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  • Question 1 - A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is diagnosed with diffuse large B-cell lymphoma and is started on chemotherapy. Two days following his first treatment session, he presents to the A&E with nausea, vomiting, and myalgia. On examination, he appears clinically dehydrated. A diagnosis of tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is suspected. Which of the following would be consistent with the diagnosis of TLS?

      Your Answer: Low creatinine

      Correct Answer: Low corrected calcium

      Explanation:

      Out of the aforementioned markers, low corrected calcium is the only biochemistry result consistent with the diagnosis. All of the other markers are elevated in TLS.

      TLS is a potentially fatal condition occurring as a complication during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It occurs from the simultaneous breakdown (lysis) of the tumour cells and subsequent release of chemicals into the bloodstream. This leads to hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphatemia in the presence of hyponatraemia. As phosphate precipitates calcium, the serum concentration of calcium becomes low. TLS can occur in the absence of chemotherapy, but it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Awareness of the condition is critical for its prophylactic management.

      Patients at high risk of TLS should be given IV rasburicase or IV allopurinol immediately prior to and during the first few days of chemotherapy. Rasburicase is a recombinant version of urate oxidase which is an enzyme that metabolizes uric acid to allantoin. Allantoin is much more water soluble than uric acid and is therefore more easily excreted by the kidneys. Patients in lower-risk groups
      should be given oral allopurinol during cycles of chemotherapy in an attempt to avoid the condition.

      TLS is graded according to the Cairo-Bishop scoring system as:
      1. Laboratory tumour lysis syndrome
      2. Clinical tumour lysis syndrome

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      5.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old man presents with a history of sticky greenish discharge, accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents with a history of sticky greenish discharge, accompanied by redness of the eyes, and difficulty opening his eyes in the morning. What is the single most likely cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Iris

      Correct Answer: Conjunctivitis

      Explanation:

      Redness of the eyes can present in all of the conditions. However, the green sticky discharge that causes the eyelids to stick together overnight is characteristic of bacterial conjunctivitis. Bacterial conjunctivitis is an inflammatory condition of the conjunctiva in which bacteria commonly Staphylococcus Aureus invade the conjunctiva. The person experiences a foreign body feeling in the eye and mucopurulent or purulent discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      2.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 62 year old man expresses to his doctor that he believes that...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old man expresses to his doctor that he believes that his partner is being unfaithful. When asked if he has any evidence to prove that this is true, he says no. However, he appears to be distressed and believes that he is right. Which condition could this be a symptom of?

      Your Answer: de Clérambault' s syndrome

      Correct Answer: Othello's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Othello syndrome (OS) is a type of paranoid delusional jealousy, characterized by the false absolute certainty of the infidelity of a partner, leading to preoccupation with a partner’s sexual unfaithfulness based on unfounded evidence. OS has been associated with psychiatric and neurological disorders including stroke, brain trauma, brain tumours, neurodegenerative disorders, encephalitis, multiple sclerosis, normal pressure hydrocephalus, endocrine disorders, and drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 51 year-old teacher presents complaining of numerous falls. He states he has...

    Incorrect

    • A 51 year-old teacher presents complaining of numerous falls. He states he has difficulty walking up stairs, and he thinks it is because of his weak legs rather than blackouts. He is hypertensive and has suffered chronic back pain for many years. He has smoked for many years as well and has a chronic smokers cough. Upon examination, he has weakness of hip flexion and particularly knee extension. He is unable to keep his fingers flexed against force, with the right being weaker than the left. There are no sensory abnormalities and reflexes are preserved bilaterally. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Correct Answer: Inclusion body myositis

      Explanation:

      The pattern of muscle involvement seen with quadriceps and long-finger flexors is characteristic of inclusion body myositis, an inflammatory myopathy. Polymyositis is likely to cause a predominantly proximal weakness, associated with muscle pain. The signs and symptoms are not consistent with upper cord compression, as there would likely be sensory signs, reflex changes, and possible urinary symptoms. Motor neuron disease cannot be ruled out, but there are no findings of upper motor neuron or bulbar features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old man with hemochromatosis presents with a painful and swollen right knee. X-ray shows extensive chondrocalcinosis but no fracture. Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following would be present in the joint fluid aspirate?

      Your Answer: Negatively birefringent calcium carbonate crystals

      Correct Answer: Positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals

      Explanation:

      Pseudogout is a paroxysmal joint inflammation due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition (calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate). Arthrocentesis should be performed, especially in acute cases.
      Polarized light microscopy: detection of rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent CPPD crystals.
      Synovial fluid findings: 10,000-50,000 WBCs/μL with > 90% neutrophils.
      X-ray findings: cartilage calcification of the affected joint (chondrocalcinosis).
      Fibrocartilage (meniscus, annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disc) and hyaline cartilage (joint cartilage) may be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      3.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man is reviewed in the haematology clinic. He has been referred due to weight loss, lethargy, and a significantly elevated IgM level. His recent blood results show: Hb: 13.8 g/dL, Plts: 127 x 10^9/L, ESR: 45 mm/hr, IgM: 2150 mg/dL (50-330 mg/dL). Given the probable diagnosis, which one of the following complications is he most likely to develop?

      Your Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

      Correct Answer: Hyperviscosity syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely suffering from Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia in which IgM paraproteinemia is found. Hyperviscosity syndrome can occur in the patients accounting for 10–15% of the cases.

      Waldenström’s macroglobulinemia (also called lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma) is an uncommon type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma seen in older people. It is a lymphoplasmacytoid malignancy characterised by the secretion of a monoclonal IgM paraprotein. Its features include monoclonal IgM paraproteinemia; hyperviscosity syndrome leading to bilateral central retinal vein occlusion (CRVO) and hence, visual disturbances; weight loss and lethargy; hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy; and cryoglobulinemia. It is not, however, associated with bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 63 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a 6-month history...

    Correct

    • A 63 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a 6-month history of shortness of breath on exertion and a non-productive cough.   On examination there is clubbing, and crepitations heard at the lung bases. Lung function tests show a reduced vital capacity and an increased FEV1/FVC ratio.   What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a condition in which the lungs become scarred and breathing becomes increasingly difficult.
      The most common signs and symptoms of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis are shortness of breath and a persistent dry, hacking cough. Many affected individuals also experience a loss of appetite and gradual weight loss.

      The clinical findings of IPF are bibasilar reticular abnormalities, ground glass opacities, or diffuse nodular lesions on high-resolution computed tomography and abnormal pulmonary function studies that include evidence of restriction (reduced VC with an increase in FEV1/FVC ratio) and/or impaired gas exchange (increased P(A-a)O2 with rest or exercise or decreased diffusion capacity of the lung for carbon monoxide [DLCO]).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old patient presents with inflammatory bowel disease. 5-ASA would be most appropriate...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient presents with inflammatory bowel disease. 5-ASA would be most appropriate in treating which condition?

      Your Answer: Acute therapy for ulcerative colitis

      Correct Answer: Maintenance therapy for ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      5-ASA is not an acute treatment; it is for maintenance therapy for ulcerative colitis and/or Crohn’s. The most benefit is seen in patients with ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Cholecystokinin is secreted from: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cholecystokinin is secreted from:

      Your Answer: S cells in upper small intestine

      Correct Answer: I cells in upper small intestine

      Explanation:

      Cholecystokinin (CCK) was discovered in 1928 in jejunal extracts as a gallbladder contraction factor. It was later shown to be member of a peptide family, which are all ligands for the CCK1 and CCK2 receptors. CCK peptides are known to be synthetized in the small intestinal endocrine I-cells and cerebral neurons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor...

    Correct

    • A case-control study is developed to assess passive smoking as a risk factor for the development of asthma in children. The total number of patients recruited for this study is 200. 40 out of the 200 patients report at least one parent smoking in the house when they were younger. 200 more people without asthma are recruited and 20 out of them report that at least one parent smoked in the house when they were younger. What is the odds ratio of patients with asthma having been exposed to passive smoking during their childhood?

      Your Answer: 2.25

      Explanation:

      An odds ratio (OR) is a measure of association between an exposure and an outcome. The OR represents the odds that an outcome will occur given a particular exposure, compared to the odds of the outcome occurring in the absence of that exposure. Odds ratios are most commonly used in case-control studies, however they can also be used in cross-sectional and cohort study designs as well (with some modifications and/or assumptions). Where

      a = Number of exposed cases

      b = Number of exposed non-cases

      c = Number of unexposed cases

      d = Number of unexposed non-cases

      OR=(a/c) / (b/d) = ad/bc

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant...

    Incorrect

    • There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant responsible for communicable disease control. Which of the following conditions does not belong to above category?

      Your Answer: Pneumococcal meningitis

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcal pneumonia

      Explanation:

      There are number of diseases that have to be notified to relevant authorities to prevent or reduce their spread. Those conditions include Cholera, Diphtheria, Food poisoning, Infectious bloody diarrhoea, Malaria, Measles, Meningococcal septicaemia, Mumps, Plague, Rabies and Rubella.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - What percentage of values lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean in...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of values lie within 3 standard deviations of the mean in a normal distribution?

      Your Answer: 68.30%

      Correct Answer: 99.70%

      Explanation:

      Normal distribution describes the spread of many biological and clinical measurements. Usually, 68.3% lies within 1 standard deviation (SD) of the mean, 95.4% lies within 2 SD of the mean and 99.7% lies within 3 SD of the mean.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 70 yr. old male patient presented with chronic congestive heart failure. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 yr. old male patient presented with chronic congestive heart failure. Which of the following is the most important factor to consider when prescribing drugs for this patient?

      Your Answer: Angiotensin II-receptor antagonists have a better response rate than ACE inhibitors

      Correct Answer: Administration of a B-blocker reduces the time spent in hospital

      Explanation:

      It is proven that spironolactone has survival benefits and loop diuretics only give symptomatic relief. Beta blockers are however, known to improve exercise tolerance, left ventricular function and reduce symptoms. They also reduce the mortality associated with heart failure. So administration of beta blockers will reduce the time spent in hospital by improving symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following features is least recognised in long-term lithium use?

      Your Answer: Weight gain

      Correct Answer: Alopecia

      Explanation:

      All the above side-effects, with the exception of alopecia, may be seen in patients taking lithium.

      Common lithium side effects may include:
      – dizziness, drowsiness;
      – tremors in your hands;
      – trouble walking;
      – dry mouth, increased thirst or urination;
      – nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, stomach pain;
      – cold feeling or discoloration in your fingers or toes;
      – rash; or.
      – blurred vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 43 year old female presents with an array of symptoms including weakness, lethargy, dysphagia, dry mouth, gritty sensation in her eyes and increased photosensitivity. In order to confirm the suspected diagnosis, which of the following tests should be performed?

      Your Answer: Schirmer’s test

      Correct Answer: Labial gland biopsy

      Explanation:

      To confirm the diagnosis, especially in patients with negative anti-Ro or anti-La antibodies, labial gland biopsy is done. In performing a labial biopsy, the surgeon typically makes a shallow 1/2 inch wide incision on either side of the inner lip after numbing the area with a local anaesthetic. Schirmer’s test determines whether the eye produces enough tears to keep it moist. This test can be done for ocular symptoms of Sjogren syndrome but is of no diagnostic importance as it can be positive with many other diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 year old man presents with a painful right elbow and left Achilles tendon. He also gives history of dysuria, fever and conjunctivitis. Examination reveals macules and pustules on his hands. He has returned from a trip to Far East 3 weeks ago and admits to having unprotected sex. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HIV

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Reactive arthritis, (formerly known as Reiter’s syndrome), is an autoimmune condition that occurs after a bacterial infection of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract. It is categorized as a seronegative spondylarthritis because of its association with HLA-B27. Reactive arthritis primarily affects young men and usually presents with musculoskeletal or extra‑articular symptoms. The characteristic triad consists of arthritis, conjunctivitis, and urethritis. The diagnosis is based on clinical features such as patient history and physical examination; there are no specific tests for reactive arthritis. Treatment is primarily symptomatic and consists of the administration of NSAIDs, as most patients recover spontaneously. extraarticular dermatologic manifestations include skin lesions of the glans resembling psoriasis (balanitis circinata); hyperkeratinisation of the palms and soles (keratoderma blenorrhagicum), oral ulcers. Other STDs including HIV, syphilis have different presentations. Psoriatic arthritis is not commonly associated with urethritis and conjunctivitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Choose the correct statement regarding relative risk: ...

    Incorrect

    • Choose the correct statement regarding relative risk:

      Your Answer: Relative risk = 1 / odds ratio

      Correct Answer: It is the usual outcome measure of cohort studies

      Explanation:

      Relative Risk = (Probability of event in exposed group) / (Probability of event in not exposed group). The relative risk is mistaken by some, with the odds ratio and absolute risk. Relative risk is the ratio of the probability of an event occurring with an exposure versus the probability of the event occurring without the exposure. Thus to calculate the relative risk, we must know the exposure status of all individuals (either exposed or not exposed). This implies that relative risk is only appropriate for cases where the exposure status and incidence of disease can be accurately determined such as prospective cohort studies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are...

    Incorrect

    • A 11-year-old is referred to neurology due to episodes her GP feels are epileptiform. Her mother reports that she appears to just 'stop', sometimes even in mid conversation, for several seconds at random times during the day. During these episodes, she can be unresponsive to questioning and has no recollection of them. Which of these drugs is contraindicated in this condition?

      Your Answer: Lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      The patient’s history points to absence seizures. Carbamazepine has been shown to aggravate generalized seizure types, especially absence seizures, because it acts directly on the ventrobasal complex of the thalamus which is critical to the neurophysiology of absence seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 63-year-old gentleman presents with left-sided eye pain and diplopia for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old gentleman presents with left-sided eye pain and diplopia for the past 2 days. Examination of his eyes shows his pupils equal and reactive to light with no proptosis. There is however an apparent palsy of the 6th cranial nerve associated with a partial 3rd nerve palsy on the left side. Examining the remaining cranial demonstrates hyperaesthesia of the upper face on the left side. Where is the likely lesion?

      Your Answer: Medulla

      Correct Answer: Cavernous sinus

      Explanation:

      A lesion on the cavernous sinus would explain the palsy observed on the III and VI cranial nerves because the cranial nerves III, IV, V, and VI pass through the cavernous sinus. Pain in the eye is due to the nearby ophthalmic veins that feeds the cavernous sinus. Additionally, the lesions in the other structures would have presented with pupil abnormalities and less localized pain and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 72-year-old with varicose veins complains of swollen, red, itchy legs. Which is...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old with varicose veins complains of swollen, red, itchy legs. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lymphedema

      Correct Answer: Varicose eczema

      Explanation:

      Varicose eczema is a common problem, particularly in elderly patients due to stasis or blood pooling from insufficient venous return; the alternative name of varicose eczema comes from a common cause of this being varicose veins. It is often mistaken for cellulitis, but cellulitis is rarely bilateral and is painful rather than itchy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - What does Caplan's syndrome refer to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does Caplan's syndrome refer to?

      Your Answer: Coal miners pneumoconiosis

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis

      Explanation:

      Caplan’s syndrome is defined as the association between silicosis and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). It is rare and usually diagnosed in an advanced stage of RA. It generally affects patients with a prolonged exposure to silica.

      Caplan’s syndrome presents with rheumatoid lung nodules and pneumoconiosis. Originally described in coal miners with progressive massive fibrosis, it may also occur in asbestosis, silicosis and other pneumoconiosis. Chest radiology shows multiple, round, well defined nodules, usually 0.5 – 2.0 cm in diameter, which may cavitate and resemble tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows the foetus large for dates. She has an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) which was requested due to a combination of her Asian ethnicity and background of obesity. The following results are obtained: (Time (hours) : Blood glucose (mmol/l)), 0 : 9.2, 2 : 14.2. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Start insulin

      Explanation:

      Insulin remains the standard of care for the treatment of uncontrolled gestational diabetes. Tight control maintained in the first trimester and throughout pregnancy plays a vital role in decreasing poor fetal outcomes, including structural anomalies, macrosomia, hypoglycaemia of the new-born, adolescent and adult obesity, and diabetes.
      The baby is already large for dates so nutritional therapy can not be used alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old fireman presents following a recent traumatic incident where a child died...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old fireman presents following a recent traumatic incident where a child died in a house fire. He describes recurrent nightmares and flashbacks which have been present for the past 2 months. Suspecting a diagnosis of post-traumatic stress disorder what is the first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange a CT head to exclude an organic cause

      Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing therapy

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this patient is post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). The first-line treatment for this patient would be cognitive behavioural therapy or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing therapy.

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) can develop in people of any age following a traumatic event, for example, a major disaster or childhood sexual abuse. It encompasses what became known as ‘shell shock’ following the first world war. One of the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria is that symptoms have been present for more than one month.

      Clinical features:
      Re-experiencing: flashbacks, nightmares, repetitive and distressing intrusive images
      Avoidance: avoiding people, situations or circumstances resembling or associated with the event
      Hyperarousal: hypervigilance for threat, exaggerated startle response, sleep problems, irritability and difficulty concentrating
      Emotional numbing – lack of ability to experience feelings, feeling detached from other people
      Depression
      Drug or alcohol misuse
      Anger

      Management:
      Following a traumatic event single-session interventions (often referred to as debriefing) are not recommended
      Watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than 4 weeks
      Trauma-focused cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases
      Drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults.
      If drug treatment is used then paroxetine or mirtazapine are recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following congenital infections is most characteristically associated with chorioretinitis?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Toxoplasma gondii

      Explanation:

      The common congenital infections encountered are rubella, toxoplasmosis and cytomegalovirus. Cytomegalovirus is the most common congenital infection in the UK. Maternal infection is usually asymptomatic.
      Congenital toxoplasmosis is associated with fetal death and abortion, and in infants, it is associated with neurologic deficits, neurocognitive deficits, and chorioretinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 43-year-old man is reviewed in the gastroenterology clinic. He has had troublesome...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man is reviewed in the gastroenterology clinic. He has had troublesome dyspepsia for the past six months which has not settled with proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. During the review of his systems he also reports passing 6-7 watery stools per day. An OGD 3 weeks ago showed gastric erosions and ulcers. Which one of the following investigations is most likely to be diagnostic?

      Your Answer: 14C-xylose breath test

      Correct Answer: Fasting gastrin

      Explanation:

      This case describes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. It is characterized by refractory peptic ulcer disease, often multiple ulcers. This is typically caused by secretion of gastrin from a gastrinoma, a neuroendocrine tumour. The most common site of ulceration is the duodenum. A symptom of a pancreatic gastrinoma may be steatorrhea from the hypersecretion of gastrin. Serum gastrin levels > 1000 and a pH < 2 are diagnostic of pancreatic gastrinoma. None of the other answer choices are a better answer than this. CT abdomen may potentially show a tumour, but this is not diagnostic for type.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      1.2
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - In which part of the body is conjugated bilirubin metabolised to urobilinogen? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which part of the body is conjugated bilirubin metabolised to urobilinogen?

      Your Answer: Hepatic sinusoids

      Correct Answer: Large intestine

      Explanation:

      Urobiligen is produced by the action of bacteria on bilirubin in the intestine. As a reminder, unconjugated bilirubin becomes conjugated in the hepatocyte. Conjugated bilirubin goes through enterohepatic circulation. About half of the urobiligen is reabsorbed and excreted by the kidneys in the urine. The rest is converted to stercobilinogen –> stercobilin, which is excreted in stool, giving it its brown colour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 75 yr. old male with rheumatoid arthritis underwent a colectomy 2 days...

    Correct

    • A 75 yr. old male with rheumatoid arthritis underwent a colectomy 2 days ago for colon cancer. He was put on a prophylactic dose of low molecular weight heparin post operatively as well as prednisolone. Now he complains of central chest pain and his ECG revealed an acute ST elevation myocardial infarction. He was given aspirin and oxygen as the initial treatment. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: IV diamorphine + arrange percutaneous coronary intervention

      Explanation:

      There is a high risk of bleeding due to recent surgery and heparin. So thrombolysis is not an option. The most appropriate management is percutaneous coronary intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      1.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old woman noticed an episode of passing blood instead of urine in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman noticed an episode of passing blood instead of urine in the morning. She looks anaemic, but rest of the examination is normal. Her GP has arranged for a urological examination, which has come out to be normal as well. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fanconi anaemia

      Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria

      Explanation:

      The patient has paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH). The classic sign of the disease is red discolouration of the urine due to the presence of haemoglobin and hemosiderin from the breakdown of red blood cells. As the urine is more concentrated in the morning, this is when the colour is most pronounced.

      PNH is an acquired clonal disorder of haematopoietic stem cells, characterised by variable combinations of intravascular haemolysis, thrombosis, and bone marrow failure. Diagnosis is made by flow cytometric evaluation of blood, which confirms the CD55 and CD59 deficiencies and deficiency of expression of other GPI-linked proteins. This test is replacing older complement-based assays such as the Ham test and sucrose lysis test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology & Oncology
      1.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with chronic back and right hip pain which has been increasingly affecting him over the past few months. He finds it very difficult to mobilise in the mornings. Clinical examination is unremarkable, apart from a limitation of right hip flexion due to pain. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 12.1 g/dl (13.5-17.7), White cell count 8.2 x 109/l (4-11), Platelets 200 x 109/l (150-400), C reactive protein 9 nmol/l (<10), ESR 15 mm/hr (<20), Sodium 140 mmol/l (135-146), Potassium 3.9 mmol/l (3.5-5), Creatinine 92 µmol/l (79-118), Alanine aminotransferase 12 U/l (5-40), Alkaline phosphatase 724 U/l (39-117), Calcium 2.55 mmol/l (2.20-2.67). Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignant melanoma

      Correct Answer: Paget's disease

      Explanation:

      Paget disease is a localized disorder of bone remodelling that typically begins with excessive bone resorption followed by an increase in bone formation. This osteoclastic over activity followed by compensatory osteoblastic activity leads to a structurally disorganized mosaic of bone (woven bone), which is mechanically weaker, larger, less compact, more vascular, and more susceptible to fracture than normal adult lamellar bone.
      Approximately 70-90% of persons with Paget disease are asymptomatic; however, a minority of affected individuals experience various symptoms, including the following:
      – Bone pain (the most common symptom)
      – Secondary osteoarthritis (when Paget disease occurs around a joint)
      – Bony deformity (most commonly bowing of an extremity)
      – Excessive warmth (due to hypervascularity)
      – Neurologic complications (caused by the compression of neural tissues)
      Measurement of serum alkaline phosphatase—in some cases, bone-specific alkaline phosphatase (BSAP)—can be useful in the diagnosis of Paget disease. Elevated levels of urinary markers, including hydroxyproline, deoxypyridinoline, C-telopeptide, and N -telopeptide, may help identify patients with Paget disease.
      Serum calcium and phosphate levels should be within the reference range in patients with Paget disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - Which part of the renal tubule is impermeable to water: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which part of the renal tubule is impermeable to water:

      Your Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

      Correct Answer: The ascending limb of loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      The walls of the ascending limb of the loop of Henle are not permeable to water. The tubular fluid thus becomes increasingly dilute as it ascends toward the cortex, whereas the interstitial fluid around the loops of Henle in the medulla becomes increasingly more concentrated.

      The ascending limb actively reabsorbs NaCl but has an extremely low transepithelial osmotic water permeability, even in the presence of vasopressin. This combination of NaCl reabsorption without water reabsorption serves two vital functions: it provides NaCl to increase the osmolality of the medullary interstitium, tubules, vasculature, and collecting ducts; and it dilutes the luminal fluid within the thick ascending limb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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