dermatomes and the spinal vertebrae level at which structures lie should be avoided. Understanding the dermatomes and pain referral patterns in the abdomen can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old law student complains that she cannot fall asleep until 0330 h....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old law student complains that she cannot fall asleep until 0330 h. She sleeps through morning classes, frequently waking up at about 1100 h.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Delayed sleep phase syndrome

      Explanation:

      Common Sleep Disorders and Their Symptoms

      Sleep disorders can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life. Here are some of the most common sleep disorders and their symptoms:

      1. Delayed Sleep Phase Syndrome: This syndrome causes a person’s circadian cycle to run longer than 24 hours, leading to a tendency to fall asleep later and later.

      2. Advanced Sleep Phase Syndrome: Patients with this syndrome tend to fall asleep too early and wake up too early.

      3. Myoclonus: Nocturnal myoclonus, or periodic limb movement disorder, causes twitching or kicking of the lower extremities during sleep, leading to momentary arousals.

      4. Narcolepsy: This dyssomnia causes a person to suddenly fall asleep involuntarily at inappropriate times.

      5. Sleep Apnoea: This disorder causes a person to stop breathing during sleep, putting stress on the circulatory system.

      It’s important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have a sleep disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old man is referred to a Rapid Access Neurology Service due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is referred to a Rapid Access Neurology Service due to severe headache. He gives a history of recurrent rapid-onset severe right-sided headache and eye pain. It sometimes wakes him up at night. He claims the eye itself becomes watery and red during the periods of pain. He also claims that side of his face feels hot and painful during episodes. They normally last 60 minutes. However, he says they can be shorter or longer. There is no significant medical history. He is a smoker. He is pain-free during the consultation and examination is non-contributory.
      Which of the following is most likely to be of value in relieving pain?

      Your Answer: Amitriptyline

      Correct Answer: Oxygen

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cluster Headaches and Treatment Options

      Cluster headaches are a rare and severe form of headache with an unknown cause, although it is believed to be related to serotonin hyperreactivity in the superficial temporal artery smooth muscle and an autosomal dominant gene. They are more common in young male smokers but can affect any age group. Symptoms include sudden onset of severe unilateral headache, pain around one eye, watery and bloodshot eye, lid swelling, facial flushing, and more. Attacks can occur 1-2 times a day and last 15 minutes to 2 hours. Treatment options include high-flow 100% oxygen, subcutaneous sumatriptan, and verapamil or topiramate for prevention. Other treatments, such as amitriptyline for trigeminal neuralgia or high-dose prednisolone for giant cell arthritis, are not appropriate for cluster headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      66.3
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old patient complains of back pain that extends to the left leg....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient complains of back pain that extends to the left leg. The patient reports decreased sensation on the lateral aspect of the left calf and lateral foot. Which nerve roots are likely to be affected in this case?

      Your Answer: L5-S1

      Explanation:

      L5 and S1 Radiculopathy

      L5 radiculopathy is the most common type of radiculopathy that affects the lumbosacral spine. It is characterized by back pain that radiates down the lateral aspect of the leg and into the foot. On the other hand, S1 radiculopathy is identified by pain that radiates down the posterior aspect of the leg and into the foot from the back.

      When examining a patient with S1 radiculopathy, there may be a reduction in leg extension (gluteus maximus), foot eversion, plantar flexion, and toe flexion. Sensation is also generally reduced on the posterior aspect of the leg and the lateral foot.

      It is important to note that both L5 and S1 radiculopathy can cause significant discomfort and affect a patient’s quality of life. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial in addressing these conditions. Patients are advised to seek medical attention if they experience any symptoms related to radiculopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 20 - An action potential reaches the presynaptic membrane of a central neurone's axon. What...

    Incorrect

    • An action potential reaches the presynaptic membrane of a central neurone's axon. What is the primary effect it produces?

      Your Answer: Opening of voltage-gated sodium channels

      Correct Answer: Opening of voltage-gated calcium channels

      Explanation:

      The Role of Voltage-Gated Calcium Channels in Neurotransmitter Release

      When an action potential occurs in a presynaptic neuron, it triggers the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels. This allows calcium ions to enter the neuron, initiating a series of events that lead to the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. These neurotransmitters can then bind to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron, transmitting the signal across the synapse.

      It is important to note that other types of ion channels, such as voltage-gated chloride, potassium, and sodium channels, are not typically found in the synaptic membrane of central neurons. Therefore, the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels is the key event that triggers neurotransmitter release.

      the role of voltage-gated calcium channels in neurotransmitter release is crucial for how neurons communicate with each other. By studying these processes, researchers can gain insights into the mechanisms underlying normal brain function as well as neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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