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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old man presents with abnormal liver function tests. He reports being a...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with abnormal liver function tests. He reports being a teetotaler and having no risk factors for liver disease. However, his grandfather passed away from liver cancer. Upon investigation, his serum albumin is 38 g/L (37-49), serum total bilirubin is 41 μmol/L (1-22), serum alanine aminotransferase is 105 U/L (5-35), serum alkaline phosphatase is 115 U/L (45-105), serum ferritin is 1360 μg/L (15-300), and serum iron saturation is 84%. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hereditary Haemochromatosis from Other Liver Diseases

      Raised serum ferritin levels and increased transferrin saturation, with or without abnormal liver function tests, are indicative of hereditary haemochromatosis. On the other hand, abnormal serum ferritin and iron saturation are not observed in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency. Diagnosis of the latter involves measuring serum alpha-1 antitrypsin levels and pi-typing for mutant alleles.

      In primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC), liver function abnormalities follow a cholestatic pattern, and it typically affects middle-aged females. However, serum ferritin and iron studies are normal in PBC. Primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is characterized by a disproportionate elevation (4-10 times normal) in serum alkaline phosphatase, and patients with PSC usually have a history of inflammatory bowel disease.

      Finally, Wilson’s disease is a condition that primarily affects young people, usually in their second or third decade of life. It is rare for Wilson’s disease to manifest after the age of 40. By the unique characteristics of each liver disease, healthcare professionals can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      72.1
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  • Question 2 - A 31-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. An ultrasound scan...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. An ultrasound scan reveals the presence of gallstones and an abnormal dilation of the common bile duct measuring 7 mm. The patient is currently taking morphine for pain relief. After four hours, the pain subsides, and she is discharged without any symptoms. Two weeks later, she returns for a follow-up visit and reports being symptom-free. What is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Repeat USS

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy

      Explanation:

      The patient had symptoms of biliary colic, including nausea, vomiting, and right upper quadrant pain, and an ultrasound scan revealed gallstones and a dilated common bile duct. While the patient’s pain has subsided, there is a risk of complications from gallstone disease. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography is a non-invasive diagnostic procedure that visualizes the biliary and pancreatic ducts, but it does not offer a management option. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography can diagnose and treat obstruction caused by gallstones, but it is only a symptomatic treatment and not a definitive management. Repeat ultrasound has no added value in management. The only definitive management for gallstones is cholecystectomy, or removal of the gallbladder. Doing nothing puts the patient at risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      67.4
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  • Question 3 - A 40-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with bloody bowel motions and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with bloody bowel motions and abdominal cramping for the last eight hours. He is also complaining of fatigue.
      He has a past medical history significant for Crohn’s disease, but is non-compliant with azathioprine as it gives him severe nausea. He takes no other regular medications. He has no drug allergies and does not smoke or drink alcohol.
      Physical examination reveals diffuse abdominal pain, without abdominal rigidity.
      His observations are as follows:
      Temperature 37.5 °C
      Blood pressure 105/88 mmHg
      Heart rate 105 bpm
      Respiratory rate 20 breaths/min
      Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 99% (room air)
      His blood tests results are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count (WCC) 14.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 51.2 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral steroids

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) steroids

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a worsening of their Crohn’s disease, likely due to poor medication compliance. Symptoms include bloody bowel movements, fatigue, and elevated inflammatory markers. Admission to a Medical Ward for IV hydration, electrolyte replacement, and corticosteroids is necessary as the patient is systemically unwell. Stool microscopy, culture, and sensitivity should be performed to rule out any infectious causes. Azathioprine has been prescribed but has caused side-effects and takes too long to take effect. Immediate surgery is not necessary as the patient has stable observations and a soft abdomen. Infliximab is an option for severe cases but requires screening for tuberculosis. Oral steroids may be considered for mild cases, but given the patient’s non-compliance and current presentation, they are not suitable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - You are asked to see a 78-year-old woman on the Surgical Assessment Unit...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a 78-year-old woman on the Surgical Assessment Unit who is complaining of abdominal pain.
      Which of the following is not an indication for an abdominal X-ray?

      Your Answer: Investigation of suspected gallstones

      Explanation:

      When to Use Abdominal X-Ray: Indications and Limitations

      Abdominal X-ray is a common diagnostic tool used to evaluate various conditions affecting the gastrointestinal tract. However, its usefulness is limited in certain situations, and other imaging modalities may be more appropriate. Here are some indications for performing an abdominal X-ray:

      1. Clinical suspicion of obstruction: Dilated loops of bowel may be seen on X-ray in the context of bowel obstruction.

      2. Suspected foreign body: A plain abdominal X-ray can help identify foreign bodies in the gastrointestinal tract, especially in children.

      3. Abdominal foreign body: Many foreign objects may be visualized on X-ray, but a thorough history should be obtained to determine the nature of the object and potential complications.

      4. Constipation: Depending on the clinical picture, an abdominal X-ray may reveal impaction or a cause for the patient’s constipation.

      However, an abdominal X-ray is not indicated in the investigation of suspected gallstones, as many stones are radiolucent, and other imaging modalities such as ultrasound, MRCP, and ERCP are more sensitive. Therefore, the decision to use an abdominal X-ray should be based on the specific clinical scenario and the limitations of the test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      15
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  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old man is released from the hospital after suffering from a stroke....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is released from the hospital after suffering from a stroke. He was prescribed multiple new medications during his hospitalization. He complains of experiencing diarrhea. Which of the following medications is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Pioglitazone

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Metformin is the Most Likely Medication to Cause Gastrointestinal Disturbances

      When it comes to medications that can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, there are several options to consider. However, out of all the medications listed, metformin is the most likely culprit. While all of the medications can cause issues in the digestive system, metformin is known for causing more frequent and severe symptoms. It is important to be aware of this potential side effect when taking metformin and to speak with a healthcare provider if symptoms become too severe. By the potential risks associated with metformin, patients can make informed decisions about their treatment options and take steps to manage any gastrointestinal disturbances that may occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man presents to Gastroenterology with haematemesis and is found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to Gastroenterology with haematemesis and is found to have oesophageal varices on endoscopy. He denies any history of alcohol consumption. On examination, he has a small liver with splenomegaly. His blood pressure is 130/90 mmHg and heart rate is 88 beats per minute. Laboratory investigations reveal low albumin levels, elevated bilirubin, ALT, AST, and ALP levels, and high ferritin levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Liver Diseases and Their Differentiating Factors

      Liver diseases can lead to cirrhosis and eventually portal hypertension and oesophageal varices. However, differentiating factors can help identify the specific condition.

      Haemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive condition that results in abnormal iron metabolism and deposition of iron in body tissues. Elevated ferritin levels and bronze skin coloration are common indicators.

      Primary biliary cholangitis can also lead to cirrhosis and portal hypertension, but the ALP would be raised, and the patient would more likely be a woman.

      Wilson’s disease is a genetically inherited condition that results in abnormal copper metabolism and deposition of copper in the tissues. Kayser–Fleischer rings in the eyes, psychiatric symptoms, and cognitive impairment are common indicators.

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is associated with metabolic syndrome and high-fat diets. Ferritin levels would not be expected to be raised.

      Chronic viral hepatitis caused by hepatitis B or C can result in cirrhosis and portal hypertension. A history of injection drug use is a common indicator, and ferritin levels would not be raised.

      In conclusion, identifying differentiating factors can help diagnose specific liver diseases and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      81.8
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man presents with sudden onset of upper abdominal pain and vomiting....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with sudden onset of upper abdominal pain and vomiting. His vital signs are stable upon triage.
      During the physical examination, he appears to be in significant distress and has a tense abdomen upon palpation.
      What initial test should be performed to confirm a perforation?

      Your Answer: Bedside ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Erect chest X-ray

      Explanation:

      The Importance of an Erect Chest X-Ray in Diagnosing Perforated Abdominal Viscus

      When a patient presents with acute abdominal pain, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a perforated abdominal viscus, which requires immediate surgical intervention. The first-line investigation for this condition is an erect chest X-ray, which can detect the presence of free air under the diaphragm (pneumoperitoneum). To ensure accuracy, the patient should be in a seated position for 10-15 minutes before the X-ray is taken. If the patient cannot sit up due to hypotension, a lateral decubitus abdominal film may be used instead. However, in most cases, a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis will be requested by the surgical team.

      Other diagnostic methods, such as a urine dipstick, liver function tests, and bedside ultrasound, are not effective in detecting a perforation. While plain abdominal films may show signs of perforation, they are not the preferred method of diagnosis. In cases of perforation, the presence of free abdominal air can make the opposite side of the bowel wall appear clearer, which is known as the Rigler’s signs or the double wall sign.

      In conclusion, an erect chest X-ray is a crucial diagnostic tool in identifying a perforated abdominal viscus. Early detection and intervention can prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      50.9
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  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old woman, with a body mass index of 30, presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman, with a body mass index of 30, presents to the Emergency Department with colicky right upper quadrant pain and shoulder discomfort. She has also suffered two episodes of nausea and vomiting. Her blood pressure is 110/70, pulse rate 110 and respiratory rate 20. There is pain on inspiration and an increase in pain when palpating the right upper quadrant. The patient is confirmed as having cholecystitis due to impaction of a gallstone in the gallbladder neck. A laparoscopic cholecystectomy is recommended, and the patient is consented for surgery. The dissection begins by incising peritoneum along the edge of the gallbladder on both sides to open up the cystohepatic triangle of calot.
      What are the borders of this triangle?

      Your Answer: Hepatic duct medially, liver superiorly, cystic artery inferiorly

      Correct Answer: Hepatic duct medially, cystic duct laterally, inferior edge of liver superiorly

      Explanation:

      The Triangle of Calot: An Important Landmark in Cholecystectomy

      The triangle of Calot is a crucial anatomical landmark in cholecystectomy, a surgical procedure to remove the gallbladder. It is a triangular space whose boundaries include the common hepatic duct medially, the cystic duct laterally, and the inferior edge of the liver superiorly. During the procedure, this space is dissected to identify the cystic artery and cystic duct before ligation and division. It is important to note that the gallbladder is not part of the triangle of Calot, and the cystic duct is the lateral border, not the inferior border. The hepatic duct is medial in the triangle of Calot, and the inferior edge of the liver is the upper border of the hepatocystic triangle. The bile duct is not part of the triangle of Calot. Understanding the boundaries of the triangle of Calot is essential for a successful cholecystectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      83.6
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  • Question 9 - A middle-aged woman has presented to her GP with bowel symptoms, specifically wind...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman has presented to her GP with bowel symptoms, specifically wind and bloating. After conducting several tests, the GP has diagnosed her with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
      What is an appropriate dietary recommendation to provide to this middle-aged woman?

      Your Answer: Increase fresh fruit to five portions a day

      Correct Answer: Restrict caffeinated and fizzy drinks

      Explanation:

      Managing IBS through dietary changes

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be managed through dietary changes. It is important to restrict caffeinated and fizzy drinks as they can aggravate IBS symptoms. Increasing bran intake should be avoided, while reducing oat intake can help alleviate symptoms. Fresh fruit intake should be limited to no more than three portions a day. Eating small, frequent meals and taking time over eating is recommended. It may also be helpful to increase sorbitol content, found in sugar-free drinks, but only if diarrhoea is not a symptom. By making these dietary changes, individuals with IBS can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      25.4
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  • Question 10 - A 38-year-old woman is experiencing gradual onset of epigastric pain that worsens during...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman is experiencing gradual onset of epigastric pain that worsens during and after meals. The pain began about a month ago and is moderate in intensity, without radiation to the back. Occasionally, the pain is severe enough to wake her up at night. She reports no regurgitation, dysphagia, or weight loss. Abdominal palpation reveals no tenderness, and there are no signs of lymphadenopathy. A negative stool guaiac test is noted.
      What is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Decreased serum ferritin

      Correct Answer: Elevated serum calcium

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Abnormal Lab Results in a Patient with Dyspepsia

      The patient in question is experiencing dyspepsia, likely due to peptic ulcer disease. One potential cause of this condition is primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to excess gastric acid secretion by causing hypercalcemia (elevated serum calcium). However, reduced plasma glucose, decreased serum sodium, and elevated serum potassium are not associated with dyspepsia.

      On the other hand, long-standing diabetes mellitus can cause autonomic neuropathy and gastroparesis with delayed gastric emptying, leading to dyspepsia. Decreased serum ferritin is often seen in iron deficiency anemia, which can be caused by a chronically bleeding gastric ulcer or gastric cancer. However, this patient’s symptoms do not suggest malignancy, as they began only a month ago and there is no weight loss or lymphadenopathy.

      In summary, abnormal lab results should be interpreted in the context of the patient’s symptoms and medical history to arrive at an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      80.9
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  • Question 11 - A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension and maelena despite...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with hypotension and maelena despite receiving 6 units of blood. He has a medical history of arthritis and takes methotrexate and ibuprofen. What is the next most appropriate course of action from the following options?

      Your Answer: Endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Endoscopy in Diagnosing and Treating Upper GI Bleeds

      When a patient presents with an upper GI bleed, it is important to determine the cause and provide appropriate treatment. In cases where the bleed is likely caused by a duodenal ulcer from non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug use, an OGD (oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy) is necessary for diagnosis and initial therapeutic management. Endoscopy allows for the identification of a bleeding ulcer, which can then be injected with adrenaline and clipped to prevent re-bleeding.

      Continued transfusion may help resuscitate the patient, but it will not stop the bleeding. A CT scan with embolisation could be useful, but a CT scan alone would not be sufficient. Laparotomy should only be considered if endoscopic therapy fails. Diagnostic laparoscopy is not necessary as a clinical diagnosis can be made based on the patient’s history and condition.

      In conclusion, endoscopy is crucial in diagnosing and treating upper GI bleeds, particularly in cases where a duodenal ulcer is suspected. It allows for immediate intervention to stop the bleeding and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      26.5
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  • Question 12 - A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a mass on his tongue....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a mass on his tongue. He has a history of HIV that is not well-controlled, and he does not follow his medication regimen. During the examination, the doctor observes shaggy, poorly-defined, hardened, slightly raised, and rough plaques on the side of the tongue. The plaques cannot be removed with a tongue blade. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aphthous ulcer

      Correct Answer: Oral hairy leukoplakia

      Explanation:

      Oral Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristics

      Oral lesions can present in a variety of forms and have different characteristics. In this case, a patient with a history of immunosuppression presents with a white mass on the lateral aspect of the tongue that cannot be scraped off with a tongue blade. This is most consistent with oral hairy leukoplakia, a non-premalignant Epstein-Barr virus-mediated mucocutaneous manifestation that often presents in immunosuppressed patients. Treatment involves antivirals.

      Other possible oral lesions include oral discoid lupus erythematosus, which is the oral manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus and typically presents as punched-out lesions with surrounding erythema. Aphthous ulcers are round or oval-shaped lesions with surrounding erythema that typically occur on the inside of the mouth and can be treated with topical steroids. Oral candidiasis can be scraped off with a tongue blade, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this case. Oral lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory condition that can present as white, lacy patches or erosions on the gingival margin.

      In summary, a thorough examination and consideration of the patient’s medical history are necessary to accurately diagnose and treat oral lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 5-year-old girl with confirmed coeliac disease needs a 1-month prescription for gluten-free...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl with confirmed coeliac disease needs a 1-month prescription for gluten-free staple foods.
      What would be the most suitable prescription for gluten-free staple foods?

      Your Answer: 1 kg rice + 1kg bread + 2 kg potatoes = 4 units

      Correct Answer: 1 kg bread + 750 g pasta + 1 kg oats = 10 units

      Explanation:

      Determining the Correct Gluten Prescription for a Patient

      When prescribing gluten for a patient, it is important to follow the National Prescribing Guidelines to ensure the correct amount is given. For example, a combination of 1 kg bread, 750 g pasta, and 1 kg oats would result in 10 units of gluten, which is the recommended amount for a 3-year-old patient. However, it is important to note that regional restrictions may apply, such as in England where only bread/flour mixes can be prescribed.

      Other combinations, such as 2 kg bread, 1500 g pasta, and 2 kg oats, would result in double the recommended amount of gluten for a 3-year-old patient. It is also important to consider the patient’s age range, as the recommended amount of gluten varies for different age groups.

      In summary, determining the correct gluten prescription for a patient involves following the National Prescribing Guidelines, considering regional restrictions, and taking into account the patient’s age range.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 14 - A 54-year-old man with a lengthy history of alcoholic cirrhosis reported experiencing intense...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old man with a lengthy history of alcoholic cirrhosis reported experiencing intense dysphagia and a burning sensation in his retrosternal area. While performing an oesophagoscopy, the endoscopist inserted the endoscope until it reached the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm.
      At which vertebral level is it most probable that the endoscope tip reached?

      Your Answer: T10

      Explanation:

      Vertebral Levels and Their Corresponding Anatomical Structures

      T10 vertebral level is where the oesophageal hiatus is located, allowing the oesophagus and branches of the vagus to pass through. T7 vertebral level corresponds to the inferior angle of the scapula and where the hemiazygos veins cross the midline to reach the azygos vein. The caval opening, which is traversed by the inferior vena cava, is found at T8 vertebral level. T9 is the level of the xiphoid process. Finally, the aortic hiatus, which is traversed by the descending aorta, azygos and hemiazygos veins, and the thoracic duct, is located at T12 vertebral level. Understanding these anatomical structures and their corresponding vertebral levels is important in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 15 - A 50-year-old male patient presents with dyspepsia of 4 weeks’ duration. Other than...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male patient presents with dyspepsia of 4 weeks’ duration. Other than a 15-pack year history of smoking, he has no other medical history and reports no prescribed or over-the-counter medications. Endoscopy reveals features of gastritis and a solitary gastric ulcer in the pyloric antrum. A rapid urease test turned red, revealing a positive result.
      What would be a suitable treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Helicobacter pylori Infection

      Helicobacter pylori is a Gram-negative bacillus that causes chronic gastritis and can lead to ulceration if left untreated. Diagnosis of H. pylori infection can be done through a rapid urease test, which detects the presence of the enzyme urease produced by the bacterium. Treatment for H. pylori infection involves a 7-day course of two antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor (PPI). Fluconazole, prednisolone and azathioprine, and quinine and clindamycin are not appropriate treatments for H. pylori infection. Combination drug therapy is common to reduce the risk of resistance in chronic infections. Repeat testing should be done after treatment to ensure clearance of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of diarrhoea that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of diarrhoea that has lasted for 2 weeks. She mentions passing mucous and blood rectally and reports feeling generally unwell. During the examination, the GP observes aphthous ulceration in her mouth and suspects a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis (UC). The GP decides to refer the patient to a gastroenterology consultant.
      What is the recommended first-line medication for patients with mild to moderate UC?

      Your Answer: Azathioprine

      Correct Answer: Mesalazine

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis (UC) is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the rectum and may spread to the colon. The main symptom is bloody diarrhea, and the disease follows a relapsing and remitting course. The goal of UC management is to treat acute relapses, prevent relapses, and detect cancers early.

      Mesalazine is an effective first-line treatment for mild to moderate UC, which involves enemas and oral medication. For moderately active cases, oral aminosalicylates, topical aminosalicylates, and corticosteroids are used. Azathioprine is an immunomodulator that is rarely used to induce remission but is used to keep patients in remission. Hydrocortisone is a systemic steroid used for severe cases. Infliximab is an anti-tumor necrosis factor biologic used for moderate to severe cases that are refractory to standard treatment. Methotrexate is an alternative immunomodulator for patients who cannot tolerate azathioprine. It is important to discuss adequate contraception with patients on methotrexate due to its teratogenicity.

      Understanding Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 56-year-old woman presents with abnormal liver function tests and symptoms of fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman presents with abnormal liver function tests and symptoms of fatigue and itching for the past three months. She reports drinking 5 units of alcohol per week and denies any intravenous recreational drug use. She has no significant medical history and has a body mass index of 24 kg/m2. On examination, she has hepatomegaly but no jaundice. Ultrasound of the liver is normal. Laboratory investigations reveal a serum albumin of 38 g/L, serum alanine aminotransferase of 40 U/L, serum alkaline phosphatase of 286 U/L, and serum total bilirubin of 27 μmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Primary Biliary Cirrhosis: A Breakdown of Immune Tolerance

      Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) is an autoimmune condition that affects middle-aged women. It is characterized by the breakdown of immune tolerance to mitochondrial antigens, leading to T cell-mediated destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts. This process results in ductopenia, bile duct injury, and cholestasis, which eventually lead to liver injury and fibrosis, culminating in the development of cirrhosis.

      Most patients with PBC are asymptomatic at diagnosis, but eventually develop symptoms such as itching and fatigue. Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMAs) are found in 95% of patients with PBC, making it a useful diagnostic marker.

      While primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) is a possibility, it is more common in men and is usually accompanied by evidence of strictures or dilation on abdominal ultrasound scan. PSC also has a strong association with inflammatory bowel disease colitis. Alcoholic liver disease and autoimmune hepatitis are unlikely diagnoses in this case, as there is no history of excess alcohol consumption and the transaminitis (raised ALT and/or AST) commonly seen in autoimmune hepatitis is not present.

      On the other hand, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is more likely to be seen in overweight or obese individuals with other metabolic risk factors such as diabetes mellitus and hyperlipidaemia. It is often incidentally detected through abnormal liver function tests in asymptomatic individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old man presents with upper abdominal pain and is diagnosed with Helicobacter...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with upper abdominal pain and is diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori infection. He is treated with appropriate eradication therapy and advised to follow up with his general practitioner for testing of eradication.
      What would be the most suitable method for testing eradication in this patient?

      Your Answer: CLO test

      Correct Answer: The 13C urea breath test

      Explanation:

      Methods for Detecting and Confirming Eradication of H. pylori Infection

      There are several methods available for detecting and confirming eradication of H. pylori infection. Serologic testing for antibodies to H. pylori in the blood or saliva is a cheap and simple initial detection method with high sensitivity and specificity. However, it is not useful for follow-up as patients may continue to have antibodies for several months after eradication therapy. Stool sample analysis may also be used for initial detection, but the 13C urea breath test is currently the only recommended method for confirming eradication following treatment. Histological examination of tissue biopsy samples is an invasive procedure and not recommended for eradication testing. The CLO test, which is carried out on biopsied tissue at endoscopy, can provide immediate results but is also an invasive procedure and not appropriate for confirming eradication. Overall, the 13C urea breath test is the most reliable method for confirming eradication of H. pylori infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 19 - A 31-year-old woman presents to your Surgical Clinic referred by her General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman presents to your Surgical Clinic referred by her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of heartburn and indigestion that have been worsening at night. She denies any other gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. She has a normal diet but smokes 20 cigarettes a day. On examination, you note that she is a large woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 37. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. An endoscopy is ordered, and the report is as follows:
      Endoscopy – oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD)
      The OGD was performed with xylocaine throat spray, and intubation was uncomplicated. The oesophagus appears normal. A 5-cm hiatus hernia is observed and confirmed on J-manoeuvre. The stomach and duodenum up to D2 appear to be normal. CLO test was negative. Z-line at 45 cm.
      What would be your next best step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Conservative therapy with weight loss, smoking cessation and dietary advice, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)

      GERD is a common condition that affects the digestive system. It occurs when stomach acid flows back into the esophagus, causing discomfort and other symptoms. There are several treatment options available for GERD, depending on the severity of the condition.

      Conservative Therapy

      Conservative therapy is the first line of treatment for GERD. This includes weight loss, smoking cessation, dietary advice, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. PPIs are effective at reducing acid volume and can provide relief from symptoms. Patients should be encouraged to make lifestyle changes to improve their overall health and reduce the risk of complications.

      Fundoplication

      Fundoplication may be necessary for patients with severe GERD who do not respond to conservative measures. This surgical procedure involves wrapping the upper part of the stomach around the lower esophageal sphincter to strengthen it and prevent acid reflux.

      Oesophageal Manometry Studies

      Oesophageal manometry studies may be recommended if conservative measures and fundoplication fail. This test measures the strength and coordination of the muscles in the esophagus and can help identify any underlying issues.

      24-Hour pH Studies

      24-hour pH studies may also be recommended if conservative measures and fundoplication fail. This test measures the amount of acid in the esophagus over a 24-hour period and can help determine the severity of GERD.

      Triple Therapy for Helicobacter Pylori

      Triple therapy may be necessary if the CLO test for Helicobacter pylori is positive. This treatment involves a combination of antibiotics and PPIs to eradicate the bacteria and reduce acid production.

      In conclusion, there are several treatment options available for GERD, ranging from conservative measures to surgical intervention. Patients should work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action based on their individual needs and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old man, diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC) 18 months ago, presents with...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man, diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC) 18 months ago, presents with 2-day history of progressively worsening abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He is currently passing motion 11 times per day.
      On examination, there is generalised abdominal tenderness and distension. He is pyrexial, with a temperature of 39 °C; his pulse is 124 bpm.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 90 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 15 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Erect chest X-ray Normal
      Plain abdominal X-ray 12-cm dilation of the transverse colon
      He also has a raised C-reactive protein (CRP).
      What would be the most appropriate initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) hydrocortisone, low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), IV fluids, reassess response after 72 hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Toxic Megacolon in Ulcerative Colitis: Medical and Surgical Options

      Toxic megacolon (TM) is a rare but life-threatening complication of ulcerative colitis (UC) characterized by severe colon dilation and systemic toxicity. The initial management of TM involves aggressive medical therapy with intravenous (IV) hydrocortisone, low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), and IV fluids to restore hemodynamic stability. Oral mesalazine is indicated for mild to moderate UC or for maintenance of remission. If the patient fails to respond to medical management after 72 hours, urgent surgery, usually subtotal colectomy with end ileostomy, should be considered.

      Infliximab and vedolizumab are second-line management options for severe active UC in patients who fail to respond to intensive IV steroid treatment. However, their role in the setting of TM is unclear. LMWH is required for UC patients due to their high risk of venous thromboembolism.

      Prompt recognition and management of TM is crucial to prevent mortality. A multidisciplinary approach involving gastroenterologists, surgeons, and critical care specialists is recommended for optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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