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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old African-American has marked left-sided weakness and an expressive aphasia. He is...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old African-American has marked left-sided weakness and an expressive aphasia. He is diagnosed with a stroke. Blood results show the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 90 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      calcium 3.80 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      creatinine 128 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Which investigation is likely to reveal the cause of this man’s stroke?

      Your Answer: Urinary Bence Jones proteins

      Explanation:

      Investigations for a Patient with Stroke and Suspected Multiple Myeloma

      When a patient presents with symptoms of stroke and possible multiple myeloma, several investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the cause of the stroke. The mnemonic CRAB (high Calcium, Renal insufficiency, Anaemia and Bone lesions) can help identify the key symptoms of multiple myeloma.

      One potential test is a urinary Bence Jones protein test, which can confirm the presence of multiple myeloma. However, this test alone cannot determine the cause of the stroke.

      An MRI of the head may show areas of damage, but it will not reveal the cause of the stroke. A CT scan of the head, on the other hand, can identify changes caused by an ischaemic stroke, but it cannot differentiate the cause of the clot.

      Liver function tests and X-rays of the spine are not first-line investigations for this condition, but they may be useful in identifying bone lesions associated with multiple myeloma.

      Overall, a combination of tests and imaging may be necessary to diagnose and treat a patient with stroke and suspected multiple myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old man experiences sudden paralysis on the right side of his body....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man experiences sudden paralysis on the right side of his body. He has been a smoker for 30 years, consuming 15 cigarettes a day. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2°C, pulse 80/minute, respiratory rate 18/minute, and blood pressure 150/95 mm Hg. An angiogram of the brain shows blockage in a branch of the middle cerebral artery. Laboratory results indicate a haemoglobin A1c level of 80 mmol/mol (9.5%). Which component of blood lipids is the most significant factor in contributing to his condition?

      Your Answer: High density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol

      Correct Answer: Oxidised low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

      Explanation:

      The patient had a stroke likely caused by cerebral atherosclerosis or embolic disease from the heart due to ischaemic heart disease from atherosclerosis. LDL brings cholesterol to arterial walls, and when there is increased LDL or hypertension, smoking, and diabetes, there is more degradation of LDL to oxidised LDL which is taken up into arterial walls via scavenger receptors in macrophages to help form atheromas. Chylomicrons transport exogenous products and are formed in intestinal epithelial cells. HDL particles remove cholesterol from the circulation and transport it back to the liver for excretion or re-utilisation. Lipoprotein lipase hydrolyses triglycerides in lipoproteins and promotes cellular uptake of chylomicron remnants, lipoproteins, and free fatty acids. VLDL transports endogenous triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol and cholesteryl esters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      56.4
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old donor experiences a sudden fainting spell during blood donation. What should...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old donor experiences a sudden fainting spell during blood donation. What should be the immediate course of action to manage this adverse event?

      Your Answer: Temporarily cease the donation, consider fluid replacement and elevate the donor's legs

      Explanation:

      Donor safety is important in blood donation. Fainting is a common adverse event and should be treated by stopping the donation and reviving the donor. Elevation of the legs and monitoring vitals is necessary. Donors should be counseled on pre-donation expectations and encouraged to drink fluids after recovery. Hemoglobin checks are no longer required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      26.5
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old patient presents with the following full blood count (FBC) result: Hb...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with the following full blood count (FBC) result: Hb 105 g/L (130-180), RBC 4.5 ×1012/L, Hct 0.353 (0.4-0.52), MCV 75 fL (80-96), MCH 32.5 pg (28-32), Platelets 325 ×109/L (150-400), WBC 7.91 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 6.15 ×109/L (1.5-7.0), Lymphocytes 1.54 ×109/L (1.5-4.0), Monocytes 0.33 ×109/L (0-0.8), Eosinophils 0.16 ×109/L (0.04-0.4), Basophils 0.08 ×109/L (0-0.1), Others 0.14 ×109/L. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation for this FBC result?

      Your Answer: Ferritin concentration

      Explanation:

      Interpretation of FBC Results

      When analyzing a full blood count (FBC), a microcytosis with low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) and anaemia (low Hb) is indicative of iron deficiency anaemia. To confirm this, a ferritin test should be requested, followed by an investigation into the source of blood loss if iron deficiency is confirmed. If faecal occult blood is positive, an endoscopy may be necessary. On the other hand, macrocytic anaemia with elevated MCV is caused by folate and B12 deficiency, while hypothyroidism is associated with elevated MCV. While a bone marrow biopsy can also show iron deficiency, it is an invasive procedure and is not necessary in a primary care setting. Therefore, interpreting FBC results requires a thorough of the different types of anaemia and their associated causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      69.2
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  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old woman comes in with a swollen and hot right calf. She...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman comes in with a swollen and hot right calf. She had undergone a right knee arthroscopy and had been immobile for a while. She only takes paracetamol and codeine for osteoarthritis as needed. An above-knee deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is detected on ultrasound, which is her first DVT. What is the recommended treatment?

      Your Answer: Three months of apixaban

      Explanation:

      Management of Deep Vein Thrombosis and Pulmonary Embolism

      Apixaban and rivaroxaban are the preferred medications for treating deep vein thrombosis (DVT), except for patients with renal impairment or antiphospholipid syndrome. Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) and warfarin are alternative options for those who cannot take apixaban or rivaroxaban. Thrombolysis is used to manage pulmonary embolism (PE) in patients with haemodynamic instability.

      The duration of anticoagulation treatment depends on the type of DVT. For provoked DVTs, which have an identifiable cause, treatment is recommended for at least three months. After this period, the risks and benefits of continuing anticoagulation treatment must be assessed to determine further treatment. For unprovoked DVTs, which have no identifiable cause, treatment is recommended for at least six months. After this period, a risk and benefit assessment is required to determine further treatment.

      NICE has provided a helpful visual summary to assist in the management of DVT and PE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which statement about rhesus antibodies in pregnancy is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about rhesus antibodies in pregnancy is correct?

      Your Answer: The fetal Rh type is not dependent on the paternal Rh grouping

      Correct Answer: Following delivery, the degree of fetomaternal haemorrhage should be calculated on a blood sample from a D negative mother

      Explanation:

      Important Points to Remember about Fetomaternal Haemorrhage

      Following the delivery of a baby, it is crucial to determine the degree of fetomaternal haemorrhage (FMH) in a D negative mother. This is done by analyzing a blood sample to adjust the dose of anti-D in the mother if she has delivered a D positive child. It is important to note that D positive and D negative women have the same likelihood of developing antibodies to other red cell antigens. Therefore, all pregnant women should undergo a blood group and antibody screen in their first trimester or at the time of presentation, whichever comes first. The fetal Rh type is determined by the Rh typing of both the mother and father. Additionally, maternal antibody titres are indicative of the degree of haemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN). For more information on the management of women with red cell antibodies during pregnancy, refer to the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) Green-top Guideline No. 65.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      48.7
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  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old girl injures her leg while playing soccer at the park. Her...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl injures her leg while playing soccer at the park. Her mother takes her to the emergency doctor at their GP clinic later that day as the bleeding has not stopped. The cut is not very big and is on the girl's calf. They immediately applied pressure to the wound and then a bandage, however on examination the wound is still bleeding a little bit. The girl's mother knows that there is a bleeding disorder in her family.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Give desmopressin and tranexamic acid

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Bleeding Disorders: Haemophilia A and Von Willebrand Disease

      Haemophilia A, a genetic bleeding disorder affecting men, is characterized by a propensity to bleed with minor injuries. Diagnosis is made through a prolonged APTT on a background of normal PT and bleeding time. Treatment for minor bleeds includes desmopressin and tranexamic acid, while major bleeds require infusion with recombinant factor 8. Fresh-frozen plasma and platelets are used in major trauma as replacement therapy, while heparin is an anticoagulant and should be avoided. Von Willebrand factor is given once the diagnosis of Von Willebrand disease is confirmed. Children with severe haemophilia A should receive prophylactic infusion of factor 8 at least once a week until physical maturity, and those undergoing elective surgery or pregnant women will require prophylactic treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 8 - A 43-year-old woman was diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) with 71% of...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman was diagnosed with acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) with 71% of bone marrow blasts. She declined bone marrow transplant and was started on appropriate chemotherapy. After 2 months, a repeat bone marrow revealed 8% of blasts. Peripheral blood was blast-free and blood tests revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 106 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 5.2 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
      Lymphocytes 1.8 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
      Platelets 131 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      What is her clinical status?

      Your Answer: Complete remission with incomplete recovery

      Correct Answer: Partial remission

      Explanation:

      Partial remission occurs when a patient meets all the criteria for complete remission except for having more than 5% bone marrow blasts. To be diagnosed with partial remission, the blast cells can be between 5% and 25% and must have decreased by at least 50% from their levels before treatment.

      Complete remission is achieved when a patient meets specific criteria, including having a neutrophil count of over 1.0 × 109/l and a platelet count of over 100 × 109/l, not requiring red cell transfusions, having normal cellular components on bone marrow biopsy, having less than 5% blasts in the bone marrow without Auer rods present, and having no signs of leukemia anywhere else in the body.

      Complete remission with incomplete recovery is when a patient meets all the criteria for complete remission except for continuing to have neutropenia or thrombocytopenia.

      Resistant disease occurs when a patient fails to achieve complete or partial remission and still has leukemia cells in their peripheral blood or bone marrow seven days after completing initial therapy.

      A morphologic leukemia-free state is when a patient has less than 5% bone marrow blasts without blasts with Auer rods present and no extramedullary disease, but they do not meet the criteria for neutrophils, platelets, and blood transfusions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      75.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 75-year-old woman who is in hospital for pneumonia begins to deteriorate on...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman who is in hospital for pneumonia begins to deteriorate on her third day of intravenous antibiotics. She develops purple bruises on her skin and on the inside of her mouth, and tells you that she feels short of breath and fatigued. Her platelet count has dropped from 165 × 109/l to 43 × 109/l over the last two days. She also complains of blurred vision in the last few hours.
      Which of the following will form part of her initial management?

      Your Answer: Plasma exchange

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura

      Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP) is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment. The most common initial management for TTP is plasma exchange, which aims to remove the antibodies that block the ADAMTS13 enzyme and replace the ADAMTS13 enzymes in the blood. Intravenous methylprednisone and rituximab may also be used in conjunction with plasma exchange.

      Aspirin should only be considered when the platelet count is above 50 × 109/l, and even then, it is not an essential part of initial management and will depend on the patient’s comorbidities. Cryoprecipitate is not recommended for TTP treatment, as it is indicated for disseminated intravascular coagulation or fibrinogen deficiency.

      Factor VIII infusion is used for haemophilia A, a C-linked-recessive disorder that presents with excessive bleeding and anaemia, and is less likely to be associated with thrombocytopenia and TTP. Platelet transfusions are relatively contraindicated in TTP and should only be considered in cases of catastrophic bleeding or urgent surgery that cannot wait until after plasma exchange. Platelet transfusions increase the risk of arterial thrombosis, which can lead to myocardial infarction and stroke.

      In summary, plasma exchange is the most common initial management for TTP, and other treatment options should be carefully considered based on the patient’s individual circumstances. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for a successful outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      49.3
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe chest...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe chest pain, fever and a cough, which he has had for five days. Examination revealed signs of jaundice and the spleen was not big enough to be palpable.
      You take some basic observations:
      Temperature: 38 °C
      Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/min
      O2 saturation: 86%
      Heart rate: 134 bpm (regular)
      Blood pressure (lying): 134/86 mmHg
      Blood pressure (standing): 132/90 mmHg
      His initial investigation findings are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal
      White cell count (WCC) 13.8 × 109/l 4–11.0 × 109/l
      Neutrophils 7000 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
      Lymphocytes 2000 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 110 fl 76–98 fl
      Platelets 300 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Troponin l 0.01 ng/ml < 0.1 ng/ml
      D-dimer 0.03 μg/ml < 0.05 μg/ml
      Arterial blood gas (ABG) showed type 1 respiratory failure with a normal pH. Chest X-ray showed left lower lobe consolidation.
      The patient was treated successfully and is due for discharge tomorrow.
      Upon speaking to the patient, he reveals that he has suffered two similar episodes this year.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what medication should the patient be started on to reduce the risk of further episodes?

      Your Answer: Hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Patient with Sickle Cell Disease and Acute Chest Pain Crisis

      A patient with sickle cell disease is experiencing an acute chest pain crisis, likely due to a lower respiratory tract infection. Hydroxycarbamide is recommended as a preventative therapy to reduce the risk of future crises by increasing the amount of fetal hemoglobin and reducing the percentage of red cells with hemoglobin S. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is not necessary as the patient has a raised white blood cell count. Inhaled beclomethasone is not appropriate as asthma or COPD are not likely diagnoses in this case. Oral prednisolone may be used as a preventative therapy for severe asthma, but is not recommended for COPD and is not appropriate for this patient’s symptoms. A tuberculosis (TB) vaccination may be considered for primary prevention, but would not be useful for someone who has already been infected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      84
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Haematology (7/10) 70%
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