00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lady is admitted with severe pneumonia and, while on the ward, develops a warm, erythematosus, tender and oedematous left leg. A few days later, her breathing, which was improving with antibiotic treatment, suddenly deteriorated.
      Which one of the following is the best diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiogram

      Explanation:

      The Best Imaging Method for Dual Pathology: Resolving Pneumonia and Pulmonary Embolus

      Computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the best imaging method for a patient with dual pathology of resolving pneumonia and a pulmonary embolus secondary to a deep vein thrombosis. This method uses intravenous contrast to image the pulmonary vessels and can detect a filling defect within the bright pulmonary arteries, indicating a pulmonary embolism.

      A V/Q scan, which looks for a perfusion mismatch, may indicate a pulmonary embolism, but would not be appropriate in this case due to the underlying pneumonia making interpretation difficult.

      A D-dimer test should be performed, but it is non-specific and may be raised due to the pneumonia. It should be used together with the Wells criteria to consider imaging.

      A chest X-ray should be performed to ensure there is no worsening pneumonia or pneumothorax, but in this case, a pulmonary embolism is the most likely diagnosis and therefore CTPA is required.

      An arterial blood gas measurement can identify hypoxia and hypocapnia associated with an increased respiratory rate, but this is not specific to a pulmonary embolism and many pulmonary diseases can cause this arterial blood gas picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      15.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old postal worker with asthma visits his GP for his annual asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old postal worker with asthma visits his GP for his annual asthma review. He reports experiencing breathlessness during his morning postal round for the past few months. Despite a normal examination, the GP advises him to conduct peak flow monitoring. The results show a best PEFR of 650 L/min and an average of 439 L/min, with a predicted PEFR of 660 L/min. What is the most likely interpretation of these PEFR results?

      Your Answer: Occupational asthma

      Correct Answer: Suboptimal therapy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Between Respiratory Conditions: A Guide

      When assessing a patient with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider various conditions that may be causing their symptoms. One key factor to consider is the patient’s peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), which should be above 80% of their best reading. If it falls below this level, it may indicate the need for therapy titration.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is unlikely in a young patient without smoking history, and clinical examination is likely to be abnormal in this condition. On the other hand, variability in PEFR is a hallmark of asthma, and the reversibility of PEFR after administering a nebulized dose of salbutamol can help differentiate between asthma and COPD.

      Occupational asthma is often caused by exposure to irritants or allergens in the workplace. Monitoring PEFR for two weeks while working and two weeks away from work can help diagnose this condition.

      Interstitial lung disease may cause exertional breathlessness, but fine end inspiratory crackles and finger clubbing would be present on examination. Additionally, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis typically presents after the age of 50, making it unlikely in a 36-year-old patient.

      Finally, an acute exacerbation of asthma would present with a shorter duration of symptoms and abnormal clinical examination findings. By considering these factors, healthcare providers can more accurately diagnose and treat respiratory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - After reviewing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in clinic, the...

    Correct

    • After reviewing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in clinic, the respiratory consultant discusses the anatomy of the lungs with a group of undergraduate students.
      With regard to the lungs, which one of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: The lungs receive a dual blood supply

      Explanation:

      Facts about the Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a vital organ responsible for respiration. Here are some important facts about their anatomy:

      – The lungs receive a dual blood supply from the pulmonary artery and the bronchial arteries. A pulmonary embolus may only result in infarction when the circulation is already inadequate.
      – The left lung has two lobes, while the right lung has three. The horizontal fissure is present only in the right lung.
      – Each lung has ten bronchopulmonary segments, which can be selectively removed surgically if diseased.
      – The right bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left bronchus, making it more likely for foreign bodies to enter it. Aspiration pneumonia and abscess formation are common in the apical segment of the right lower lobe.

      Important Facts about the Anatomy of the Lungs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her Occupational Health Service. She works in the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her Occupational Health Service. She works in the sterile supplies group at her local hospital. Over the past few months, she has noticed increasing shortness of breath with cough and wheeze during the course of a working week, but improves when she takes a week off on holiday. On examination at the general practitioner’s surgery, after a few weeks off, her chest is clear.
      Peak flow diary:
      Monday p.m 460 l/min (85% predicted)
      Tuesday p.m 440 l/min
      Wednesday p.m 400 l/min
      Thursday p.m 370 l/min
      Friday p.m 350 l/min
      Saturday a.m 420 l/min
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment choice?

      Your Answer: Redeployment to another role if possible

      Explanation:

      Managing Occupational Asthma: Redeployment and Avoiding Suboptimal Treatment Options

      Based on the evidence from the patient’s peak flow diary, it is likely that they are suffering from occupational asthma. This could be due to a number of agents, such as glutaraldehyde used in hospital sterilisation units. The best course of action would be to redeploy the patient to another role, if possible, and monitor their peak flows at work. Starting medical management for asthma would not be the optimal choice in this case. Other causes of occupational asthma include isocyanates, metals, animal antigens, plant products, acid anhydrides, biological enzymes, and wood dusts. While salbutamol inhaler may provide temporary relief, it is not a long-term solution. Inhaled steroids like beclomethasone or fluticasone/salmeterol may help manage symptoms, but since the cause has been identified, they would not be the most appropriate course of action. A 7-day course of oral prednisolone would only provide temporary relief and is not a realistic long-term treatment option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      62.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old male presents with complaints of difficulty breathing. During the physical examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents with complaints of difficulty breathing. During the physical examination, clubbing of the fingers is observed. What medical condition is commonly associated with clubbing?

      Your Answer: Chronic obstructive airways disease (COAD)

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory and Other Causes of Clubbing of the Fingers

      Clubbing of the fingers is a condition where the tips of the fingers become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. This condition is often associated with respiratory diseases such as carcinoma of the lung, bronchiectasis, mesothelioma, empyema, and pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is not typically associated with chronic obstructive airway disease (COAD). Other causes of clubbing of the fingers include cyanotic congenital heart disease, inflammatory bowel disease, and infective endocarditis.

      In summary, clubbing of the fingers is a physical manifestation of various underlying medical conditions. It is important to identify the underlying cause of clubbing of the fingers in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      39.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is brought to Accident...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is brought to Accident and Emergency with difficulty breathing. On arrival, his saturations were 76% on air, pulse 118 bpm and blood pressure 112/72 mmHg. He was given nebulised bronchodilators and started on 6 litres of oxygen, which improved his saturations up to 96%. He is more comfortable now, but a bit confused.
      What should be the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Arterial blood gas

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Exacerbation of COPD: Considerations and Interventions

      When managing a patient with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), it is important to consider various interventions based on the patient’s clinical presentation. In this case, the patient has increased oxygen saturations, which may be contributing to confusion. It is crucial to avoid over-administration of oxygen, as it may worsen breathing function. An arterial blood gas can guide oxygen therapy and help determine the appropriate treatment, such as reducing oxygen concentration or initiating steroid therapy.

      IV aminophylline may be considered if nebulisers and steroids have not been effective, but it is not necessary in this case. Pulmonary function testing is not beneficial in immediate management. Intubation is not currently indicated, as the patient’s confusion is likely due to excessive oxygen administration.

      Antibiotics may be necessary if there is evidence of infection, but in this case, an arterial blood gas is the most important step. Overall, management of acute exacerbation of COPD requires careful consideration of the patient’s clinical presentation and appropriate interventions based on their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      78.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old call centre operator with a 6-year history of sarcoidosis presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old call centre operator with a 6-year history of sarcoidosis presents with worsening shortness of breath during his visit to Respiratory Outpatients. This is his fifth episode of this nature since his diagnosis. In the past, he has responded well to tapered doses of oral steroids. What initial test would be most useful in evaluating his current pulmonary condition before prescribing steroids?

      Your Answer: Serum angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) level

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary Function Tests with Transfer Factor in Sarcoidosis: An Overview

      Sarcoidosis is a complex inflammatory disease that can affect multiple organs, with respiratory manifestations being the most common. Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor are a useful tool in assessing the severity of sarcoidosis and monitoring response to treatment. The underlying pathological process in sarcoidosis is interstitial fibrosis, leading to a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests with reduced transfer factor. While steroids are often effective in treating sarcoidosis, monitoring transfer factor levels can help detect exacerbations and assess response to treatment. Other diagnostic tests, such as arterial blood gas, chest X-ray, serum ACE levels, and HRCT of the chest, may also be useful in certain situations but are not always necessary as an initial test. Overall, pulmonary function tests with transfer factor play a crucial role in the management of sarcoidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - As part of the investigation of breathlessness, a 68-year-old patient has spirometry performed....

    Correct

    • As part of the investigation of breathlessness, a 68-year-old patient has spirometry performed. You learn that he spent all his working life in a factory. The following results are available:
      Measured Expected
      FEV1 (L) 2.59 3.46
      FVC (L) 3.16 4.21
      Ratio (%) 82 81
      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Asbestosis

      Explanation:

      Possible Respiratory Diagnoses Based on Pulmonary Function Testing Results

      Based on the patient’s age and history of factory work, along with a restrictive defect on pulmonary function testing, asbestosis is the most likely diagnosis. Other possible respiratory diagnoses include allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), asthma, emphysema, and bronchiectasis. ABPA and asthma are associated with an obstructive picture on pulmonary function tests, while emphysema and bronchiectasis are also possible differentials based on the history but are associated with an obstructive lung defect. However, it would be unusual for an individual to have their first presentation of asthma at 72 years old. Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and additional diagnostic tests may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after aspirating a peanut...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after aspirating a peanut an hour earlier. He has a non-productive cough and shortness of breath. On arrival in the Emergency Department, he is tachypnoeic and has an oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. A chest X-ray demonstrates a complete whiteout of the right lung and the trachea is seen deviated to the right of the midline.
      Which of the following processes is most likely causing the findings seen on the chest X-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atelectasis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Acute Aspiration from Other Pulmonary Conditions

      When a patient presents with acute aspiration, it is important to differentiate it from other pulmonary conditions. The most likely process in acute aspiration is atelectasis due to bronchial obstruction. This occurs when the main stem bronchus is blocked, preventing gas from entering the affected lung and causing it to collapse. A chest X-ray will show complete whiteout of the hemithorax and ipsilateral tension on the mediastinum, leading to shifting of the trachea towards the affected lung.

      Pneumonia is less likely to develop so acutely and typically presents with productive cough and fever. Pneumothorax, on the other hand, would not cause a whiteout of the hemithorax and would instead show a line in the lung space with decreased lung markings peripherally. Pleural effusion could cause similar symptoms but would cause a contralateral mediastinal shift and is often associated with other systemic conditions. Pulmonary edema, which often occurs in the context of left heart failure, presents with cough and shortness of breath, but patients will have crackles on auscultation and are unlikely to have a mediastinal shift on chest X-ray.

      Therefore, understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating acute aspiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 47-year-old woman has been hospitalized with haemoptysis and epistaxis. On her chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman has been hospitalized with haemoptysis and epistaxis. On her chest X-ray, there are several rounded lesions with alveolar shadowing. Her serum test shows a positive result for cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Pulmonary Granulomas and Positive c-ANCA: A Case Study

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a rare autoimmune disease that often presents with granulomatous lung disease and alveolar capillaritis. Symptoms include cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and chest pain. Chest X-ray and computed tomography can show rounded lesions that may cavitate, while bronchoscopy can reveal granulomatous inflammation. In this case study, the chest radiograph appearances, epistaxis, and positive c-ANCA are more indicative of GPA than lung cancer, echinococcosis, systemic lupus erythematosus, or tuberculosis. While SLE can also cause pulmonary manifestations, cavitating lesions are not typical. Positive c-ANCA is associated with GPA, while SLE is associated with positive antinuclear antibodies, double-stranded DNA antibodies, and extractable nuclear antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What is the most effective tool for assessing a patient who is suspected...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most effective tool for assessing a patient who is suspected of having occupational asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serial measurements of ventilatory function performed before, during, and after work

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by conditions and factors present in a particular work environment. It is characterized by variable airflow limitation and/or airway hyper-responsiveness. This type of asthma accounts for about 10% of adult asthma cases. To diagnose occupational asthma, several investigations are conducted, including serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. A consistent fall in peak flow values and increased intraday variability on working days, along with improvement on days away from work, confirms the diagnosis of occupational asthma. It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of occupational asthma to prevent and manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old male patient presented to the Emergency department with sudden onset chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient presented to the Emergency department with sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath that had been ongoing for six hours. The symptoms appeared out of nowhere while he was watching TV, and lying flat made the breathlessness worse. The patient denied any recent history of infection, cough, fever, leg pain, swelling, or travel.
      Upon examination, the patient was apyrexial and showed no signs of cyanosis. Respiratory examination revealed reduced breath sounds and hyperresonance in the right lung.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary spontaneous pneumothorax

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of a Primary Spontaneous Pneumothorax

      Given the sudden onset of shortness of breath and reduced breath sounds from the right lung, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is a right-sided primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP). Primary pneumothoraces occur in patients without chronic lung disease, while secondary pneumothoraces occur in patients with existing lung disease. To rule out a pulmonary embolism, a D-dimer test should be performed. A positive D-dimer does not necessarily mean a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, but a negative result can rule it out. If the D-dimer is positive, imaging would be the next step in management.

      A 12-lead ECG should also be performed to check for any ischaemic or infarcted changes, although there is no clinical suspicion of acute coronary syndrome in this patient. Bornholm disease, a viral infection causing myalgia and severe pleuritic chest pain, is unlikely given the examination findings. An asthma attack would present similarly, but there is no history to suggest this condition in this patient.

      In summary, a primary spontaneous pneumothorax is the most likely diagnosis for this patient. A D-dimer test should be performed to rule out a pulmonary embolism, and a 12-lead ECG should be done to check for any ischaemic or infarcted changes. Bornholm disease and asthma are unlikely diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 67-year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), presented with progressive dyspnoea over the past 2 weeks. He also had a dry cough, but no fever. During examination, scattered wheeze and some expiratory high-pitched sounds were observed. The C-reactive protein (CRP) level was normal, and the Mantoux test was negative. Spirometry results showed a Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of 51%, Forced vital capacity (FVC) of 88%, and FEV1/FVC of 58%. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bronchiolitis Obliterans: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment Options

      Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO) is a condition that can occur in patients who have undergone bone marrow, heart, or lung transplants. It is characterized by an obstructive picture on spirometry, which may be accompanied by cough, cold, dyspnea, tachypnea, chest wall retraction, and cyanosis. The pulmonary defect is usually irreversible, and a CT scan may show areas of air trapping. Common infections associated with bronchiolitis include influenzae, adenovirus, Mycoplasma, and Bordetella. In adults, bronchiolitis is mainly caused by Mycoplasma, while among connective tissue disorders, BO is found in rheumatoid arthritis and, rarely, in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus. Treatment options include corticosteroids, with variable results. Lung biopsy reveals concentric inflammation and fibrosis around bronchioles. Other conditions, such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), drug-induced lung disorder, fungal infection, and pneumocystis pneumonia, have different clinical findings and require different treatment approaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 21-year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department by paramedics following...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department by paramedics following an assault. On examination, there are two puncture wounds on the posterior chest wall. The ambulance crew believe the patient was attacked with a screwdriver. He is currently extremely short of breath, haemodynamically unstable, and his oxygen saturations are falling despite high-flow oxygen. There are reduced breath sounds in the right hemithorax.
      What is the most appropriate first step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Needle decompression of right hemithorax

      Explanation:

      Management of Tension Pneumothorax in Penetrating Chest Trauma

      Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention in patients with penetrating chest trauma. The following steps should be taken:

      1. Clinical Diagnosis: Falling oxygen saturations, cardiovascular compromise, and reduced breath sounds in the affected hemithorax are suggestive of tension pneumothorax. This is a clinical diagnosis.

      2. Needle Decompression: Immediate needle decompression with a large bore cannula placed into the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line is required. This is a temporizing measure to provide time for placement of a chest drain.

      3. Urgent Chest Radiograph: A chest radiograph may be readily available, but it should not delay decompression of the tension pneumothorax. It should be delayed until placement of the chest drain.

      4. Placement of Chest Drain: This is the definitive treatment of a tension pneumothorax, but immediate needle decompression should take place first.

      5. Contact On-Call Anaesthetist: Invasive ventilation by an anaesthetist will not improve the patient’s condition.

      6. Avoid Non-Invasive Ventilation: Non-invasive ventilation would worsen the tension pneumothorax and should be avoided.

      In summary, prompt recognition and management of tension pneumothorax are crucial in patients with penetrating chest trauma. Needle decompression followed by chest drain placement is the definitive treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old retired boiler maker presents to his General Practitioner with increasing shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old retired boiler maker presents to his General Practitioner with increasing shortness of breath and non-specific dull right-sided chest ache. He has a 35-pack-year history and has recently lost a little weight. On examination, there is evidence of a large right-sided pleural effusion.
      Investigations:
      Investigation
      Result
      Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 120 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Platelets 170 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Chest X-ray: large right-sided pleural effusion.
      Pleural tap: pleural effusion contains occasional red blood cells, white blood cells and abnormal-looking cells which look of a sarcomatous type.
      Which of the following statements fits best with the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The vast majority of cases are associated with a history of asbestos exposure

      Explanation:

      Understanding Mesothelioma: Causes, Treatment, and Prognosis

      Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that has three major histological subtypes: sarcomatous, epithelial, and mixed. The vast majority of cases are associated with a history of direct exposure to asbestos, particularly in industries such as ship building, boiler manufacture, paper mill working, and insulation work. Patients often present with shortness of breath and chest pain on the affected side.

      While smoking increases the risk of malignancy, it does not directly play a role in the development of malignant pleural effusion. Treatment often includes a combination of chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and surgery, but even with these approaches, the result is not curative. Median survival is short, with a life expectancy of around two years.

      In early stages of cancer, radiation therapy combined with surgical treatment can be very effective, but in later stages, it is only effective in providing symptom relief. Radiation therapy alone will not be curative in 40% of cases. Understanding the causes, treatment options, and prognosis of mesothelioma is crucial for patients and their families.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 36-year-old woman of African origin presented to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman of African origin presented to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset dyspnoea. She was a known case of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), previously treated for nephropathy and presently on mycophenolate mofetil and hydroxychloroquine sulfate. She had no fever. On examination, her respiratory rate was 45 breaths per minute, with coarse crepitations in the right lung base. After admission, blood test results revealed:
      Investigation Value Normal range
      Haemoglobin 100g/l 115–155 g/l
      Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      PaO2on room air 85 mmHg 95–100 mmHg
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 6.6mg/l 0-10 mg/l
      C3 level 41 mg/dl 83–180 mg/dl
      Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient as the cause for her dyspnoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO)

      Explanation:

      This case discusses diffuse alveolar haemorrhage (DAH), a rare but serious complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Symptoms include sudden-onset shortness of breath, decreased haematocrit levels, and possibly coughing up blood. A chest X-ray may show diffuse infiltrates and crepitations in the lungs. It is important to rule out infections before starting treatment with methylprednisolone or cyclophosphamide. A high DLCO, indicating increased diffusion capacity across the alveoli, may be present in DAH. A pulmonary function test may not be possible due to severe dyspnoea, so diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, imaging, and bronchoscopy. Lung biopsy may show pulmonary capillaritis with neutrophilic infiltration. A high ESR is non-specific and sputum for AFB is not relevant in this acute presentation. BAL fluid in DAH is progressively haemorrhagic, and lung scan with isotopes is not typical for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A nurse in the Emergency Department presents an electrocardiogram (ECG) to you. The...

    Incorrect

    • A nurse in the Emergency Department presents an electrocardiogram (ECG) to you. The elderly patient is feeling breathless and has long-standing limited mobility. The ECG shows a sinus tachycardia with an S-wave in lead I, Q-wave in lead III and T-wave inversion in lead III.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolus

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Pulmonary Embolus Based on ECG Findings

      The ECG changes observed in this clinical presentation strongly suggest a pulmonary embolus. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot blocks one of the blood vessels in the lungs, leading to symptoms such as chest pain, breathlessness, and sudden collapse. Patients who are immobile or have undergone surgery are at a higher risk of developing this condition, which accounts for around 50% of cases that occur in hospital. To confirm the diagnosis, further tests such as a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) or ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan may be required. Although exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a possible differential diagnosis, the history of immobility, sinus tachycardia, and ECG changes make pulmonary embolism more likely. The ECG findings are not consistent with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) or non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and there is no evidence of ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are the Foundation Year 2 doctor on a general practice (GP) attachment...

    Incorrect

    • You are the Foundation Year 2 doctor on a general practice (GP) attachment when a 65-year-old man presents, complaining of malaise, cough and breathlessness. He says these symptoms have been present for 2 days, and he has brought up some yellow-coloured sputum on a few occasions. He reports no pain and no palpitations and is coping at home, although he has taken 2 days off work. He has no long-standing conditions but smokes five cigarettes a day and has done so for the last 15 years. He has no known allergies. On examination, he is alert and orientated, and has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 126/84 mmHg and a temperature of 38.1 °C. There is bronchial breathing and crepitations on auscultation, particularly on the right-hand side of the chest, and heart sounds are normal.
      What would be the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5-day course of amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia

      Community-acquired pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be effectively managed in the community with appropriate treatment and management. The severity of the infection can be assessed using the CRB-65 score, which takes into account confusion, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. A score of zero indicates low severity and suggests that oral antibiotics and community treatment should suffice. However, admission to hospital may be necessary in certain cases.

      The first-choice antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia is amoxicillin, although a macrolide may be considered in patients with penicillin allergy. Flucloxacillin may be added if there is suspicion of a staphylococcal infection or associated influenzae.

      It is important to provide safety-netting advice to patients, advising them to return if symptoms worsen or do not improve on antibiotics. Additionally, the absence of wheeze on auscultation and no history of respiratory disease suggests that a salbutamol inhaler is not necessary.

      While the CURB-65 score is commonly used, the CRB-65 score is more practical in community settings as it does not require laboratory analysis. Overall, prompt and appropriate treatment and management can effectively manage community-acquired pneumonia in the community.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You are reviewing a patient who attends the clinic with a respiratory disorder.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • You are reviewing a patient who attends the clinic with a respiratory disorder.
      Which of the following conditions would be suitable for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) for an elderly patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Conditions and Oxygen Therapy: Guidelines for Treatment

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), opiate toxicity, asthma, croup, and myasthenia gravis are respiratory conditions that may require oxygen therapy. The British Thoracic Society recommends assessing the need for home oxygen therapy in COPD patients with severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturation of 92% or below when breathing air. Opiate toxicity can cause respiratory compromise, which may require naloxone, but this needs to be considered carefully in palliative patients. Asthmatic patients who are acutely unwell and require oxygen should be admitted to hospital for assessment, treatment, and ventilation support. Croup, a childhood respiratory infection, may require hospital admission if oxygen therapy is needed. Myasthenia gravis may cause neuromuscular respiratory failure during a myasthenic crisis, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring intubation and ventilator support and not amenable to home oxygen therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in the shipyard but now has a retired life with his dogs. He was under treatment as a case of COPD, but maximal therapy for COPD failed to bring him any relief. On re-evaluation, his chest X-ray showed fine reticular opacities in the lower zones. A CT scan of his thorax showed interstitial thickening, with some ground glass opacity in the upper lungs.
      Pleural plaques were absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease (RB-ILD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Interstitial Lung Diseases: A Case Study

      The patient in question presents with dyspnoea and a history of smoking. While COPD is initially suspected, the radiograph and CT findings do not support this diagnosis. Instead, the patient may be suffering from an interstitial lung disease. RB-ILD is a possibility, given the presence of pigmented macrophages in the lung. Asbestosis is also considered, but the absence of pleural plaques makes this less likely. Pneumoconiosis and histoplasmosis are ruled out based on the patient’s history and imaging results. Treatment for interstitial lung diseases can be challenging, with steroids being the primary option. However, the effectiveness of this treatment is debatable. Ultimately, a lung biopsy may be necessary for a definitive diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old man complains of worsening shortness of breath. During examination, the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man complains of worsening shortness of breath. During examination, the left base has a stony dull percussion note. A chest x-ray reveals opacification in the lower lobe of the left lung. What is the most suitable test for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound-guided pleural fluid aspiration

      Explanation:

      Left Pleural Effusion Diagnosis

      A left pleural effusion is present in this patient, which is likely to be significant in size. To diagnose this condition, a diagnostic aspiration is necessary. The fluid obtained from the aspiration should be sent for microscopy, culture, and cytology to determine the underlying cause of the effusion. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient. Therefore, it is essential to perform a diagnostic aspiration and analyze the fluid obtained to provide the best possible care for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 65 year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), presented with progressive dyspnoea over the past 2 weeks. There was an associated dry cough, but no fever. Examination revealed scattered wheezes and some expiratory high-pitched sounds. C-reactive protein (CRP) level was normal. Mantoux test was negative. Spirometry revealed the following report:
      FEV1 51%
      FVC 88%
      FEV1/FVC 58%
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO)

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Disorders: Bronchiolitis Obliterans, ARDS, Pneumocystis Pneumonia, COPD Exacerbation, and Idiopathic Pulmonary Hypertension

      Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO) is a respiratory disorder that may occur after bone marrow, heart, or lung transplant. It presents with an obstructive pattern on spirometry, low DLCO, and hypoxia. CT scan shows air trapping, and chest X-ray may show interstitial infiltrates with hyperinflation. BO may also occur in connective tissue diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic variety called cryptogenic organising pneumonia (COP). In contrast, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) patients deteriorate quickly, and pneumocystis pneumonia usually presents with normal clinical findings. Infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is associated with a productive cough and raised CRP, while idiopathic pulmonary hypertension has a restrictive pattern and inspiratory fine crepitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 68-year-old man with lung cancer presents to the Emergency Department complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with lung cancer presents to the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. He reports no cough or sputum production. Upon auscultation, his chest is clear. His pulse is irregularly irregular and measures 110 bpm, while his oxygen saturation is 86% on room air. He is breathing at a rate of 26 breaths per minute. What diagnostic investigation is most likely to be effective in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism in Cancer Patients

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) and deep vein thrombosis (DVT) are common in cancer patients due to their hypercoagulable state. When a cancer patient presents with dyspnea, tachycardia, chest pain, and desaturation, PE should be suspected. The gold standard investigation for PE is a computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA), which has a high diagnostic yield.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) can also be helpful in diagnosing PE, as sinus tachycardia is the most common finding. However, in this case, the patient’s irregularly irregular pulse is likely due to atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate, which should be treated alongside investigation of the suspected PE.

      A D-dimer test may not be helpful in diagnosing PE in cancer patients, as it has low specificity and may be raised due to the underlying cancer. An arterial blood gas (ABG) should be carried out to help treat the patient, but the cause of hypoxia will still need to be determined.

      Bronchoscopy would not be useful in diagnosing PE and should not be performed in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old patient visits his GP complaining of a dry cough that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old patient visits his GP complaining of a dry cough that has persisted for 3 months. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the past 12 years and has no other medical history. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found, and his vital signs, including pulse rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure, temperature, and oxygen saturation, are all normal. Spirometry results reveal a forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of 3.6 litres (predicted = 3.55 litres) and a forced vital capacity of 4.8 litres (predicted 4.72 litres). What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asthma

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of a dry cough in a young patient

      A dry cough is a common symptom that can have various underlying causes. In a young patient with a ten-pack-year history of smoking and a 3-month duration of symptoms, several possibilities should be considered and ruled out based on clinical evaluation and diagnostic tests.

      One possibility is asthma, especially if the cough is the main or only symptom. In this case, spirometry may be normal, but peak flow monitoring before and after inhaled steroid therapy can help confirm the diagnosis by showing an improvement in peak flow rate and/or a reduction in variability.

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is less likely in a young patient, but spirometry can reveal obstructive patterns if present.

      Community-acquired pneumonia is unlikely given the chronicity of symptoms and the absence of typical signs such as productive cough and inspiratory crackles.

      Angina is an uncommon cause of a dry cough, and it usually presents with chest tightness on exertion rather than at night.

      Bronchiectasis can cause a productive cough and crackles on auscultation, which are not present in this case.

      Therefore, based on the available information, asthma seems to be the most likely diagnosis, but further evaluation may be needed to confirm it and exclude other possibilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old man visits the Respiratory Outpatients Department complaining of a dry cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits the Respiratory Outpatients Department complaining of a dry cough and increasing breathlessness. During the examination, the doctor observes finger clubbing, central cyanosis, and fine end-inspiratory crackles upon auscultation. The chest X-ray shows reticular shadows and peripheral honeycombing, while respiratory function tests indicate a restrictive pattern with reduced lung volumes but a normal forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1): forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio. The patient's pulmonary fibrosis is attributed to which of the following medications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bleomycin

      Explanation:

      Drug-Induced Pulmonary Fibrosis: Causes and Investigations

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition characterized by scarring of the lungs, which can be caused by various diseases and drugs. One drug that has been linked to pulmonary fibrosis is bleomycin, while other causes include pneumoconiosis, occupational lung diseases, and certain medications. To aid in diagnosis, chest X-rays, high-resolution computed tomography (CT), and lung function tests may be performed. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause. However, drugs such as aspirin, ramipril, spironolactone, and simvastatin have not been associated with pulmonary fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential risks of certain medications and to monitor for any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 65-year-old known alcoholic is brought by ambulance after being found unconscious on...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old known alcoholic is brought by ambulance after being found unconscious on the road on a Sunday afternoon. He has a superficial laceration in the right frontal region. He is admitted for observation over the weekend. The admission chest X-ray is normal. Before discharge on Tuesday morning, he is noted to be febrile and dyspnoeic. Blood tests reveal a neutrophilia and elevated C-reactive protein (CRP). A chest X-ray demonstrates consolidation in the lower zone of the right lung.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that typically affects the lower lobes of the lungs, particularly the right middle or lower lobes or left lower lobe. It is often seen in individuals who have consumed alcohol and subsequently vomited, leading to the aspiration of the contents into the lower bronchi. If an alcoholic is found unconscious with a lower zone consolidation, aspiration pneumonia should be considered when prescribing antibiotics. Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) is unlikely to occur within the first 48 hours of admission. Tuberculosis (TB) is a rare diagnosis in this case as it typically affects the upper lobes and the patient’s chest X-ray from two days earlier was normal. Staphylococcal pneumonia may be seen in alcoholics but is characterized by cavitating lesions and empyema. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is common in immunosuppressed individuals and presents with bilateral perihilar consolidations and possible lung cyst formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent dyspnoea and cough. He has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent dyspnoea and cough. He has a medical history of asthma and has been hospitalized in the past due to asthma and two recent cases of pneumonia. On examination, he has bilateral wheeze and a mild fever. His sputum is thick and sticky. Blood tests reveal an ESR of 72 mm/hr (1-10) and elevated IgE levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

      Explanation:

      Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis: Symptoms and Treatment

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count. Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count.

      Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection two weeks ago. She experienced a burning sensation in her chest during coughing. About a week ago, she coughed up a teaspoonful of yellow sputum with flecks of blood. The next morning, she had a small amount of blood-tinged sputum but has not had any subsequent haemoptysis. Her cough is resolving, and she is starting to feel better. She has no history of respiratory problems and has never smoked cigarettes. On examination, there are no abnormalities found in her chest, heart, or abdomen. Her chest x-ray is normal.

      What would be your recommendation at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observation only

      Explanation:

      Acute Bronchitis

      Acute bronchitis is a type of respiratory tract infection that causes inflammation in the bronchial tubes. This condition is usually caused by viral infections, with up to 95% of cases being attributed to viruses such as adenovirus, coronavirus, and influenzae viruses A and B. While antibiotics are often prescribed for acute bronchitis, there is little evidence to suggest that they provide significant relief or shorten the duration of the illness.

      Other viruses that can cause acute bronchitis include parainfluenza virus, respiratory syncytial virus, coxsackievirus A21, rhinovirus, and viruses that cause rubella and measles. It is important to note that in cases where there is no evidence of bronchoconstriction or bacterial infection, and the patient is not experiencing respiratory distress, observation is advised.

      Overall, the causes and symptoms of acute bronchitis can help individuals take the necessary steps to manage their condition and prevent its spread to others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An 80-year-old known alcoholic is brought by ambulance after being found unconscious on...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old known alcoholic is brought by ambulance after being found unconscious on the road on a Sunday afternoon. He has a superficial laceration in the right frontal region. He is admitted for observation over the bank holiday weekend. Admission chest X-ray is normal. Before discharge on Tuesday morning, he is noted to be febrile and dyspnoeic. Blood tests reveal neutrophilia and elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. A chest X-ray demonstrates consolidation in the right lower zone of the lung.
      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that typically affects the lower lobes of the lungs, particularly the right middle or lower lobes or left lower lobe. It occurs when someone inhales foreign material, such as vomit, into their lungs. If an alcoholic is found unconscious and has a consolidation in the lower zone of their lungs, it is highly likely that they have aspiration pneumonia. Antibiotics should be prescribed accordingly.

      Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is another condition that can cause breathlessness and consolidation on chest X-ray. However, it is unlikely to develop in a hospital setting and does not typically cause a fever. Treatment involves prednisolone and sometimes itraconazole.

      Tuberculosis (TB) is becoming more common in the UK and Europe, especially among immunosuppressed individuals like alcoholics. However, TB usually affects the upper lobes of the lungs, and the patient’s chest X-ray from two days prior makes it an unlikely diagnosis.

      Staphylococcal pneumonia can occur in alcoholics, but it is characterized by cavitating lesions and often accompanied by empyema.

      Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is also common in immunosuppressed individuals and causes bilateral perihilar consolidations, sometimes with pneumatocele formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 40-year-old Romanian smoker presents with a 3-month history of cough productive of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old Romanian smoker presents with a 3-month history of cough productive of blood-tinged sputum, fever, night sweats and weight loss. At presentation he is haemodynamically stable, has a fever of 37.7°C and appears cachectic. On examination, there are coarse crepitations in the right upper zone of lung. Chest radiograph reveals patchy, non-specific increased upper zone interstitial markings bilaterally together with a well-defined round opacity with a central lucency in the right upper zone and bilateral enlarged hila.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Subacute Presentation of Pulmonary Symptoms

      Tuberculosis is a growing concern, particularly in Eastern European countries where multi-drug resistant strains are on the rise. The initial infection can occur anywhere in the body, but often affects the lung apices and forms a scarred granuloma. Latent bacteria can cause reinfection years later, leading to post-primary TB. Diagnosis is based on identifying acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Treatment involves a 6-month regimen of antibiotics. Staphylococcal and Klebsiella pneumonia can also present with pneumonia symptoms and cavitating lesions, but patients would be expected to be very ill with signs of sepsis. Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a possibility but less likely in this case. Primary pulmonary lymphoma is rare and typically occurs in HIV positive individuals, with atypical presentation and radiographic findings. Contact screening is essential for TB.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory (4/8) 50%
Passmed