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Question 1
Correct
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A 32-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) for an annual mental health review. He was diagnosed with schizophrenia eight years ago. He has been on medication since diagnosis and takes this daily without any side-effects. He has regular contact with the community mental health team. He is working part-time as a shop assistant, which he enjoys. He has a good appetite, sleeps well and exercises regularly.
What is true regarding the treatment of schizophrenia in a 32-year-old man who has been diagnosed with the condition for eight years and is currently on medication without any side-effects, has regular contact with the community mental health team, works part-time, and has good appetite, sleep, and exercise habits?Your Answer: People with a first episode of psychosis should be offered oral antipsychotic treatment, along with psychological interventions
Explanation:Mythbusting: Common Misconceptions About Schizophrenia Treatment
1. Oral antipsychotic treatment and psychological interventions should be offered to those with a first episode of psychosis.
2. Patients with schizophrenia should remain under the care of a psychiatrist lifelong, but can be eligible for shared care with a GP after 12 months of stability.
3. An ECG is only necessary before starting antipsychotic medication in certain circumstances.
4. Before starting any oral antipsychotic medication, various health factors need to be checked in all patients.
5. The choice of antipsychotic medication should be made on an individual basis, taking into account potential side-effects.
6. Early intervention in psychosis services should be accessed urgently for anyone presenting with a first episode of psychosis. Antipsychotic medication should not be initiated in primary care without the advice of a psychiatrist. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain. The patient reports that he developed acute abdominal pain 2 hours prior to presentation after eating a cheeseburger. The patient otherwise has no significant past medical history. He does not take any medications and denies smoking, alcohol consumption and drug use. He has been recently been released from prison and has not got stable living and has had to sleep outside since his release.
On examination, the patient has normal vital signs. His abdominal examination demonstrates normoactive bowel sounds, no tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium and no guarding or rebound tenderness. Rectal exam for stool occult blood is negative and a chest X-ray does not reveal free air under the diaphragm. A right upper quadrant ultrasound does not demonstrate stones. The doctor recommends antacids. When the doctor tells the patient that he is safe for discharge, the patient insists that he must be admitted to hospital for further tests.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malingering
Explanation:Differentiating between Malingering, Factitious Disorder, Conversion Disorder, and Hypochondriasis
When a patient presents with physical symptoms but there are no physical or imaging signs of significant illness, the likely diagnosis is malingering. In such cases, it is important to investigate the patient’s history to see if there could be other factors impacting their symptoms. Malingering is often suspected when a patient insists on staying in the hospital despite negative test results.
Factitious disorder refers to a patient who assumes the sick role without any physical or organic disease. These patients find satisfaction in being taken care of and often seek frequent outpatient visits and psychotherapy.
Factitious or induced illness is similar to factitious disorder, but it involves a patient seeking the sick role vicariously through a second patient. For example, a mother suffering from factitious disorder may abuse her child so that she can bring the child to the doctor for treatment. The patient assumes the sick role by proxy through the child.
Conversion disorder refers to the manifestation of psychological illness as neurologic pathology. Patients with conversion disorder suffer from symptoms such as weakness, numbness, blindness, or paralysis as a result of underlying psychiatric illness. They are often not bothered by their symptoms, a condition known as la belle indifférence.
Hypochondriasis refers to the fear of having a medical illness despite negative tests and reassurance. It is not associated with secondary gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 3
Incorrect
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An 87-year-old man who lives in a care home is reported missing after breakfast. The care home actively tries to find him but is not able to for the next few hours. A police report is made, and later that day, the man is found wandering two streets away from the care home. He is brought back to the care home, and the care home is concerned that he might try to get out again. The nurse caring for the patient reports that the man has been trying to get out of the care home for the past few weeks but did not manage to do so, as they were able to prevent him on time. The care home wants to fit a lock to the patient’s room door to restrict his mobility during busy times of the day when limited staff are available to make sure he does not get out. The patient is medically stable, has a diagnosis of dementia, and is known to lack capacity to make a decision about his treatment and freedom.
Which of the following is the best course of action for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The patient can be restricted for seven days under urgent DoLS authorisation
Explanation:Understanding Urgent DoLS Authorisation
In situations where a person’s best interest requires the authorisation of Deprivation of Liberty Safeguards (DoLS) but there is not enough time for a standard authorisation, an urgent authorisation can be applied for by the care home manager or hospital. This allows the individual to be deprived of their liberty for up to seven days. It is important to note that this can only be done if it is in the person’s best interest.
In the case of a patient who lacks capacity, they cannot make decisions regarding their freedom and treatment. Therefore, the option of allowing the patient to be free is not applicable. However, if the patient is medically stable and does not require hospital admission, they should not be admitted.
It is crucial to understand that an urgent DoLS authorisation can only be applied for seven days, not 21 days. Additionally, the Mental Health Act 1983 is not appropriate for detaining patients who are not in the hospital for assessment or treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are asked to obtain consent from a pediatric patient for electroconvulsive therapy (ECT).
Which of the following is not a risk associated with ECT?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Induction of dementia
Explanation:Side Effects and Memory Loss Associated with Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a medical treatment that involves passing electrical currents through the brain to induce a seizure. While side effects of ECT are rare, some patients may experience memory loss. During the course of ECT, patients may have difficulty remembering newly learned information, but this typically improves in the days and weeks following treatment. However, some patients may experience partial loss of memory for events that occurred before ECT, which may take longer to recover.
Despite these potential memory issues, some patients report improved memory ability following ECT, as it can remove the amnesia associated with severe depression. It is important to note that cardiac arrhythmia may be stimulated by the electrical shock of ECT, but musculoskeletal injury is rare with adequate anesthesia.
It is also important to dispel the myth that ECT can cause dementia. Dementia is an organic illness that is not induced by ECT. Research has not found a link between ECT and dementia, but this remains an area of focus for further study. Overall, while ECT may have some potential side effects, it can be a highly effective treatment for severe depression and other mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they noticed her eating habits had become irregular. The parents report that the patient eats large volumes of foods and is sometimes found vomiting shortly after eating dinner. This behaviour has been occurring for the past 6 months. On examination, the patient’s vital signs are normal and she has a body mass index (BMI) of 23. She has excoriations on the knuckles of her right hand. She also has erosions on her teeth and swelling bilaterally on the lateral aspects of the face along the mandibular rami.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa
Explanation:Common Mental Health Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics
Bulimia Nervosa
Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually in the form of vomiting. Patients with bulimia nervosa often have normal BMI, despite purging behavior. Symptoms associated with vomiting include teeth erosion, swelling along the mandibular rami (parotitis), and excoriations of the knuckles (Russell’s sign).Avoidant Personality Disorder
Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a person who desires social connections but is too shy to form relationships due to fear of rejection. This is different from the schizoid personality, which prefers to be alone.Anorexia Nervosa
Anorexia nervosa is associated with decreased dietary intake, with or without purging behavior. Patients with anorexia nervosa tend to have extremely low BMI due to low calorie intake. They also suffer from early osteoporosis and electrolyte abnormalities due to malnutrition.Binge Eating Disorder
Binge eating disorder is characterized by purely binge eating, without purging behavior. Patients with binge eating disorder often experience distress and weight gain.Gender Dysphoria
Gender dysphoria is characterized by a strong identification with a gender other than that assigned at birth. This can be managed through social transition (living as their preferred gender) or medical transition (hormone or surgical treatments that are gender-affirming).Understanding Common Mental Health Disorders
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.
The man experiences periods of elevated mood, where he spends a lot of money and sleeps very little. He denies having any delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.
The man also has episodes of severe depression, where he feels suicidal, loses interest in his hobbies, and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder
Explanation:The woman’s alternating episodes of hypomania and severe depression suggest that she has type 2 bipolar disorder. There are no indications of an anxiety disorder, and the severity of her symptoms is not consistent with cyclothymia. Major depressive disorder is also not a likely diagnosis, as she experiences ‘highs’ consistent with hypomania. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also unlikely, as her ‘high’ periods are more in line with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.
Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman has been experiencing a pattern of tumultuous endings in all of her relationships. She confides in you that she seems to have a knack for choosing friends and romantic partners who ultimately reveal themselves to be awful people.
What defense mechanism is most likely at play in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Splitting
Explanation:Defense Mechanisms: Understanding How We Cope
Defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that we use to protect ourselves from anxiety and emotional pain. These mechanisms are often unconscious and can be both adaptive and maladaptive. Here are some common defense mechanisms and their explanations:
Splitting: This is a common defense mechanism in borderline personality disorder. It involves seeing people as either all good or all bad, and the inability to reconcile both good and bad traits in a person.
Dissociation: This is an immature defense mechanism where one’s personal identity is temporarily modified to avoid distress. An extreme form is dissociative identity disorder.
Identification: This is when someone models the behavior of a more powerful example. An example would be a victim of child abuse becoming a child abuser in adulthood.
Sublimation: This is a mature defense mechanism where the person takes an unacceptable personality trait and uses it to drive a respectable work that does not conflict with their value system.
Reaction formation: This is an immature defense mechanism where unacceptable emotions are repressed and replaced by their exact opposite. A classic example is a man with homoerotic desires championing anti-homosexual public policy.
Understanding these defense mechanisms can help us recognize when we are using them and how they may be impacting our relationships and mental health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) is recommended by NICE for which clinical conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In a catatonic patient
Explanation:Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) should only be considered as a treatment option for individuals with severe major depressive disorder that is potentially life-threatening, and where other treatments have been ineffective. It is also recommended for those experiencing catatonia or a prolonged/severe manic episode.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of feeling extremely anxious, avoiding going out, and experiencing disturbed sleep. Her symptoms have resulted in the breakdown of her relationship. She reports that her symptoms began to worsen after she was sexually assaulted 2 years ago. She experiences flashbacks of the assault when she is in a confined space with someone, even if there is no physical contact. The GP decides to refer her for cognitive behavioural therapy and the patient also expresses interest in trying medication. Which of the following medications would be recommended for the management of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:Medications for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic event. Symptoms of PTSD include flashbacks, nightmares, avoidance, and hyperarousal. If drug treatment is necessary, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) or venlafaxine are recommended. Tricyclic antidepressants and benzodiazepines are not recommended due to their potential risks and lack of efficacy in treating PTSD. Antipsychotics may be considered in patients who do not respond to other treatments. It is important to regularly review and adjust medication treatment for PTSD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman visited her primary care physician complaining of persistent polydipsia and swollen legs for the past few months. She reported having a medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), schizophrenia, and hypertension. Her current medications include tiotropium inhaler, ipratropium bromide inhaler, olanzapine, and nifedipine. She had previously taken bendroflumethiazide, which was discontinued two years ago, and had a 5-day course of 30mg oral prednisolone six months ago due to a COPD exacerbation. Her fasting blood tests revealed:
Fasting plasma glucose 7 mmol/L (3.9-5.4)
Random plasma glucose 12 mmol/L (<7.8)
Which medication is likely responsible for her abnormal blood results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Olanzapine
Explanation:Antipsychotics can cause metabolic side effects such as dysglycaemia, dyslipidaemia, and diabetes mellitus. In this case, the patient’s persistent hyperglycaemia in both fasting blood tests and HBA1c tests has led to a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, likely caused by her regular medication, olanzapine. While the patient has also experienced swollen legs, this is likely due to nifedipine rather than the cause of her deranged blood result. A 5-day course of prednisolone given half a year ago is unlikely to be the cause of her diabetes. Ipratropium bromide is also an unlikely culprit, as it is not known to increase blood sugar levels. Thiazide diuretics, which can increase blood sugar levels, were stopped two years ago and are therefore unlikely to be the cause of her diabetes. Other potential metabolic side effects of thiazide diuretics include hypomagnesemia, hypokalemia, dyslipidemia, and hyperuricemia.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man is prescribed haloperidol, a first-generation antipsychotic, for an acute psychotic episode. He had previously been on olanzapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, but discontinued it due to adverse reactions. What adverse effect is he more prone to encounter with this new medication in comparison to olanzapine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Torticollis
Explanation:Antipsychotic medications can cause acute dystonic reactions, which are more frequently seen with first-generation antipsychotics like haloperidol. These reactions may include dysarthria, torticollis, opisthotonus, and oculogyric crises. Atypical antipsychotics are more likely to cause diabetes mellitus and dyslipidemia, while neither typical nor atypical antipsychotics are commonly associated with osteoporosis.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female has been discharged from hospital after being diagnosed with schizophrenia. She is now being seen in the GP clinic and is concerned about her prognosis. Prior to her illness, she was a high-functioning accountant. Her symptoms began gradually and mainly involved auditory hallucinations and persecutory delusions, which are currently under control. What factor in her case suggests a poor prognosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gradual onset of symptoms
Explanation:The gradual onset of schizophrenia is associated with a worse long-term outcome, making it a poor prognostic indicator for this patient. However, her gender (being female) and good pre-illness functioning are both positive prognostic indicators. Additionally, her predominant positive symptoms (auditory hallucinations and delusions) suggest a better prognosis compared to predominant negative symptoms. Lastly, being diagnosed at a younger age (such as in her teens) would have resulted in a poorer prognosis.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognosis depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You're a medical student on your psychiatry placement. You are performing a mental state examination on one of the patients on the inpatient psychiatry ward, a 22-year-old man who was admitted 2 days ago.
Whenever you ask him a question, you notice that he repeats the question back to you. You notice that he is also repeating some of the phrases you use.
What form of thought disorder is this an example of?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Echolalia
Explanation:Echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the questions being asked. Clang association is when someone uses words that rhyme with each other or sound similar. Neologism is the formation of new words. Perseveration is when ideas or words are repeated several times.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatric ward by her family due to concerns about her behavior. During your conversation with her, you observe that she speaks rapidly and does not allow you to interrupt her. She frequently changes the subject, but you can discern connections between them. What psychiatric disorder is most commonly associated with these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder
Explanation:Mania is often characterized by flight of ideas, which is when a person speaks rapidly and jumps between different topics. This is a common symptom of bipolar disorder. It is important to differentiate flight of ideas from Knight’s move thinking, which is associated with schizophrenia. In flight of ideas, there are identifiable connections between the topics that the person jumps between, while in Knight’s move thinking, there are no apparent connections between the topics. This is referred to as loosening of association.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department claiming that he is infested with fleas. He reports feeling extremely itchy and is requesting treatment. This is his fourth visit in the past year for this issue. The patient has no notable medical history and denies using any illicit drugs. He drinks 12 units of alcohol per week and is employed full-time as a teacher.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusional parasitosis
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for a patient who has a fixed, false belief that they are infested by bugs is delusional parasitosis. This rare condition can occur on its own or alongside other psychiatric disorders, but typically does not significantly impair the patient’s daily functioning. Capgras syndrome, delirium tremens, and Fregoli syndrome are all incorrect diagnoses for this particular case.
Understanding Delusional Parasitosis
Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly known but can be debilitating for those who suffer from it. It is characterized by a persistent and false belief that one is infested with bugs, parasites, mites, bacteria, or fungus. This delusion can occur on its own or in conjunction with other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, patients may still be able to function normally in other aspects of their lives.
In simpler terms, delusional parasitosis is a rare condition where a person believes they have bugs or other organisms living on or inside their body, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. This can cause significant distress and anxiety for the individual, and they may go to great lengths to try and rid themselves of the perceived infestation. It is important for those who suspect they may be suffering from delusional parasitosis to seek professional help, as treatment can greatly improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements of his neck, causing his head to move involuntarily from left to right. He has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years, but lately, he has been feeling embarrassed as he involuntarily utters swear words in social situations. These symptoms worsen when he is under stress. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tourette’s syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Tourette’s Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Tourette’s syndrome is a neurological disorder that typically presents in childhood or adolescence. It is characterized by the presence of multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics, which may not occur concurrently. The vocal tics can be throat-clearing, grunting, or other sounds that are not complete words or phrases. In some cases, there may also be associated gestural echopraxia, which can be of an obscene nature.
Schizophrenia, on the other hand, does not typically present with involuntary movements or tics. Conduct disorder is a mental disorder that is diagnosed before or after the age of 10 and is characterized by a persistent pattern of behavior that violates the basic rights of others or goes against age-developmental norms. Malingering is the fabrication of symptoms for some sort of secondary gain, while dissocial personality disorder is characterized by a long-term disregard for others or the violation of others.
Treatment options for Tourette’s syndrome include anti-psychotics such as pimozide, risperidone, and sulpiride, which have been shown to be effective. It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is experiencing symptoms of Tourette’s syndrome to receive an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A middle-aged couple visits the clinic with concerns about the husband's behavior. The wife reports that her partner has been acting strangely, constantly checking on their son throughout the day and night, sometimes up to twenty times. When questioned, he reveals that he had a frightening experience with his son last month and cannot stop reliving it in his mind. He avoids going to places where he might lose sight of his son and has trouble sleeping. There is no significant medical or psychiatric history. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Explanation:Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is worried about several recent incidents related to his sleep. He reports experiencing paralysis upon waking up and occasionally when falling asleep, accompanied by what he describes as 'hallucinations' such as seeing another person in the room. These episodes are causing him increasing anxiety. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sleep paralysis
Explanation:Understanding Sleep Paralysis
Sleep paralysis is a condition that affects many people and is characterized by a temporary inability to move the skeletal muscles when waking up or falling asleep. It is believed to be linked to the natural paralysis that occurs during REM sleep. This phenomenon is recognized in various cultures and is often accompanied by hallucinations or vivid images.
The paralysis occurs either before falling asleep or after waking up, and it can be a frightening experience for those who are not familiar with it. However, it is a relatively harmless condition that does not require medical attention in most cases. If the symptoms are particularly bothersome, medication such as clonazepam may be prescribed to alleviate the symptoms.
In summary, sleep paralysis is a common occurrence that affects many people. It is characterized by temporary paralysis of the skeletal muscles and is often accompanied by hallucinations. While it can be a frightening experience, it is generally harmless and does not require medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man without known psychiatric history is admitted to the psychiatry ward, after presenting to the emergency department with delusions and homicidal ideations.
Following a negative drugs screen, antipsychotic treatment is initiated with haloperidol.
The patient is reviewed 3-hours after the initiation of treatment and is noted to have a sustained upward deviation of both eyes. When asked, he reports that his eyes are extremely painful.
What is the most appropriate initial management option based on the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Procyclidine
Explanation:Acute dystonic reactions, such as oculogyric crisis, can occur within the first 4 days of starting or increasing the dose of antipsychotic medication. These reactions can be treated with anticholinergic procyclidine, which can take effect within 5 minutes. To prevent future attacks, the dose of antipsychotic medication may need to be reduced.
Benzodiazepines, such as diazepam, are not effective in treating acute dystonic reactions. However, they can be used to treat serotonin syndrome, which can occur after taking serotonin agonists like SSRIs and MAOIs. Serotonin syndrome presents with rigidity, hyperreflexia, and autonomic dysfunction.
Levodopa, a dopamine precursor used to treat Parkinson’s disease, is not effective in managing extrapyramidal side effects (EPSEs) caused by antipsychotic medication. EPSEs are caused by dopamine blockage at the mesolimbic pathway, not a dopamine deficiency.
IV fluids are not helpful in treating oculogyric crisis. However, they can be useful in treating neuroleptic malignant syndrome, another side effect that can occur with antipsychotic treatment. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome presents with lead-pipe muscle rigidity, fever, and autonomic dysfunction.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of inability to use her right arm. She has been staying with her mother for the past 5 days after experiencing domestic abuse from her husband. The patient reports feeling very stressed. She denies any history of trauma. On examination, there is normal tone and reflexes but 0/5 power in all muscle groups of the right upper limb. The affected arm falls to the patient's side when held above her face and released. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:The probable diagnosis for this patient is conversion disorder, which is a psychiatric condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function and is often caused by stress. There is no evidence of neurological disease in the patient’s history or clinical findings. The condition is likely triggered by recent domestic abuse and stress. The patient also exhibits a positive drop-arm test, which is a controlled drop of the arm to prevent it from hitting the face, and is an unconscious manifestation of psychological stress.
Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs after life-threatening experiences, such as abuse, and is characterized by symptoms of hyperarousal, re-experiencing of the traumatic event, avoidance of stimuli, and distress. However, it does not involve physical weakness. It typically lasts between 3 days and 1 month.
Post-traumatic stress disorder is another condition that occurs after life-threatening experiences, such as abuse, and has similar symptoms to acute stress disorder. However, it lasts longer than 1 month.
Patients with somatisation disorder have multiple bodily complaints that last for months to years and persistent anxiety about their symptoms. However, based on this patient’s history and physical findings, conversion disorder is the most likely diagnosis.
Given the patient’s normal tone and reflexes and the absence of trauma to the neck or spine, it is highly unlikely that a spinal cord lesion is causing total arm paralysis.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male visits his primary care physician complaining of new and concerning symptoms. He has a medical history of schizophrenia, which was diagnosed at the age of eighteen and is currently managed with olanzapine. He has not undergone any surgical procedures and is generally in good health.
What are the symptoms he is likely to be experiencing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polyuria and polydipsia
Explanation:Long-term use of atypical antipsychotics can result in glucose dysregulation and diabetes, with polyuria and polydipsia being common symptoms. While these drugs are preferred for treating schizophrenia due to their reduced extrapyramidal side effects, they can also cause metabolic dysregulation leading to insulin resistance and diabetes. Diarrhoea is an unlikely side effect, as these drugs tend to cause constipation instead. Sexual dysfunction is a more common side effect than priapism, and the mechanism behind it is not fully understood. Tinnitus is not a likely side effect in this case, as the patient does not have a history of depression or SSRI use. Weight gain is the most common side effect of long-term atypical antipsychotic use, due to the metabolic disturbances they cause.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following his fifth suicide attempt in the past two years. He was discovered by his ex-girlfriend, who ended their relationship the day before due to his intense mood swings and overwhelmingly negative emotions. He has no communication with his family and appears unkempt. When questioned, he expresses feelings of worthlessness and a belief that everyone will eventually leave him. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Emotionally unstable personality disorder (EUPD)
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for this patient is emotionally unstable personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by impulsive behavior, disturbances in self-image, and a fear of abandonment. Patients with this disorder often experience severe mood swings and intense negative emotions, including explosive anger outbursts and a chronic sense of emptiness. They tend to have intense relationships with others and may have a history of self-harm or suicide attempts.
Bipolar disorder is an incorrect diagnosis as there is no evidence of past manic episodes. Histrionic personality disorder is also incorrect as the patient does not exhibit the typical attention-seeking behavior and preoccupation with physical appearance. Major depressive disorder is also not the correct diagnosis as it does not account for the patient’s intense interpersonal relationships and fear of abandonment.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia and prescribed clozapine for the past three months. She is due for a review appointment and has had regular blood tests. What is the primary abnormality she is at risk for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Decreased leukocytes
Explanation:Monitoring of FBC is crucial in patients taking clozapine due to the potential life-threatening side effect of agranulocytosis/neutropenia. This condition is characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cell count, particularly neutrophils. Therefore, a decrease in leukocytes will be observed in the blood test results. Clozapine is commonly used in the treatment of schizophrenia that is resistant to other therapies.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
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You are discussing bipolar disorder with your consultant in a geriatric trainees teaching session as part of your psychiatry attachment.
Which of the following is the most common medical treatment in the long-term management of bipolar disorder in older adults?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Pharmacological Treatments for Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder, also known as manic depression, is a mental health condition characterized by alternating episodes of mania and depression. Lithium is the most commonly used medication for long-term management of bipolar disorder. It helps to stabilize mood and prevent relapses of both manic and depressive episodes. However, it is important to note that medication alone is not enough to manage bipolar disorder effectively. Holistic care, including therapy and lifestyle changes, is essential for patients to cope with their condition.
Carbamazepine is another medication used for mood stabilization in bipolar disorder, but it is less commonly used than lithium. Sertraline, on the other hand, is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that is primarily used to treat depression, not bipolar disorder. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, may be helpful in managing acute manic episodes, but it is not recommended for long-term use due to the risk of dependence.
Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic medication that is primarily used to treat treatment-resistant schizophrenia. It is not commonly used for bipolar disorder due to the risk of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition that can occur with clozapine use. If clozapine is used for bipolar disorder, it should only be done under close monitoring and evaluation by a multidisciplinary psychiatric team.
In summary, lithium is the most commonly used medication for long-term management of bipolar disorder, but holistic care is essential for effective management of the condition. Other medications may be used in certain situations, but they should be used with caution and under close supervision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 38-year-old female who was diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) following a car accident two years ago. Similar to Steven, Sarah has been experiencing difficulty with sleep since the accident. She frequently wakes up in the middle of the night due to nightmares and struggles to fall back asleep. This has been affecting her daily life as she no longer has the energy to keep up with her young children.
Sarah has undergone several sessions of cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), but unfortunately, she has not seen any significant improvement in her symptoms.
What would be the appropriate medication to manage Sarah's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:If CBT or EMDR therapy prove ineffective in treating PTSD, the recommended first-line drug treatments are venlafaxine or a SSRI. Tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline may also be used under the supervision of a mental health specialist, but they are not currently part of NICE guidance. Diazepam and zopiclone are only recommended for short-term management of severe symptoms or acute exacerbations of insomnia, and do not address the underlying cause of PTSD. Risperidone may be considered for patients with disabling symptoms or behaviors that have not responded to other treatments.
Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male comes in for a psychiatric check-up for his depression and reports frequently losing his train of thought, attributing it to the government stealing his ideas. What is the symptom he is displaying?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thought withdrawal
Explanation:Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by various symptoms. Schneider’s first rank symptoms are divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can involve thought insertion, thought withdrawal, or thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or actions/impulses/feelings that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.
Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that schizophrenia can manifest differently in each individual, and not all symptoms may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man comes for his scheduled psychiatry visit after being prescribed Risperidone for his recent diagnosis of schizophrenia. Although he has been stable since starting this medication, he reports experiencing milky discharge from both nipples and inquires about alternative medications that can manage his schizophrenia without causing this side effect. What would be the most suitable medication to consider as an alternative?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Aripiprazole is the most suitable medication to try for this patient as it has the least side effects among atypical antipsychotics, especially in terms of prolactin elevation. This is important as the patient’s nipple discharge is likely caused by high prolactin levels. Chlorpromazine, a typical antipsychotic, is not recommended as it has a higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Clozapine, another atypical antipsychotic, is not appropriate for this patient as it is only used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia and requires two other antipsychotics to be trialled first. Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, is also not recommended due to its higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.
Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A teenager has been referred because of bizarre behaviour at school. His teachers have reported that he alternates between very passive and very aggressive behaviours. At times, he cries and withdraws from sight when he thinks he is being slighted in some manner. At other times, he yells wildly and fights over the smallest of infractions. Upon further examination, you discover that the patient has been the victim of significant abuse at home.
Which one of the following defence mechanisms is he likely employing?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dissociation
Explanation:Understanding Ego Defense Mechanisms: Dissociation, Sublimation, Identification, Reaction Formation, and Splitting
Ego defense mechanisms are psychological strategies that individuals use to cope with stressful situations. These mechanisms can be either mature or immature, depending on their effectiveness and adaptability. Here are some examples of common ego defense mechanisms and how they manifest in individuals:
Dissociation: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person temporarily modifies their personal identity to avoid distress. For instance, a victim of abuse may develop multiple personalities to cope with the trauma.
Sublimation: This is a mature defense mechanism where a person takes an unacceptable personality trait and channels it into a respectable work that aligns with their values. For example, a person with aggressive tendencies may become a successful athlete.
Identification: This is when a person models the behavior of a more powerful figure. For instance, a victim of child abuse may become a child abuser in adulthood.
Reaction Formation: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person represses unacceptable emotions and replaces them with their exact opposite. For example, a man with homoerotic desires may champion anti-homosexual public policy.
Splitting: This is an immature defense mechanism where a person is unable to reconcile both good and bad traits in a given person and sees people as either all good or all bad.
Understanding these defense mechanisms can help individuals recognize and address maladaptive coping strategies and work towards healthier ways of dealing with stress.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with schizophrenia has been under the care of mental health services for a few years with a fluctuating pattern of illness. Her consultant, in collaboration with the patient’s Community Psychiatric Nurse (CPN), decides to initiate clozapine treatment. As a component of the prescription, she is registered into the Clozapine Monitoring Service scheme.
What is the primary rationale for her registration?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: To monitor the white cell count
Explanation:The Importance of Monitoring White Cell Count in Patients on Clozapine Therapy
Schizophrenia is commonly treated with anti-psychotic medications, including typical and atypical agents. Clozapine, an atypical anti-psychotic, is often prescribed for patients who do not respond to other medications. While effective, clozapine carries a risk of agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a lowered white blood cell count that increases the risk of infection. To mitigate this risk, patients on clozapine therapy must be enrolled in a monitoring program that includes regular blood tests to check their white cell count. This monitoring is crucial for patient safety and should be a top priority for healthcare providers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Venlafaxine is an antidepressant that is commonly prescribed for the treatment of major depression, anxiety, and panic disorder. What is the most accurate description of the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor
Explanation:The mechanism of action of venlafaxine involves inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and noradrenaline, which leads to increased levels of these neurotransmitters in the synaptic space. This is why it is effective in treating depression, as it targets the alpha 2 receptors, noradrenaline, and serotonin.
Understanding Serotonin and Noradrenaline Reuptake Inhibitors
Serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are a type of antidepressant medication that work by increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain. These neurotransmitters are responsible for regulating mood, emotions, and anxiety levels. By inhibiting the reuptake of these chemicals, SNRIs help to maintain higher levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the synaptic cleft, which can lead to improved mood and reduced anxiety.
Examples of SNRIs include venlafaxine and duloxetine, which are commonly used to treat major depressive disorders, generalised anxiety disorder, social anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and menopausal symptoms. These medications are relatively new and have been found to be effective in treating a range of mental health conditions. SNRIs are often preferred over other types of antidepressants because they have fewer side effects and are less likely to cause weight gain or sexual dysfunction.
Overall, SNRIs are an important class of medication that can help to improve the lives of people struggling with mental health conditions. By increasing the levels of serotonin and noradrenaline in the brain, these medications can help to regulate mood and reduce anxiety, leading to a better quality of life for those who take them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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