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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is diagnosed with right-sided pleural effusion. The aspirated sample reveals a protein level of 15g/l. What could be the potential reason for the pleural effusion?
Your Answer: Right-sided mesothelioma
Correct Answer: Renal failure
Explanation:Differentiating between transudate and exudate effusions in various medical conditions
Effusions can occur in various medical conditions, and it is important to differentiate between transudate and exudate effusions to determine the underlying cause. A transudate effusion is caused by increased capillary hydrostatic pressure or decreased oncotic pressure, while an exudate effusion is caused by increased capillary permeability.
In the case of renal failure, the patient has a transudative effusion as the effusion protein is less than 25 g/l. Inflammation from SLE would cause an exudate effusion, while pancreatitis and right-sided mesothelioma would also cause exudative effusions. Right-sided pneumonia would result in an exudate effusion as well.
Therefore, understanding the type of effusion can provide valuable information in diagnosing and treating various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Correct
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A 60-year-old man comes to you with complaints of increasing shortness of breath on exertion over the past year. During the examination, you observe early finger clubbing and bibasal fine crackles on auscultation. You suspect that he may have pulmonary fibrosis.
What is the imaging modality considered the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary fibrosis?Your Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest
Explanation:Imaging Modalities for Pulmonary Fibrosis and Pulmonary Embolus
When it comes to diagnosing pulmonary fibrosis and pulmonary embolus, there are several imaging modalities available. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest is considered the gold standard for suspected pulmonary fibrosis as it provides detailed images of the lung parenchyma. On the other hand, computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the gold standard for suspected pulmonary embolus. A chest X-ray may be useful initially for investigating patients with suspected pulmonary fibrosis, but HRCT provides more detail. Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) chest scan is used for certain patients with suspected pulmonary embolus, but not for pulmonary fibrosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) chest is not commonly used for either condition, as HRCT remains the preferred imaging modality for pulmonary fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of productive cough with green sputum and a one day history of palpitations. She also had some rigors and fever. On examination:
Result Normal
Respiratory rate (RR) 26 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
Sats 96% on air 94–98%
Blood pressure (BP) 92/48 mmHg <120/80 mmHg
Heart rate (HR) 130 bpm 60–100 beats/min
Some bronchial breathing at left lung base, heart sounds normal however with an irregularly irregular pulse. electrocardiogram (ECG) showed fast atrial fibrillation (AF). She was previously fit and well.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Correct Answer: Intravenous fluids
Explanation:Treatment for AF in a Patient with Sepsis
In a patient with sepsis secondary to pneumonia, the new onset of AF is likely due to the sepsis. Therefore, the priority is to urgently treat the sepsis with intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. If the AF persists after the sepsis is treated, other options for AF treatment can be considered. Bisoprolol and digoxin are not the first-line treatments for AF in this case. Oral antibiotics are not recommended for septic patients. Flecainide may be considered if the AF persists after the sepsis is treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Correct
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Emily is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by concerned parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. On examination, Emily has a short, thick neck and mildly enlarged tonsils but no other abnormalities.
What is the next best step in management?Your Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study
Explanation:Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before booking for an operation, as adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA.
The clinical presentation of childhood OSA is non-specific but typically includes symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity, and behavioural problems. However, parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is very normal in children his age and that his behaviour pattern will improve as he matures.
Before any intervention is undertaken, the patient should be first worked up for OSA with a polysomnographic study. While dental splints may have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment.
In conclusion, childhood OSA requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice, but a polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken. Parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is normal in children his age, and other treatment options such as dental splints and intranasal budesonide should be considered only after a thorough evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Correct
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A 40-year-old Afro-Caribbean man comes to the clinic complaining of fever, dry cough and joint pains. Upon examination, his chest is clear. He has several tender, warm, erythematous nodules on both shins. A chest X-ray reveals prominent hila bilaterally. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:The patient is displaying symptoms that are typical of acute sarcoidosis, including erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and arthralgia. The patient’s ethnic background, being Afro-Caribbean, is also a factor as sarcoidosis is more prevalent in this population. It is important to take a thorough medical history as sarcoidosis can mimic other diseases. Mycoplasma pneumonia presents with flu-like symptoms followed by a dry cough and reticulonodular shadowing on chest X-ray. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia causes breathlessness, fever, and perihilar shadowing on chest X-ray and is associated with severe immunodeficiency. Pulmonary TB causes cough, fever, weight loss, and erythema nodosum, with typical chest X-ray findings including apical shadowing or cavity, or multiple nodules. Pulmonary fibrosis presents with shortness of breath, a non-productive cough, and bilateral inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. However, the X-ray findings in this patient are not consistent with pulmonary fibrosis as reticulonodular shadowing would be expected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman has had bowel surgery two days ago. She is currently on postoperative day one, and you are called to see her as she has developed sudden-onset shortness of breath. She denies any coughing but complains of chest discomfort. The surgical scar appears clean. Upon examination, the patient is afebrile; vital signs are stable other than rapid and irregular heartbeat and upon auscultation, the chest sounds are clear. The patient does not have any other significant past medical history, aside from her breast cancer for which she had a mastectomy five years ago. She has no family history of any heart disease.
What is the patient’s most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Sudden Onset Shortness of Breath postoperatively
When a patient experiences sudden onset shortness of breath postoperatively, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. One possible diagnosis is pulmonary embolism, which is supported by the patient’s chest discomfort. Anaphylaxis is another potential diagnosis, but there is no mention of an allergen exposure or other signs of a severe allergic reaction. Pneumonia is unlikely given the absence of fever and clear chest sounds. Lung fibrosis is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents gradually and is associated with restrictive respiratory diseases. Finally, cellulitis is not a probable diagnosis as there are no signs of infection and the surgical wound is clean. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s sudden onset shortness of breath.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male patient complains of worsening breathlessness and weight loss over the past two months. During examination, scattered wheezing, coughing, and fever are observed. A chest x-ray reveals pneumonic shadowing, and there are several tender subcutaneous nodules and a purpuric rash. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Correct Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome
Explanation:Churg-Strauss Syndrome: A Granulomatous Vasculitis
Churg-Strauss syndrome is a type of granulomatous vasculitis that is more commonly seen in males. The classic presentation of this syndrome includes asthma, rhinitis, and eosinophilia vasculitis. The condition is characterized by pulmonary eosinophilic infiltration, with the lungs, peripheral veins, and skin being the most commonly affected areas. Chest x-rays typically show transient patchy pneumonic shadows, while the skin may exhibit tender subcutaneous nodules and purpuric lesions. In addition, perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA) is usually positive.
While sarcoidosis may present with similar symptoms, wheezing is not typically seen, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is the typical x-ray feature. On the other hand, granulomatosis with polyangiitis may also be a possibility, but ENT symptoms are expected, and wheezing is not typical. Overall, Churg-Strauss syndrome should be considered in patients presenting with asthma, rhinitis, and eosinophilia vasculitis, along with the characteristic pulmonary and skin manifestations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Correct
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A 65-year-old known alcoholic is brought by ambulance after being found unconscious on the road on a Sunday afternoon. He has a superficial laceration in the right frontal region. He is admitted for observation over the weekend. The admission chest X-ray is normal. Before discharge on Tuesday morning, he is noted to be febrile and dyspnoeic. Blood tests reveal a neutrophilia and elevated C-reactive protein (CRP). A chest X-ray demonstrates consolidation in the lower zone of the right lung.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that typically affects the lower lobes of the lungs, particularly the right middle or lower lobes or left lower lobe. It is often seen in individuals who have consumed alcohol and subsequently vomited, leading to the aspiration of the contents into the lower bronchi. If an alcoholic is found unconscious with a lower zone consolidation, aspiration pneumonia should be considered when prescribing antibiotics. Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) is unlikely to occur within the first 48 hours of admission. Tuberculosis (TB) is a rare diagnosis in this case as it typically affects the upper lobes and the patient’s chest X-ray from two days earlier was normal. Staphylococcal pneumonia may be seen in alcoholics but is characterized by cavitating lesions and empyema. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is common in immunosuppressed individuals and presents with bilateral perihilar consolidations and possible lung cyst formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old female presents with worsening dyspnoea and the need to sit down frequently. She has had no other health issues. The patient works in an office.
During the physical examination, the patient is found to have clubbing and fine end-inspiratory crackles upon auscultation. A chest X-ray reveals diffuse reticulonodular shadows, particularly in the lower lobes.
What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Chemotherapy
Correct Answer: Oxygen therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pulmonary Fibrosis
Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition that can be diagnosed through a patient’s medical history. When it comes to treatment options, oxygen therapy is the most appropriate as it can prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension. However, there are other treatments available such as steroids and immune modulators like azathioprine, cyclophosphamide methotrexate, and cyclosporin. In some cases, anticoagulation may also be used to reduce the risk of pulmonary embolism. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient complained of cough with heavy sputum production, shortness of breath, and a low-grade fever. She has been smoking 20 cigarettes per day for the past 25 years. Upon examination, her arterial blood gases showed a pH of 7.4 (normal range: 7.36-7.44), pCO2 of 6 kPa (normal range: 4.5-6), and pO2 of 7.9 kPa (normal range: 8-12). Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Correct Answer: Chronic bronchitis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Acute Exacerbation of Chronic Obstructive Airways Disease
There is a high probability that the patient is experiencing an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive airways disease (COAD), particularly towards the chronic bronchitic end of the spectrum. This conclusion is based on the patient’s symptoms and the relative hypoxia with high pCO2. The diagnosis suggests that the patient’s airways are obstructed, leading to difficulty in breathing and reduced oxygen supply to the body. The exacerbation may have been triggered by an infection or exposure to irritants such as cigarette smoke. Early intervention is crucial to manage the symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man who used to work as a stonemason presents to the clinic with complaints of shortness of breath on minimal exercise and a dry cough. He has been experiencing progressive shortness of breath over the past year. He is a smoker, consuming 20-30 cigarettes per day, and has occasional wheezing. On examination, he is clubbed and bilateral late-inspiratory crackles can be heard at both lung bases. A chest X-ray shows upper lobe nodular opacities. His test results show a haemoglobin level of 125 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), a WCC of 4.6 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l), platelets of 189 × 109/l (normal range: 150-410 × 109/l), a sodium level of 139 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l), a potassium level of 4.9 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), a creatinine level of 135 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 μmol/l), an FVC of 2.1 litres (normal range: >4.05 litres), and an FEV1 of 1.82 litres (normal range: >3.15 litres). Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Correct Answer: Occupational interstitial lung disease
Explanation:Possible Occupational Lung Diseases and Differential Diagnosis
This patient’s history of working as a stonemason suggests a potential occupational exposure to silica dust, which can lead to silicosis. The restrictive lung defect seen in pulmonary function tests supports this diagnosis, which can be confirmed by high-resolution computerised tomography. Smoking cessation is crucial in slowing the progression of lung function decline.
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is another possible diagnosis, but the occupational exposure makes silicosis more likely. Occupational asthma, caused by specific workplace stimuli, is also a consideration, especially for those in certain occupations such as paint sprayers, food processors, welders, and animal handlers.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is unlikely due to the restrictive spirometry results, as it is characterised by an obstructive pattern. Non-occupational asthma is also less likely given the patient’s age, chest X-ray findings, and restrictive lung defect.
In summary, the patient’s occupational history and pulmonary function tests suggest a potential diagnosis of silicosis, with other possible occupational lung diseases and differential diagnoses to consider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with severe emphysema visits his General Practitioner (GP) for his yearly check-up. He reports experiencing increasing breathlessness over the past six months and inquires about the potential benefits of long-term oxygen therapy. His recent routine blood work came back normal, and upon respiratory examination, there is a noticeable decrease in air entry. However, his cardiovascular examination appears to be normal. What would be an appropriate indication for prescribing this patient LTOT?
Your Answer: PaO2 < 7.3 kPa when stable
Correct Answer:
Explanation:When to Prescribe Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients: Indications and Limitations
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive respiratory condition that can lead to hypoxia, or low oxygen levels in the blood. Oxygen therapy is a common treatment for COPD patients with hypoxia, but it is not appropriate for all cases. Here are some indications and limitations for prescribing oxygen therapy for COPD patients:
Indication: PaO2 < 7.3 kPa when stable or PaO2 > 7.3 and < 8 kPa when stable with secondary polycythaemia, nocturnal hypoxaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension present. Patients should meet the criteria on at least two blood gases taken when stable at least three weeks apart. Limitation: Oxygen therapy would have no impact on the frequency of acute exacerbations and would not be appropriate to prescribe for this indication. Indication: Symptomatic desaturation on exertion. Ambulatory oxygen may be prescribed if the presence of oxygen results in an increase in exercise capacity and/or dyspnoea. Limitation: There is no evidence that oxygen therapy is of benefit in patients with severe breathlessness who are not significantly hypoxic at rest or on exertion. Management options would include investigating for other potential causes of breathlessness and treating as appropriate, or reviewing inhaled and oral medication for COPD and pulmonary rehabilitation. Indication: PaO2 < 8.5 kPa when stable with secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension present. There is no evidence of survival benefit if patients with a PaO2 > 8 kPa are prescribed oxygen therapy.
In summary, oxygen therapy is a valuable treatment for COPD patients with hypoxia, but it should be prescribed with caution and based on specific indications and limitations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with asthma presented with rapidly developing asthma and wheezing. She was admitted, and during her treatment, she coughed out tubular gelatinous materials. A chest X-ray showed collapse of the lingular lobe.
What is this clinical spectrum better known as?Your Answer: Lofgren syndrome
Correct Answer: Plastic bronchitis
Explanation:Respiratory Conditions: Plastic Bronchitis, Loeffler Syndrome, Lofgren Syndrome, Cardiac Asthma, and Croup
Plastic Bronchitis: Gelatinous or rigid casts form in the airways, leading to coughing. It is associated with asthma, bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis, and respiratory infections. Treatment involves bronchial washing, sputum induction, and preventing infections. Bronchoscopy may be necessary for therapeutic removal of the casts.
Loeffler Syndrome: Accumulation of eosinophils in the lungs due to parasitic larvae passage. Charcot-Leyden crystals may be present in the sputum.
Lofgren Syndrome: Acute presentation of sarcoidosis with hilar lymphadenopathy and erythema nodosum. Usually self-resolving.
Cardiac Asthma: Old term for acute pulmonary edema, causing peribronchial fluid collection and wheezing. Pink frothy sputum is produced.
Croup: Acute pharyngeal infection in children aged 6 months to 3 years, presenting with stridor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old farmer presented with progressive dyspnoea. He had a dry cough and exercise intolerance. On examination, few crackles were found in the upper zones of both lungs. Surgical lung biopsy was done which was reported as:
Interstitial inflammation, chronic bronchiolitis, and two foci of non-necrotizing granuloma.
What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?Your Answer: Histiocytosis X
Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Explanation:Differentiating Lung Disorders: Histological Features
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis: This lung disorder is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to mouldy hay or other organic materials. A farmer is likely to develop this condition due to exposure to such materials. The histological triad of hypersensitivity pneumonitis includes lymphocytic alveolitis, non-caseating granulomas, and poorly formed granulomas.
Aspergillosis: This lung disorder is rarely invasive. In cases where it is invasive, lung biopsy shows hyphae with vascular invasion and surrounding tissue necrosis.
Sarcoidosis: This lung disorder of unknown aetiology presents with non-caseating granuloma. Schumann bodies, which are calcified, rounded, laminated concretions inside the non-caseating granuloma, are found in sarcoidosis. The granulomas are formed of foreign body giant cells. Within the giant cells, there are star-shaped inclusions called asteroid bodies.
Histiocytosis X: This lung disorder presents with scattered nodules of Langerhans cells. Associated with it are eosinophils, macrophages, and giant cells. The Langerhans cells contain racket-shaped Birbeck granules.
Tuberculosis: This lung disorder typically has caseating granulomas in the lung parenchyma. There is also fibrosis in later stages. Ziehl–Neelsen staining of the smear reveals acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in many cases. Vasculitic lesions can also be found.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Correct
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A 49-year-old Caucasian woman presents with a severe acute attack of bronchial asthma. For 1 week, she has had fever, malaise, anorexia and weight loss. She has tingling and numbness in her feet and hands. On examination, palpable purpura is present and nodular lesions are present on the skin. Investigations revealed eosinophilia, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), fibrinogen, and α-2-globulin, positive p-ANCA, and a chest X-ray reveals pulmonary infiltrates.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Allergic granulomatosis (Churg-Strauss syndrome)
Explanation:Comparison of Vasculitis Conditions with Eosinophilia
Eosinophilia is a common feature in several vasculitis conditions, but the clinical presentation and histopathologic features can help differentiate between them. Allergic granulomatosis, also known as Churg-Strauss syndrome, is characterized by asthma, peripheral and tissue eosinophilia, granuloma formation, and vasculitis of multiple organ systems. In contrast, granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) involves the lungs and upper respiratory tract and is c-ANCA positive, but does not typically present with asthma-like symptoms or peripheral eosinophilia. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) can present with multisystem involvement, but does not typically have an asthma-like presentation or peripheral eosinophilia. Hypereosinophilic syndrome, also known as chronic eosinophilic leukemia, is characterized by persistent eosinophilia in blood and exclusion of other causes of reactive eosinophilia. Finally, microscopic polyangiitis is similar to GPA in many aspects, but does not involve granuloma formation and does not typically present with peripheral eosinophilia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with increasing shortness of breath. She has also suffered from dull right iliac fossa pain over the past few months. Past history of note includes tuberculosis at the age of 23 and rheumatoid arthritis. On examination, her right chest is dull to percussion, consistent with a pleural effusion, and her abdomen appears swollen with a positive fluid thrill test. She may have a right adnexal mass.
Investigations:
Investigation
Result
Normal value
Chest X-ray Large right-sided pleural effusion
Haemoglobin 115 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 335 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 175 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Bilirubin 28 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase 25 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Albumin 40 g/l 35–55 g/l
CA-125 250 u/ml 0–35 u/ml
Pleural aspirate: occasional normal pleural cells, no white cells, protein 24 g/l.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ovarian carcinoma with lung secondaries
Correct Answer: Meig’s syndrome
Explanation:Possible Causes of Pleural Effusion: Meig’s Syndrome, Ovarian Carcinoma, Reactivation of Tuberculosis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, and Cardiac Failure
Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. There are various possible causes of pleural effusion, including Meig’s syndrome, ovarian carcinoma, reactivation of tuberculosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and cardiac failure.
Meig’s syndrome is characterized by the association of a benign ovarian tumor and a transudate pleural effusion. The pleural effusion resolves when the tumor is removed, although a raised CA-125 is commonly found.
Ovarian carcinoma with lung secondaries is another possible cause of pleural effusion. However, if no malignant cells are found on thoracocentesis, this diagnosis becomes less likely.
Reactivation of tuberculosis may also lead to pleural effusion, but this would be accompanied by other symptoms such as weight loss, night sweats, and fever.
Rheumatoid arthritis can produce an exudative pleural effusion, but this presentation is different from the transudate seen in Meig’s syndrome. In addition, white cells would be present due to the inflammatory response.
Finally, cardiac failure can result in bilateral pleural effusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman is admitted with renal failure. She has a history of congestive heart failure and takes ramipril 10 mg daily and furosemide 80 mg daily.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 102 g/l 115–155 g/l
Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 520 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Chest X-ray: no significant pulmonary oedema
Peripheral fluid replacement is commenced and a right subclavian central line is inserted. She complains of pleuritic chest pain; saturations have decreased to 90% on oxygen via mask.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Subclavian artery haematoma
Correct Answer: Iatrogenic pneumothorax
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pleuritic Chest Pain and Desaturation after Subclavian Line Insertion
Subclavian line insertion carries a higher risk of iatrogenic pneumothorax compared to other routes, such as the internal jugular route. Therefore, if a patient presents with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation after subclavian line insertion, iatrogenic pneumothorax should be considered as the most likely diagnosis. Urgent confirmation with a portable chest X-ray is necessary, and formal chest drain insertion is the management of choice.
Other complications of central lines include local site and systemic infection, arterial puncture, haematomas, catheter-related thrombosis, air embolus, dysrhythmias, atrial wall puncture, lost guidewire, anaphylaxis, and chylothorax. However, these complications would not typically present with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation.
Developing pulmonary oedema is an important differential, but it would not explain the pleuritic chest pain. Similarly, lower respiratory tract infection is a possibility, but the recent line insertion makes iatrogenic pneumothorax more likely. Costochondritis can cause chest pain worse on inspiration and chest wall tenderness, but it would not explain the desaturation.
In conclusion, when a patient presents with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation after subclavian line insertion, iatrogenic pneumothorax should be the primary consideration, and urgent confirmation with a portable chest X-ray is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis has been on long term therapy to manage his condition. He complains of worsening shortness of breath and a chest x-ray reveals 'bilateral interstitial shadowing'. Which medication is the probable culprit for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Hydroxychloroquine
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Methotrexate as a Cause and Treatment for Pulmonary Fibrosis
Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. Methotrexate, a chemotherapy drug, is a known cause of pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is also sometimes used as a treatment for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis as a steroid sparing agent.
According to medical research, other chemotherapy drugs such as alkylating agents, asparaginase, bleomycin, and procarbazine have also been linked to pulmonary parenchymal or pleural reactions in patients with malignant diseases. In addition, drug-related interstitial pneumonia should be considered in rheumatoid arthritis patients who are taking methotrexate or newer drugs like leflunomide.
Despite its potential risks, methotrexate can be a useful treatment option for some patients with pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is important for healthcare providers to carefully monitor patients for any adverse reactions and adjust treatment plans accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man from Somalia presents at your general practice surgery as a temporary resident. He has noticed some lumps on the back of his neck recently. He reports having a productive cough for the last 3 months, but no haemoptysis. He has lost 3 kg in weight in the last month. He is a non-smoker and lives with six others in a flat. His chest X-ray shows several large calcified, cavitating lesions bilaterally.
What is the GOLD standard investigation for active disease, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tissue biopsy
Correct Answer: Sputum culture
Explanation:The patient in question has several risk factors for tuberculosis (TB), including being from an ethnic minority and living in overcrowded accommodation. The presence of symptoms and chest X-ray findings of bilateral large calcified, cavitating lesions strongly suggest a diagnosis of TB. The gold standard investigation for TB is to send at least three spontaneous sputum samples for culture and microscopy, including one early morning sample. Treatment should be initiated without waiting for culture results if clinical symptoms and signs of TB are present. Treatment involves a 6-month course of antibiotics, with the first 2 months consisting of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol, followed by 4 months of isoniazid and rifampicin. Even if culture results are negative, the full course of antibiotics should be completed. Public health must be notified of the diagnosis for contact tracing and surveillance. Pulmonary function testing is useful for assessing the severity of lung disease but is not used in the diagnosis of TB. Tissue biopsy is not recommended as the gold standard investigation for TB, but may be useful in some cases of extrapulmonary TB. The tuberculin skin test is used to determine if a patient has ever been exposed to TB, but is not the gold standard investigation for active TB. Interferon-γ release assays measure a person’s immune reactivity to TB and can suggest the likelihood of M tuberculosis infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman of African origin presented to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset dyspnoea. She was a known case of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), previously treated for nephropathy and presently on mycophenolate mofetil and hydroxychloroquine sulfate. She had no fever. On examination, her respiratory rate was 45 breaths per minute, with coarse crepitations in the right lung base. After admission, blood test results revealed:
Investigation Value Normal range
Haemoglobin 100g/l 115–155 g/l
Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
PaO2on room air 85 mmHg 95–100 mmHg
C-reactive protein (CRP) 6.6mg/l 0-10 mg/l
C3 level 41 mg/dl 83–180 mg/dl
Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient as the cause for her dyspnoea?Your Answer: High erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct Answer: High diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO)
Explanation:This case discusses diffuse alveolar haemorrhage (DAH), a rare but serious complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Symptoms include sudden-onset shortness of breath, decreased haematocrit levels, and possibly coughing up blood. A chest X-ray may show diffuse infiltrates and crepitations in the lungs. It is important to rule out infections before starting treatment with methylprednisolone or cyclophosphamide. A high DLCO, indicating increased diffusion capacity across the alveoli, may be present in DAH. A pulmonary function test may not be possible due to severe dyspnoea, so diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, imaging, and bronchoscopy. Lung biopsy may show pulmonary capillaritis with neutrophilic infiltration. A high ESR is non-specific and sputum for AFB is not relevant in this acute presentation. BAL fluid in DAH is progressively haemorrhagic, and lung scan with isotopes is not typical for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 48-hour history of shortness of breath and an increased volume and purulence of sputum. She has a background history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), hypertension and ischaemic heart disease. Her observations show: heart rate (HR) 116 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 124/68 mmHg, respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation (SaO2) 94% on 2l/min via nasal cannulae. She is commenced on treatment for an infective exacerbation of COPD with nebulised bronchodilators, intravenous antibiotics, oral steroids and controlled oxygen therapy with a Venturi mask. After an hour of therapy, the patient is reassessed. Her observations after an hour are: BP 128/74 mmHg, HR 124 bpm, RR 20 breaths per minute and SaO2 93% on 24% O2 via a Venturi mask. Arterial blood gas sampling is performed:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.28 7.35–7.45
PO2 8.6 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO2 8.4 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
cHCO3- (P)C 32 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
Lactate 1.4 mmol/l 0.5–2.2 mmol/l
Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Chloride (Cl-) 116 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
Glucose 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
Following this review and the arterial blood gas results, what is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?Your Answer: The patient’s oxygen should be increased, as they remain relatively hypoxic despite oxygen therapy
Correct Answer: The patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV)
Explanation:Management of Respiratory Acidosis in COPD Patients
The management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires careful consideration of the individual’s condition. In this scenario, the patient should be considered for non-invasive ventilation (NIV) as recommended by the British Thoracic Society. NIV is particularly indicated in patients with a pH of 7.25–7.35. Patients with a pH of <7.25 may benefit from NIV but have a higher risk for treatment failure and therefore should be considered for management in a high-dependency or intensive care setting. However, NIV is not indicated in patients with impaired consciousness, severe hypoxaemia or copious respiratory secretions. It is important to note that a ‘Do Not Resuscitate Order’ should not be automatically made for patients with COPD. Each decision regarding resuscitation should be made on an individual basis. Intubation and ventilation should not be the first line of treatment in this scenario. A trial of NIV would be the most appropriate next step, as it has been demonstrated to reduce the need for intensive care management in this group of patients. Increasing the patient’s oxygen may be appropriate in type 1 respiratory failure, but in this case, NIV is the recommended approach. Intravenous magnesium therapy is not routinely recommended in COPD and is only indicated in the context of acute asthma. In conclusion, the management of respiratory acidosis in COPD patients requires a tailored approach based on the individual’s condition. NIV should be considered as the first line of treatment in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a medical history of hyperlipidaemia and hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cough and difficulty breathing that has been getting worse over the past 24 hours. Upon examination, he is not running a fever, has a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, a heart rate of 110 bpm, and an oxygen saturation level of 95% on room air. During chest auscultation, the patient displays fine crackles in both lung bases. Additionally, a new audible systolic murmur is detected at the apex.
What is the most likely cause of the patient's pulmonary symptoms?Your Answer: Pericardial effusion
Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pulmonary Oedema
The patient in question is likely suffering from flash pulmonary oedema, which can be caused by mitral valve regurgitation due to mitral valve disease. This is supported by the patient’s advanced age, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and the presence of a new systolic murmur at the apex. The backup of blood into the left atrium and pulmonary vasculature can lead to transudation of fluid into the pulmonary alveolar space, causing pulmonary oedema.
While pericardial effusion could also lead to pulmonary congestion, it would likely manifest with Beck’s triad of distant heart sounds, hypotension, and distended neck veins. Pleural effusion, on the other hand, would result in quieter sounds on auscultation and dullness to percussion. Lobar pneumonia would be accompanied by a fever and crackles on auscultation, but would not explain the new systolic murmur. Finally, left ventricular outflow tract obstruction, such as aortic stenosis, would cause a different type of murmur at the right upper sternal border, which is not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 23
Correct
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A 61-year-old electrician presents with a 4-month history of cough and weight loss. On further questioning, the patient reports experiencing some episodes of haemoptysis. He has a long-standing history of hypothyroidism, which is well managed with thyroxine 100 µg daily. The patient smokes ten cigarettes a day and has no other significant medical history. Blood tests and an X-ray are carried out, which reveal possible signs of asbestosis. A CT scan is ordered to investigate further.
What is the typical CT scan finding of asbestosis in the lung?Your Answer: Honeycombing of the lung with parenchymal bands and pleural plaques
Explanation:Differentiating Lung Diseases: Radiological Findings
Asbestosis is a lung disease characterized by interstitial pneumonitis and fibrosis, resulting in honeycombing of the lungs with parenchymal bands and pleural plaques. Smoking can accelerate its presentation. On a chest X-ray, bilateral reticulonodular opacities in the lower zones are observed, while a CT scan shows increased interlobular septae, parenchymal bands, and honeycombing. Silicosis, on the other hand, presents with irregular linear shadows and hilar lymphadenopathy, which can progress to PMF with compensatory emphysema. Tuberculosis is characterized by cavitation of upper zones, while pneumoconiosis shows parenchymal nodules and lower zone emphysema. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management of these lung diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 24
Correct
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A 65-year-old man snores at night and his wife reports it is so loud that he often wakes her up. She notes that her husband sometimes appears to not take a breath for a long time and then gasps for air before continuing to snore. He suffers from daytime headaches and sleepiness. He has a body mass index (BMI) of 40 kg/m2.
What would the most likely arterial blood gas result be if it was measured in this patient?Your Answer: Compensated respiratory acidosis
Explanation:Understanding Compensated and Uncompensated Acid-Base Disorders
Acid-base disorders are a group of conditions that affect the pH balance of the body. Compensation is the body’s natural response to maintain a normal pH level. Here are some examples of compensated and uncompensated acid-base disorders:
Compensated respiratory acidosis occurs in patients with obstructive sleep apnea. The kidney compensates for the chronic respiratory acidosis by increasing bicarbonate production, which buffers the increase in acid caused by carbon dioxide.
Compensated respiratory alkalosis is seen in high-altitude areas. The kidney compensates by reducing the rate of bicarbonate reabsorption and increasing reabsorption of H+.
Compensated metabolic acidosis occurs in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis. The body compensates by hyperventilating to release carbon dioxide and reduce the acid burden. The kidney also compensates by increasing bicarbonate production and sequestering acid into proteins.
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis occurs in patients with Guillain–Barré syndrome, an obstructed airway, or respiratory depression from opiate toxicity. There is an abrupt failure in ventilation, leading to an acute respiratory acidosis.
Uncompensated metabolic acidosis occurs in patients with lactic acidosis or diabetic ketoacidosis. The body cannot produce enough bicarbonate to buffer the added acid, leading to an acute metabolic acidosis.
Understanding these different types of acid-base disorders and their compensatory mechanisms is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 25
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right-sided chest pain. She reports experiencing fever and shortness of breath for the past week. Upon examination, there are reduced breath sounds on the right side, and a chest X-ray reveals a right pleural effusion without loculation. The patient consents to a thoracentesis to obtain a sample of the pleural fluid.
What is the optimal location for needle insertion?Your Answer: Above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line
Explanation:Proper Placement for Thoracentesis: Avoiding Nerve and Vessel Damage
When performing a thoracentesis to sample pleural fluid, it is crucial to ensure that the needle is inserted into a pocket of fluid. This is typically done with ultrasound guidance, but in some cases, doctors must percuss the thorax to identify an area of increased density. However, it is important to remember that the intercostal neurovascular bundle runs inferior to the rib, so the needle should be inserted above the rib to avoid damaging nearby nerves and vessels. The needle is generally inserted through the patient’s back to minimize discomfort and decrease the risk of damaging the neurovascular bundle. The BTS guidelines recommend aspirating from the triangle of safety under the axilla, but it is common practice to aspirate more posteriorly. Of the options listed, only inserting the needle above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line meets all of these criteria. Other options are either too high, too low, or risk damaging nearby nerves and vessels. Proper placement is crucial for a successful and safe thoracentesis procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Correct
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An 80-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of difficulty breathing. His vital signs show a pulse rate of 105 bpm, a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, and SpO2 saturations of 80% on pulse oximetry. He has a history of COPD for the past 10 years. Upon examination, there is reduced air entry bilaterally and coarse crackles. What would be the most crucial investigation to conduct next?
Your Answer: Arterial blood gas (ABG)
Explanation:Importance of Different Investigations in Assessing Acute Respiratory Failure
When a patient presents with acute respiratory failure, it is important to conduct various investigations to determine the underlying cause and severity of the condition. Among the different investigations, arterial blood gas (ABG) is the most important as it helps assess the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as the patient’s pH level. This information can help classify respiratory failure into type I or II and identify potential causes of respiratory deterioration. In patients with a history of COPD, ABG can also determine if they are retaining carbon dioxide, which affects their target oxygen saturations.
While a chest X-ray may be considered to assess for underlying pathology, it is not the most important investigation. A D-dimer may be used to rule out pulmonary embolism, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) may be done to assess for cardiac causes of respiratory failure. However, ABG should be prioritized before these investigations.
Pulmonary function tests may be required after initial assessment of oxygen saturations to predict potential respiratory failure based on the peak expiratory flow rate. Overall, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose and manage acute respiratory failure effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man, who is a known intravenous drug user, presented with progressive dyspnoea. On examination, his respiratory rate was 31 breaths per minute and his chest X-ray showed diffuse infiltrates in a bat-wing pattern. However, chest auscultation was normal. While staying in hospital, he developed sudden severe dyspnoea, and an emergency chest X-ray showed right-sided pneumothorax.
What is the underlying disease of this patient?Your Answer: Pulmonary histoplasmosis
Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii infection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Injection Drug User with Dyspnea and Chest X-ray Findings
A young injection drug user presenting with gradually progressive dyspnea and a typical chest X-ray finding is likely to have Pneumocystis jirovecii infection, an opportunistic fungal infection that predominantly affects the lungs. This infection is often seen in individuals with underlying human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection-related immunosuppression. Other opportunistic infections should also be ruled out. Pneumocystis typically resides in the alveoli of the lungs, resulting in extensive exudation and formation of hyaline membrane. Lung biopsy shows foamy vacuolated exudates. Extrapulmonary sites involved include the thyroid, lymph nodes, liver, and bone marrow.
Other potential diagnoses, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cystic fibrosis, pneumoconiosis, and pulmonary histoplasmosis, are less likely. COPD and pneumoconiosis are typically seen in individuals with a history of smoking or occupational exposure to dust, respectively. Cystic fibrosis would present with a productive cough and possible hemoptysis, while pulmonary histoplasmosis is not commonly found in Europe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 28
Correct
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A middle-aged man is brought into the Emergency Department after a road traffic collision (RTC). During examination, he is found to be tachycardic at 120 bpm, sweating profusely, and pale. His right side has decreased breath sounds and chest movement, and his trachea is deviated to the left. You are requested to insert a large-bore cannula.
Where would you position it in this patient?Your Answer: In the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the decreased breath sounds
Explanation:To treat a tension pneumothorax, emergency intervention is required. A large-bore cannula should be inserted into the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side where breath sounds are decreased to relieve pressure in the pleural space. This is the correct location for needle decompression. However, it is important to note that definitive management involves inserting an intercostal chest drain. Inserting a needle into the fifth intercostal space, mid-axillary line of the chest, on the side of the decreased breath sounds is incorrect for needle decompression, but it is where the chest drain will be inserted afterwards. Inserting a needle into the second intercostal space, mid-axillary line of the chest, on the side with normal breath sounds is the correct space, but the wrong location and wrong side of the body. It would be challenging to insert a needle into this location in reality. Inserting a needle into the third intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the decreased breath sounds is the correct anatomical line, but the incorrect intercostal space. Similarly, inserting a needle into the sixth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the chest with decreased breath sounds is the correct anatomical line, but the wrong intercostal space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 29
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the hospital with shortness of breath and lethargy for the past two weeks.
On clinical examination, there are reduced breath sounds, dullness to percussion and decreased vocal fremitus at the left base.
Chest X-ray reveals a moderate left-sided pleural effusions. A pleural aspirate is performed on the ward. Analysis is shown:
Aspirate Serum
Total protein 18.5 g/l 38 g/l
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 1170 u/l 252 u/l
pH 7.37 7.38
What is the most likely cause of the pleural effusion?Your Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Pleural Effusions: Causes and Criteria for Exudates
Pleural effusions, the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space surrounding the lungs, can be classified as exudates or transudates using Light’s criteria. While the traditional cut-off value of >30 g/l of protein to indicate an exudate and <30 g/l for a transudate is no longer recommended, Light's criteria still provide a useful framework for diagnosis. An exudate is indicated when the ratio of pleural fluid protein to serum protein is >0.5, the ratio of pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH is >0.6, or pleural fluid LDH is greater than 2/3 times the upper limit for serum.
Exudate effusions are typically caused by inflammation and disruption to cell architecture, while transudates are often associated with systematic illnesses that affect oncotic or hydrostatic pressure. In the case of hypothyroidism, an endocrine disorder, an exudative pleural effusion is consistent with overstimulation of the ovaries.
Other conditions that can cause exudative pleural effusions include pneumonia and pulmonary embolism. Mesothelioma, a type of cancer associated with asbestos exposure, can also cause an exudative pleural effusion, but is less likely in the absence of chest pain, persistent cough, and unexplained weight loss.
Understanding the causes and criteria for exudative pleural effusions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his doctor. He had visited his GP a week ago, complaining of malaise, headache, and myalgia for three days. Despite being prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted and he developed a dry cough and fever. At the time of referral, he was experiencing mild dyspnea, a global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. On examination, he appeared unwell, had a fever of 39°C, and had a maculopapular rash on his upper body. Fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest, and mild neck stiffness was noted.
The following investigations were conducted: Hb 84 g/L (130-180), WBC 8 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 210 ×109/L (150-400), Reticulocytes 8% (0.5-2.4), Na 129 mmol/L (137-144), K 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-110), Bilirubin 89 µmol/L (1-22), Alk phos 130 U/L (45-105), AST 54 U/L (1-31), and GGT 48 U/L (<50). A chest x-ray revealed patchy consolidation in both mid-zones.
What is the most likely cause of his abnormal blood count?Your Answer: IgG directed against P antigen complex
Correct Answer: IgM anti-i antibodies
Explanation:The patient has pneumonia, hepatitis, and haemolytic anaemia, which can be caused by Mycoplasma pneumonia. This condition can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as renal failure, myocarditis, and meningitis. Haemolysis is associated with the presence of IgM antibodies, and sepsis may cause microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia. Clavulanic acid can cause hepatitis, and some drugs can induce haemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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