-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent dyspnoea and cough. He has a medical history of asthma and has been hospitalized in the past due to asthma and two recent cases of pneumonia. On examination, he has bilateral wheeze and a mild fever. His sputum is thick and sticky. Blood tests reveal an ESR of 72 mm/hr (1-10) and elevated IgE levels. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
Explanation:Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis: Symptoms and Treatment
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count. Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is a condition that occurs when the body has an allergic reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus. This can result in symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, difficulty breathing, and recurrent pneumonia. Blood tests may show an increase in IgE levels and eosinophil count.
Unfortunately, it is difficult to completely eliminate the fungus, so treatment typically involves high doses of prednisolone to reduce inflammation while waiting for clinical and radiographic improvement.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
You are the Foundation Year 2 doctor on a general practice (GP) attachment when a 65-year-old man presents, complaining of malaise, cough and breathlessness. He says these symptoms have been present for 2 days, and he has brought up some yellow-coloured sputum on a few occasions. He reports no pain and no palpitations and is coping at home, although he has taken 2 days off work. He has no long-standing conditions but smokes five cigarettes a day and has done so for the last 15 years. He has no known allergies. On examination, he is alert and orientated, and has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 126/84 mmHg and a temperature of 38.1 °C. There is bronchial breathing and crepitations on auscultation, particularly on the right-hand side of the chest, and heart sounds are normal.
What would be the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: 5-day course of amoxicillin
Explanation:Treatment and Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia
Community-acquired pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be effectively managed in the community with appropriate treatment and management. The severity of the infection can be assessed using the CRB-65 score, which takes into account confusion, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. A score of zero indicates low severity and suggests that oral antibiotics and community treatment should suffice. However, admission to hospital may be necessary in certain cases.
The first-choice antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia is amoxicillin, although a macrolide may be considered in patients with penicillin allergy. Flucloxacillin may be added if there is suspicion of a staphylococcal infection or associated influenzae.
It is important to provide safety-netting advice to patients, advising them to return if symptoms worsen or do not improve on antibiotics. Additionally, the absence of wheeze on auscultation and no history of respiratory disease suggests that a salbutamol inhaler is not necessary.
While the CURB-65 score is commonly used, the CRB-65 score is more practical in community settings as it does not require laboratory analysis. Overall, prompt and appropriate treatment and management can effectively manage community-acquired pneumonia in the community.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 65-year-old man complains of worsening shortness of breath. During examination, the left base has a stony dull percussion note. A chest x-ray reveals opacification in the lower lobe of the left lung. What is the most suitable test for this patient?
Your Answer: Ultrasound-guided pleural fluid aspiration
Explanation:Left Pleural Effusion Diagnosis
A left pleural effusion is present in this patient, which is likely to be significant in size. To diagnose this condition, a diagnostic aspiration is necessary. The fluid obtained from the aspiration should be sent for microscopy, culture, and cytology to determine the underlying cause of the effusion. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient. Therefore, it is essential to perform a diagnostic aspiration and analyze the fluid obtained to provide the best possible care for the patient.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and has been brought to the Emergency Department. Upon regaining consciousness, she reports experiencing chest pain, shortness of breath, and reduced exercise capacity for the past 3 days. During auscultation, a loud pulmonary second heart sound is detected. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals right axis deviation and tall R-waves with T-wave inversion in V1-V3. The chest X-ray appears normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Multiple pulmonary emboli
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Collapse and Reduced Exercise Capacity
A patient presents with collapse and reduced exercise capacity. Upon examination, there is evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension (loud P2). The following are potential diagnoses:
1. Multiple Pulmonary Emboli: This is the most likely cause, especially given the patient’s underlying cancer that predisposes to deep vein thrombosis. A computed tomography pulmonary angiography is the investigation of choice.
2. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): While HCM could present with collapse and ECG changes, it is less common and not known to cause shortness of breath. The patient’s risk factors of malignancy, symptoms of shortness of breath, and signs of a loud pulmonary second heart sound make pulmonary embolism more likely than HCM.
3. Idiopathic Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: This condition can present with reduced exercise capacity, chest pain, and syncope, loud P2, and features of right ventricular hypertrophy. However, it is less common, and the patient has an obvious predisposing factor to thrombosis, making pulmonary emboli a more likely diagnosis.
4. Angina: Angina typically presents with exertional chest pain and breathlessness, which is not consistent with the patient’s history.
5. Ventricular Tachycardia: While ventricular tachycardia can cause collapse, it does not explain any of the other findings.
In summary, multiple pulmonary emboli are the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, but other potential diagnoses should also be considered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old known alcoholic is brought by ambulance after being found unconscious on the road on a Sunday afternoon. He has a superficial laceration in the right frontal region. He is admitted for observation over the bank holiday weekend. Admission chest X-ray is normal. Before discharge on Tuesday morning, he is noted to be febrile and dyspnoeic. Blood tests reveal neutrophilia and elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. A chest X-ray demonstrates consolidation in the right lower zone of the lung.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that typically affects the lower lobes of the lungs, particularly the right middle or lower lobes or left lower lobe. It occurs when someone inhales foreign material, such as vomit, into their lungs. If an alcoholic is found unconscious and has a consolidation in the lower zone of their lungs, it is highly likely that they have aspiration pneumonia. Antibiotics should be prescribed accordingly.
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is another condition that can cause breathlessness and consolidation on chest X-ray. However, it is unlikely to develop in a hospital setting and does not typically cause a fever. Treatment involves prednisolone and sometimes itraconazole.
Tuberculosis (TB) is becoming more common in the UK and Europe, especially among immunosuppressed individuals like alcoholics. However, TB usually affects the upper lobes of the lungs, and the patient’s chest X-ray from two days prior makes it an unlikely diagnosis.
Staphylococcal pneumonia can occur in alcoholics, but it is characterized by cavitating lesions and often accompanied by empyema.
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is also common in immunosuppressed individuals and causes bilateral perihilar consolidations, sometimes with pneumatocele formation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old farmer presents to his general practitioner (GP) with gradually progressive shortness of breath over the last year, along with an associated cough. He has no significant past medical history to note except for a previous back injury and is a non-smoker. He occasionally takes ibuprofen for back pain but is on no other medications. He has worked on farms since his twenties and acquired his own farm 10 years ago.
On examination, the patient has a temperature of 36.9oC and respiratory rate of 26. Examination of the chest reveals bilateral fine inspiratory crackles. His GP requests a chest X-ray, which shows bilateral reticulonodular shadowing.
Which one of the following is the most likely underlying cause of symptoms in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Explanation:Causes of Pulmonary Fibrosis: Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis
Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition characterized by shortness of breath and reticulonodular shadowing on chest X-ray. It can be caused by various factors, including exposure to inorganic dusts like asbestosis and beryllium, organic dusts like mouldy hay and avian protein, certain drugs, systemic diseases, and more. In this scenario, the patient’s occupation as a farmer suggests a possible diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis or hypersensitivity pneumonitis, which is caused by exposure to avian proteins or Aspergillus in mouldy hay. It is important to note that occupational lung diseases may entitle the patient to compensation. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, silicosis, crocidolite exposure, and beryllium exposure are less likely causes in this case.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
A 72-year-old retired boiler maker presents to his General Practitioner with increasing shortness of breath and non-specific dull right-sided chest ache. He has a 35-pack-year history and has recently lost a little weight. On examination, there is evidence of a large right-sided pleural effusion.
Investigations:
Investigation
Result
Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 120 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
Platelets 170 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Chest X-ray: large right-sided pleural effusion.
Pleural tap: pleural effusion contains occasional red blood cells, white blood cells and abnormal-looking cells which look of a sarcomatous type.
Which of the following statements fits best with the underlying condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The vast majority of cases are associated with a history of asbestos exposure
Explanation:Understanding Mesothelioma: Causes, Treatment, and Prognosis
Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that has three major histological subtypes: sarcomatous, epithelial, and mixed. The vast majority of cases are associated with a history of direct exposure to asbestos, particularly in industries such as ship building, boiler manufacture, paper mill working, and insulation work. Patients often present with shortness of breath and chest pain on the affected side.
While smoking increases the risk of malignancy, it does not directly play a role in the development of malignant pleural effusion. Treatment often includes a combination of chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and surgery, but even with these approaches, the result is not curative. Median survival is short, with a life expectancy of around two years.
In early stages of cancer, radiation therapy combined with surgical treatment can be very effective, but in later stages, it is only effective in providing symptom relief. Radiation therapy alone will not be curative in 40% of cases. Understanding the causes, treatment options, and prognosis of mesothelioma is crucial for patients and their families.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 36-year-old woman of African origin presented to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset dyspnoea. She was a known case of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), previously treated for nephropathy and presently on mycophenolate mofetil and hydroxychloroquine sulfate. She had no fever. On examination, her respiratory rate was 45 breaths per minute, with coarse crepitations in the right lung base. After admission, blood test results revealed:
Investigation Value Normal range
Haemoglobin 100g/l 115–155 g/l
Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
PaO2on room air 85 mmHg 95–100 mmHg
C-reactive protein (CRP) 6.6mg/l 0-10 mg/l
C3 level 41 mg/dl 83–180 mg/dl
Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient as the cause for her dyspnoea?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO)
Explanation:This case discusses diffuse alveolar haemorrhage (DAH), a rare but serious complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Symptoms include sudden-onset shortness of breath, decreased haematocrit levels, and possibly coughing up blood. A chest X-ray may show diffuse infiltrates and crepitations in the lungs. It is important to rule out infections before starting treatment with methylprednisolone or cyclophosphamide. A high DLCO, indicating increased diffusion capacity across the alveoli, may be present in DAH. A pulmonary function test may not be possible due to severe dyspnoea, so diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, imaging, and bronchoscopy. Lung biopsy may show pulmonary capillaritis with neutrophilic infiltration. A high ESR is non-specific and sputum for AFB is not relevant in this acute presentation. BAL fluid in DAH is progressively haemorrhagic, and lung scan with isotopes is not typical for this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old refuse collector arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden breathlessness. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or trauma, but does admit to smoking around ten cigarettes a day since his early teenage years. Upon examination, the doctor suspects a potential spontaneous pneumothorax and proceeds to insert a chest drain for treatment. In terms of the intercostal spaces, which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The direction of fibres of the external intercostal muscle is downwards and medial
Explanation:Anatomy of the Intercostal Muscles and Neurovascular Bundle
The intercostal muscles are essential for respiration, with the external intercostal muscles aiding forced inspiration. These muscles have fibers that pass obliquely downwards and medial from the lower border of the rib above to the smooth upper border of the rib below. The direction of these fibers can be remembered as having one’s hands in one’s pockets.
The intercostal neurovascular bundle, which includes the vein, artery, and nerve, lies in a groove on the undersurface of each rib, running in the plane between the internal and innermost intercostal muscles. The vein, artery, and nerve lie in that order, from top to bottom, under cover of the lower border of the rib.
When inserting a needle or trocar for drainage or aspiration of fluid from the pleural cavity, it is important to remember that the neurovascular bundle lies in a groove just above each rib. Therefore, the needle or trocar should be inserted just above the rib to avoid the main vessels and nerves. Remember the phrase above the rib below to ensure proper insertion.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 10
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman with known asthma presents to the Emergency Department with severe breathlessness and wheeze.
Which of the following is the most concerning finding on examination and initial investigations?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PaCO2 5.5 kPa
Explanation:Assessing the Severity of an Acute Asthma Exacerbation
When assessing the severity of an acute asthma exacerbation, several factors must be considered. A PaCO2 level of 5.5 kPa in an acutely exacerbating asthmatic is a worrying sign and is a marker of a life-threatening exacerbation. A respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute or higher is a sign of acute severe asthma, while poor respiratory effort is a sign of life-threatening asthma. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can also be used to help assess the severity of an acute exacerbation of asthma. A PEFR of 33-35% best or predicted is a sign of acute severe asthma, while a PEFR < 33% best or predicted is a sign of life-threatening asthma. A heart rate of 140 bpm or higher is a feature of acute severe asthma, while arrhythmia and/or hypotension are signs of life-threatening asthma. Inability to complete sentences in one breath is a sign of acute severe asthma, while an altered conscious level is a sign of life-threatening asthma. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of an acute asthma exacerbation and provide appropriate treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 27-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of anorexia, decreased appetite, night sweats, and weight loss over the last six months. He has been coughing up phlegm and experiencing occasional fevers for the past month. A chest X-ray reveals a sizable (4.5 cm) cavity in the upper left lobe. What diagnostic test would provide a conclusive diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sputum sample
Explanation:Diagnostic Methods for Tuberculosis
Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs. The diagnosis of TB relies on various diagnostic methods. Here are some of the commonly used diagnostic methods for TB:
Sputum Sample: The examination and culture of sputum or other respiratory tract specimens can help diagnose pulmonary TB. The growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from respiratory secretions confirms the diagnosis.
Blood Cultures: Blood cultures are rarely positive in TB. A probable diagnosis can be based on typical clinical and chest X-ray findings, together with either sputum positive for acid-fast bacilli or typical histopathological findings on biopsy material.
Computed Tomography (CT) Scanning of the Chest: CT imaging can provide clinical information and be helpful in ascertaining the likelihood of TB, but it will not provide a definitive diagnosis.
Mantoux Test: The Mantoux test is primarily used to diagnose latent TB. It may be strongly positive in active TB, but it does not give a definitive diagnosis of active TB. False-positive tests can occur with previous Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccination and infection with non-tuberculous mycobacteria. False-negative results can occur in overwhelming TB, immunocompromised, previous TB, and some viral illnesses like measles and chickenpox.
Serum Inflammatory Markers: Serum inflammatory markers are not specific enough to diagnose TB if raised.
In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic methods is often used to diagnose TB. The definitive diagnosis requires the growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from respiratory secretions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old woman has presented with recurrent respiratory distress over the last 4 years. She has also complained of wheezing at night and coughing up of tenacious sputum, which was occasionally black. Blood reports showed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 112g/dl 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 12 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophil count 6.0 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Eosinophil count 1.5 × 109/l 0–0.4 × 109/l
Lymphocyte count 4.1 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) 2800 IU/l 1–87 IU/l
Which of the following is the most likely finding on a chest computerised tomography (CT) scan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central cystic/varicose bronchiectasis in multiple lobes
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Bronchiectasis and Their Possible Underlying Causes
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the bronchial tubes in the lungs become permanently damaged and widened, leading to chronic cough, sputum production, and recurrent infections. However, bronchiectasis can have different patterns and locations, which may indicate different underlying causes or associated conditions. Here are some examples:
– Central cystic/varicose bronchiectasis in multiple lobes: This may suggest allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) or allergic bronchopulmonary mycosis (ABPM), which are allergic reactions to Aspergillus fungi. ABPA can also occur without bronchiectasis, but the presence of bronchiectasis can worsen the prognosis. Other possible differentials include sarcoidosis, Churg–Strauss syndrome, bronchocentric granulomatosis, or eosinophilic pneumonia.
– Bronchiectasis mainly in upper lobes: This may be seen in chronic asthma, but usually, it is focal and limited to one or two lobes.
– Central bronchiectasis in mainly a single lobe: This may also suggest chronic asthma.
– Lower lobe fibrosis in both lungs: This may suggest interstitial lung disease, which is a group of conditions that cause inflammation and scarring of the lung tissue.
– Diffuse bronchiectasis involving mid-lung fields: This may suggest immotile Ciliary syndrome, which is a genetic disorder that affects the function of Ciliary, the tiny hair-like structures that help move mucous out of the airways.In summary, the location and pattern of bronchiectasis can provide clues to the underlying cause or associated conditions, but further tests and evaluations are needed to confirm the diagnosis and guide the treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
A 61-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic with a history of two episodes of right-sided bronchial pneumonia in the past 2 months, which have not completely resolved. He has been a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day since he was 16 years old. On examination, he has signs consistent with COPD and right-sided consolidation on respiratory examination. His BMI is 18. Further investigations reveal a right hilar mass measuring 4 x 2 cm in size on chest X-ray, along with abnormal laboratory values including low haemoglobin, elevated WCC, and corrected calcium levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus
Explanation:Types of Bronchial Carcinomas
Bronchial carcinomas are a type of lung cancer that originates in the bronchial tubes. There are several types of bronchial carcinomas, each with their own characteristics and treatment options.
Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus is the most common type of bronchial carcinoma, accounting for 42% of cases. It typically occurs in the central part of the lung and is strongly associated with smoking. Patients with squamous cell carcinoma may also present with hypercalcemia.
Bronchial carcinoids are rare and slow-growing tumors that arise from the bronchial mucosa. They are typically benign but can become malignant in some cases.
Large cell bronchial carcinoma is a heterogeneous group of tumors that lack the organized features of other lung cancers. They tend to grow quickly and are often found in the periphery of the lung.
Small cell bronchial carcinoma is a highly aggressive type of lung cancer that grows rapidly and spreads early. It is strongly associated with smoking and is often found in the central part of the lung.
Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus is the least associated with smoking and typically presents with lesions in the lung peripheries rather than near the bronchus.
In summary, the type of bronchial carcinoma a patient has can vary greatly and can impact treatment options and prognosis. It is important for healthcare providers to accurately diagnose and classify the type of bronchial carcinoma to provide the best possible care for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old woman has had bowel surgery two days ago. She is currently on postoperative day one, and you are called to see her as she has developed sudden-onset shortness of breath. She denies any coughing but complains of chest discomfort. The surgical scar appears clean. Upon examination, the patient is afebrile; vital signs are stable other than rapid and irregular heartbeat and upon auscultation, the chest sounds are clear. The patient does not have any other significant past medical history, aside from her breast cancer for which she had a mastectomy five years ago. She has no family history of any heart disease.
What is the patient’s most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Sudden Onset Shortness of Breath postoperatively
When a patient experiences sudden onset shortness of breath postoperatively, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. One possible diagnosis is pulmonary embolism, which is supported by the patient’s chest discomfort. Anaphylaxis is another potential diagnosis, but there is no mention of an allergen exposure or other signs of a severe allergic reaction. Pneumonia is unlikely given the absence of fever and clear chest sounds. Lung fibrosis is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents gradually and is associated with restrictive respiratory diseases. Finally, cellulitis is not a probable diagnosis as there are no signs of infection and the surgical wound is clean. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s sudden onset shortness of breath.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right-sided chest pain. She reports experiencing fever and shortness of breath for the past week. Upon examination, there are reduced breath sounds on the right side, and a chest X-ray reveals a right pleural effusion without loculation. The patient consents to a thoracentesis to obtain a sample of the pleural fluid.
What is the optimal location for needle insertion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line
Explanation:Proper Placement for Thoracentesis: Avoiding Nerve and Vessel Damage
When performing a thoracentesis to sample pleural fluid, it is crucial to ensure that the needle is inserted into a pocket of fluid. This is typically done with ultrasound guidance, but in some cases, doctors must percuss the thorax to identify an area of increased density. However, it is important to remember that the intercostal neurovascular bundle runs inferior to the rib, so the needle should be inserted above the rib to avoid damaging nearby nerves and vessels. The needle is generally inserted through the patient’s back to minimize discomfort and decrease the risk of damaging the neurovascular bundle. The BTS guidelines recommend aspirating from the triangle of safety under the axilla, but it is common practice to aspirate more posteriorly. Of the options listed, only inserting the needle above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line meets all of these criteria. Other options are either too high, too low, or risk damaging nearby nerves and vessels. Proper placement is crucial for a successful and safe thoracentesis procedure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. After workup, including blood tests, an electrocardiogram (ECG) and a chest X-ray, a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected.
In which situation might a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan be preferred to a computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) to confirm a diagnosis of PE?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal impairment
Explanation:Choosing the Right Imaging Test for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism: Considerations and Limitations
When evaluating a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), choosing the appropriate imaging test can be challenging. Several factors need to be considered, including the patient’s medical history, clinical presentation, and available resources. Here are some examples of how different patient characteristics can influence the choice of imaging test:
Renal impairment: A V/Q scan may be preferred over a CTPA in patients with renal impairment, as the latter uses radiocontrast that can be nephrotoxic.
Abnormal chest X-ray: If the chest X-ray is abnormal, a V/Q scan may not be the best option, as it can be difficult to interpret. A CTPA would be more appropriate in this case.
Wells PE score of 3: The Wells score alone does not dictate the choice of imaging test. A D-dimer blood test should be obtained first, and if positive, a CTPA or V/Q scan may be necessary.
Weekend admission: Availability of imaging tests may be limited during weekends. A CTPA scan may be more feasible than a V/Q scan, as the latter requires nuclear medicine facilities that may not be available out of hours.
History of COPD: In patients with lung abnormalities such as severe COPD, a V/Q scan may be challenging to interpret. A CTPA would be a better option in this case.
In summary, choosing the right imaging test for suspected PE requires careful consideration of the patient’s characteristics and available resources. Consultation with a radiologist may be necessary in some cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no history of smoking or drug use. An ultrasound reveals cirrhosis of the liver, and he is diagnosed with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. He undergoes a liver transplant. What type of emphysema is he now at higher risk of developing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Panacinar
Explanation:Different Types of Emphysema and Their Characteristics
Emphysema is a lung condition that has various forms, each with its own distinct characteristics. The four main types of emphysema are panacinar, compensatory, interstitial, centriacinar, and paraseptal.
Panacinar emphysema affects the entire acinus, from the respiratory bronchiole to the distal alveoli. It is often associated with α-1-antitrypsin deficiency.
Compensatory emphysema occurs when the lung parenchyma is scarred, but it is usually asymptomatic.
Interstitial emphysema is not a true form of emphysema, but rather occurs when air penetrates the pulmonary interstitium. It can be caused by chest wounds or alveolar tears resulting from coughing and airway obstruction.
Centriacinar emphysema is characterized by enlargement of the central portions of the acinus, specifically the respiratory bronchiole. It is often caused by exposure to coal dust and tobacco products.
Paraseptal emphysema is associated with scarring and can lead to spontaneous pneumothorax in young patients. It is more severe when it occurs in areas adjacent to the pleura, where it can cause the development of large, cyst-like structures that can rupture into the pleural cavity.
In summary, understanding the different types of emphysema and their characteristics is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of difficulty breathing. His vital signs show a pulse rate of 105 bpm, a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, and SpO2 saturations of 80% on pulse oximetry. He has a history of COPD for the past 10 years. Upon examination, there is reduced air entry bilaterally and coarse crackles. What would be the most crucial investigation to conduct next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arterial blood gas (ABG)
Explanation:Importance of Different Investigations in Assessing Acute Respiratory Failure
When a patient presents with acute respiratory failure, it is important to conduct various investigations to determine the underlying cause and severity of the condition. Among the different investigations, arterial blood gas (ABG) is the most important as it helps assess the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as the patient’s pH level. This information can help classify respiratory failure into type I or II and identify potential causes of respiratory deterioration. In patients with a history of COPD, ABG can also determine if they are retaining carbon dioxide, which affects their target oxygen saturations.
While a chest X-ray may be considered to assess for underlying pathology, it is not the most important investigation. A D-dimer may be used to rule out pulmonary embolism, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) may be done to assess for cardiac causes of respiratory failure. However, ABG should be prioritized before these investigations.
Pulmonary function tests may be required after initial assessment of oxygen saturations to predict potential respiratory failure based on the peak expiratory flow rate. Overall, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose and manage acute respiratory failure effectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe breathlessness after being exposed to smoke during a house fire. He reports vomiting twice and experiencing a headache and dizziness.
Upon examination, the patient is found to be tachypnoeic with good air entry, and his oxygen saturations are at 100% on air. He appears drowsy, but his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15, and there are no signs of head injury on his neurological examination.
What is the initial step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-flow oxygen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Smoke Inhalation Injury
Smoke inhalation injury can lead to carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, dizziness, and vomiting. It is important to note that normal oxygen saturation may be present despite respiratory distress due to the inability of a pulse oximeter to differentiate between carboxyhaemoglobin and oxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, any conscious patient with suspected CO poisoning should be immediately treated with high-flow oxygen, which can reduce the half-life of carboxyhaemoglobin from up to four hours to 90 minutes.
Cyanide poisoning, which is comparatively rare, can also be caused by smoke inhalation. The treatment of choice for cyanide poisoning is a combination of hydroxocobalamin and sodium thiosulphate.
Hyperbaric oxygen may be beneficial for managing patients with CO poisoning, but high-flow oxygen should be provided immediately while waiting for initiation. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen include an unconscious patient, COHb > 25%, pH < 7.1, and evidence of end-organ damage due to CO poisoning. Bronchodilators such as nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium may be useful as supportive care in cases of inhalation injury where signs of bronchospasm occur. However, in this case, compatible signs such as wheeze and reduced air entry are not present. Metoclopramide may provide symptomatic relief of nausea, but it does not replace the need for immediate high-flow oxygen. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize the administration of high-flow oxygen in patients with suspected smoke inhalation injury. Managing Smoke Inhalation Injury: Treatment Options and Priorities
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 65 year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), presented with progressive dyspnoea over the past 2 weeks. There was an associated dry cough, but no fever. Examination revealed scattered wheezes and some expiratory high-pitched sounds. C-reactive protein (CRP) level was normal. Mantoux test was negative. Spirometry revealed the following report:
FEV1 51%
FVC 88%
FEV1/FVC 58%
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO)
Explanation:Respiratory Disorders: Bronchiolitis Obliterans, ARDS, Pneumocystis Pneumonia, COPD Exacerbation, and Idiopathic Pulmonary Hypertension
Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO) is a respiratory disorder that may occur after bone marrow, heart, or lung transplant. It presents with an obstructive pattern on spirometry, low DLCO, and hypoxia. CT scan shows air trapping, and chest X-ray may show interstitial infiltrates with hyperinflation. BO may also occur in connective tissue diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic variety called cryptogenic organising pneumonia (COP). In contrast, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) patients deteriorate quickly, and pneumocystis pneumonia usually presents with normal clinical findings. Infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is associated with a productive cough and raised CRP, while idiopathic pulmonary hypertension has a restrictive pattern and inspiratory fine crepitations.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman with asthma presented with rapidly developing asthma and wheezing. She was admitted, and during her treatment, she coughed out tubular gelatinous materials. A chest X-ray showed collapse of the lingular lobe.
What is this clinical spectrum better known as?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plastic bronchitis
Explanation:Respiratory Conditions: Plastic Bronchitis, Loeffler Syndrome, Lofgren Syndrome, Cardiac Asthma, and Croup
Plastic Bronchitis: Gelatinous or rigid casts form in the airways, leading to coughing. It is associated with asthma, bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis, and respiratory infections. Treatment involves bronchial washing, sputum induction, and preventing infections. Bronchoscopy may be necessary for therapeutic removal of the casts.
Loeffler Syndrome: Accumulation of eosinophils in the lungs due to parasitic larvae passage. Charcot-Leyden crystals may be present in the sputum.
Lofgren Syndrome: Acute presentation of sarcoidosis with hilar lymphadenopathy and erythema nodosum. Usually self-resolving.
Cardiac Asthma: Old term for acute pulmonary edema, causing peribronchial fluid collection and wheezing. Pink frothy sputum is produced.
Croup: Acute pharyngeal infection in children aged 6 months to 3 years, presenting with stridor.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 62-year-old teacher visits her GP as she has noticed that she is becoming increasingly breathless whilst walking. She has always enjoyed walking and usually walks 5 times a week. Over the past year she has noted that she can no longer manage the same distance that she has been accustomed to without getting breathless and needing to stop. She wonders if this is a normal part of ageing or if there could be an underlying medical problem.
Which of the following are consistent with normal ageing with respect to the respiratory system?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduction of forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) by 20–30%
Explanation:Age-Related Changes in Respiratory Function and Abnormalities to Watch For
As we age, our respiratory system undergoes natural changes that can affect our lung function. By the age of 80, it is normal to experience a reduction in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC) by about 25-30%. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) also decreases by approximately 30% in both men and women. However, if these changes are accompanied by abnormal readings such as PaO2 levels below 8.0 kPa, PaCO2 levels above 6.5 kPa, or O2 saturation levels below 91% on air, it may indicate hypoxemia or hypercapnia, which are not consistent with normal aging. It is important to monitor these readings and seek medical attention if abnormalities are detected.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of breathlessness, dry cough and occasional wheezing.
What investigation finding would indicate a diagnosis of asthma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb)
Explanation:Diagnostic Criteria for Asthma: Key Indicators to Consider
Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and increased mucous production, leading to symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Diagnosing asthma can be challenging, as its symptoms can mimic those of other respiratory conditions. However, several key indicators can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis.
Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb): An FeNO level > 40 ppb is indicative of asthma.
Forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1/FVC ratio) ≥ 75%: An obstructive FEV1/FVC ratio < 70% would support a diagnosis of asthma in this patient. A 10% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 12% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. A 150 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 200 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. Greater than 15% variability in peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) on monitoring: Greater than 20% variability in PEFR on monitoring supports a diagnosis of asthma. In conclusion, healthcare professionals should consider these key indicators when diagnosing asthma. However, it is important to note that asthma is not the only cause of these indicators, and a comprehensive evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary to make an accurate diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 63-year-old male smoker arrived in the Emergency Department by ambulance. He had become increasingly breathless at home, and despite receiving high-flow oxygen in the ambulance he is no better. He has a flapping tremor of his hands, a bounding pulse and palmar erythema.
What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypercapnia
Explanation:Understanding Hypercapnia: A Possible Cause of Breathlessness and Flapping Tremor in COPD Patients
Hypercapnia is a condition that can occur in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and respiratory failure. It is caused by the retention of carbon dioxide (CO2) due to a relative loss of surface area for gas exchange within the lungs. This can lead to bronchospasm and inflammation, which can further exacerbate the problem. In some cases, patients with chronic hypoxia and hypercapnia may become dependent on hypoxia to drive respiration. If high concentrations of oxygen are given, this drive may be reduced or lost completely, leading to hypoventilation, reduced minute ventilation, accumulation of CO2, and subsequent respiratory acidosis (type 2 respiratory failure).
External signs of hypercapnia include reduced Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, flapping tremor (asterixis), palmar erythema, and bounding pulses (due to CO2-induced vasodilation). While other conditions such as hepatic encephalopathy, Parkinson’s disease, delirium tremens, and hyperthyroidism can also cause tremors and other symptoms, they do not typically cause breathlessness or the specific type of tremor seen in hypercapnia.
It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize the signs and symptoms of hypercapnia in COPD patients, as prompt intervention can help prevent further complications and improve outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old woman presents with right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is performed and the pleural fluid analysis reveals the following results:
Pleural fluid Pleural fluid analysis Serum Normal value
Protein 2.5 g/dl 7.3 g/dl 6-7.8 g/dl
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 145 IU/l 350 IU/l 100-250 IU/l
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heart failure
Explanation:Causes of Transudative and Exudative Pleural Effusions
Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which can be classified as transudative or exudative based on Light’s criteria. The most common cause of transudative pleural effusion is congestive heart failure, which can also cause bilateral or unilateral effusions. Other causes of transudative effusions include cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome. Exudative pleural effusions are typically caused by pneumonia, malignancy, or pleural infections. Nephrotic syndrome can also cause transudative effusions, while breast cancer and viral pleuritis are associated with exudative effusions. Proper identification of the underlying cause is crucial for appropriate management of pleural effusions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man with a history of cystic fibrosis is experiencing deteriorating respiratory symptoms and is subsequently diagnosed with aspergillus infection. What is a common pulmonary manifestation of Aspergillus infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergic asthma
Explanation:Pulmonary Manifestations of Aspergillosis
Aspergillosis is a fungal infection caused by Aspergillus. It can affect various organs in the body, including the lungs. The pulmonary manifestations of aspergillosis include allergic reactions, bronchocentric granulomatosis, necrotising aspergillosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, aspergilloma, and bronchial stump infection.
Allergic reactions can manifest as allergic asthma or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA). Patients may experience recurrent wheezing, fever, and transient opacities on chest X-ray. In later stages, bronchiectasis may develop.
Bronchocentric granulomatosis is characterised by granuloma of bronchial mucosa with eosinophilic infiltrates. Chest X-ray shows a focal upper lobe lesion, and there may be haemoptysis.
Necrotising aspergillosis is usually found in immunocompromised patients. Chest X-ray shows spreading infiltrates, and there is invasion of blood vessels.
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis, also known as hypersensitivity pneumonitis, may occur in certain professions like malt workers. Four to 8 hours after exposure, there is an allergic reaction characterised by fever, chill, malaise, and dyspnoea. Serum IgE concentrations are normal.
Aspergilloma is saprophytic colonisation in pre-existing cavities. Haemoptysis is the most frequent symptom. Chest X-ray shows Monod’s sign, and gravitational change of position of the mass can be demonstrated.
Bronchial stump infection is usually found in post-surgery cases when silk suture is used. If nylon suture is used, this problem is eliminated. This can also occur in lung transplants at the site of anastomosis of bronchi.
Understanding the Pulmonary Manifestations of Aspergillosis
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old lady with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the Respiratory Ward with shortness of breath, cough and wheeze. On examination, she appears unwell and short of breath, and there is an audible wheeze. Her respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, pulse rate 92 bpm and oxygen saturations 90% on room air. She reports that she is able to leave the house but that she has to stop for breath after walking approximately 100 m. What grade on the MODIFIED MRC dyspnoea scale would this patient be recorded as having?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:Managing COPD: Non-Pharmacological, Pharmacological, and Surgical Approaches
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive condition that affects the airways and is often caused by smoking. Symptoms include coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. While there is no cure for COPD, there are various management strategies that can help improve symptoms and quality of life.
Non-pharmacological approaches include quitting smoking, losing weight if necessary, and participating in physiotherapy and pulmonary rehabilitation to improve lung function and exercise capacity. Pharmacological treatment includes the use of bronchodilators and inhaled corticosteroids, as well as oral prednisolone and antibiotics during exacerbations. Diuretics may also be necessary for patients with cor pulmonale and edema. Long-term oxygen therapy can help manage persistent hypoxia.
Surgical options for COPD include heart and lung transplantation. The modified MRC dyspnoea scale can be used to assess the degree of breathlessness and guide treatment decisions. The BODE index, which includes the mMRC dyspnoea scale, is a composite marker of disease severity that takes into account the systemic nature of COPD.
Overall, managing COPD requires a comprehensive approach that addresses both the physical and systemic aspects of the disease. With proper management, patients can improve their symptoms and quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
You are on call in the Emergency Department when an ambulance brings in an elderly man who was found unconscious in his home, clutching an empty bottle of whiskey. On physical examination, he is febrile with a heart rate of 110 bpm, blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg and pulse oximetry of 89% on room air. You hear crackles in the right lower lung base and note dullness to percussion in those areas. His breath is intensely malodorous, and there appears to be dried vomit in his beard.
What is the most likely organism causing his pneumonia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mixed anaerobes
Explanation:Types of Bacteria that Cause Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that can be caused by various types of bacteria. One common cause is the ingestion of large quantities of alcohol, which can lead to vomiting and aspiration of gastric contents. This can result in pneumonia caused by Gram-negative anaerobes from the oral flora or gastric contents, which produce foul-smelling short-chain fatty acids.
Other types of bacteria that can cause pneumonia include Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common cause of severe bacterial pneumonia requiring hospitalization. It is a Gram-positive, catalase-negative coccus. Staphylococcus aureus is a less common cause of pneumonia, often seen after influenzae infection. It is a Gram-positive, coagulase-positive coccus.
Legionella pneumophila causes Legionnaires’ disease, a severe pneumonia that typically affects older people and is contracted through contaminated air conditioning ducts or showers. The best stain for this organism is a silver stain. Chlamydia pneumoniae causes an ‘atypical’ pneumonia with bilateral diffuse infiltrates, and the chest radiograph often looks worse than is indicated by the patient’s presentation. C. pneumoniae is an obligate intracellular organism.
In summary, understanding the different types of bacteria that can cause pneumonia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 60-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath, nocturnal cough and wheezing for the past week. He reports that these symptoms began after he was accidentally exposed to a significant amount of hydrochloric acid fumes while working in a chemical laboratory. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or any other relevant medical history. He is a non-smoker.
What initial investigation may be the most useful in confirming the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methacholine challenge test
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Reactive Airways Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS)
Reactive Airways Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS) is a condition that presents with asthma-like symptoms after exposure to irritant gases, vapours or fumes. To diagnose RADS, several tests may be performed to exclude other pulmonary diagnoses and confirm the presence of the condition.
One of the diagnostic criteria for RADS is the absence of pre-existing respiratory conditions. Additionally, the onset of asthma symptoms should occur after a single exposure to irritants in high concentration, with symptoms appearing within 24 hours of exposure. A positive methacholine challenge test (< 8 mg/ml) following exposure and possible airflow obstruction on pulmonary function tests can also confirm the diagnosis. While a chest X-ray and full blood count may be requested to exclude other causes of symptoms, they are usually unhelpful in confirming the diagnosis of RADS. Peak flow is also not useful in diagnosis, as there is no pre-existing reading to compare values. The skin prick test may be useful in assessing reactions to common environmental allergens, but it is not helpful in diagnosing RADS as it occurs after one-off exposures. In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic tests can help confirm the diagnosis of RADS and exclude other pulmonary conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old man who is a long-term cigarette smoker presents with nocturnal dry cough of 4 weeks’ duration. He has recently gone through a stressful life situation due to divorce and bankruptcy. He mentions a history of atopic diseases in his family. His symptom improves with omeprazole, one tablet daily taken in the morning.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Nocturnal Cough: Gastro-oesophageal Reflux Disease as the Likely Cause
Nocturnal cough can have various causes, including asthma, sinusitis with post-nasal drip, congestive heart failure, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GERD). In this case, the patient’s cough improved after taking omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, which suggests GERD as the likely cause of his symptoms. The mechanism of cough in GERD is related to a vagal reflex triggered by oesophageal irritation, which is exacerbated by stress and lying flat. Peptic ulcer disease, asthma, psychogenic cough, and chronic bronchitis are less likely causes based on the absence of relevant symptoms or response to treatment. Therefore, GERD should be considered in the differential diagnosis of nocturnal cough, especially in patients with risk factors such as smoking and obesity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)