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Question 1
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman is admitted with renal failure. She has a history of congestive heart failure and takes ramipril 10 mg daily and furosemide 80 mg daily.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 102 g/l 115–155 g/l
Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 520 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Chest X-ray: no significant pulmonary oedema
Peripheral fluid replacement is commenced and a right subclavian central line is inserted. She complains of pleuritic chest pain; saturations have decreased to 90% on oxygen via mask.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Iatrogenic pneumothorax
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pleuritic Chest Pain and Desaturation after Subclavian Line Insertion
Subclavian line insertion carries a higher risk of iatrogenic pneumothorax compared to other routes, such as the internal jugular route. Therefore, if a patient presents with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation after subclavian line insertion, iatrogenic pneumothorax should be considered as the most likely diagnosis. Urgent confirmation with a portable chest X-ray is necessary, and formal chest drain insertion is the management of choice.
Other complications of central lines include local site and systemic infection, arterial puncture, haematomas, catheter-related thrombosis, air embolus, dysrhythmias, atrial wall puncture, lost guidewire, anaphylaxis, and chylothorax. However, these complications would not typically present with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation.
Developing pulmonary oedema is an important differential, but it would not explain the pleuritic chest pain. Similarly, lower respiratory tract infection is a possibility, but the recent line insertion makes iatrogenic pneumothorax more likely. Costochondritis can cause chest pain worse on inspiration and chest wall tenderness, but it would not explain the desaturation.
In conclusion, when a patient presents with pleuritic chest pain and desaturation after subclavian line insertion, iatrogenic pneumothorax should be the primary consideration, and urgent confirmation with a portable chest X-ray is necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner seeking assistance to quit smoking. She has been smoking ten cigarettes daily for the last 14 years and has no significant medical history. However, she is currently in her second trimester of pregnancy. What is the most suitable first-line smoking cessation option for this patient?
Your Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy
Correct Answer: Behavioural therapy
Explanation:Smoking Cessation Options for Pregnant Women: A Review of Medications and Therapies
When it comes to quitting smoking during pregnancy or postpartum, behavioural therapy is the recommended first-line approach by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). Smoking cessation clinics can provide support for women who wish to quit smoking. Clonidine, a medication used for high blood pressure and drug withdrawal, has some effect on smoking cessation but is not licensed or recommended for this use by NICE. Bupropion, which reduces cravings and withdrawal effects, is contraindicated during pregnancy and breastfeeding. Nicotine replacement therapy can be used in pregnancy, but women should be informed of the risks and benefits and only used if behavioural support is ineffective. Varenicline, a medication that reduces cravings and the pleasurable effects of tobacco products, is contraindicated during pregnancy and breastfeeding due to its toxicity in studies. It is important for healthcare providers to discuss the available options with pregnant women and provide individualized recommendations for smoking cessation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of shortness of breath, nocturnal cough and wheezing for the past week. He reports that these symptoms began after he was accidentally exposed to a significant amount of hydrochloric acid fumes while working in a chemical laboratory. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or any other relevant medical history. He is a non-smoker.
What initial investigation may be the most useful in confirming the diagnosis?Your Answer: Peak flow
Correct Answer: Methacholine challenge test
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Reactive Airways Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS)
Reactive Airways Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS) is a condition that presents with asthma-like symptoms after exposure to irritant gases, vapours or fumes. To diagnose RADS, several tests may be performed to exclude other pulmonary diagnoses and confirm the presence of the condition.
One of the diagnostic criteria for RADS is the absence of pre-existing respiratory conditions. Additionally, the onset of asthma symptoms should occur after a single exposure to irritants in high concentration, with symptoms appearing within 24 hours of exposure. A positive methacholine challenge test (< 8 mg/ml) following exposure and possible airflow obstruction on pulmonary function tests can also confirm the diagnosis. While a chest X-ray and full blood count may be requested to exclude other causes of symptoms, they are usually unhelpful in confirming the diagnosis of RADS. Peak flow is also not useful in diagnosis, as there is no pre-existing reading to compare values. The skin prick test may be useful in assessing reactions to common environmental allergens, but it is not helpful in diagnosing RADS as it occurs after one-off exposures. In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic tests can help confirm the diagnosis of RADS and exclude other pulmonary conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe breathlessness after being exposed to smoke during a house fire. He reports vomiting twice and experiencing a headache and dizziness.
Upon examination, the patient is found to be tachypnoeic with good air entry, and his oxygen saturations are at 100% on air. He appears drowsy, but his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15, and there are no signs of head injury on his neurological examination.
What is the initial step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium
Correct Answer: High-flow oxygen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Smoke Inhalation Injury
Smoke inhalation injury can lead to carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, dizziness, and vomiting. It is important to note that normal oxygen saturation may be present despite respiratory distress due to the inability of a pulse oximeter to differentiate between carboxyhaemoglobin and oxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, any conscious patient with suspected CO poisoning should be immediately treated with high-flow oxygen, which can reduce the half-life of carboxyhaemoglobin from up to four hours to 90 minutes.
Cyanide poisoning, which is comparatively rare, can also be caused by smoke inhalation. The treatment of choice for cyanide poisoning is a combination of hydroxocobalamin and sodium thiosulphate.
Hyperbaric oxygen may be beneficial for managing patients with CO poisoning, but high-flow oxygen should be provided immediately while waiting for initiation. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen include an unconscious patient, COHb > 25%, pH < 7.1, and evidence of end-organ damage due to CO poisoning. Bronchodilators such as nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium may be useful as supportive care in cases of inhalation injury where signs of bronchospasm occur. However, in this case, compatible signs such as wheeze and reduced air entry are not present. Metoclopramide may provide symptomatic relief of nausea, but it does not replace the need for immediate high-flow oxygen. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize the administration of high-flow oxygen in patients with suspected smoke inhalation injury. Managing Smoke Inhalation Injury: Treatment Options and Priorities
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Correct
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A 45-year-old man presents to his GP with persistent wheezing and difficulty breathing. Despite being prescribed a salbutamol inhaler, his symptoms continue and he is forced to take time off work. His GP increases his treatment by adding oral prednisolone, which initially helps but his symptoms return upon returning to work. However, during a two-week vacation, his wheezing significantly improves. Upon returning to work, he suffers an acute asthma attack and is taken to the hospital by ambulance. Which diagnostic test is most likely to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Peak flow rates measured at home and in work
Explanation:Occupational Asthma and its Causes
Occupational asthma (OA) is a type of asthma that develops in adulthood and is caused by exposure to allergens in the workplace. Symptoms improve significantly when the affected person is away from their work environment. OA can be triggered by immunologic or non-immunologic stimuli. Immunologic stimuli have a latency period between exposure and symptom onset, while non-immunologic stimuli do not. Non-immunologic stimuli that trigger OA are referred to as reactive airways dysfunction syndrome (RADS) or irritant-induced asthma.
Immunologic OA can be caused by high-molecular-weight or low-molecular-weight allergens. High-molecular-weight allergens include domestic and laboratory animals, fish and seafood, flour and cereals, and rubber. Low-molecular-weight allergens include metals, drugs, dyes and bleaches, isocyanates (naphthalene), and wood dust. It is important to identify the specific allergen causing OA in order to prevent further exposure and manage symptoms effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with known asthma presents to the Emergency Department with severe breathlessness and wheeze.
Which of the following is the most concerning finding on examination and initial investigations?Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) 35% predicted
Correct Answer: PaCO2 5.5 kPa
Explanation:Assessing the Severity of an Acute Asthma Exacerbation
When assessing the severity of an acute asthma exacerbation, several factors must be considered. A PaCO2 level of 5.5 kPa in an acutely exacerbating asthmatic is a worrying sign and is a marker of a life-threatening exacerbation. A respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute or higher is a sign of acute severe asthma, while poor respiratory effort is a sign of life-threatening asthma. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can also be used to help assess the severity of an acute exacerbation of asthma. A PEFR of 33-35% best or predicted is a sign of acute severe asthma, while a PEFR < 33% best or predicted is a sign of life-threatening asthma. A heart rate of 140 bpm or higher is a feature of acute severe asthma, while arrhythmia and/or hypotension are signs of life-threatening asthma. Inability to complete sentences in one breath is a sign of acute severe asthma, while an altered conscious level is a sign of life-threatening asthma. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of an acute asthma exacerbation and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is diagnosed with right-sided pleural effusion. The aspirated sample reveals a protein level of 15g/l. What could be the potential reason for the pleural effusion?
Your Answer: Inflammation from SLE
Correct Answer: Renal failure
Explanation:Differentiating between transudate and exudate effusions in various medical conditions
Effusions can occur in various medical conditions, and it is important to differentiate between transudate and exudate effusions to determine the underlying cause. A transudate effusion is caused by increased capillary hydrostatic pressure or decreased oncotic pressure, while an exudate effusion is caused by increased capillary permeability.
In the case of renal failure, the patient has a transudative effusion as the effusion protein is less than 25 g/l. Inflammation from SLE would cause an exudate effusion, while pancreatitis and right-sided mesothelioma would also cause exudative effusions. Right-sided pneumonia would result in an exudate effusion as well.
Therefore, understanding the type of effusion can provide valuable information in diagnosing and treating various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presented with progressive dyspnoea and cough over two years. He was previously employed in a ceramic factory as chief supervisor.
What is the most probable radiological finding in this patient?Your Answer: Interstitial fibrosis
Correct Answer: Small numerous opacities in upper lung zones with hilar lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Understanding Silicosis: Radiological Findings and Risk Factors
Silicosis is a lung disease that can develop many years after exposure to silica, which is commonly found in clay used in ceramic factories. Other toxic chemicals found in ceramic factories, such as talc, lead, chromium, sulfur dioxide, and metal fumes, can also increase the risk of developing silicosis.
Radiological findings of silicosis include small numerous opacities in the upper lung zones with hilar lymphadenopathy, which may show egg shell calcification. In later stages, rounded nodules in the upper zones with lower zone emphysema may also be present. However, progressive massive fibrosis is not a common finding in silicosis lungs.
Silicosis per se does not cause lung cavitation, but it can be complicated by tuberculosis, which may lead to the formation of cavities. In acute silicosis, lower zone alveolar opacities may be present, which can lead to acute respiratory failure.
Overall, understanding the radiological findings and risk factors of silicosis is important for early detection and prevention of this debilitating lung disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. She also reports haemoptysis. An ECG shows no signs of ischaemia. Her heart rate is 88 bpm and blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. The patient flew from Dubai to the UK yesterday. She has type I diabetes mellitus which is well managed. She had a tonsillectomy two years ago and her brother has asthma. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for six months and uses insulin for her diabetes but takes no other medications.
What is the most significant risk factor for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Assessing Risk Factors for Pulmonary Embolism in a Patient with Sudden Onset of Symptoms
This patient presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and haemoptysis, suggesting a pulmonary embolism. A history of long-haul flight and use of combined oral contraceptive pill further increase the risk for this condition. However, tonsillectomy two years ago is not a current risk factor. Type I diabetes mellitus and asthma are also not associated with pulmonary embolism. A family history of malignancy may increase the risk for developing a malignancy, which in turn increases the risk for pulmonary embolism. Overall, a thorough assessment of risk factors is crucial in identifying and managing pulmonary embolism in patients with acute symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Correct
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A 40-year-old Romanian smoker presents with a 3-month history of cough productive of blood-tinged sputum, fever, night sweats and weight loss. At presentation he is haemodynamically stable, has a fever of 37.7°C and appears cachectic. On examination, there are coarse crepitations in the right upper zone of lung. Chest radiograph reveals patchy, non-specific increased upper zone interstitial markings bilaterally together with a well-defined round opacity with a central lucency in the right upper zone and bilateral enlarged hila.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Subacute Presentation of Pulmonary Symptoms
Tuberculosis is a growing concern, particularly in Eastern European countries where multi-drug resistant strains are on the rise. The initial infection can occur anywhere in the body, but often affects the lung apices and forms a scarred granuloma. Latent bacteria can cause reinfection years later, leading to post-primary TB. Diagnosis is based on identifying acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Treatment involves a 6-month regimen of antibiotics. Staphylococcal and Klebsiella pneumonia can also present with pneumonia symptoms and cavitating lesions, but patients would be expected to be very ill with signs of sepsis. Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a possibility but less likely in this case. Primary pulmonary lymphoma is rare and typically occurs in HIV positive individuals, with atypical presentation and radiographic findings. Contact screening is essential for TB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A nurse in the Emergency Department presents an electrocardiogram (ECG) to you. The elderly patient is feeling breathless and has long-standing limited mobility. The ECG shows a sinus tachycardia with an S-wave in lead I, Q-wave in lead III and T-wave inversion in lead III.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolus
Explanation:Diagnosis of Pulmonary Embolus Based on ECG Findings
The ECG changes observed in this clinical presentation strongly suggest a pulmonary embolus. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot blocks one of the blood vessels in the lungs, leading to symptoms such as chest pain, breathlessness, and sudden collapse. Patients who are immobile or have undergone surgery are at a higher risk of developing this condition, which accounts for around 50% of cases that occur in hospital. To confirm the diagnosis, further tests such as a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) or ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan may be required. Although exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a possible differential diagnosis, the history of immobility, sinus tachycardia, and ECG changes make pulmonary embolism more likely. The ECG findings are not consistent with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) or non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and there is no evidence of ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female with a 10 year history of asthma presents with increasing dyspnoea after returning from a trip to Australia. She has not had a period in three months. On examination, she has a fever of 37.5°C, a pulse rate of 110/min, a blood pressure of 106/74 mmHg, and saturations of 93% on room air. Her respiratory rate is 24/min and auscultation of the chest reveals vesicular breath sounds. Peak flow is 500 L/min and her ECG shows no abnormalities except for a heart rate of 110 bpm. A chest x-ray is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Thyrotoxicosis
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Risk Factors and Symptoms of Pulmonary Embolism
This patient presents with multiple risk factors for pulmonary embolism, including air travel and likely pregnancy. She is experiencing tachycardia and hypoxia, which require further explanation. However, there are no indications of a respiratory tract infection or acute asthma. It is important to note that an ECG and CXR may appear normal in cases of pulmonary embolism or may only show baseline tachycardia on the ECG. Therefore, it is crucial to consider the patient’s risk factors and symptoms when evaluating for pulmonary embolism. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent potentially life-threatening complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with confusion and difficulty breathing, with an AMTS score of 9. During the examination, his respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute, and his blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. His blood test shows a urea level of 6 mmol/l. What is a predictive factor for increased mortality in this pneumonia patient?
Your Answer: Respiratory rate >30 breaths/minute
Explanation:Prognostic Indicators in Pneumonia: Understanding the CURB 65 Score
The CURB 65 score is a widely used prognostic tool for patients with pneumonia. It consists of five indicators, including confusion, urea levels, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. A respiratory rate of >30 breaths/minute and new-onset confusion with an AMTS score of <8 are two of the indicators that make up the CURB 65 score. However, in the case of a patient with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute and an AMTS score of 9, these indicators still suggest a poor prognosis. A urea level of >7 mmol/l and a blood pressure of <90 mmHg systolic and/or 60 mmHg diastolic are also indicators of a poor prognosis. Finally, age >65 is another indicator that contributes to the CURB 65 score. Understanding these indicators can help healthcare professionals assess the severity of pneumonia and determine appropriate treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Correct
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A 21-year old patient is brought to the Emergency Department by paramedics following an assault. On examination, there are two puncture wounds on the posterior chest wall. The ambulance crew believe the patient was attacked with a screwdriver. He is currently extremely short of breath, haemodynamically unstable, and his oxygen saturations are falling despite high-flow oxygen. There are reduced breath sounds in the right hemithorax.
What is the most appropriate first step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Needle decompression of right hemithorax
Explanation:Management of Tension Pneumothorax in Penetrating Chest Trauma
Tension pneumothorax is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention in patients with penetrating chest trauma. The following steps should be taken:
1. Clinical Diagnosis: Falling oxygen saturations, cardiovascular compromise, and reduced breath sounds in the affected hemithorax are suggestive of tension pneumothorax. This is a clinical diagnosis.
2. Needle Decompression: Immediate needle decompression with a large bore cannula placed into the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line is required. This is a temporizing measure to provide time for placement of a chest drain.
3. Urgent Chest Radiograph: A chest radiograph may be readily available, but it should not delay decompression of the tension pneumothorax. It should be delayed until placement of the chest drain.
4. Placement of Chest Drain: This is the definitive treatment of a tension pneumothorax, but immediate needle decompression should take place first.
5. Contact On-Call Anaesthetist: Invasive ventilation by an anaesthetist will not improve the patient’s condition.
6. Avoid Non-Invasive Ventilation: Non-invasive ventilation would worsen the tension pneumothorax and should be avoided.
In summary, prompt recognition and management of tension pneumothorax are crucial in patients with penetrating chest trauma. Needle decompression followed by chest drain placement is the definitive treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Correct
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A 55-year-old female presents with worsening dyspnoea and the need to sit down frequently. She has had no other health issues. The patient works in an office.
During the physical examination, the patient is found to have clubbing and fine end-inspiratory crackles upon auscultation. A chest X-ray reveals diffuse reticulonodular shadows, particularly in the lower lobes.
What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Oxygen therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pulmonary Fibrosis
Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition that can be diagnosed through a patient’s medical history. When it comes to treatment options, oxygen therapy is the most appropriate as it can prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension. However, there are other treatments available such as steroids and immune modulators like azathioprine, cyclophosphamide methotrexate, and cyclosporin. In some cases, anticoagulation may also be used to reduce the risk of pulmonary embolism. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) presents to the Emergency Department with fever, dyspnea, and overall feeling unwell. The attending physician suspects Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia. What is the most characteristic clinical feature of this condition?
Your Answer: Accompanying colourless frothy sputum
Correct Answer: Desaturation on exercise
Explanation:Understanding Pneumocystis jirovecii Pneumonia: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is a fungal infection that affects the lungs. While it is rare in healthy individuals, it is a significant concern for those with weakened immune systems, such as AIDS patients, organ transplant recipients, and individuals undergoing certain types of therapy. Here are some key symptoms and diagnostic features of this condition:
Desaturation on exercise: One of the hallmark symptoms of P. jirovecii pneumonia is a drop in oxygen levels during physical activity. This can be measured using pulse oximetry before and after walking up and down a hallway.
Cavitating lesions on chest X-ray: While a plain chest X-ray may show diffuse interstitial opacification, P. jirovecii pneumonia can also present as pulmonary nodules that cavitate. High-resolution computerised tomography (HRCT) is the preferred imaging modality.
Absence of cervical lymphadenopathy: Unlike some other respiratory infections, P. jirovecii pneumonia typically does not cause swelling of the lymph nodes in the neck.
Non-productive cough: Patients with P. jirovecii pneumonia may experience a dry, non-productive cough due to the thick, viscous nature of the secretions in the lungs.
Normal pulmonary function tests: P. jirovecii pneumonia does not typically cause an obstructive pattern on pulmonary function tests.
By understanding these symptoms and diagnostic features, healthcare providers can more effectively diagnose and treat P. jirovecii pneumonia in at-risk patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old man with chronic COPD presents for a review of his home oxygen therapy. The following results are from his arterial blood gas (ABG):
pH 7.37 (normal range 7.35–7.45)
pa(O2) 7.6 (normal range 10–14 kPa)
pa(CO2) 8 (normal range 4.0–6.0 kPa)
HCO3 37 (normal range 22–26 mmol)
base excess +6 (normal range −2 to +2 mmol).
Which of the following best describe this man’s blood gas result?Your Answer: Compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to acute respiratory disease
Correct Answer: Compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease
Explanation:Understanding ABGs: A Five-Step Approach and Mnemonic
Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis is a crucial tool in assessing a patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a five-step approach to interpreting ABGs:
1. Assess the patient.
2. Assess their oxygenation (pa(O2) should be >10 kPa).
3. Determine if the patient is acidotic (pH < 7.35) or alkalotic (pH > 7.45).
4. Assess respiratory status by determining if their pa(CO2) is high or low.
5. Assess metabolic status by determining if their bicarbonate (HCO3) is high or low.To aid in understanding ABGs, the mnemonic ROME can be used:
– Respiratory = Opposite: A low pH and high pa(CO2) indicate respiratory acidosis, while a high pH and low pa(CO2) indicate respiratory alkalosis.
– Metabolic = Equivalent: A high pH and high HCO3 indicate metabolic alkalosis, while a low pH and low HCO3 indicate metabolic acidosis.Compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is characterized by a normal pH, high pa(CO2), and high HCO3, indicating renal compensation. In contrast, compensation for respiratory alkalosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease would show a low pa(CO2) and a high pH.
Partial compensation for respiratory acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is characterized by a high pa(CO2) and a high HCO3, with a normal pH indicating full compensation and a mildly altered pH indicating partial compensation. Compensation for metabolic acidosis secondary to chronic respiratory disease is not applicable, as this condition would present with low HCO3 levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of increasing shortness of breath and dry cough over the past three months. He gets breathless after walking a few hundred metres. He is a non-smoker and takes medication for type II diabetes mellitus. During examination, his pulse is 80/minute and regular, blood pressure (BP) 130/70 mmHg, bilateral clubbing of digits, oxygen saturation (SpO2) in room air is 90%. Auscultation reveals bilateral, fine, late inspiratory crackles, more marked in the mid-zones and at the lung bases. Chest X-ray reveals patchy shadowing at the lung bases. What is the definitive investigation to guide his management?
Your Answer: Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis
Correct Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest
Explanation:High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest is the most reliable test for diagnosing idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF). The radiological pattern seen in IPF is called usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP), which is characterized by honeycombing, reticular opacities, and lung architectural distortion. In advanced cases, there may be lobar volume loss, particularly in the lower lobes.
Antinuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) tests are not useful for diagnosing IPF, as they are typically normal or only mildly elevated in this condition. These tests may be helpful in diagnosing interstitial lung disease associated with rheumatologic conditions, such as systemic lupus erythematosus or rheumatoid arthritis.
Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis can be performed in patients with IPF who are experiencing respiratory distress. This test typically shows type I respiratory failure with low oxygen levels and normal or decreased carbon dioxide levels. However, ABG analysis is not the definitive test for diagnosing IPF.
Bronchoalveolar lavage may be considered if HRCT chest cannot detect the UIP pattern, but it is not typically necessary for diagnosing IPF.
Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) can help differentiate between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases. In IPF, PFTs typically show a restrictive pattern, with decreased forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC), and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. While PFTs are a useful initial test for evaluating lung function in patients with suspected IPF, they are not definitive for establishing a diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old retired boiler maker presents to his General Practitioner with increasing shortness of breath and non-specific dull right-sided chest ache. He has a 35-pack-year history and has recently lost a little weight. On examination, there is evidence of a large right-sided pleural effusion.
Investigations:
Investigation
Result
Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 132 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 120 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
Platelets 170 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Chest X-ray: large right-sided pleural effusion.
Pleural tap: pleural effusion contains occasional red blood cells, white blood cells and abnormal-looking cells which look of a sarcomatous type.
Which of the following statements fits best with the underlying condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The vast majority of cases are associated with a history of asbestos exposure
Explanation:Understanding Mesothelioma: Causes, Treatment, and Prognosis
Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that has three major histological subtypes: sarcomatous, epithelial, and mixed. The vast majority of cases are associated with a history of direct exposure to asbestos, particularly in industries such as ship building, boiler manufacture, paper mill working, and insulation work. Patients often present with shortness of breath and chest pain on the affected side.
While smoking increases the risk of malignancy, it does not directly play a role in the development of malignant pleural effusion. Treatment often includes a combination of chemotherapy, radiotherapy, and surgery, but even with these approaches, the result is not curative. Median survival is short, with a life expectancy of around two years.
In early stages of cancer, radiation therapy combined with surgical treatment can be very effective, but in later stages, it is only effective in providing symptom relief. Radiation therapy alone will not be curative in 40% of cases. Understanding the causes, treatment options, and prognosis of mesothelioma is crucial for patients and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old farmer presented with progressive dyspnoea. He had a dry cough and exercise intolerance. On examination, few crackles were found in the upper zones of both lungs. Surgical lung biopsy was done which was reported as:
Interstitial inflammation, chronic bronchiolitis, and two foci of non-necrotizing granuloma.
What is the most likely clinical diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersensitivity pneumonitis
Explanation:Differentiating Lung Disorders: Histological Features
Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis: This lung disorder is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to mouldy hay or other organic materials. A farmer is likely to develop this condition due to exposure to such materials. The histological triad of hypersensitivity pneumonitis includes lymphocytic alveolitis, non-caseating granulomas, and poorly formed granulomas.
Aspergillosis: This lung disorder is rarely invasive. In cases where it is invasive, lung biopsy shows hyphae with vascular invasion and surrounding tissue necrosis.
Sarcoidosis: This lung disorder of unknown aetiology presents with non-caseating granuloma. Schumann bodies, which are calcified, rounded, laminated concretions inside the non-caseating granuloma, are found in sarcoidosis. The granulomas are formed of foreign body giant cells. Within the giant cells, there are star-shaped inclusions called asteroid bodies.
Histiocytosis X: This lung disorder presents with scattered nodules of Langerhans cells. Associated with it are eosinophils, macrophages, and giant cells. The Langerhans cells contain racket-shaped Birbeck granules.
Tuberculosis: This lung disorder typically has caseating granulomas in the lung parenchyma. There is also fibrosis in later stages. Ziehl–Neelsen staining of the smear reveals acid-fast bacilli (AFB) in many cases. Vasculitic lesions can also be found.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with severe emphysema visits his General Practitioner (GP) for his yearly check-up. He reports experiencing increasing breathlessness over the past six months and inquires about the potential benefits of long-term oxygen therapy. His recent routine blood work came back normal, and upon respiratory examination, there is a noticeable decrease in air entry. However, his cardiovascular examination appears to be normal. What would be an appropriate indication for prescribing this patient LTOT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:When to Prescribe Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients: Indications and Limitations
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive respiratory condition that can lead to hypoxia, or low oxygen levels in the blood. Oxygen therapy is a common treatment for COPD patients with hypoxia, but it is not appropriate for all cases. Here are some indications and limitations for prescribing oxygen therapy for COPD patients:
Indication: PaO2 < 7.3 kPa when stable or PaO2 > 7.3 and < 8 kPa when stable with secondary polycythaemia, nocturnal hypoxaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension present. Patients should meet the criteria on at least two blood gases taken when stable at least three weeks apart. Limitation: Oxygen therapy would have no impact on the frequency of acute exacerbations and would not be appropriate to prescribe for this indication. Indication: Symptomatic desaturation on exertion. Ambulatory oxygen may be prescribed if the presence of oxygen results in an increase in exercise capacity and/or dyspnoea. Limitation: There is no evidence that oxygen therapy is of benefit in patients with severe breathlessness who are not significantly hypoxic at rest or on exertion. Management options would include investigating for other potential causes of breathlessness and treating as appropriate, or reviewing inhaled and oral medication for COPD and pulmonary rehabilitation. Indication: PaO2 < 8.5 kPa when stable with secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension present. There is no evidence of survival benefit if patients with a PaO2 > 8 kPa are prescribed oxygen therapy.
In summary, oxygen therapy is a valuable treatment for COPD patients with hypoxia, but it should be prescribed with caution and based on specific indications and limitations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man, who had been working abroad in the hard metal industry, presented with progressive dyspnoea. A chest X-ray showed diffuse interstitial fibrosis bilaterally. What is the typical cellular component found in a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) of this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giant cells
Explanation:Understanding Giant Cell Interstitial Pneumonia in Hard Metal Lung Disease
Hard metal lung disease is a condition that affects individuals working in the hard metal industry, particularly those exposed to cobalt dust. Prolonged exposure can lead to fibrosis and the development of giant cell interstitial pneumonia (GIP), characterized by bizarre multinucleated giant cells in the alveoli. These cannibalistic cells are formed by alveolar macrophages and type II pneumocytes and can contain ingested macrophages. While cobalt exposure can also cause other respiratory conditions, GIP is a rare but serious complication that may require lung transplantation in severe cases. Understanding the significance of different cell types found in bronchoalveolar lavage can aid in the diagnosis and management of this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65 year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), presented with progressive dyspnoea over the past 2 weeks. There was an associated dry cough, but no fever. Examination revealed scattered wheezes and some expiratory high-pitched sounds. C-reactive protein (CRP) level was normal. Mantoux test was negative. Spirometry revealed the following report:
FEV1 51%
FVC 88%
FEV1/FVC 58%
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO)
Explanation:Respiratory Disorders: Bronchiolitis Obliterans, ARDS, Pneumocystis Pneumonia, COPD Exacerbation, and Idiopathic Pulmonary Hypertension
Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO) is a respiratory disorder that may occur after bone marrow, heart, or lung transplant. It presents with an obstructive pattern on spirometry, low DLCO, and hypoxia. CT scan shows air trapping, and chest X-ray may show interstitial infiltrates with hyperinflation. BO may also occur in connective tissue diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic variety called cryptogenic organising pneumonia (COP). In contrast, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) patients deteriorate quickly, and pneumocystis pneumonia usually presents with normal clinical findings. Infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is associated with a productive cough and raised CRP, while idiopathic pulmonary hypertension has a restrictive pattern and inspiratory fine crepitations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with increasing shortness of breath and cough for the last two days. The patient reports feeling fevers and chills and although he has a chronic cough, this has now become productive of yellow sputum over the last 36 hours. He denies chest pain. His past medical history is significant for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) for which he has been prescribed various inhalers that he is not compliant with. He currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day and does not drink alcohol.
His observations and blood tests results are shown below:
Investigation Result Normal value
Temperature 36.9 °C
Blood pressure 143/64 mmHg
Heart rate 77 beats per minute
Respiratory rate 32 breaths per minute
Sp(O2) 90% (room air)
White cell count 14.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
C-reactive protein 83 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Urea 5.5 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Physical examination reveals widespread wheeze throughout his lungs without other added sounds. There is no dullness or hyperresonance on percussion of the chest. His trachea is central.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest plain film
Explanation:The patient is experiencing shortness of breath, cough with sputum production, and widespread wheeze, along with elevated inflammatory markers. This suggests an infective exacerbation of COPD or community-acquired pneumonia. A chest X-ray should be ordered urgently to determine the cause and prescribe appropriate antibiotics. Treatment for COPD exacerbation includes oxygen therapy, nebulizers, oral steroids, and antibiotics. Blood cultures are not necessary at this stage unless the patient has fevers. A CTPA is not needed as the patient’s symptoms are not consistent with PE. Pulmonary function tests are not necessary in acute management. Sputum culture may be necessary if the patient’s CURB-65 score is ≥3 or if the score is 2 and antibiotics have not been given yet. The patient’s CURB-65 score is 1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man is three days post-elective low anterior resection for colorectal cancer. He is being managed in the High Dependency Unit. He has developed a cough productive of green phlegm, increased wheeze and breathlessness on minor exertion. He has a background history of smoking. He also suffers from stage 3 chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is a known carbon dioxide retainer. On examination, he is alert; his respiratory rate (RR) is 22 breaths/minute, blood pressure (BP) 126/78 mmHg, pulse 110 bpm, and oxygen saturations 87% on room air. He has mild wheeze and right basal crackles on chest auscultation.
Which of the following initial oxygen treatment routines is most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 litres of oxygen via simple face mask
Explanation:Oxygen Administration in COPD Patients: Guidelines and Considerations
Patients with COPD who require oxygen therapy must be carefully monitored to avoid complications such as acute hypoventilation and CO2 retention. The target oxygen saturation for these patients is no greater than 93%, and oxygen should be adjusted to the lowest concentration required to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90-92% in normocapnic patients. For those with a history of hypercapnic respiratory failure or severe COPD, a low inspired oxygen concentration is required, such as 2-4 litres/minute via a medium concentration mask or controlled oxygen at 24-28% via a Venturi mask. Nasal cannulae are best suited for stable patients where flow rate can be titrated based on blood gas analysis. Non-invasive ventilation should be considered in cases of persistent respiratory acidosis despite immediate maximum standard medical treatment on controlled oxygen therapy for no more than one hour. Careful monitoring and adherence to these guidelines can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for COPD patients receiving oxygen therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 85-year-old woman is hospitalised and undergoes surgery to replace the broken hip that she sustained as a result of falling down stairs. Upon discharge to a nursing home 10 days later, she is unable to ambulate fully and, about a month later, she dies suddenly.
Which of the following is most likely to be the immediate cause of death found at post-mortem examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Likely Cause of Sudden Death in an Elderly Patient with Fracture
Immobilisation after a fracture in elderly patients increases the risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to pulmonary embolism. In the case of a sudden death, pulmonary embolism is the most likely cause. Pneumonia with pneumococcus is also a risk for elderly patients in hospital, but the absence of signs and symptoms of infection makes it less likely. Tuberculosis is also unlikely as there were no signs of an infectious disease. Congestive heart failure is a possibility in the elderly, but it is unlikely to cause sudden death in this scenario. While malignancy is a risk for older patients, immobilisation leading to pulmonary thromboembolism is the most likely cause of sudden death in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old male is brought in with acute severe asthma. During examination, it is noted that his peripheral pulse volume decreases during inspiration. What is the most probable reason for this clinical finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced left atrial filling pressure on inspiration
Explanation:Pulsus Paradoxus
Pulsus paradoxus is a medical condition where there is an abnormal drop in blood pressure during inhalation. This occurs when the right heart responds directly to changes in intrathoracic pressure, while the filling of the left heart depends on the pulmonary vascular volume. In cases of severe airflow limitation, such as acute asthma, high respiratory rates can cause sudden negative intrathoracic pressure during inhalation. This enhances the normal fall in blood pressure, leading to pulsus paradoxus.
It is important to understand the underlying mechanisms of pulsus paradoxus to properly diagnose and treat the condition. By recognizing the relationship between intrathoracic pressure and blood pressure, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to manage the symptoms and prevent complications. With proper management, patients with pulsus paradoxus can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are reviewing a patient who attends the clinic with a respiratory disorder.
Which of the following conditions would be suitable for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) for an elderly patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Explanation:Respiratory Conditions and Oxygen Therapy: Guidelines for Treatment
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), opiate toxicity, asthma, croup, and myasthenia gravis are respiratory conditions that may require oxygen therapy. The British Thoracic Society recommends assessing the need for home oxygen therapy in COPD patients with severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturation of 92% or below when breathing air. Opiate toxicity can cause respiratory compromise, which may require naloxone, but this needs to be considered carefully in palliative patients. Asthmatic patients who are acutely unwell and require oxygen should be admitted to hospital for assessment, treatment, and ventilation support. Croup, a childhood respiratory infection, may require hospital admission if oxygen therapy is needed. Myasthenia gravis may cause neuromuscular respiratory failure during a myasthenic crisis, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring intubation and ventilator support and not amenable to home oxygen therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an asthma check-up. He is currently on Clenil® Modulite® (beclomethasone) 100 μg twice daily as a preventer inhaler, but still needs to use his salbutamol inhaler 2-3 times a day. During the examination, he is able to complete sentences, not using any accessory muscles of respiration, his oxygen saturation is 99%, his chest is clear, and PEFR is 85% of his predicted value. What is the recommended next step in managing this patient according to the latest BTS guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add formoterol a long-acting beta agonist (LABA)
Explanation:Managing Pediatric Asthma: Choosing the Next Step in Treatment
When treating pediatric asthma, it is important to follow guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for the patient. According to the 2019 SIGN/BTS guidelines, the next step after low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) or leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to ICS. However, it is important to note that the NICE guidelines differ in that LTRA is recommended before LABA.
If the patient does not respond adequately to LABA and a trial of LTRA does not yield benefit, referral to a pediatrician is advised. Increasing the dose of ICS should only be considered after the addition of LTRA or LABA.
It is crucial to never stop ICS therapy, as adherence to therapy is a guiding principle in managing pediatric asthma. LABAs should never be used alone without ICS, as this has been linked to life-threatening asthma exacerbations. Always follow guidelines and consult with a pediatrician for the best possible treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man in the United Kingdom presents with fever and cough. He smells strongly of alcohol and has no fixed abode. His heart rate was 123 bpm, blood pressure 93/75 mmHg, oxygen saturations 92% and respiratory rate 45 breaths per minute. Further history from him reveals no recent travel history and no contact with anyone with a history of foreign travel.
Chest X-ray revealed consolidation of the right upper zone.
Which of the following drugs is the most prudent choice in his treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meropenem
Explanation:Understanding Klebsiella Pneumoniae Infection and Treatment Options
Klebsiella pneumoniae (KP) is a common organism implicated in various infections such as pneumonia, urinary tract infection, intra-abdominal abscesses, or bacteraemia. Patients with underlying conditions like alcoholism, diabetes, or chronic lung disease are at higher risk of contracting KP. The new hypervirulent strains with capsular serotypes K1 or K2 are increasingly being seen. In suspected cases of Klebsiella infection, treatment is best started with carbapenems. However, strains possessing carbapenemases are also being discovered, and Polymyxin B or E or tigecycline are now used as the last line of treatment. This article provides an overview of KP infection, radiological findings, and treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man is brought into the Emergency Department after a road traffic collision (RTC). During examination, he is found to be tachycardic at 120 bpm, sweating profusely, and pale. His right side has decreased breath sounds and chest movement, and his trachea is deviated to the left. You are requested to insert a large-bore cannula.
Where would you position it in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the decreased breath sounds
Explanation:To treat a tension pneumothorax, emergency intervention is required. A large-bore cannula should be inserted into the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side where breath sounds are decreased to relieve pressure in the pleural space. This is the correct location for needle decompression. However, it is important to note that definitive management involves inserting an intercostal chest drain. Inserting a needle into the fifth intercostal space, mid-axillary line of the chest, on the side of the decreased breath sounds is incorrect for needle decompression, but it is where the chest drain will be inserted afterwards. Inserting a needle into the second intercostal space, mid-axillary line of the chest, on the side with normal breath sounds is the correct space, but the wrong location and wrong side of the body. It would be challenging to insert a needle into this location in reality. Inserting a needle into the third intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the decreased breath sounds is the correct anatomical line, but the incorrect intercostal space. Similarly, inserting a needle into the sixth intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the side of the chest with decreased breath sounds is the correct anatomical line, but the wrong intercostal space.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient came in with worsening shortness of breath. A CT scan of the chest revealed a lesion in the right middle lobe of the lung. The radiologist described the findings as an area of ground-glass opacity surrounded by denser lung tissue.
What is the more common name for this sign?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atoll sign
Explanation:Radiological Signs in Lung Imaging: Atoll, Halo, Kerley B, Signet Ring, and Tree-in-Bud
When examining CT scans of the lungs, radiologists look for specific patterns that can indicate various pathologies. One such pattern is the atoll sign, also known as the reversed halo sign. This sign is characterized by a region of ground-glass opacity surrounded by denser tissue, forming a crescent or annular shape that is at least 2 mm thick. It is often seen in cases of cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (COP), but can also be caused by tuberculosis or other infections.
Another important sign is the halo sign, which is seen in angioinvasive aspergillosis. This sign appears as a ground-glass opacity surrounding a pulmonary nodule or mass, indicating alveolar hemorrhage.
Kerley B lines are another pattern that can be seen on lung imaging, indicating pulmonary edema. These lines are caused by fluid accumulation in the interlobular septae at the periphery of the lung.
The signet ring sign is a pattern seen in bronchiectasis, where a dilated bronchus and accompanying pulmonary artery branch are visible in cross-section. This sign is characterized by a marked dilation of the bronchus, which is not seen in the normal population.
Finally, the tree-in-bud sign is a pattern seen in endobronchial tuberculosis or other endobronchial pathologies. This sign appears as multiple centrilobular nodules with a linear branching pattern, and can also be seen in cases of cystic fibrosis or viral pneumonia.
Overall, understanding these radiological signs can help clinicians diagnose and treat various lung pathologies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male presents with complaints of difficulty breathing. During the physical examination, clubbing of the fingers is observed. What medical condition is commonly associated with clubbing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Respiratory and Other Causes of Clubbing of the Fingers
Clubbing of the fingers is a condition where the tips of the fingers become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. This condition is often associated with respiratory diseases such as carcinoma of the lung, bronchiectasis, mesothelioma, empyema, and pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is not typically associated with chronic obstructive airway disease (COAD). Other causes of clubbing of the fingers include cyanotic congenital heart disease, inflammatory bowel disease, and infective endocarditis.
In summary, clubbing of the fingers is a physical manifestation of various underlying medical conditions. It is important to identify the underlying cause of clubbing of the fingers in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has suffered a left-sided pneumothorax. A chest drain has been inserted through the left fifth intercostal space at the mid-axillary line.
As well as the intercostal muscles, which other muscle is likely to have been pierced?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serratus anterior
Explanation:Muscles and Chest Drains: Understanding the Anatomy
The human body is a complex system of muscles, bones, and organs that work together to keep us alive and functioning. When it comes to chest drains, understanding the anatomy of the surrounding muscles is crucial for successful placement and management. Let’s take a closer look at some of the key muscles involved.
Serratus Anterior
The serratus anterior muscle is located on the lateral chest and plays a vital role in protracting the scapula and contributing to rotation. It is likely to be pierced with most chest drains due to its position, with its lower four segments attaching to the fifth to eighth ribs anterior to the mid-axillary line.Latissimus Dorsi
The latissimus dorsi muscle is a back muscle involved in adduction, medial rotation, and extension of the shoulder. It is not pierced by a chest drain.External Oblique
The external oblique muscle is located in the anterior abdomen and is not involved with a chest drain.Pectoralis Major
The pectoralis major muscle is situated in the anterior chest and is not affected by a chest drain, as it does not overlie the fifth intercostal space at the mid-axillary line. It flexes, extends, medially rotates, and adducts the shoulder.Pectoralis Minor
The pectoralis minor muscle lies inferior to the pectoralis major on the anterior chest. It is a small muscle and is not usually pierced with a chest drain, as it does not overlie the fifth intercostal space at the mid-clavicular line.In conclusion, understanding the anatomy of the muscles surrounding the chest is essential for successful chest drain placement and management. Knowing which muscles are likely to be pierced and which are not can help healthcare professionals provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old known alcoholic is brought by ambulance after being found unconscious on the road on a Sunday afternoon. He has a superficial laceration in the right frontal region. He is admitted for observation over the weekend. The admission chest X-ray is normal. Before discharge on Tuesday morning, he is noted to be febrile and dyspnoeic. Blood tests reveal a neutrophilia and elevated C-reactive protein (CRP). A chest X-ray demonstrates consolidation in the lower zone of the right lung.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that typically affects the lower lobes of the lungs, particularly the right middle or lower lobes or left lower lobe. It is often seen in individuals who have consumed alcohol and subsequently vomited, leading to the aspiration of the contents into the lower bronchi. If an alcoholic is found unconscious with a lower zone consolidation, aspiration pneumonia should be considered when prescribing antibiotics. Hospital-acquired pneumonia (HAP) is unlikely to occur within the first 48 hours of admission. Tuberculosis (TB) is a rare diagnosis in this case as it typically affects the upper lobes and the patient’s chest X-ray from two days earlier was normal. Staphylococcal pneumonia may be seen in alcoholics but is characterized by cavitating lesions and empyema. Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is common in immunosuppressed individuals and presents with bilateral perihilar consolidations and possible lung cyst formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with shortness of breath after being sat at home.
An arterial blood gas (ABG) is performed and shows the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.48 7.35–7.45
pO2 7.3 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO2 3.9 kPa 4.6–6 kPa
HCO3 24 mmol/l 24–30 mmol/l
Which one of the following conditions is most likely to account for these investigation results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Understanding Respiratory Failure: Causes and ABG Interpretation
Respiratory failure is a condition where the lungs fail to adequately oxygenate the blood or remove carbon dioxide. There are two types of respiratory failure: type I and type II. Type I respiratory failure is characterized by low levels of oxygen and normal or low levels of carbon dioxide, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. Type II respiratory failure, on the other hand, is characterized by low levels of oxygen and high levels of carbon dioxide, resulting in respiratory acidosis.
Pulmonary embolism is the only cause of type I respiratory failure. This condition results in reduced oxygenation of the blood due to a blockage in the pulmonary artery. The ABG of a patient with pulmonary embolism would show low levels of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as respiratory alkalosis.
Hypothyroidism, Guillain–Barré syndrome, and myasthenia gravis are all causes of type II respiratory failure. Hypothyroidism can result in decreased ventilatory drive, while Guillain–Barré syndrome and myasthenia gravis can cause respiratory muscle weakness, leading to hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis.
Opiate overdose is another cause of type II respiratory failure. Opiates act on the respiratory centers in the brain, reducing ventilation and causing respiratory acidosis.
In summary, understanding the causes and ABG interpretation of respiratory failure is crucial in identifying and managing this potentially life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male patient complains of worsening breathlessness and weight loss over the past two months. During examination, scattered wheezing, coughing, and fever are observed. A chest x-ray reveals pneumonic shadowing, and there are several tender subcutaneous nodules and a purpuric rash. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome
Explanation:Churg-Strauss Syndrome: A Granulomatous Vasculitis
Churg-Strauss syndrome is a type of granulomatous vasculitis that is more commonly seen in males. The classic presentation of this syndrome includes asthma, rhinitis, and eosinophilia vasculitis. The condition is characterized by pulmonary eosinophilic infiltration, with the lungs, peripheral veins, and skin being the most commonly affected areas. Chest x-rays typically show transient patchy pneumonic shadows, while the skin may exhibit tender subcutaneous nodules and purpuric lesions. In addition, perinuclear anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA) is usually positive.
While sarcoidosis may present with similar symptoms, wheezing is not typically seen, and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy is the typical x-ray feature. On the other hand, granulomatosis with polyangiitis may also be a possibility, but ENT symptoms are expected, and wheezing is not typical. Overall, Churg-Strauss syndrome should be considered in patients presenting with asthma, rhinitis, and eosinophilia vasculitis, along with the characteristic pulmonary and skin manifestations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl comes to her general practice clinic with her mother. She has been experiencing nasal congestion, sneezing, and a sore throat for the past few days. During the examination, her pulse rate is 80 bpm, respiratory rate is 20 breaths per minute, and temperature is 36.9 °C. She has no significant medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common cold
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for a Young Girl with Respiratory Symptoms
A young girl is experiencing respiratory symptoms, including sore throat, sneezing, and nasal congestion. Here are some possible diagnoses to consider:
1. Common cold: This is a common viral infection that can cause mild fever, especially in children.
2. Hay fever: This is an allergic reaction to specific allergens, such as pollen, that can cause similar symptoms to the common cold, but with a chronic and fluctuating course.
3. Infectious mononucleosis: This is a viral infection that can cause fatigue, fever, laryngitis, and a rash, but is less likely in this case.
4. influenzae: This is a seasonal viral infection that can cause more severe symptoms, such as high fever, headache, and muscle aches.
5. Meningitis: This is a serious bacterial infection that can cause non-specific respiratory symptoms, but also tachycardia, hypotension, high fever, photophobia, neck stiffness, and petechial rash, which are not mentioned here.
Possible Diagnoses for a Young Girl with Respiratory Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman presents to a respiratory outpatient clinic with a dry cough and shortness of breath that has been ongoing for 6 months. Despite being a non-smoker, her husband is a pigeon breeder. Upon examination, she has an SpO2 of 95% on room air and clubbing is present. Chest examination reveals symmetrical and bilateral reduced chest expansion with fine end-inspiratory crepitations. A chest radiograph shows increased interstitial markings in the lower zones of both lungs. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) confirms these findings and also shows bibasal honeycombing. There is no lymphadenopathy present on CT. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (usual interstitial pneumonia)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Interstitial Lung Disease: A Case Study
Interstitial lung disease (ILD) is a group of lung disorders that affect the interstitium, the tissue and space surrounding the air sacs in the lungs. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is the most common type of ILD, characterized by chronic inflammation of the lung interstitium with lower zone predominance. This article discusses the differential diagnosis for ILD, using a case study of a patient presenting with subacute dry cough, exertional dyspnea, and general malaise and fatigue.
Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis (IPF)
IPF is characterized by chronic inflammation of the lung interstitium with lower zone predominance. Patients present with subacute dry cough, exertional dyspnea, and general malaise and fatigue. Clinical examination reveals fine end-inspiratory crepitations throughout the chest with lower zone predominance. Radiological findings include reduced lung volumes and bilateral increased interstitial markings with lower zone predominance on chest X-ray (CXR), and honeycombing and microcyst formation in the lung bases on high-resolution CT (HRCT). Lung transplantation is the only definitive treatment, while steroids are not indicated.Tuberculosis
Tuberculosis presents with chronic cough, haemoptysis, fever, and night sweats. Imaging shows cavitating lesions ± lymphadenopathy.Bronchiectasis
Bronchiectasis presents with productive cough, recurrent chest infections, and haemoptysis. CXR findings are often non-specific, but dilated, thick-walled (ectatic) bronchi are easily seen on HRCT.Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis (Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis)
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis may be caused by airborne irritants to lung parenchyma, such as pigeon breeding. Changes are classically found in lung apices, making it less likely than IPF/UIP.Sarcoidosis
End-stage sarcoidosis may present with lung fibrosis, but this does not spare the apices and typically affects the middle and upper zones of the lung.In conclusion, the differential diagnosis for ILD includes IPF, tuberculosis, bronchiectasis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, and sarcoidosis. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 40
Incorrect
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What is the most effective method for diagnosing sleep apnoea syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polygraphic sleep studies
Explanation:Sleep Apnoea
Sleep apnoea is a condition where breathing stops during sleep, causing frequent interruptions in sleep and restlessness. This leads to daytime drowsiness and irritability. Snoring is often associated with this condition. To diagnose sleep apnoea, a polygraphic recording of sleep is taken, which shows periods of at least 30 instances where breathing stops for 10 or more seconds in seven hours of sleep. These periods are also associated with a decrease in arterial oxygen saturation. the symptoms and diagnosis of sleep apnoea is important for proper treatment and management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a review of his home oxygen therapy. The results of his arterial blood gas (ABG) are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal range
pH 7.34 7.35–7.45
pa(O2) 8.0 kPa 10.5–13.5 kPa
pa(CO2) 7.6 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
HCO3- 36 mmol 24–30 mmol/l
Base excess +4 mmol −2 to +2 mmol
What is the best interpretation of this man's ABG results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation
Explanation:Understanding Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) Results: A Five-Step Approach
Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) results provide valuable information about a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status. Understanding ABG results requires a systematic approach. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a five-step approach to assessing ABGs.
Step 1: Assess the patient and their oxygenation status. A pa(O2) level of >10 kPa is considered normal.
Step 2: Determine if the patient is acidotic (pH <7.35) or alkalotic (pH >7.45).
Step 3: Evaluate the respiratory component of the acid-base balance. A high pa(CO2) level (>6.0) suggests respiratory acidosis or compensation for metabolic alkalosis, while a low pa(CO2) level (<4.5) suggests respiratory alkalosis or compensation for metabolic acidosis. Step 4: Evaluate the metabolic component of the acid-base balance. A high bicarbonate (HCO3) level (>26 mmol) suggests metabolic alkalosis or renal compensation for respiratory acidosis, while a low bicarbonate level (<22 mmol) suggests metabolic acidosis or renal compensation for respiratory alkalosis. Step 5: Interpret the results in the context of the patient’s clinical history and presentation. It is important to note that ABG results should not be interpreted in isolation. A thorough clinical assessment is necessary to fully understand a patient’s acid-base balance and oxygenation status.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to a spirometry clinic with a history of progressive dyspnea on exertion over the past six months, particularly when hurrying or walking uphill. What spirometry result would indicate a possible diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Interpreting Spirometry Results: Understanding FEV1 and FEV1/FVC Ratio
Spirometry is a common diagnostic test used to assess lung function. It measures the amount of air that can be exhaled forcefully and quickly after taking a deep breath. Two important measurements obtained from spirometry are the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and the ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity (FVC).
Identifying an obstructive disease pattern
In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the airways are obstructed, resulting in a reduced FEV1. However, the lung volume is relatively normal, and therefore the FVC will be near normal too. COPD is diagnosed as an FEV1 < 80% predicted and an FEV1/FVC < 0.70. Understanding the clinical scenario While an FEV1 < 30% predicted and an FEV1/FVC < 0.70 indicate an obstructive picture, it is important to refer to the clinical scenario. Shortness of breath on mild exertion, particularly walking up hills or when hurrying, is likely to relate to an FEV1 between 50-80%, defined by NICE as moderate airflow obstruction. Differentiating between obstructive and restrictive lung patterns An FVC < 80% expected value is indicative of a restrictive lung pattern. In COPD, the FVC is usually preserved or increased, hence the FEV1/FVC ratio decreases. An FEV1 of <0.30 indicates severe COPD, but it is not possible to have an FEV1/FVC ratio of > 0.70 with an FEV1 this low in COPD. It is important to note, however, that in patterns of restrictive lung disease, you can have a reduced FEV1 with a normal FEV1/FVC ratio.
Conclusion
Interpreting spirometry results requires an understanding of FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio. Identifying an obstructive disease pattern, understanding the clinical scenario, and differentiating between obstructive and restrictive lung patterns are crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old teacher visits her GP as she has noticed that she is becoming increasingly breathless whilst walking. She has always enjoyed walking and usually walks 5 times a week. Over the past year she has noted that she can no longer manage the same distance that she has been accustomed to without getting breathless and needing to stop. She wonders if this is a normal part of ageing or if there could be an underlying medical problem.
Which of the following are consistent with normal ageing with respect to the respiratory system?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduction of forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) by 20–30%
Explanation:Age-Related Changes in Respiratory Function and Abnormalities to Watch For
As we age, our respiratory system undergoes natural changes that can affect our lung function. By the age of 80, it is normal to experience a reduction in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC) by about 25-30%. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) also decreases by approximately 30% in both men and women. However, if these changes are accompanied by abnormal readings such as PaO2 levels below 8.0 kPa, PaCO2 levels above 6.5 kPa, or O2 saturation levels below 91% on air, it may indicate hypoxemia or hypercapnia, which are not consistent with normal aging. It is important to monitor these readings and seek medical attention if abnormalities are detected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with right-sided pleuritic chest pain. He reports feeling a sudden ‘pop’ followed by the onset of pain and shortness of breath.
Upon examination, the patient appears to be struggling to breathe with a respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute. Diminished breath sounds are heard on the right side of the chest during auscultation.
Diagnostic tests reveal a PaO2 of 8.2 kPa (normal range: 10.5-13.5 kPa) and a PaCO2 of 3.3 kPa (normal range: 4.6-6.0 kPa). A chest X-ray shows a 60% right-sided pneumothorax.
What is the most appropriate course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 14F chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire
Explanation:Safe and Effective Chest Drain Insertion Techniques for Pneumothorax Management
Pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural cavity, can cause significant respiratory distress and requires prompt management. Chest drain insertion is a common procedure used to treat pneumothorax, but the technique used depends on the size and cause of the pneumothorax. Here are some safe and effective chest drain insertion techniques for managing pneumothorax:
1. Narrow-bore chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire: This technique is appropriate for large spontaneous pneumothorax without trauma. It involves inserting a narrow-bore chest drain over a Seldinger wire, which is a minimally invasive technique that reduces the risk of complications.
2. Portex chest drain insertion: Portex chest drains are a safer alternative to surgical chest drains in traumatic cases. This technique involves inserting a less traumatic chest drain that is easier to manage and less likely to cause complications.
3. Avoid chest drain insertion using a trochar: Chest drain insertion using a trochar is a dangerous technique that can cause significant pressure damage to surrounding tissues. It should be avoided.
4. Avoid repeated air aspiration: Although needle aspiration is a management option for symptomatic pneumothorax, repeated air aspiration is not recommended. It can cause complications and is less effective than chest drain insertion.
In conclusion, chest drain insertion is an effective technique for managing pneumothorax, but the technique used should be appropriate for the size and cause of the pneumothorax. Narrow-bore chest drain insertion over a Seldinger wire and Portex chest drain insertion are safer alternatives to more invasive techniques. Chest drain insertion using a trochar and repeated air aspiration should be avoided.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male smoker arrived in the Emergency Department by ambulance. He had become increasingly breathless at home, and despite receiving high-flow oxygen in the ambulance he is no better. He has a flapping tremor of his hands, a bounding pulse and palmar erythema.
What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypercapnia
Explanation:Understanding Hypercapnia: A Possible Cause of Breathlessness and Flapping Tremor in COPD Patients
Hypercapnia is a condition that can occur in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and respiratory failure. It is caused by the retention of carbon dioxide (CO2) due to a relative loss of surface area for gas exchange within the lungs. This can lead to bronchospasm and inflammation, which can further exacerbate the problem. In some cases, patients with chronic hypoxia and hypercapnia may become dependent on hypoxia to drive respiration. If high concentrations of oxygen are given, this drive may be reduced or lost completely, leading to hypoventilation, reduced minute ventilation, accumulation of CO2, and subsequent respiratory acidosis (type 2 respiratory failure).
External signs of hypercapnia include reduced Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, flapping tremor (asterixis), palmar erythema, and bounding pulses (due to CO2-induced vasodilation). While other conditions such as hepatic encephalopathy, Parkinson’s disease, delirium tremens, and hyperthyroidism can also cause tremors and other symptoms, they do not typically cause breathlessness or the specific type of tremor seen in hypercapnia.
It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize the signs and symptoms of hypercapnia in COPD patients, as prompt intervention can help prevent further complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right-sided chest pain. She reports experiencing fever and shortness of breath for the past week. Upon examination, there are reduced breath sounds on the right side, and a chest X-ray reveals a right pleural effusion without loculation. The patient consents to a thoracentesis to obtain a sample of the pleural fluid.
What is the optimal location for needle insertion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line
Explanation:Proper Placement for Thoracentesis: Avoiding Nerve and Vessel Damage
When performing a thoracentesis to sample pleural fluid, it is crucial to ensure that the needle is inserted into a pocket of fluid. This is typically done with ultrasound guidance, but in some cases, doctors must percuss the thorax to identify an area of increased density. However, it is important to remember that the intercostal neurovascular bundle runs inferior to the rib, so the needle should be inserted above the rib to avoid damaging nearby nerves and vessels. The needle is generally inserted through the patient’s back to minimize discomfort and decrease the risk of damaging the neurovascular bundle. The BTS guidelines recommend aspirating from the triangle of safety under the axilla, but it is common practice to aspirate more posteriorly. Of the options listed, only inserting the needle above the fifth rib in the mid-axillary line meets all of these criteria. Other options are either too high, too low, or risk damaging nearby nerves and vessels. Proper placement is crucial for a successful and safe thoracentesis procedure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents with a history of recurrent cough, haemoptysis, and copious amounts of mucopurulent sputum for the past 10 years. Sputum analysis shows mixed flora with anaerobes present. During childhood, she experienced multiple episodes of pneumonia.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Recognizing Bronchiectasis: Symptoms and Indicators
Bronchiectasis is a respiratory condition that can be identified through several symptoms and indicators. One of the most common signs is the production of large amounts of sputum, which can be thick and difficult to cough up. Additionally, crackles may be heard when listening to the chest with a stethoscope. In some cases, finger clubbing may also be present. This occurs when the fingertips become enlarged and rounded, resembling drumsticks.
It is important to note that bronchiectasis can be caused by a variety of factors, including childhood pneumonia or previous tuberculosis. These conditions can lead to damage in the airways, which can result in bronchiectasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 48
Incorrect
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As part of the investigation of breathlessness, a 68-year-old patient has spirometry performed. You learn that he spent all his working life in a factory. The following results are available:
Measured Expected
FEV1 (L) 2.59 3.46
FVC (L) 3.16 4.21
Ratio (%) 82 81
Which of the following is the most likely cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asbestosis
Explanation:Possible Respiratory Diagnoses Based on Pulmonary Function Testing Results
Based on the patient’s age and history of factory work, along with a restrictive defect on pulmonary function testing, asbestosis is the most likely diagnosis. Other possible respiratory diagnoses include allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), asthma, emphysema, and bronchiectasis. ABPA and asthma are associated with an obstructive picture on pulmonary function tests, while emphysema and bronchiectasis are also possible differentials based on the history but are associated with an obstructive lung defect. However, it would be unusual for an individual to have their first presentation of asthma at 72 years old. Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and additional diagnostic tests may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden shortness of breath and right-sided pleuritic chest pain along with dizziness. Upon examination, there is no tenderness in the chest wall and no abnormal sounds on auscultation. The calves appear normal. The electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia with a heart rate of 130 bpm. The D-dimer level is elevated at 0.85 mg/l. The chest X-ray is normal, and the oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. The ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan indicates a low probability of pulmonary embolism. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Request a computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiogram
Explanation:The Importance of Imaging in Diagnosing Pulmonary Embolism
Pulmonary embolism is a common medical issue that requires accurate diagnosis to initiate appropriate treatment. While preliminary investigations such as ECG, ABG, and D-dimer can raise clinical suspicion, imaging plays a crucial role in making a definitive diagnosis. V/Q imaging is often the first step, but if clinical suspicion is high, a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) may be necessary. This non-invasive imaging scan can detect a filling defect in the pulmonary vessel, indicating the presence of an embolus. Repeating a V/Q scan is unlikely to provide additional information. Bronchoscopy is not useful in detecting pulmonary embolism, and treating as an LRTI is not appropriate without evidence of infection. Early and accurate diagnosis is essential in managing pulmonary embolism effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after aspirating a peanut an hour earlier. He has a non-productive cough and shortness of breath. On arrival in the Emergency Department, he is tachypnoeic and has an oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. A chest X-ray demonstrates a complete whiteout of the right lung and the trachea is seen deviated to the right of the midline.
Which of the following processes is most likely causing the findings seen on the chest X-ray?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atelectasis
Explanation:Differentiating Acute Aspiration from Other Pulmonary Conditions
When a patient presents with acute aspiration, it is important to differentiate it from other pulmonary conditions. The most likely process in acute aspiration is atelectasis due to bronchial obstruction. This occurs when the main stem bronchus is blocked, preventing gas from entering the affected lung and causing it to collapse. A chest X-ray will show complete whiteout of the hemithorax and ipsilateral tension on the mediastinum, leading to shifting of the trachea towards the affected lung.
Pneumonia is less likely to develop so acutely and typically presents with productive cough and fever. Pneumothorax, on the other hand, would not cause a whiteout of the hemithorax and would instead show a line in the lung space with decreased lung markings peripherally. Pleural effusion could cause similar symptoms but would cause a contralateral mediastinal shift and is often associated with other systemic conditions. Pulmonary edema, which often occurs in the context of left heart failure, presents with cough and shortness of breath, but patients will have crackles on auscultation and are unlikely to have a mediastinal shift on chest X-ray.
Therefore, understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating acute aspiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 51
Incorrect
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You are on call in the Emergency Department when an ambulance brings in an elderly man who was found unconscious in his home, clutching an empty bottle of whiskey. On physical examination, he is febrile with a heart rate of 110 bpm, blood pressure of 100/70 mmHg and pulse oximetry of 89% on room air. You hear crackles in the right lower lung base and note dullness to percussion in those areas. His breath is intensely malodorous, and there appears to be dried vomit in his beard.
What is the most likely organism causing his pneumonia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mixed anaerobes
Explanation:Types of Bacteria that Cause Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that can be caused by various types of bacteria. One common cause is the ingestion of large quantities of alcohol, which can lead to vomiting and aspiration of gastric contents. This can result in pneumonia caused by Gram-negative anaerobes from the oral flora or gastric contents, which produce foul-smelling short-chain fatty acids.
Other types of bacteria that can cause pneumonia include Streptococcus pneumoniae, the most common cause of severe bacterial pneumonia requiring hospitalization. It is a Gram-positive, catalase-negative coccus. Staphylococcus aureus is a less common cause of pneumonia, often seen after influenzae infection. It is a Gram-positive, coagulase-positive coccus.
Legionella pneumophila causes Legionnaires’ disease, a severe pneumonia that typically affects older people and is contracted through contaminated air conditioning ducts or showers. The best stain for this organism is a silver stain. Chlamydia pneumoniae causes an ‘atypical’ pneumonia with bilateral diffuse infiltrates, and the chest radiograph often looks worse than is indicated by the patient’s presentation. C. pneumoniae is an obligate intracellular organism.
In summary, understanding the different types of bacteria that can cause pneumonia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to the hospital with shortness of breath and lethargy for the past two weeks.
On clinical examination, there are reduced breath sounds, dullness to percussion and decreased vocal fremitus at the left base.
Chest X-ray reveals a moderate left-sided pleural effusions. A pleural aspirate is performed on the ward. Analysis is shown:
Aspirate Serum
Total protein 18.5 g/l 38 g/l
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 1170 u/l 252 u/l
pH 7.37 7.38
What is the most likely cause of the pleural effusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Pleural Effusions: Causes and Criteria for Exudates
Pleural effusions, the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space surrounding the lungs, can be classified as exudates or transudates using Light’s criteria. While the traditional cut-off value of >30 g/l of protein to indicate an exudate and <30 g/l for a transudate is no longer recommended, Light's criteria still provide a useful framework for diagnosis. An exudate is indicated when the ratio of pleural fluid protein to serum protein is >0.5, the ratio of pleural fluid LDH to serum LDH is >0.6, or pleural fluid LDH is greater than 2/3 times the upper limit for serum.
Exudate effusions are typically caused by inflammation and disruption to cell architecture, while transudates are often associated with systematic illnesses that affect oncotic or hydrostatic pressure. In the case of hypothyroidism, an endocrine disorder, an exudative pleural effusion is consistent with overstimulation of the ovaries.
Other conditions that can cause exudative pleural effusions include pneumonia and pulmonary embolism. Mesothelioma, a type of cancer associated with asbestos exposure, can also cause an exudative pleural effusion, but is less likely in the absence of chest pain, persistent cough, and unexplained weight loss.
Understanding the causes and criteria for exudative pleural effusions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits the Respiratory Outpatients Department complaining of a dry cough and increasing breathlessness. During the examination, the doctor observes finger clubbing, central cyanosis, and fine end-inspiratory crackles upon auscultation. The chest X-ray shows reticular shadows and peripheral honeycombing, while respiratory function tests indicate a restrictive pattern with reduced lung volumes but a normal forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1): forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio. The patient's pulmonary fibrosis is attributed to which of the following medications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bleomycin
Explanation:Drug-Induced Pulmonary Fibrosis: Causes and Investigations
Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition characterized by scarring of the lungs, which can be caused by various diseases and drugs. One drug that has been linked to pulmonary fibrosis is bleomycin, while other causes include pneumoconiosis, occupational lung diseases, and certain medications. To aid in diagnosis, chest X-rays, high-resolution computed tomography (CT), and lung function tests may be performed. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause. However, drugs such as aspirin, ramipril, spironolactone, and simvastatin have not been associated with pulmonary fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential risks of certain medications and to monitor for any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man complains of worsening shortness of breath. During examination, the left base has a stony dull percussion note. A chest x-ray reveals opacification in the lower lobe of the left lung. What is the most suitable test for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound-guided pleural fluid aspiration
Explanation:Left Pleural Effusion Diagnosis
A left pleural effusion is present in this patient, which is likely to be significant in size. To diagnose this condition, a diagnostic aspiration is necessary. The fluid obtained from the aspiration should be sent for microscopy, culture, and cytology to determine the underlying cause of the effusion. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment plan for the patient. Therefore, it is essential to perform a diagnostic aspiration and analyze the fluid obtained to provide the best possible care for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has presented with recurrent respiratory distress over the last 4 years. She has also complained of wheezing at night and coughing up of tenacious sputum, which was occasionally black. Blood reports showed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 112g/dl 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 12 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophil count 6.0 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Eosinophil count 1.5 × 109/l 0–0.4 × 109/l
Lymphocyte count 4.1 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) 2800 IU/l 1–87 IU/l
Which of the following is the most likely finding on a chest computerised tomography (CT) scan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central cystic/varicose bronchiectasis in multiple lobes
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Bronchiectasis and Their Possible Underlying Causes
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the bronchial tubes in the lungs become permanently damaged and widened, leading to chronic cough, sputum production, and recurrent infections. However, bronchiectasis can have different patterns and locations, which may indicate different underlying causes or associated conditions. Here are some examples:
– Central cystic/varicose bronchiectasis in multiple lobes: This may suggest allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) or allergic bronchopulmonary mycosis (ABPM), which are allergic reactions to Aspergillus fungi. ABPA can also occur without bronchiectasis, but the presence of bronchiectasis can worsen the prognosis. Other possible differentials include sarcoidosis, Churg–Strauss syndrome, bronchocentric granulomatosis, or eosinophilic pneumonia.
– Bronchiectasis mainly in upper lobes: This may be seen in chronic asthma, but usually, it is focal and limited to one or two lobes.
– Central bronchiectasis in mainly a single lobe: This may also suggest chronic asthma.
– Lower lobe fibrosis in both lungs: This may suggest interstitial lung disease, which is a group of conditions that cause inflammation and scarring of the lung tissue.
– Diffuse bronchiectasis involving mid-lung fields: This may suggest immotile Ciliary syndrome, which is a genetic disorder that affects the function of Ciliary, the tiny hair-like structures that help move mucous out of the airways.In summary, the location and pattern of bronchiectasis can provide clues to the underlying cause or associated conditions, but further tests and evaluations are needed to confirm the diagnosis and guide the treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with known bronchial carcinoma presents to hospital with confusion. A computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain was reported as normal: no evidence of metastases. His serum electrolytes were as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 114 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 3.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 5.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 82 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Urinary sodium 54 mmol/l
Which of the subtype of bronchial carcinoma is he most likely to have been diagnosed with?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small cell
Explanation:Different Types of Lung Cancer and Their Association with Ectopic Hormones
Lung cancer is a complex disease that can be divided into different types based on their clinical and biological characteristics. The two main categories are non-small cell lung cancers (NSCLCs) and small cell lung cancer (SCLC). SCLC is distinct from NSCLCs due to its origin from amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation (APUD) cells, which have an endocrine lineage. This can lead to the production of various peptide hormones, causing paraneoplastic syndromes such as the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) and Cushing syndrome.
Among NSCLCs, squamous cell carcinoma is commonly associated with ectopic parathyroid hormone, leading to hypercalcemia. Large cell carcinoma and bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma are NSCLCs that do not produce ectopic hormones. Adenocarcinoma, another type of NSCLC, also does not produce ectopic hormones.
Understanding the different types of lung cancer and their association with ectopic hormones is crucial for proper management and treatment of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 57
Incorrect
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What condition is typically linked to obstructive sleep apnea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypersomnolence
Explanation:Symptoms and Associations of Obstructive Sleep Apnoea
Obstructive sleep apnoea is a condition characterized by hypersomnolence or excessive sleepiness. Other common symptoms include personality changes, witnessed apnoeas, and true nocturnal polyuria. Reduced libido is a less frequent symptom. The condition may be associated with acromegaly, myxoedema, obesity, and micrognathia/retrognathia. Sleep apnoea is a serious condition that can lead to complications such as hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and stroke.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 58
Incorrect
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You are the Foundation Year 2 doctor on a general practice (GP) attachment when a 65-year-old man presents, complaining of malaise, cough and breathlessness. He says these symptoms have been present for 2 days, and he has brought up some yellow-coloured sputum on a few occasions. He reports no pain and no palpitations and is coping at home, although he has taken 2 days off work. He has no long-standing conditions but smokes five cigarettes a day and has done so for the last 15 years. He has no known allergies. On examination, he is alert and orientated, and has a respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 126/84 mmHg and a temperature of 38.1 °C. There is bronchial breathing and crepitations on auscultation, particularly on the right-hand side of the chest, and heart sounds are normal.
What would be the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5-day course of amoxicillin
Explanation:Treatment and Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia
Community-acquired pneumonia is a common respiratory infection that can be effectively managed in the community with appropriate treatment and management. The severity of the infection can be assessed using the CRB-65 score, which takes into account confusion, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. A score of zero indicates low severity and suggests that oral antibiotics and community treatment should suffice. However, admission to hospital may be necessary in certain cases.
The first-choice antibiotic for community-acquired pneumonia is amoxicillin, although a macrolide may be considered in patients with penicillin allergy. Flucloxacillin may be added if there is suspicion of a staphylococcal infection or associated influenzae.
It is important to provide safety-netting advice to patients, advising them to return if symptoms worsen or do not improve on antibiotics. Additionally, the absence of wheeze on auscultation and no history of respiratory disease suggests that a salbutamol inhaler is not necessary.
While the CURB-65 score is commonly used, the CRB-65 score is more practical in community settings as it does not require laboratory analysis. Overall, prompt and appropriate treatment and management can effectively manage community-acquired pneumonia in the community.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man comes to the doctor complaining of anorexia, decreased appetite, night sweats, and weight loss over the last six months. He has been coughing up phlegm and experiencing occasional fevers for the past month. A chest X-ray reveals a sizable (4.5 cm) cavity in the upper left lobe. What diagnostic test would provide a conclusive diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sputum sample
Explanation:Diagnostic Methods for Tuberculosis
Tuberculosis (TB) is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the lungs. The diagnosis of TB relies on various diagnostic methods. Here are some of the commonly used diagnostic methods for TB:
Sputum Sample: The examination and culture of sputum or other respiratory tract specimens can help diagnose pulmonary TB. The growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from respiratory secretions confirms the diagnosis.
Blood Cultures: Blood cultures are rarely positive in TB. A probable diagnosis can be based on typical clinical and chest X-ray findings, together with either sputum positive for acid-fast bacilli or typical histopathological findings on biopsy material.
Computed Tomography (CT) Scanning of the Chest: CT imaging can provide clinical information and be helpful in ascertaining the likelihood of TB, but it will not provide a definitive diagnosis.
Mantoux Test: The Mantoux test is primarily used to diagnose latent TB. It may be strongly positive in active TB, but it does not give a definitive diagnosis of active TB. False-positive tests can occur with previous Bacillus Calmette–Guérin (BCG) vaccination and infection with non-tuberculous mycobacteria. False-negative results can occur in overwhelming TB, immunocompromised, previous TB, and some viral illnesses like measles and chickenpox.
Serum Inflammatory Markers: Serum inflammatory markers are not specific enough to diagnose TB if raised.
In conclusion, a combination of diagnostic methods is often used to diagnose TB. The definitive diagnosis requires the growth of Mycobacterium tuberculosis from respiratory secretions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is brought to Accident and Emergency with difficulty breathing. On arrival, his saturations were 76% on air, pulse 118 bpm and blood pressure 112/72 mmHg. He was given nebulised bronchodilators and started on 6 litres of oxygen, which improved his saturations up to 96%. He is more comfortable now, but a bit confused.
What should be the next step in the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arterial blood gas
Explanation:Management of Acute Exacerbation of COPD: Considerations and Interventions
When managing a patient with acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), it is important to consider various interventions based on the patient’s clinical presentation. In this case, the patient has increased oxygen saturations, which may be contributing to confusion. It is crucial to avoid over-administration of oxygen, as it may worsen breathing function. An arterial blood gas can guide oxygen therapy and help determine the appropriate treatment, such as reducing oxygen concentration or initiating steroid therapy.
IV aminophylline may be considered if nebulisers and steroids have not been effective, but it is not necessary in this case. Pulmonary function testing is not beneficial in immediate management. Intubation is not currently indicated, as the patient’s confusion is likely due to excessive oxygen administration.
Antibiotics may be necessary if there is evidence of infection, but in this case, an arterial blood gas is the most important step. Overall, management of acute exacerbation of COPD requires careful consideration of the patient’s clinical presentation and appropriate interventions based on their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to you with increasing difficulty in breathing and shortness of breath. A chest examination reveals decreased expansion on the right side of the chest, along with decreased breath sounds and stony dullness to percussion. A chest X-ray reveals a pleural effusion which you proceed to tap for diagnostic serum biochemistry, cytology and culture. The cytology and culture results are still awaited, although the serum biochemistry returns back showing the following:
Pleural fluid protein 55 g/dl
Pleural fluid cholesterol 4.5 g/dl
Pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) : serum ratio 0.7
Which of the following might be considered as a diagnosis in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Pleural Effusion: Sarcoidosis, Myxoedema, Meigs Syndrome, Cardiac Failure, and Nephrotic Syndrome
When analyzing a pleural effusion, the protein levels can help differentiate between potential causes. An exudate pleural effusion, with protein levels greater than 30 g/l, can be caused by inflammatory or malignant conditions such as sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or carcinoma. However, if the protein level falls between 25 and 35 g/l, Light’s criteria should be applied to accurately differentiate. On the other hand, a transudate pleural effusion, with protein levels less than 30 g/l, can be caused by conditions such as myxoedema or cardiac failure. Meigs syndrome, a pleural effusion caused by a benign ovarian tumor, and nephrotic syndrome, which causes a transudate pleural effusion, can also be ruled out based on the biochemistry results. It is important to consider all potential causes and conduct further investigations to properly diagnose and manage the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man comes to the Chest Clinic after being referred by his GP for a chronic cough. He complains of a dry cough that has been ongoing for 10 months and is accompanied by increasing shortness of breath. Despite multiple rounds of antibiotics, he has not experienced significant improvement. He has never smoked and denies any coughing up of blood. He used to work as a teacher and has not been exposed to any environmental dust or chemicals.
His GP ordered a chest X-ray, which reveals reticular shadowing affecting both lung bases. Upon examination, he has clubbed fingers and fine-end inspiratory crackles. His heart sounds are normal, and he is saturating at 94% on room air with a regular heart rate of 80 bpm and regular respiratory rate of 20. There is no peripheral oedema.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Shortness of Breath and Clubbing: Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis as the Likely Diagnosis
Shortness of breath and clubbing can be indicative of various respiratory and cardiac conditions. In this case, the most likely diagnosis is idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, as evidenced by fine-end inspiratory crackles on examination, X-ray findings of bi-basal reticulonodular shadowing in a typical distribution, and the presence of clubbing. Bronchiectasis is another possible diagnosis, but the lack of purulent phlegm and coarse crackles, as well as chest X-ray findings inconsistent with dilated, thick-walled bronchi, make it less likely. Carcinoma of the lung is also a consideration, but the absence of a smoking history and chest X-ray findings make it less probable. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is unlikely without a smoking history and the absence of wheeze on examination. Congestive cardiac failure (CCF) can cause shortness of breath, but clubbing is typically only present in cases of congenital heart disease with right to left shunts, which is not demonstrated in this case. Overall, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is the most likely diagnosis based on the clinical presentation and diagnostic findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old lady with known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted to the Respiratory Ward with shortness of breath, cough and wheeze. On examination, she appears unwell and short of breath, and there is an audible wheeze. Her respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute, pulse rate 92 bpm and oxygen saturations 90% on room air. She reports that she is able to leave the house but that she has to stop for breath after walking approximately 100 m. What grade on the MODIFIED MRC dyspnoea scale would this patient be recorded as having?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3
Explanation:Managing COPD: Non-Pharmacological, Pharmacological, and Surgical Approaches
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive condition that affects the airways and is often caused by smoking. Symptoms include coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath. While there is no cure for COPD, there are various management strategies that can help improve symptoms and quality of life.
Non-pharmacological approaches include quitting smoking, losing weight if necessary, and participating in physiotherapy and pulmonary rehabilitation to improve lung function and exercise capacity. Pharmacological treatment includes the use of bronchodilators and inhaled corticosteroids, as well as oral prednisolone and antibiotics during exacerbations. Diuretics may also be necessary for patients with cor pulmonale and edema. Long-term oxygen therapy can help manage persistent hypoxia.
Surgical options for COPD include heart and lung transplantation. The modified MRC dyspnoea scale can be used to assess the degree of breathlessness and guide treatment decisions. The BODE index, which includes the mMRC dyspnoea scale, is a composite marker of disease severity that takes into account the systemic nature of COPD.
Overall, managing COPD requires a comprehensive approach that addresses both the physical and systemic aspects of the disease. With proper management, patients can improve their symptoms and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man from Somalia presents at your general practice surgery as a temporary resident. He has noticed some lumps on the back of his neck recently. He reports having a productive cough for the last 3 months, but no haemoptysis. He has lost 3 kg in weight in the last month. He is a non-smoker and lives with six others in a flat. His chest X-ray shows several large calcified, cavitating lesions bilaterally.
What is the GOLD standard investigation for active disease, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sputum culture
Explanation:The patient in question has several risk factors for tuberculosis (TB), including being from an ethnic minority and living in overcrowded accommodation. The presence of symptoms and chest X-ray findings of bilateral large calcified, cavitating lesions strongly suggest a diagnosis of TB. The gold standard investigation for TB is to send at least three spontaneous sputum samples for culture and microscopy, including one early morning sample. Treatment should be initiated without waiting for culture results if clinical symptoms and signs of TB are present. Treatment involves a 6-month course of antibiotics, with the first 2 months consisting of isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol, followed by 4 months of isoniazid and rifampicin. Even if culture results are negative, the full course of antibiotics should be completed. Public health must be notified of the diagnosis for contact tracing and surveillance. Pulmonary function testing is useful for assessing the severity of lung disease but is not used in the diagnosis of TB. Tissue biopsy is not recommended as the gold standard investigation for TB, but may be useful in some cases of extrapulmonary TB. The tuberculin skin test is used to determine if a patient has ever been exposed to TB, but is not the gold standard investigation for active TB. Interferon-γ release assays measure a person’s immune reactivity to TB and can suggest the likelihood of M tuberculosis infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis has been on long term therapy to manage his condition. He complains of worsening shortness of breath and a chest x-ray reveals 'bilateral interstitial shadowing'. Which medication is the probable culprit for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Methotrexate as a Cause and Treatment for Pulmonary Fibrosis
Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. Methotrexate, a chemotherapy drug, is a known cause of pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is also sometimes used as a treatment for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis as a steroid sparing agent.
According to medical research, other chemotherapy drugs such as alkylating agents, asparaginase, bleomycin, and procarbazine have also been linked to pulmonary parenchymal or pleural reactions in patients with malignant diseases. In addition, drug-related interstitial pneumonia should be considered in rheumatoid arthritis patients who are taking methotrexate or newer drugs like leflunomide.
Despite its potential risks, methotrexate can be a useful treatment option for some patients with pulmonary fibrosis. However, it is important for healthcare providers to carefully monitor patients for any adverse reactions and adjust treatment plans accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 66
Incorrect
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The blood gases with pH 7.38, pO2 6.2 kPa, pCO2 9.2 kPa, and HCO3– 44 mmol/l are indicative of a respiratory condition. Which respiratory condition is most likely responsible for these blood gas values?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Explanation:Respiratory Failure in Common Lung Conditions
When analyzing blood gases, it is important to consider the type of respiratory failure present in order to determine the underlying cause. In cases of low oxygen and high carbon dioxide, known as type 2 respiratory failure, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is the most likely culprit. Asthma, on the other hand, typically causes type 1 respiratory failure, although severe cases may progress to type 2 as the patient tires. Pulmonary embolism and pneumonia are also more likely to cause type 1 respiratory failure, while pulmonary fibrosis is associated with this type of failure as well. Understanding the type of respiratory failure can aid in the diagnosis and management of these common lung conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old refuse collector arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of sudden breathlessness. He has no prior history of respiratory issues or trauma, but does admit to smoking around ten cigarettes a day since his early teenage years. Upon examination, the doctor suspects a potential spontaneous pneumothorax and proceeds to insert a chest drain for treatment. In terms of the intercostal spaces, which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The direction of fibres of the external intercostal muscle is downwards and medial
Explanation:Anatomy of the Intercostal Muscles and Neurovascular Bundle
The intercostal muscles are essential for respiration, with the external intercostal muscles aiding forced inspiration. These muscles have fibers that pass obliquely downwards and medial from the lower border of the rib above to the smooth upper border of the rib below. The direction of these fibers can be remembered as having one’s hands in one’s pockets.
The intercostal neurovascular bundle, which includes the vein, artery, and nerve, lies in a groove on the undersurface of each rib, running in the plane between the internal and innermost intercostal muscles. The vein, artery, and nerve lie in that order, from top to bottom, under cover of the lower border of the rib.
When inserting a needle or trocar for drainage or aspiration of fluid from the pleural cavity, it is important to remember that the neurovascular bundle lies in a groove just above each rib. Therefore, the needle or trocar should be inserted just above the rib to avoid the main vessels and nerves. Remember the phrase above the rib below to ensure proper insertion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman who is undergoing treatment for breast cancer has collapsed and has been brought to the Emergency Department. Upon regaining consciousness, she reports experiencing chest pain, shortness of breath, and reduced exercise capacity for the past 3 days. During auscultation, a loud pulmonary second heart sound is detected. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals right axis deviation and tall R-waves with T-wave inversion in V1-V3. The chest X-ray appears normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple pulmonary emboli
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Collapse and Reduced Exercise Capacity
A patient presents with collapse and reduced exercise capacity. Upon examination, there is evidence of right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension (loud P2). The following are potential diagnoses:
1. Multiple Pulmonary Emboli: This is the most likely cause, especially given the patient’s underlying cancer that predisposes to deep vein thrombosis. A computed tomography pulmonary angiography is the investigation of choice.
2. Hypertrophic Cardiomyopathy (HCM): While HCM could present with collapse and ECG changes, it is less common and not known to cause shortness of breath. The patient’s risk factors of malignancy, symptoms of shortness of breath, and signs of a loud pulmonary second heart sound make pulmonary embolism more likely than HCM.
3. Idiopathic Pulmonary Arterial Hypertension: This condition can present with reduced exercise capacity, chest pain, and syncope, loud P2, and features of right ventricular hypertrophy. However, it is less common, and the patient has an obvious predisposing factor to thrombosis, making pulmonary emboli a more likely diagnosis.
4. Angina: Angina typically presents with exertional chest pain and breathlessness, which is not consistent with the patient’s history.
5. Ventricular Tachycardia: While ventricular tachycardia can cause collapse, it does not explain any of the other findings.
In summary, multiple pulmonary emboli are the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms, but other potential diagnoses should also be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old lady with a history of asthma is brought to the Emergency Department with an acute asthma attack. She has previously been admitted to the intensive therapy unit (ITU) with the same problem. Treatment is commenced with high-flow oxygen and regular nebulisers.
Which of the following is a feature of life-threatening asthma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Normal PaCO2
Explanation:Assessment of Severity in Acute Asthma Attacks
Acute asthma is a serious medical emergency that can lead to fatalities. To assess the severity of an asthma attack, several factors must be considered. Severe asthma is characterized by a peak flow of 33-50% of predicted or best, a respiratory rate of over 25 breaths per minute, a heart rate of over 110 beats per minute, and the inability to complete sentences. On the other hand, life-threatening asthma is indicated by a peak flow of less than 33% of predicted or best, a silent chest, cyanosis, and arterial blood gas showing high or normal PaCO2, which reflects reduced respiratory effort. Additionally, arterial blood gas showing hypoxia (PaO2 <8 kPa) or acidosis is also a sign of life-threatening asthma. Any life-threatening features require immediate critical care and senior medical review. A peak expiratory flow rate of less than 50% of predicted or best is a feature of an acute severe asthma attack. However, a pulse rate of 105 bpm is not a marker of severity in asthma due to its lack of specificity. Respiratory alkalosis, which is a condition characterized by low carbon dioxide levels, is actually a reassuring picture on the blood gas. In contrast, a normal carbon dioxide level would be a concern if the person is working that hard. Finally, the inability to complete full sentences is another feature of acute severe asthma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with a chronic cough and shortness of breath. He has recently developed a red/purple nodular rash on both shins. He has a history of mild asthma and continues to smoke ten cigarettes per day. On examination, he has mild wheezing and red/purple nodules on both shins. His blood pressure is 135/72 mmHg, and his pulse is 75/min and regular. The following investigations were performed: haemoglobin, white cell count, platelets, erythrocyte sedimentation rate, sodium, potassium, creatinine, and corrected calcium. His chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Chest Symptoms, Erythema Nodosum, and Hypercalcaemia: Sarcoidosis vs. Other Conditions
When a patient presents with chest symptoms, erythema nodosum, hypercalcaemia, and signs of systemic inflammation, sarcoidosis is a likely diagnosis. To confirm the diagnosis, a transbronchial biopsy is usually performed to demonstrate the presence of non-caseating granulomata. Alternatively, skin lesions or lymph nodes may provide a source of tissue for biopsy. Corticosteroids are the main treatment for sarcoidosis.
Other conditions that may be considered in the differential diagnosis include asthma, bronchial carcinoma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and primary hyperparathyroidism. However, the presence of erythema nodosum and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy are more suggestive of sarcoidosis than these other conditions. While hypercalcaemia may be a symptom of primary hyperparathyroidism, the additional symptoms and findings in this patient suggest a more complex diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic with left upper-lobe cavitating consolidation and sputum samples confirm the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is fully sensitive. There is no prior history of TB treatment. What is the most suitable antibiotic regimen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rifampicin/isoniazid/pyrazinamide/ethambutol for two months, then rifampicin/isoniazid for four months
Explanation:Proper Treatment for Tuberculosis
Proper treatment for tuberculosis (TB) depends on certain sensitivities. Until these sensitivities are known, empirical treatment for TB should include four drugs: rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Treatment can be stepped down to two drugs after two months if the organism is fully sensitive. The duration of therapy for pulmonary TB is six months.
If the sensitivities are still unknown, treatment with only three drugs, such as rifampicin, isoniazid, and pyrazinamide, is insufficient for the successful treatment of TB. Initial antibiotic treatment should be rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for two months, then rifampicin and isoniazid for four months.
However, if the patient is sensitive to rifampicin and clarithromycin, treatment for TB can be rifampicin and clarithromycin for six months. It is important to note that treatment for 12 months is too long and may not be necessary for successful treatment of TB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man experiences sudden right-sided chest pain while exercising. The pain persists in the Emergency Department, but he is not short of breath. There is no past medical history of note. Observations are recorded:
temperature 36.6 °C
heart rate (HR) 90 bpm
blood pressure (BP) 115/80 mmHg
respiratory rate (RR) 18 breaths/minute
oxygen saturation (SaO2) 99%.
A chest X-ray reveals a 1.5 cm sliver of air in the pleural space of the right lung.
Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Consider prescribing analgesia and discharge home with information and advice
Explanation:Management Options for Primary Pneumothorax
Primary pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Here are some management options for primary pneumothorax:
Prescribe analgesia and discharge home with information and advice: This option can be considered if the patient is not breathless and has only a small defect. The patient can be discharged with pain relief medication and given information and advice on how to manage the condition at home.
Admit for a trial of nebulised salbutamol and observation: This option is not indicated for a patient with primary pneumothorax, as a trial of salbutamol is not effective in treating this condition.
Aspirate the air with a needle and syringe: This option should only be attempted if the patient has a rim of air of >2 cm on the chest X-ray or is breathless. Aspiration can be attempted twice at a maximum, after which a chest drain should be inserted.
Insert a chest drain: This option should be done if the second attempt of aspiration is unsuccessful. Once air has stopped leaking, the drain should be left in for a further 24 hours prior to removal and discharge.
Insert a 16G cannula into the second intercostal space: This option is used for tension pneumothoraces and is not indicated for primary pneumothorax.
In conclusion, the management of primary pneumothorax depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. It is important to choose the appropriate management option to ensure the best outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of difficulty breathing. Upon examination, you observe that his trachea is centralized and there is decreased chest expansion on the left side, accompanied by a dull percussion note and diminished breath sounds. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pleural effusion
Explanation:Clinical Signs for Common Respiratory Conditions
Pleural effusion, pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, and pulmonary edema are common respiratory conditions that require accurate diagnosis for proper management. Here are the clinical signs to look out for:
Pleural effusion: trachea central or pushed away from the affected side, reduced chest expansion on the affected side, reduced tactile vocal fremitus on the affected side, ‘stony dull’ or dull percussion note on the affected side, reduced air entry/breath sounds on the affected side, reduced vocal resonance on the affected side.
Pneumothorax: trachea central or pushed away from the affected side, reduced chest expansion on the affected side, reduced tactile vocal fremitus on the affected side, hyper-resonant percussion note on the affected side, reduced air entry/breath sounds on the affected side, reduced vocal resonance on the affected side.
Pulmonary embolism: respiratory examination is likely to be normal, there may be subtle signs related to the pulmonary embolism, eg pleural rub, or due to a chronic underlying chest disease.
Pneumonia: trachea central, chest expansion likely to be normal, increased tactile vocal fremitus over area(s) of consolidation, dull percussion note over areas of consolidation, reduced air entry/bronchial breath sounds/crepitations on auscultation.
Pulmonary edema: trachea central, chest expansion normal, normal vocal fremitus, resonant percussion note, likely to hear coarse basal crackles on auscultation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man, who is a known intravenous drug user, presented with progressive dyspnoea. On examination, his respiratory rate was 31 breaths per minute and his chest X-ray showed diffuse infiltrates in a bat-wing pattern. However, chest auscultation was normal. While staying in hospital, he developed sudden severe dyspnoea, and an emergency chest X-ray showed right-sided pneumothorax.
What is the underlying disease of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii infection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Young Injection Drug User with Dyspnea and Chest X-ray Findings
A young injection drug user presenting with gradually progressive dyspnea and a typical chest X-ray finding is likely to have Pneumocystis jirovecii infection, an opportunistic fungal infection that predominantly affects the lungs. This infection is often seen in individuals with underlying human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection-related immunosuppression. Other opportunistic infections should also be ruled out. Pneumocystis typically resides in the alveoli of the lungs, resulting in extensive exudation and formation of hyaline membrane. Lung biopsy shows foamy vacuolated exudates. Extrapulmonary sites involved include the thyroid, lymph nodes, liver, and bone marrow.
Other potential diagnoses, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), cystic fibrosis, pneumoconiosis, and pulmonary histoplasmosis, are less likely. COPD and pneumoconiosis are typically seen in individuals with a history of smoking or occupational exposure to dust, respectively. Cystic fibrosis would present with a productive cough and possible hemoptysis, while pulmonary histoplasmosis is not commonly found in Europe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old postal worker with asthma visits his GP for his annual asthma review. He reports experiencing breathlessness during his morning postal round for the past few months. Despite a normal examination, the GP advises him to conduct peak flow monitoring. The results show a best PEFR of 650 L/min and an average of 439 L/min, with a predicted PEFR of 660 L/min. What is the most likely interpretation of these PEFR results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suboptimal therapy
Explanation:Differentiating Between Respiratory Conditions: A Guide
When assessing a patient with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider various conditions that may be causing their symptoms. One key factor to consider is the patient’s peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR), which should be above 80% of their best reading. If it falls below this level, it may indicate the need for therapy titration.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is unlikely in a young patient without smoking history, and clinical examination is likely to be abnormal in this condition. On the other hand, variability in PEFR is a hallmark of asthma, and the reversibility of PEFR after administering a nebulized dose of salbutamol can help differentiate between asthma and COPD.
Occupational asthma is often caused by exposure to irritants or allergens in the workplace. Monitoring PEFR for two weeks while working and two weeks away from work can help diagnose this condition.
Interstitial lung disease may cause exertional breathlessness, but fine end inspiratory crackles and finger clubbing would be present on examination. Additionally, idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis typically presents after the age of 50, making it unlikely in a 36-year-old patient.
Finally, an acute exacerbation of asthma would present with a shorter duration of symptoms and abnormal clinical examination findings. By considering these factors, healthcare providers can more accurately diagnose and treat respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old smoker is referred by his General Practitioner (GP) for diagnostic spirometry after presenting with worsening respiratory symptoms suggestive of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Regarding spirometry, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FEV1 is a good marker of disease severity in COPD
Explanation:Common Misconceptions about Pulmonary Function Tests
Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are a group of tests that measure how well the lungs are functioning. However, there are several misconceptions about PFTs that can lead to confusion and misinterpretation of results. Here are some common misconceptions about PFTs:
FEV1 is the only marker of disease severity in COPD: While FEV1 is a good marker of COPD disease severity, it should not be the only factor considered. Other factors such as symptoms, exacerbation history, and quality of life should also be taken into account.
Peak flow is helpful in the diagnosis of COPD: Peak flow is not a reliable tool for diagnosing COPD. It is primarily used in monitoring asthma and can be affected by factors such as age, gender, and height.
Residual volume can be measured by spirometer: Residual volume cannot be measured by spirometer alone. It requires additional tests such as gas dilution or body plethysmography.
Vital capacity increases with age: Vital capacity actually decreases with age due to changes in lung elasticity and muscle strength.
Peak flow measures the calibre of small airways: Peak flow is a measure of the large and medium airways, not the small airways.
By understanding these common misconceptions, healthcare professionals can better interpret PFT results and provide more accurate diagnoses and treatment plans for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of asthma and eczema visits her General Practitioner and inquires about the reason for her continued wheezing hours after being exposed to pollen. She has a known allergy to tree pollen.
What is the most suitable explanation for this?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inflammation followed by mucosal oedema
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanisms of Allergic Asthma
Allergic asthma is a condition that is mediated by immunoglobulin E (IgE). When IgE binds to an antigen, it triggers mast cells to release histamine, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins, which cause bronchospasm and vasodilation. This leads to inflammation and edema of the mucosal lining of the airways, resulting in persistent symptoms or late symptoms after an acute asthma attack.
While exposure to another allergen could trigger an asthma attack, it is not the most appropriate answer if you are only aware of a known allergy to tree pollen. Smooth muscle hypertrophy may occur in the long-term, but the exact mechanism and functional effects of airway remodeling in asthma are not fully understood. Pollen stuck on Ciliary would act as a cough stimulant, clearing the pollen from the respiratory tract. Additionally, the Ciliary would clear the pollen up the respiratory tract as part of the mucociliary escalator.
It is important to note that pollen inhaled into the respiratory system is not systemically absorbed. Instead, it binds to immune cells and exhibits immune effects through cytokines produced by Th1 and Th2 cells. Understanding the mechanisms of allergic asthma can help individuals manage their symptoms and prevent future attacks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) continues to be breathless at rest despite maximal inhaler therapy, pulmonary rehabilitation and home oxygen therapy. He has been reviewed for lung volume reduction surgery but was deemed unsuitable. He is referred for consideration of lung transplantation.
His FEV1 is 30% predicted, he has not smoked for 12 years, and his past medical history includes bowel cancer, for which he underwent partial colectomy and adjunctive chemotherapy six years previously without evidence of recurrence on surveillance, and pulmonary tuberculosis age 37, which was fully sensitive and treated with six months of anti-tuberculous therapy. The patient’s body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m2.
What feature in this patient’s history would make him ineligible for listing for lung transplantation at this time?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FEV1 30% predicted
Explanation:Contraindications for Lung Transplantation in a Patient with COPD
Lung transplantation is a potential treatment option for patients with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, certain factors may make a patient ineligible for the procedure.
One important factor is the patient’s forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) percentage predicted. The International Society for Heart and Lung Transplantation recommends a minimum FEV1 of less than 25% predicted for lung transplantation. In addition, patients must have a Body mass index, airflow Obstruction, Dyspnea and Exercise capacity (BODE) index of 5 to 6, a PaCO2 > 6.6 kPa and/or a PaO2 < 8 kPa. A previous history of pulmonary tuberculosis is also a contraindication to lung transplantation, as active infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis can complicate the procedure. The patient’s body mass index (BMI) is another important consideration. A BMI greater than 35 kg/m2 is an absolute contraindication to transplant, while a BMI between 30 and 35 kg/m2 is a relative contraindication. Age is also a factor, with patients over 65 years old being considered a relative contraindication to lung transplantation. However, there is no absolute age limit for the procedure. Finally, a previous history of malignancy may also impact a patient’s eligibility for lung transplantation. If the malignancy has a low risk of recurrence, such as basal cell carcinoma, patients may be considered for transplant after two years. For most other cancers, a five-year period without recurrence is required. In this case, the patient’s previous malignancy occurred six years ago and would not be an absolute contraindication to transplantation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A trauma call is initiated in the Emergency Department after a young cyclist is brought in following a road traffic collision. The cyclist was riding on a dual carriageway when a car collided with them side-on, causing them to land in the middle of the road with severe injuries, shortness of breath, and chest pain. A bystander called an ambulance which transported the young patient to the Emergency Department. The anaesthetist on the trauma team assesses the patient and diagnoses them with a tension pneumothorax. The anaesthetist then inserts a grey cannula into the patient's second intercostal space in the mid-clavicular line. Within a few minutes, the patient expresses relief at being able to breathe more easily.
What signs would the anaesthetist have observed during the examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contralateral tracheal deviation, reduced chest expansion, increased resonance on percussion, absent breath sounds
Explanation:Understanding Tension Pneumothorax: Symptoms and Treatment
Tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency that occurs when air enters the pleural space but cannot exit, causing the pressure in the pleural space to increase and the lung to collapse. This condition can be diagnosed clinically by observing contralateral tracheal deviation, reduced chest expansion, increased resonance on percussion, and absent breath sounds. Treatment involves inserting a wide-bore cannula to release the trapped air. Delay in treatment can be fatal, so diagnosis should not be delayed by investigations such as chest X-rays. Other respiratory conditions may present with different symptoms, such as normal trachea, reduced chest expansion, reduced resonance on percussion, and normal vesicular breath sounds. Tracheal tug is a sign of severe respiratory distress in paediatrics, while ipsilateral tracheal deviation is not a symptom of tension pneumothorax. Understanding the symptoms of tension pneumothorax is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is performed and the pleural fluid analysis reveals the following results:
Pleural fluid Pleural fluid analysis Serum Normal value
Protein 2.5 g/dl 7.3 g/dl 6-7.8 g/dl
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 145 IU/l 350 IU/l 100-250 IU/l
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heart failure
Explanation:Causes of Transudative and Exudative Pleural Effusions
Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which can be classified as transudative or exudative based on Light’s criteria. The most common cause of transudative pleural effusion is congestive heart failure, which can also cause bilateral or unilateral effusions. Other causes of transudative effusions include cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome. Exudative pleural effusions are typically caused by pneumonia, malignancy, or pleural infections. Nephrotic syndrome can also cause transudative effusions, while breast cancer and viral pleuritis are associated with exudative effusions. Proper identification of the underlying cause is crucial for appropriate management of pleural effusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is referred to the Respiratory Outpatient clinic due to a chronic non-productive cough. He is a non-smoker and reports no other symptoms. Initial tests show a normal full blood count and C-reactive protein, normal chest X-ray, and normal spirometry. What is the next most suitable test to perform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchial provocation testing
Explanation:Investigating Chronic Cough: Recommended Tests and Procedures
Chronic cough with normal chest X-ray and spirometry, and no ‘red flag’ symptoms in a non-smoker can be caused by cough-variant asthma, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and post-nasal drip. To investigate for bronchial hyper-reactivity, bronchial provocation testing is recommended using methacholine or histamine. A CT thorax may eventually be required to look for underlying structural lung disease, but in the first instance, investigating for cough-variant asthma is appropriate. Bronchoscopy is not a first-line investigation but may be used in specialist centres to investigate chronic cough. Sputum culture is unlikely to be useful in a patient with a dry cough. Maximal inspiratory and expiratory pressures are used to investigate respiratory muscle weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to her Occupational Health Service. She works in the sterile supplies group at her local hospital. Over the past few months, she has noticed increasing shortness of breath with cough and wheeze during the course of a working week, but improves when she takes a week off on holiday. On examination at the general practitioner’s surgery, after a few weeks off, her chest is clear.
Peak flow diary:
Monday p.m 460 l/min (85% predicted)
Tuesday p.m 440 l/min
Wednesday p.m 400 l/min
Thursday p.m 370 l/min
Friday p.m 350 l/min
Saturday a.m 420 l/min
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment choice?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Redeployment to another role if possible
Explanation:Managing Occupational Asthma: Redeployment and Avoiding Suboptimal Treatment Options
Based on the evidence from the patient’s peak flow diary, it is likely that they are suffering from occupational asthma. This could be due to a number of agents, such as glutaraldehyde used in hospital sterilisation units. The best course of action would be to redeploy the patient to another role, if possible, and monitor their peak flows at work. Starting medical management for asthma would not be the optimal choice in this case. Other causes of occupational asthma include isocyanates, metals, animal antigens, plant products, acid anhydrides, biological enzymes, and wood dusts. While salbutamol inhaler may provide temporary relief, it is not a long-term solution. Inhaled steroids like beclomethasone or fluticasone/salmeterol may help manage symptoms, but since the cause has been identified, they would not be the most appropriate course of action. A 7-day course of oral prednisolone would only provide temporary relief and is not a realistic long-term treatment option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 83
Incorrect
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You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old male who wants to start trying to conceive. He has a history of asthma and takes salbutamol 100mcg as needed.
Which of the following would be most important to advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take folic acid 5 mg once daily from before conception until 12 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation:Women who are taking antiepileptic medication and are planning to conceive should be prescribed a daily dose of 5mg folic acid instead of the standard 400mcg. This high-dose folic acid should be taken from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. It is important to refer these women to specialist care, but they should continue to use effective contraception until they have had a full assessment. Despite the medication, it is still likely that they will have a normal pregnancy and healthy baby. If trying to conceive, women should start taking folic acid as soon as possible, rather than waiting for a positive pregnancy test.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to the Emergency department with worsening dyspnoea, dry cough, and low-grade fever. He has a medical history of hypertension and was hospitalized six months ago for an acute inferior myocardial infarction complicated by left ventricular failure and arrhythmia. His chest x-ray reveals diffuse interstitial pneumonia, and further investigations show an ESR of 110 mm/h, FEV1 of 90%, FVC of 70%, and KCO of 60%. What is the most likely cause of these findings?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Side Effects of Amiodarone
Amiodarone is a medication that is known to cause several side effects. Among these, pneumonitis and pulmonary fibrosis are the most common. These conditions are characterized by a progressively-worsening dry cough, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnoea, and malaise. Other side effects of amiodarone include neutropenia, hepatitis, phototoxicity, slate-grey skin discolouration, hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, arrhythmias, corneal deposits, peripheral neuropathy, and myopathy. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects when taking amiodarone, and to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur. Proper monitoring and management can help to minimize the risk of serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old asthmatic presents to the Emergency Department with acute shortness of breath, unable to speak in complete sentences, tachypnoeic and with a tachycardia of 122 bpm. Severe inspiratory wheeze is noted on examination. The patient is given nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide, and IV hydrocortisone is administered. After 45 minutes of IV salbutamol infusion, there is no improvement in tachypnea and oxygen saturation has dropped to 80% at high flow oxygen. An ABG is taken, showing a pH of 7.50, pO2 of 10.3 kPa, pCO2 of 5.6 kPa, and HCO3− of 28.4 mmol/l. What is the next most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Request an anaesthetic assessment for the Intensive Care Unit (ICU)
Explanation:Why an Anaesthetic Assessment is Needed for a Severe Asthma Attack in ICU
When a patient is experiencing a severe asthma attack, it is important to take the appropriate steps to provide the best care possible. In this scenario, the patient has already received nebulisers, an iv salbutamol infusion, and hydrocortisone, but their condition has not improved. The next best step is to request an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, as rapid intubation may be required and the patient may need ventilation support.
While there are other options such as CPAP and NIPPV, these should only be used in a controlled environment with anaesthetic backup. Administering oral magnesium is also not recommended, and iv aminophylline should only be considered after an anaesthetic review. By requesting an anaesthetic assessment for ICU, the patient can receive the best possible care for their severe asthma attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old Caucasian woman presents with a severe acute attack of bronchial asthma. For 1 week, she has had fever, malaise, anorexia and weight loss. She has tingling and numbness in her feet and hands. On examination, palpable purpura is present and nodular lesions are present on the skin. Investigations revealed eosinophilia, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), fibrinogen, and α-2-globulin, positive p-ANCA, and a chest X-ray reveals pulmonary infiltrates.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergic granulomatosis (Churg-Strauss syndrome)
Explanation:Comparison of Vasculitis Conditions with Eosinophilia
Eosinophilia is a common feature in several vasculitis conditions, but the clinical presentation and histopathologic features can help differentiate between them. Allergic granulomatosis, also known as Churg-Strauss syndrome, is characterized by asthma, peripheral and tissue eosinophilia, granuloma formation, and vasculitis of multiple organ systems. In contrast, granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) involves the lungs and upper respiratory tract and is c-ANCA positive, but does not typically present with asthma-like symptoms or peripheral eosinophilia. Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) can present with multisystem involvement, but does not typically have an asthma-like presentation or peripheral eosinophilia. Hypereosinophilic syndrome, also known as chronic eosinophilic leukemia, is characterized by persistent eosinophilia in blood and exclusion of other causes of reactive eosinophilia. Finally, microscopic polyangiitis is similar to GPA in many aspects, but does not involve granuloma formation and does not typically present with peripheral eosinophilia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old baker presents to his General Practitioner with rhinitis, breathlessness and wheeze. He reports his symptoms have acutely worsened since he returned from a 2-week holiday in Spain. He has been experiencing these symptoms on and off for the past year. He has a fifteen-pack-year smoking history.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occupational asthma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Breathlessness and Rhinitis
Possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with breathlessness and rhinitis include occupational asthma, Legionnaires’ disease, hay fever, COPD, and pulmonary embolus. In the case of a baker experiencing worsening symptoms after returning from holiday, baker’s asthma caused by alpha-amylase allergy is the most likely diagnosis. Legionnaires’ disease, which can be contracted through contaminated water sources, may also be a possibility. Hay fever, COPD, and pulmonary embolus are less likely given the patient’s symptoms and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old Afro-Caribbean man comes to the clinic complaining of fever, dry cough and joint pains. Upon examination, his chest is clear. He has several tender, warm, erythematous nodules on both shins. A chest X-ray reveals prominent hila bilaterally. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:The patient is displaying symptoms that are typical of acute sarcoidosis, including erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and arthralgia. The patient’s ethnic background, being Afro-Caribbean, is also a factor as sarcoidosis is more prevalent in this population. It is important to take a thorough medical history as sarcoidosis can mimic other diseases. Mycoplasma pneumonia presents with flu-like symptoms followed by a dry cough and reticulonodular shadowing on chest X-ray. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia causes breathlessness, fever, and perihilar shadowing on chest X-ray and is associated with severe immunodeficiency. Pulmonary TB causes cough, fever, weight loss, and erythema nodosum, with typical chest X-ray findings including apical shadowing or cavity, or multiple nodules. Pulmonary fibrosis presents with shortness of breath, a non-productive cough, and bilateral inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. However, the X-ray findings in this patient are not consistent with pulmonary fibrosis as reticulonodular shadowing would be expected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with fever, dyspnoea and consolidation at the left lower base. She is commenced on antibiotics. A few days later, she deteriorates and a chest X-ray reveals a large pleural effusion, with consolidation on the left side.
What is the most important investigation to perform next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pleural aspiration
Explanation:Appropriate Investigations for a Unilateral Pleural Effusion
When a patient presents with a unilateral pleural effusion, the recommended first investigation is pleural aspiration. This procedure allows for the analysis of the fluid, including cytology, biochemical analysis, Gram staining, and culture and sensitivity. By classifying the effusion as a transudate or an exudate, further management can be guided.
While a blood culture may be helpful if the patient has a fever, pleural aspiration is still the more appropriate next investigation. A CT scan may be useful at some point to outline the extent of the consolidation and effusion, but it would not change management at this stage.
Bronchoscopy may be necessary if a tumour is suspected, but it is not required based on the information provided. Thoracoscopy may be used if pleural aspiration is inconclusive, but it is a more invasive procedure. Therefore, pleural aspiration should be performed first.
In summary, pleural aspiration is the recommended first investigation for a unilateral pleural effusion, as it provides valuable information for further management. Other investigations may be necessary depending on the specific case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male graduate student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity for the past two months. He denies any other symptoms and is a non-smoker. Upon examination, there are no abnormalities found, and his full blood count and chest x-ray are normal. What diagnostic test would be most useful in confirming the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spirometry before and after exercise
Explanation:Confirming Exercise-Induced Asthma Diagnosis
To confirm the suspected diagnosis of exercise-induced asthma, the most appropriate investigation would be spirometry before and after exercise. This patient is likely to have exercise-induced asthma, which means that his asthma symptoms are triggered by physical activity. Spirometry is a lung function test that measures how much air a person can inhale and exhale. By performing spirometry before and after exercise, doctors can compare the results and determine if there is a significant decrease in lung function after physical activity. If there is a significant decrease, it confirms the diagnosis of exercise-induced asthma. This test is important because it helps doctors develop an appropriate treatment plan for the patient. With the right treatment, patients with exercise-induced asthma can still participate in physical activity and lead a healthy lifestyle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with a history of cystic fibrosis is experiencing deteriorating respiratory symptoms and is subsequently diagnosed with aspergillus infection. What is a common pulmonary manifestation of Aspergillus infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Allergic asthma
Explanation:Pulmonary Manifestations of Aspergillosis
Aspergillosis is a fungal infection caused by Aspergillus. It can affect various organs in the body, including the lungs. The pulmonary manifestations of aspergillosis include allergic reactions, bronchocentric granulomatosis, necrotising aspergillosis, extrinsic allergic alveolitis, aspergilloma, and bronchial stump infection.
Allergic reactions can manifest as allergic asthma or allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA). Patients may experience recurrent wheezing, fever, and transient opacities on chest X-ray. In later stages, bronchiectasis may develop.
Bronchocentric granulomatosis is characterised by granuloma of bronchial mucosa with eosinophilic infiltrates. Chest X-ray shows a focal upper lobe lesion, and there may be haemoptysis.
Necrotising aspergillosis is usually found in immunocompromised patients. Chest X-ray shows spreading infiltrates, and there is invasion of blood vessels.
Extrinsic allergic alveolitis, also known as hypersensitivity pneumonitis, may occur in certain professions like malt workers. Four to 8 hours after exposure, there is an allergic reaction characterised by fever, chill, malaise, and dyspnoea. Serum IgE concentrations are normal.
Aspergilloma is saprophytic colonisation in pre-existing cavities. Haemoptysis is the most frequent symptom. Chest X-ray shows Monod’s sign, and gravitational change of position of the mass can be demonstrated.
Bronchial stump infection is usually found in post-surgery cases when silk suture is used. If nylon suture is used, this problem is eliminated. This can also occur in lung transplants at the site of anastomosis of bronchi.
Understanding the Pulmonary Manifestations of Aspergillosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic with a persistent cough and drooping of his eyelid. He reports experiencing dryness on one side of his face. He denies any other medical issues but has a history of smoking for many years. What is the most suitable follow-up test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest X-ray
Explanation:Investigations for Suspected Lung Cancer and Horner Syndrome
When a patient presents with a cough and a history of smoking, lung cancer should always be considered until proven otherwise. The initial investigation in this scenario is a chest X-ray. However, if the patient also presents with symptoms of Horner syndrome, such as eyelid drooping and facial dryness, it may suggest the presence of an apical lung tumour, specifically a Pancoast tumour.
A sputum sample has no added benefit to the diagnosis in this case, and bronchoscopy may not be effective in accessing peripheral or apical tumours. Spirometry is not the initial investigation, but may be performed later to assess the patient’s functional capacity.
If a lung tumour is confirmed, a CT-PET scan will be part of the staging investigations to look for any metastasis. However, due to their high radiation exposure, a chest X-ray remains the most appropriate initial investigation for suspected lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old call centre operator with a 6-year history of sarcoidosis presents with worsening shortness of breath during his visit to Respiratory Outpatients. This is his fifth episode of this nature since his diagnosis. In the past, he has responded well to tapered doses of oral steroids. What initial test would be most useful in evaluating his current pulmonary condition before prescribing steroids?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor
Explanation:Pulmonary Function Tests with Transfer Factor in Sarcoidosis: An Overview
Sarcoidosis is a complex inflammatory disease that can affect multiple organs, with respiratory manifestations being the most common. Pulmonary function tests with transfer factor are a useful tool in assessing the severity of sarcoidosis and monitoring response to treatment. The underlying pathological process in sarcoidosis is interstitial fibrosis, leading to a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests with reduced transfer factor. While steroids are often effective in treating sarcoidosis, monitoring transfer factor levels can help detect exacerbations and assess response to treatment. Other diagnostic tests, such as arterial blood gas, chest X-ray, serum ACE levels, and HRCT of the chest, may also be useful in certain situations but are not always necessary as an initial test. Overall, pulmonary function tests with transfer factor play a crucial role in the management of sarcoidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 94
Incorrect
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After a tennis match, a thin 25-year-old woman complains of left-sided chest pain that radiates into her abdomen. The physical examination reveals reduced air entry at the left base of the lung with hyper-resonant percussion sounds at the left side of the chest. The abdominal examination shows generalised tenderness. A few minutes later she develops cyanosis.
What is the diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tension pneumothorax
Explanation:Differentiating Tension Pneumothorax from Other Conditions: Clinical Features and Management
Tension pneumothorax is a medical emergency that occurs when the pressure in the pleural space exceeds atmospheric pressure during both inspiration and expiration. This can lead to impaired venous return, reduced cardiac output, and hypoxemia. The development of tension pneumothorax is not dependent on the size of the pneumothorax, and clinical presentation can be sudden and severe, with rapid, labored respiration, cyanosis, sweating, and tachycardia.
It is important to differentiate tension pneumothorax from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Acute pancreatitis, ectopic pregnancy, myocardial infarction, and pulmonary embolism can all cause abdominal pain and other non-specific symptoms, but they do not typically present with decreased air entry and hyper-resonant percussion note, which are indicative of pneumothorax.
Prompt management of tension pneumothorax is crucial and involves inserting a cannula into the pleural space to remove air until the patient is no longer compromised, followed by insertion of an intercostal tube. Advanced Trauma Life Support (ATLS) guidelines recommend using a cannula of at least 4.5 cm in length for needle thoracocentesis in patients with tension pneumothorax. The cannula should be left in place until bubbling is confirmed in the underwater-seal system to ensure proper function of the intercostal tube.
In summary, recognizing the clinical features of tension pneumothorax and differentiating it from other conditions is essential for prompt and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man who is a smoker presents with gradual-onset shortness of breath, over the last month. Chest radiograph shows a right pleural effusion.
What would be the most appropriate next investigation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pleural aspirate
Explanation:Investigations for Pleural Effusion: Choosing the Right Test
When a patient presents with dyspnoea and a suspected pleural effusion, choosing the right investigation is crucial for accurate diagnosis and management. Here are some of the most appropriate investigations for different types of pleural effusions:
1. Pleural aspirate: This is the most appropriate next investigation to measure the protein content and determine whether the fluid is an exudate or a transudate.
2. Computerised tomography (CT) of the chest: An exudative effusion would prompt investigation with CT of the chest or thoracoscopy to look for conditions such as malignancy or tuberculosis (TB).
3. Bronchoscopy: Bronchoscopy would be appropriate if there was need to obtain a biopsy for a suspected tumour, but so far no lesion has been identified.
4. Echocardiogram: A transudative effusion would prompt investigations such as an echocardiogram to look for heart failure, or liver imaging to look for cirrhosis.
5. Spirometry: Spirometry would have been useful if chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) was suspected, but at this stage the pleural effusion is likely the cause of dyspnoea and should be investigated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old office worker attends Asthma Clinic for her annual asthma review. She takes a steroid inhaler twice daily, which seems to control her asthma well. Occasionally, she needs to use her salbutamol inhaler, particularly if she has been exposed to allergens.
What is the primary mechanism of action of the drug salbutamol in the treatment of asthma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: β2-adrenoceptor agonist
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Asthma: Understanding the Role of Different Drugs
Asthma is a chronic inflammatory condition of the airways that causes reversible airway obstruction. The pathogenesis of asthma involves the release of inflammatory mediators due to IgE-mediated degranulation of mast cells. Pharmacological management of asthma involves the use of different drugs that target specific receptors and pathways involved in the pathogenesis of asthma.
β2-adrenoceptor agonists are selective drugs that stimulate β2-adrenoceptors found in bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation of the airways and increased calibre. Salbutamol is a commonly used short-acting β2-adrenoceptor agonist, while salmeterol is a longer-acting drug used in more severe asthma.
α1-adrenoceptor antagonists, which mediate smooth muscle contraction in blood vessels, are not used in the treatment of asthma. β1-adrenoceptor agonists, found primarily in cardiac tissue, are not used in asthma management either, as they increase heart rate and contractility.
β2-adrenoceptor antagonists, also known as β blockers, cause constriction of the airways and should be avoided in asthma due to the risk of bronchoconstriction. Muscarinic antagonists, such as ipratropium, are useful adjuncts in asthma management as they block the muscarinic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle, leading to relaxation of the airways.
Other drugs used in asthma management include steroids (oral or inhaled), leukotriene receptor antagonists (such as montelukast), xanthines (such as theophylline), and sodium cromoglycate. Understanding the role of different drugs in asthma management is crucial for effective treatment and prevention of exacerbations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after falling down the stairs at home. She complains of ‘rib pain’ and is moved to the resus room from triage, as she was unable to complete full sentences due to shortness of breath. Sats on room air were 92%. You are asked to see her urgently as the nursing staff are concerned about her deterioration.
On examination, she appears distressed; blood pressure is 85/45, heart rate 115 bpm, respiratory rate 38 and sats 87% on air. Her left chest does not appear to be moving very well, and there are no audible breath sounds on the left on auscultation.
What is the most appropriate next step in immediate management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Needle thoracocentesis of left chest
Explanation:Needle Thoracocentesis for Tension Pneumothorax
Explanation:
In cases of traumatic chest pain, it is important to keep an open mind regarding other injuries. However, if a patient rapidly deteriorates with signs of shock, hypoxia, reduced chest expansion, and no breath sounds audible on the affected side of the chest, a tension pneumothorax should be suspected. This is an immediately life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.There is no time to wait for confirmation on a chest X-ray or to set up a chest drain. Instead, needle thoracocentesis should be performed on the affected side of the chest. A large-bore cannula is inserted in the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the affected side. This can provide rapid relief and should be followed up with the insertion of a chest drain.
It is important to note that there is no role for respiratory consultation or nebulisers in this scenario. Rapid intervention is key to preventing cardiac arrest and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 98
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. After workup, including blood tests, an electrocardiogram (ECG) and a chest X-ray, a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected.
In which situation might a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan be preferred to a computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) to confirm a diagnosis of PE?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal impairment
Explanation:Choosing the Right Imaging Test for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism: Considerations and Limitations
When evaluating a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), choosing the appropriate imaging test can be challenging. Several factors need to be considered, including the patient’s medical history, clinical presentation, and available resources. Here are some examples of how different patient characteristics can influence the choice of imaging test:
Renal impairment: A V/Q scan may be preferred over a CTPA in patients with renal impairment, as the latter uses radiocontrast that can be nephrotoxic.
Abnormal chest X-ray: If the chest X-ray is abnormal, a V/Q scan may not be the best option, as it can be difficult to interpret. A CTPA would be more appropriate in this case.
Wells PE score of 3: The Wells score alone does not dictate the choice of imaging test. A D-dimer blood test should be obtained first, and if positive, a CTPA or V/Q scan may be necessary.
Weekend admission: Availability of imaging tests may be limited during weekends. A CTPA scan may be more feasible than a V/Q scan, as the latter requires nuclear medicine facilities that may not be available out of hours.
History of COPD: In patients with lung abnormalities such as severe COPD, a V/Q scan may be challenging to interpret. A CTPA would be a better option in this case.
In summary, choosing the right imaging test for suspected PE requires careful consideration of the patient’s characteristics and available resources. Consultation with a radiologist may be necessary in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old farmer presents to his general practitioner (GP) with gradually progressive shortness of breath over the last year, along with an associated cough. He has no significant past medical history to note except for a previous back injury and is a non-smoker. He occasionally takes ibuprofen for back pain but is on no other medications. He has worked on farms since his twenties and acquired his own farm 10 years ago.
On examination, the patient has a temperature of 36.9oC and respiratory rate of 26. Examination of the chest reveals bilateral fine inspiratory crackles. His GP requests a chest X-ray, which shows bilateral reticulonodular shadowing.
Which one of the following is the most likely underlying cause of symptoms in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
Explanation:Causes of Pulmonary Fibrosis: Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis
Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition characterized by shortness of breath and reticulonodular shadowing on chest X-ray. It can be caused by various factors, including exposure to inorganic dusts like asbestosis and beryllium, organic dusts like mouldy hay and avian protein, certain drugs, systemic diseases, and more. In this scenario, the patient’s occupation as a farmer suggests a possible diagnosis of extrinsic allergic alveolitis or hypersensitivity pneumonitis, which is caused by exposure to avian proteins or Aspergillus in mouldy hay. It is important to note that occupational lung diseases may entitle the patient to compensation. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, silicosis, crocidolite exposure, and beryllium exposure are less likely causes in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old, overweight accountant presents to the hospital with sudden onset of breathlessness and right posterior lower chest pain. This occurs three weeks after undergoing right total hip replacement surgery. The patient has a medical history of bronchiectasis and asthma, but denies any recent change in sputum colour or quantity. On air, oxygen saturation is 89%, but rises to 95% on (35%) oxygen. The patient is apyrexial. Chest examination reveals coarse leathery crackles at both lung bases. Peak flow rate is 350 L/min and chest radiograph shows bronchiectatic changes, also at both lung bases. Full blood count is normal.
What is the most appropriate investigation to conduct next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT-pulmonary angiography
Explanation:CT Pulmonary Angiography as the Preferred Diagnostic Tool for Pulmonary Embolism
Computerised tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the most suitable diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. This is particularly true for patients with chronic lung disease, as a ventilation perfusion scan may be difficult to interpret. In this case, the patient almost certainly has a pulmonary embolism, making CT pulmonary angiography the investigation of choice.
It is important to note that while ventilation perfusion scans are useful in diagnosing pulmonary embolisms, they may not be the best option for patients with underlying lung disease. This is because the scan can be challenging to interpret, leading to inaccurate results. CT pulmonary angiography, on the other hand, provides a more accurate and reliable diagnosis, making it the preferred diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 101
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old known alcoholic is brought by ambulance after being found unconscious on the road on a Sunday afternoon. He has a superficial laceration in the right frontal region. He is admitted for observation over the bank holiday weekend. Admission chest X-ray is normal. Before discharge on Tuesday morning, he is noted to be febrile and dyspnoeic. Blood tests reveal neutrophilia and elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) levels. A chest X-ray demonstrates consolidation in the right lower zone of the lung.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration pneumonia
Explanation:Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that typically affects the lower lobes of the lungs, particularly the right middle or lower lobes or left lower lobe. It occurs when someone inhales foreign material, such as vomit, into their lungs. If an alcoholic is found unconscious and has a consolidation in the lower zone of their lungs, it is highly likely that they have aspiration pneumonia. Antibiotics should be prescribed accordingly.
Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis is another condition that can cause breathlessness and consolidation on chest X-ray. However, it is unlikely to develop in a hospital setting and does not typically cause a fever. Treatment involves prednisolone and sometimes itraconazole.
Tuberculosis (TB) is becoming more common in the UK and Europe, especially among immunosuppressed individuals like alcoholics. However, TB usually affects the upper lobes of the lungs, and the patient’s chest X-ray from two days prior makes it an unlikely diagnosis.
Staphylococcal pneumonia can occur in alcoholics, but it is characterized by cavitating lesions and often accompanied by empyema.
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is also common in immunosuppressed individuals and causes bilateral perihilar consolidations, sometimes with pneumatocele formation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 102
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man snores at night and his wife reports it is so loud that he often wakes her up. She notes that her husband sometimes appears to not take a breath for a long time and then gasps for air before continuing to snore. He suffers from daytime headaches and sleepiness. He has a body mass index (BMI) of 40 kg/m2.
What would the most likely arterial blood gas result be if it was measured in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Compensated respiratory acidosis
Explanation:Understanding Compensated and Uncompensated Acid-Base Disorders
Acid-base disorders are a group of conditions that affect the pH balance of the body. Compensation is the body’s natural response to maintain a normal pH level. Here are some examples of compensated and uncompensated acid-base disorders:
Compensated respiratory acidosis occurs in patients with obstructive sleep apnea. The kidney compensates for the chronic respiratory acidosis by increasing bicarbonate production, which buffers the increase in acid caused by carbon dioxide.
Compensated respiratory alkalosis is seen in high-altitude areas. The kidney compensates by reducing the rate of bicarbonate reabsorption and increasing reabsorption of H+.
Compensated metabolic acidosis occurs in patients with diabetic ketoacidosis. The body compensates by hyperventilating to release carbon dioxide and reduce the acid burden. The kidney also compensates by increasing bicarbonate production and sequestering acid into proteins.
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis occurs in patients with Guillain–Barré syndrome, an obstructed airway, or respiratory depression from opiate toxicity. There is an abrupt failure in ventilation, leading to an acute respiratory acidosis.
Uncompensated metabolic acidosis occurs in patients with lactic acidosis or diabetic ketoacidosis. The body cannot produce enough bicarbonate to buffer the added acid, leading to an acute metabolic acidosis.
Understanding these different types of acid-base disorders and their compensatory mechanisms is crucial in diagnosing and treating patients with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a medical history of hyperlipidaemia and hypertension arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cough and difficulty breathing that has been getting worse over the past 24 hours. Upon examination, he is not running a fever, has a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, a heart rate of 110 bpm, and an oxygen saturation level of 95% on room air. During chest auscultation, the patient displays fine crackles in both lung bases. Additionally, a new audible systolic murmur is detected at the apex.
What is the most likely cause of the patient's pulmonary symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Pulmonary Oedema
The patient in question is likely suffering from flash pulmonary oedema, which can be caused by mitral valve regurgitation due to mitral valve disease. This is supported by the patient’s advanced age, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and the presence of a new systolic murmur at the apex. The backup of blood into the left atrium and pulmonary vasculature can lead to transudation of fluid into the pulmonary alveolar space, causing pulmonary oedema.
While pericardial effusion could also lead to pulmonary congestion, it would likely manifest with Beck’s triad of distant heart sounds, hypotension, and distended neck veins. Pleural effusion, on the other hand, would result in quieter sounds on auscultation and dullness to percussion. Lobar pneumonia would be accompanied by a fever and crackles on auscultation, but would not explain the new systolic murmur. Finally, left ventricular outflow tract obstruction, such as aortic stenosis, would cause a different type of murmur at the right upper sternal border, which is not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with advanced lung disease due to cystic fibrosis (CF) is being evaluated for a possible lung transplant. What respiratory pathogen commonly found in CF patients would make him ineligible for transplantation if present?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Burkholderia cenocepacia
Explanation:Common Respiratory Pathogens in Cystic Fibrosis and Their Impact on Lung Transplantation
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory and digestive systems. Patients with CF are prone to chronic respiratory infections, which can lead to accelerated lung function decline and poor outcomes following lung transplantation. Here are some common respiratory pathogens in CF and their impact on lung transplantation:
Burkholderia cenocepacia: This Gram-negative bacterium is associated with poor outcomes following lung transplantation and renders a patient ineligible for transplantation in the UK.
Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA): This Gram-positive bacterium is resistant to many antibiotics but is not usually a contraindication to lung transplantation. Attempts at eradicating the organism from the airways should be made.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa: This Gram-negative bacterium is the dominant respiratory pathogen in adults with CF and can cause accelerated lung function decline. However, it is not a contraindication to transplantation.
Aspergillus fumigatus: This fungus is commonly isolated from sputum cultures of CF patients and may be associated with allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis. Its presence does not necessarily mandate treatment and is not a contraindication to transplantation.
Haemophilus influenzae: This Gram-negative bacterium is commonly seen in CF, particularly in children. It is not associated with accelerated lung function decline and is not a contraindication to transplantation.
In summary, respiratory infections are a common complication of CF and can impact the success of lung transplantation. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to optimize patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to you with complaints of increasing shortness of breath on exertion over the past year. During the examination, you observe early finger clubbing and bibasal fine crackles on auscultation. You suspect that he may have pulmonary fibrosis.
What is the imaging modality considered the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary fibrosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest
Explanation:Imaging Modalities for Pulmonary Fibrosis and Pulmonary Embolus
When it comes to diagnosing pulmonary fibrosis and pulmonary embolus, there are several imaging modalities available. High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest is considered the gold standard for suspected pulmonary fibrosis as it provides detailed images of the lung parenchyma. On the other hand, computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the gold standard for suspected pulmonary embolus. A chest X-ray may be useful initially for investigating patients with suspected pulmonary fibrosis, but HRCT provides more detail. Ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) chest scan is used for certain patients with suspected pulmonary embolus, but not for pulmonary fibrosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) chest is not commonly used for either condition, as HRCT remains the preferred imaging modality for pulmonary fibrosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 106
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old male smoker with severe rheumatoid arthritis comes to the clinic complaining of a dry cough and increasing difficulty in breathing over the past few months. During the examination, he appears to be mildly cyanosed and has end inspiratory crepitations. A chest x-ray reveals widespread reticulonodular changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid lung
Explanation:Diagnosis and Differential Diagnosis of Pulmonary Fibrosis
Pulmonary fibrosis is suspected in a patient with a history and examination features that suggest the condition. Rheumatoid lung is a common cause of pulmonary fibrosis, especially in severe rheumatoid disease and smokers. The reported changes on the chest X-ray are consistent with the diagnosis. However, to diagnose respiratory failure, a blood gas result is necessary.
On the other hand, bronchial asthma is characterized by reversible airways obstruction, which leads to fluctuation of symptoms and wheezing on auscultation. The history of the patient is not consistent with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Pneumonia, on the other hand, is suggested by infective symptoms, pyrexia, and consolidation on CXR.
In summary, the diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis requires a thorough history and examination, as well as imaging studies. Differential diagnosis should include other conditions that present with similar symptoms and signs, such as bronchial asthma, COPD, and pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of breathlessness, dry cough and occasional wheezing.
What investigation finding would indicate a diagnosis of asthma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb)
Explanation:Diagnostic Criteria for Asthma: Key Indicators to Consider
Asthma is a chronic respiratory disease that affects millions of people worldwide. It is characterized by airway inflammation, bronchoconstriction, and increased mucous production, leading to symptoms such as wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath. Diagnosing asthma can be challenging, as its symptoms can mimic those of other respiratory conditions. However, several key indicators can help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis.
Fraction exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) 50 parts per billion (ppb): An FeNO level > 40 ppb is indicative of asthma.
Forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1/FVC ratio) ≥ 75%: An obstructive FEV1/FVC ratio < 70% would support a diagnosis of asthma in this patient. A 10% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 12% or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. A 150 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator: A 200 ml or higher improvement in FEV1 following a nebulised bronchodilator supports a diagnosis of asthma. Greater than 15% variability in peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) on monitoring: Greater than 20% variability in PEFR on monitoring supports a diagnosis of asthma. In conclusion, healthcare professionals should consider these key indicators when diagnosing asthma. However, it is important to note that asthma is not the only cause of these indicators, and a comprehensive evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary to make an accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man who is a long-term cigarette smoker presents with nocturnal dry cough of 4 weeks’ duration. He has recently gone through a stressful life situation due to divorce and bankruptcy. He mentions a history of atopic diseases in his family. His symptom improves with omeprazole, one tablet daily taken in the morning.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Nocturnal Cough: Gastro-oesophageal Reflux Disease as the Likely Cause
Nocturnal cough can have various causes, including asthma, sinusitis with post-nasal drip, congestive heart failure, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GERD). In this case, the patient’s cough improved after taking omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, which suggests GERD as the likely cause of his symptoms. The mechanism of cough in GERD is related to a vagal reflex triggered by oesophageal irritation, which is exacerbated by stress and lying flat. Peptic ulcer disease, asthma, psychogenic cough, and chronic bronchitis are less likely causes based on the absence of relevant symptoms or response to treatment. Therefore, GERD should be considered in the differential diagnosis of nocturnal cough, especially in patients with risk factors such as smoking and obesity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 109
Incorrect
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An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with probable community acquired pneumonia (CAP). The consultant asks you to refer to the CURB-65 score to determine the next management plan.
Which of the following statements is part of the CURB-65 score?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea > 7 mmol/l
Explanation:Understanding the CURB-65 Score for Assessing Severity of CAP
The CURB-65 score is a clinical prediction tool recommended by the British Thoracic Society for assessing the severity of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). It is a 6-point score based on five criteria: confusion, urea level, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. Patients with a score of 0 are at low risk and may not require hospitalization, while those with a score of 3 or more are at higher risk of death and may require urgent admission. It is important to use the correct criteria for each parameter, such as an Abbreviated Mental Test Score of 8 or less for confusion and a respiratory rate of 30 or more for tachypnea. Understanding and documenting the CURB-65 score can aid in clinical decision-making for patients with CAP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old patient visits his GP complaining of a dry cough that has persisted for 3 months. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the past 12 years and has no other medical history. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found, and his vital signs, including pulse rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure, temperature, and oxygen saturation, are all normal. Spirometry results reveal a forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of 3.6 litres (predicted = 3.55 litres) and a forced vital capacity of 4.8 litres (predicted 4.72 litres). What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Asthma
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a dry cough in a young patient
A dry cough is a common symptom that can have various underlying causes. In a young patient with a ten-pack-year history of smoking and a 3-month duration of symptoms, several possibilities should be considered and ruled out based on clinical evaluation and diagnostic tests.
One possibility is asthma, especially if the cough is the main or only symptom. In this case, spirometry may be normal, but peak flow monitoring before and after inhaled steroid therapy can help confirm the diagnosis by showing an improvement in peak flow rate and/or a reduction in variability.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is less likely in a young patient, but spirometry can reveal obstructive patterns if present.
Community-acquired pneumonia is unlikely given the chronicity of symptoms and the absence of typical signs such as productive cough and inspiratory crackles.
Angina is an uncommon cause of a dry cough, and it usually presents with chest tightness on exertion rather than at night.
Bronchiectasis can cause a productive cough and crackles on auscultation, which are not present in this case.
Therefore, based on the available information, asthma seems to be the most likely diagnosis, but further evaluation may be needed to confirm it and exclude other possibilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 111
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents to the Emergency Department with an acute exacerbation. He is experiencing severe shortness of breath and his oxygen saturation levels are at 74% on room air. The medical team initiates treatment with 15 litres of high-flow oxygen and later transitions him to controlled oxygen supplementation via a 28% venturi mask. What is the optimal target range for his oxygen saturation levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 88–92%
Explanation:Understanding Oxygen Saturation Targets for Patients with COPD
Patients with COPD have specific oxygen saturation targets that differ from those without respiratory problems. The correct range for a COPD patient is 88-92%, as they rely on low oxygen concentrations to drive their respiratory effort. Giving them too much oxygen can potentially remove their drive to breathe and worsen their respiratory situation. In contrast, unwell individuals who are not at risk of type 2 respiratory failure have a target of 94-98%. A saturation target of 80% is too low and can cause hypoxia and damage to end organs. Saturations of 90-94% may indicate a need for oxygen therapy, but it may still be too high for a patient with COPD. It is vital to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) in hypoxia to check if the patient is a chronic CO2 retainer. Understanding these targets is crucial in managing patients with COPD and ensuring their respiratory effort is not compromised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired electrician presents with complaints of progressive dyspnea, unintentional weight loss, and two episodes of hemoptysis in the past week. He has a history of smoking 40 pack years. Upon examination, there is stony dullness at the right base with absent breath sounds and decreased vocal resonance.
Which of the following statements about mesothelioma is most accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may have a lag period of up to 45 years between exposure and diagnosis
Explanation:Understanding Mesothelioma: Causes, Diagnosis, and Prognosis
Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the pleura, and while it can be caused by factors other than asbestos exposure, the majority of cases are linked to this cause. Asbestos was commonly used in various industries until the late 1970s/early 1980s, and the lag period between exposure and diagnosis can be up to 45 years. This means that the predicted peak of incidence of mesothelioma in the UK is around 2015-2020.
Contrary to popular belief, smoking does not cause mesothelioma. However, smoking and asbestos exposure can act as synergistic risk factors for bronchial carcinoma. Unfortunately, there is no known cure for mesothelioma, and the 5-year survival rate is less than 5%. Treatment is supportive and palliative, with an emphasis on managing symptoms and improving quality of life.
Diagnosis is usually made through CT imaging, with or without thoracoscopic-guided biopsy. Open lung biopsy is only considered if other biopsy methods are not feasible. Mesothelioma typically presents with a malignant pleural effusion, which can be difficult to distinguish from a pleural tumor on a plain chest X-ray. The effusion will be an exudate.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and prognosis of mesothelioma is crucial for early detection and management of this devastating disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with lung cancer presents to the Emergency Department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. He reports no cough or sputum production. Upon auscultation, his chest is clear. His pulse is irregularly irregular and measures 110 bpm, while his oxygen saturation is 86% on room air. He is breathing at a rate of 26 breaths per minute. What diagnostic investigation is most likely to be effective in this scenario?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism in Cancer Patients
Pulmonary embolism (PE) and deep vein thrombosis (DVT) are common in cancer patients due to their hypercoagulable state. When a cancer patient presents with dyspnea, tachycardia, chest pain, and desaturation, PE should be suspected. The gold standard investigation for PE is a computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA), which has a high diagnostic yield.
An electrocardiogram (ECG) can also be helpful in diagnosing PE, as sinus tachycardia is the most common finding. However, in this case, the patient’s irregularly irregular pulse is likely due to atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular rate, which should be treated alongside investigation of the suspected PE.
A D-dimer test may not be helpful in diagnosing PE in cancer patients, as it has low specificity and may be raised due to the underlying cancer. An arterial blood gas (ABG) should be carried out to help treat the patient, but the cause of hypoxia will still need to be determined.
Bronchoscopy would not be useful in diagnosing PE and should not be performed in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man and his wife, who have been trying to have a baby, visit a Fertility Clinic to receive the results of their tests. The man's semen sample has revealed azoospermia. Upon further inquiry, the man reports having a persistent cough that produces purulent sputum. What test would confirm the underlying condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) genetic screening and sweat test
Explanation:Investigations for Male Infertility: A Case of Azoospermia and Bronchiectasis
Azoospermia, or the absence of sperm in semen, can be caused by a variety of factors, including genetic disorders and respiratory diseases. In this case, a man presents with a longstanding cough productive of purulent sputum and is found to have azoospermia. The combination of azoospermia and bronchiectasis suggests a possible diagnosis of cystic fibrosis (CF), a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory and reproductive systems.
CF is diagnosed via a sweat test showing high sweat chloride levels and genetic screening for two copies of disease-causing CFTR mutations. While most cases of CF are diagnosed in infancy, some are diagnosed later in life, often by non-respiratory specialties such as infertility clinics. Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder characterized by an extra X chromosome in males, can also cause non-obstructive azoospermia and is diagnosed by karyotyping.
Computed tomography (CT) thorax can be helpful in diagnosing bronchiectasis, but the underlying diagnosis in this case is likely to be CF. Testicular biopsy and testing FSH and testosterone levels can be used to investigate the cause of azoospermia, but in this case, investigating for CF is the most appropriate next step. Nasal biopsy can diagnose primary ciliary dyskinesia, another cause of bronchiectasis and subfertility, but it is not relevant in this case.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of male infertility should include a comprehensive medical history, physical examination, and appropriate investigations to identify any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), is admitted to hospital with sudden-onset shortness of breath. His oxygen saturation levels are 82%, respiratory rate (RR) 25 breaths/min (normal 12–18 breaths/min), his trachea is central, he has reduced breath sounds in the right lower zone. Chest X-ray reveals a 2.5 cm translucent border at the base of the right lung.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrapleural chest drain
Explanation:Management of Spontaneous Pneumothorax in a Patient with COPD
When a patient with COPD presents with a spontaneous pneumothorax, prompt intervention is necessary. Smoking is a significant risk factor for pneumothorax, and recurrence rates are high for secondary pneumothorax. In deciding between needle aspiration and intrapleural chest drain, the size of the pneumothorax is crucial. In this case, the patient’s pneumothorax was >2 cm, requiring an intrapleural chest drain. Intubation and NIV are not necessary interventions at this time. Observation alone is not sufficient, and the patient requires urgent intervention due to low oxygen saturation, high respiratory rate, shortness of breath, and reduced breath sounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents with complaints of dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and an unintentional 25 lb weight loss over the last 4 months. He reports a medical history significant for mild asthma controlled with an albuterol inhaler as needed. He takes no other medications and has no allergies. He has a 55 pack-year smoking history and has worked as a naval shipyard worker for 40 years. Examination reveals diffuse crackles in the posterior lung fields bilaterally and there is dullness to percussion one-third of the way up the right lung field. Ultrasound reveals free fluid in the pleural space.
Which one of the following set of test values is most consistent with this patient’s presentation?
(LDH: lactate dehydrogenase)
Option LDH plasma LDH pleural Protein plasma Protein pleural
A 180 100 7 3
B 270 150 8 3
C 180 150 7 4
D 270 110 8 3
E 180 100 7 2Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:Interpreting Light’s Criteria for Pleural Effusions
When evaluating a patient with a history of occupational exposure and respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider the possibility of pneumoconiosis, specifically asbestosis. Chronic exposure to asbestos can lead to primary bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma. Chest radiography may reveal radio-opaque pleural and diaphragmatic plaques. In this case, the patient’s dyspnea, hemoptysis, and weight loss suggest primary lung cancer, with a likely malignant pleural effusion observed under ultrasound.
To confirm the exudative nature of the pleural effusion, Light’s criteria can be used. These criteria include a pleural:serum protein ratio >0.5, a pleural:serum LDH ratio >0.6, and pleural LDH more than two-thirds the upper limit of normal serum LDH. Meeting any one of these criteria indicates an exudative effusion.
Option C is the correct answer as it satisfies Light’s criteria for an exudative pleural effusion. Options A, B, D, and E do not meet the criteria. Understanding Light’s criteria can aid in the diagnosis and management of pleural effusions, particularly in cases where malignancy is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 117
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-week history of productive cough with green sputum and a one day history of palpitations. She also had some rigors and fever. On examination:
Result Normal
Respiratory rate (RR) 26 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
Sats 96% on air 94–98%
Blood pressure (BP) 92/48 mmHg <120/80 mmHg
Heart rate (HR) 130 bpm 60–100 beats/min
Some bronchial breathing at left lung base, heart sounds normal however with an irregularly irregular pulse. electrocardiogram (ECG) showed fast atrial fibrillation (AF). She was previously fit and well.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous fluids
Explanation:Treatment for AF in a Patient with Sepsis
In a patient with sepsis secondary to pneumonia, the new onset of AF is likely due to the sepsis. Therefore, the priority is to urgently treat the sepsis with intravenous fluids and broad-spectrum antibiotics. If the AF persists after the sepsis is treated, other options for AF treatment can be considered. Bisoprolol and digoxin are not the first-line treatments for AF in this case. Oral antibiotics are not recommended for septic patients. Flecainide may be considered if the AF persists after the sepsis is treated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has a small cell lung cancer. Her serum sodium level is 128 mmol/l on routine testing (136–145 mmol/l).
What is the single most likely cause for the biochemical abnormality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis
Hyponatraemia is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. There are several possible causes of hyponatraemia, including the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), primary adrenal insufficiency, diuretics, polydipsia, and vomiting.
SIADH is a common cause of hyponatraemia, particularly in small cell lung cancer patients. It occurs due to the ectopic production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to impaired water excretion and water retention. This results in hyponatraemia and hypo-osmolality.
Primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison’s disease, can also cause hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, and hypotension. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.
Diuretics, particularly loop diuretics and bendroflumethiazide, can also cause hyponatraemia. However, there is no information to suggest that the patient is taking diuretics.
Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, can also lead to hyponatraemia. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.
Vomiting is another possible cause of hyponatraemia, but there is no information in the question to support this as a correct answer.
In summary, hyponatraemia can have several possible causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman with a long history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to her general practitioner complaining of a chronic cough, weight loss and haemoptysis. She smokes ten cigarettes a day. You understand that she has begun anti-tumour necrosis factor (TNF) antibody treatment around 9 months earlier. On examination, her rheumatoid appears quiescent at present.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Chest X-ray Calcified hilar lymph nodes,
possible left upper lobe fibrosis
Haemoglobin 109 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 11.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 295 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 61 mm/h 0–10mm in the 1st hour
C-reactive protein (CRP) 55 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 100 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Active pulmonary tuberculosis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis
A patient with rheumatoid arthritis presents with calcified lymph nodes and upper lobe fibrosis on a chest X-ray. Several possible causes need to be considered, including active pulmonary tuberculosis, lymphoma, rheumatoid lung disease, bronchial carcinoma, and invasive aspergillosis. While anti-TNF antibody medication for rheumatoid arthritis may increase the risk of tuberculosis and aspergillosis, it is important to rule out other potential etiologies based on clinical examination, imaging studies, and laboratory tests. The presence of soft, fluffy, and ill-defined lesions on chest X-ray may suggest active tuberculosis, while the absence of upper lobe fibrosis may argue against lymphoma or radiotherapy-induced fibrosis. Pulmonary nodules and lung fibrosis at the lung bases are more typical of rheumatoid lung disease, but calcified nodes with upper lobe fibrosis are unusual. Bronchial carcinoma may be a concern given the patient’s age and smoking history, but typically lymph nodes are not calcified. Invasive aspergillosis is more likely in immunosuppressed patients and can be detected by a CT scan and a serum galactomannan test. A comprehensive differential diagnosis can guide further evaluation and management of this complex case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman has had bowel surgery two days ago. She is currently on postoperative day one, and you are called to see her as she has developed sudden-onset shortness of breath. She denies any coughing but complains of chest discomfort. The surgical scar appears clean. Upon examination, the patient is afebrile; vital signs are stable other than rapid and irregular heartbeat and upon auscultation, the chest sounds are clear. The patient does not have any other significant past medical history, aside from her breast cancer for which she had a mastectomy five years ago. She has no family history of any heart disease.
What is the patient’s most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Sudden Onset Shortness of Breath postoperatively
When a patient experiences sudden onset shortness of breath postoperatively, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. One possible diagnosis is pulmonary embolism, which is supported by the patient’s chest discomfort. Anaphylaxis is another potential diagnosis, but there is no mention of an allergen exposure or other signs of a severe allergic reaction. Pneumonia is unlikely given the absence of fever and clear chest sounds. Lung fibrosis is also an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents gradually and is associated with restrictive respiratory diseases. Finally, cellulitis is not a probable diagnosis as there are no signs of infection and the surgical wound is clean. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s sudden onset shortness of breath.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his general practitioner. He had visited his GP a week ago, complaining of malaise, headache, and myalgia for the past three days. Despite being prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted and he developed a dry cough and fever. On the day of referral, he reported mild dyspnea, a global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. During the examination, a maculopapular rash was observed on his upper body, and fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest. Mild neck stiffness was also noted. His vital signs showed a fever of 39°C and a blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Hb: 84 g/L (130-180)
- WBC: 8 ×109/L (4-11)
- Platelets: 210 ×109/L (150-400)
- Reticulocytes: 8% (0.5-2.4)
- Na: 137 mmol/L (137-144)
- K: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
- Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
- Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (60-110)
- Bilirubin: 19 µmol/L (1-22)
- Alk phos: 130 U/L (45-105)
- AST: 54 U/L (1-31)
- GGT: 48 U/L (<50)
The chest x-ray revealed patchy consolidation in both mid-zones. What is the most appropriate course of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Mycoplasma Pneumonia: Symptoms, Complications, and Treatment
Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that commonly affects individuals aged 15-30 years. It is characterized by systemic upset, dry cough, and fever, with myalgia and arthralgia being common symptoms. Unlike other types of pneumonia, the white blood cell count is often within the normal range. In some cases, Mycoplasma pneumonia can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as haemolytic anaemia, renal failure, hepatitis, myocarditis, meningism and meningitis, transverse myelitis, cerebellar ataxia, and erythema multiforme.
One of the most common complications of Mycoplasma pneumonia is haemolytic anaemia, which is associated with the presence of cold agglutinins found in up to 50% of cases. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies in paired sera. Treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin, with tetracycline or doxycycline being alternative options.
In summary, Mycoplasma pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that can cause a range of symptoms and complications, including haemolytic anaemia and extrapulmonary manifestations. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-Mycoplasma antibodies, and treatment typically involves the use of macrolide antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old smoker comes to the clinic with complaints of chest pain and cough. He reports experiencing more difficulty breathing and a sharp pain in his third and fourth ribs. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals an enlargement on the right side of his hilum. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchogenic carcinoma
Explanation:Diagnosis of Bronchogenic Carcinoma
The patient’s heavy smoking history, recent onset of cough, and bony pain strongly suggest bronchogenic carcinoma. The appearance of the chest X-ray further supports this diagnosis. While COPD can also cause cough and dyspnea, it is typically accompanied by audible wheezing and the presence of a hilar mass is inconsistent with this diagnosis. Neither tuberculosis nor lung collapse are indicated by the patient’s history or radiographic findings. Hyperparathyroidism is not a consideration unless hypercalcemia is present. Overall, the evidence points towards a diagnosis of bronchogenic carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman of African origin presented to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset dyspnoea. She was a known case of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), previously treated for nephropathy and presently on mycophenolate mofetil and hydroxychloroquine sulfate. She had no fever. On examination, her respiratory rate was 45 breaths per minute, with coarse crepitations in the right lung base. After admission, blood test results revealed:
Investigation Value Normal range
Haemoglobin 100g/l 115–155 g/l
Sodium (Na+) 136 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.7 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
PaO2on room air 85 mmHg 95–100 mmHg
C-reactive protein (CRP) 6.6mg/l 0-10 mg/l
C3 level 41 mg/dl 83–180 mg/dl
Which of the following is most likely to be found in this patient as the cause for her dyspnoea?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High diffusing capacity of the lungs for carbon monoxide (DLCO)
Explanation:This case discusses diffuse alveolar haemorrhage (DAH), a rare but serious complication of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Symptoms include sudden-onset shortness of breath, decreased haematocrit levels, and possibly coughing up blood. A chest X-ray may show diffuse infiltrates and crepitations in the lungs. It is important to rule out infections before starting treatment with methylprednisolone or cyclophosphamide. A high DLCO, indicating increased diffusion capacity across the alveoli, may be present in DAH. A pulmonary function test may not be possible due to severe dyspnoea, so diagnosis is based on clinical presentation, imaging, and bronchoscopy. Lung biopsy may show pulmonary capillaritis with neutrophilic infiltration. A high ESR is non-specific and sputum for AFB is not relevant in this acute presentation. BAL fluid in DAH is progressively haemorrhagic, and lung scan with isotopes is not typical for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 124
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman came to the Emergency Department complaining of severe dyspnoea. A chest X-ray showed an opaque right hemithorax. She had no history of occupational exposure to asbestos. Her husband worked in a shipyard 35 years ago, but he had no lung issues. She has never been a smoker. Upon thorax examination, there was reduced movement on the right side, with absent breath sounds and intercostal fullness.
What is the probable reason for the radiological finding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesothelioma
Explanation:Pleural Pathologies: Mesothelioma and Differential Diagnoses
Workers who are exposed to asbestos are at a higher risk of developing lung pathologies such as asbestosis and mesothelioma. Indirect exposure can also occur when family members come into contact with asbestos-covered clothing. This condition affects both the lungs and pleural space, with short, fine asbestos fibers transported by the lymphatics to the pleural space, causing irritation and leading to plaques and fibrosis. Pleural fibrosis can also result in rounded atelectasis, which can mimic a lung mass on radiological imaging.
Mesothelioma, the most common type being epithelial, typically occurs 20-40 years after asbestos exposure and is characterized by exudative and hemorrhagic pleural effusion with high levels of hyaluronic acid. Treatment options are generally unsatisfactory, with local radiation and chemotherapy being used with variable results. Tuberculosis may also present with pleural effusion, but other systemic features such as weight loss, night sweats, and cough are expected. Lung collapse would show signs of mediastinal shift and intercostal fullness would not be typical. Pneumonectomy is not mentioned in the patient’s past, and massive consolidation may show air bronchogram on X-ray and bronchial breath sounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 125
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to your clinic complaining of wheezing for the past week. His mother mentions that he had a similar issue a couple of years ago but hasn't had any problems since. He was treated with inhalers and recovered quickly at that time. The boy is an animal lover and has always had multiple pets, including dogs, cats, birds, and reptiles. He hasn't acquired any new pets in the last two months. Upon examination, there are no clinical findings. What would be the best next step to take?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peak flow self-monitoring
Explanation:Diagnosis of Wheezing in Children
Wheezing is a common symptom in children, but it can have many causes. While asthma is a common cause of wheezing, it is important not to jump to conclusions and make a diagnosis based on conjecture alone. Instead, the next best course of action is to use a peak flow meter at home and follow up with lung function tests if necessary. It is also important to note that wheezing can sometimes be a symptom of cardiac failure, but this is not the case in the scenario presented.
Removing pets from the home is not a necessary step at this point, as it may cause unnecessary stress for the child. Instead, if a particular pet is identified as the cause of the allergy, it can be removed at a later time. Skin patch tests for allergens are also not useful in this scenario, as they are only done in cases with high suspicion or when desensitization therapy is planned.
In summary, a diagnosis of wheezing in children should not be made based on conjecture alone. Instead, it is important to use objective measures such as peak flow meters and lung function tests to determine the cause of the wheezing. Removing pets or conducting skin patch tests may not be necessary or useful at this point.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with increasing shortness of breath. She has also suffered from dull right iliac fossa pain over the past few months. Past history of note includes tuberculosis at the age of 23 and rheumatoid arthritis. On examination, her right chest is dull to percussion, consistent with a pleural effusion, and her abdomen appears swollen with a positive fluid thrill test. She may have a right adnexal mass.
Investigations:
Investigation
Result
Normal value
Chest X-ray Large right-sided pleural effusion
Haemoglobin 115 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 335 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 175 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Bilirubin 28 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase 25 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Albumin 40 g/l 35–55 g/l
CA-125 250 u/ml 0–35 u/ml
Pleural aspirate: occasional normal pleural cells, no white cells, protein 24 g/l.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Meig’s syndrome
Explanation:Possible Causes of Pleural Effusion: Meig’s Syndrome, Ovarian Carcinoma, Reactivation of Tuberculosis, Rheumatoid Arthritis, and Cardiac Failure
Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. There are various possible causes of pleural effusion, including Meig’s syndrome, ovarian carcinoma, reactivation of tuberculosis, rheumatoid arthritis, and cardiac failure.
Meig’s syndrome is characterized by the association of a benign ovarian tumor and a transudate pleural effusion. The pleural effusion resolves when the tumor is removed, although a raised CA-125 is commonly found.
Ovarian carcinoma with lung secondaries is another possible cause of pleural effusion. However, if no malignant cells are found on thoracocentesis, this diagnosis becomes less likely.
Reactivation of tuberculosis may also lead to pleural effusion, but this would be accompanied by other symptoms such as weight loss, night sweats, and fever.
Rheumatoid arthritis can produce an exudative pleural effusion, but this presentation is different from the transudate seen in Meig’s syndrome. In addition, white cells would be present due to the inflammatory response.
Finally, cardiac failure can result in bilateral pleural effusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 127
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden breathlessness and haemoptysis. He had just returned from a trip to Thailand and had been complaining of pain in his left leg. His oxygen saturation is 88% on room air, blood pressure is 95/70 mmHg, and heart rate is 120 bpm. He has a history of hypertension managed with lifestyle measures only and used to work as a construction worker. While receiving initial management, the patient suddenly becomes unresponsive, stops breathing, and has no pulse. Despite prolonged resuscitation efforts, the patient is declared dead after 40 minutes. Which vessel is most likely to be affected, leading to this patient's death?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary artery
Explanation:Differentiating Thrombosis in Varicose Veins: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Pulmonary artery thrombosis is a serious condition that can cause sudden-onset breathlessness, haemoptysis, pleuritic chest pain, and cough. It is usually caused by a deep vein thrombosis that travels to the pulmonary artery. Computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the preferred imaging modality for diagnosis.
Pulmonary vein thrombosis is a rare condition that is typically associated with lobectomy, metastatic carcinoma, coagulopathies, and lung transplantation. Patients usually present with gradual onset dyspnoea, lethargy, and peripheral oedema.
Azygos vein thrombosis is a rare occurrence that is usually associated with azygos vein aneurysms and hepatobiliary pathologies. It is rarely fatal.
Brachiocephalic vein thrombosis is usually accompanied by arm swelling, pain, and limitation of movement. It is less likely to progress to a pulmonary embolus than lower limb deep vein thrombosis.
Coronary artery thrombus resulting in myocardial infarction (MI) is characterised by cardiac chest pain, hypotension, and sweating. Haemoptysis is not a feature of MI. Electrocardiographic changes and serum troponin and cardiac enzyme levels are typically seen in MI, but not in pulmonary embolism.
In summary, the symptoms and diagnosis of thrombosis vary depending on the affected vein. It is important to consider the patient’s medical history and perform appropriate imaging and laboratory tests for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man presents to Accident and Emergency with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath, which is predominantly worse on the right side. He has been experiencing these symptoms for about 24 hours, but they have worsened since he woke up this morning. The patient reports that the pain is worse on inspiration and that he has never experienced chest pain before. He is mostly bedridden due to obesity but has no history of respiratory issues. The patient is currently receiving treatment for newly diagnosed prostate cancer. There is a high suspicion that he may have a pulmonary embolus (PE). His vital signs are as follows:
Temperature 36.5 °C
Blood pressure 136/82 mmHg
Heart rate 124 bpm
Saturations 94% on room air
His 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus tachycardia and nothing else.
What would be the most appropriate initial step in managing this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rivaroxaban
Explanation:Treatment Options for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In cases where there is a high clinical suspicion of a PE, treatment with treatment-dose direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as rivaroxaban or apixaban or low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) should be administered before diagnostic confirmation of a PE on computed tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography (CTPA). Thrombolysis with alteplase may be necessary in certain cases where there is a massive PE with signs of haemodynamic instability or right heart strain on ECG. Intravenous (IV) unfractionated heparin is not beneficial in treating a PE. While a chest X-ray may be useful in the workup for pleuritic chest pain, the priority in suspected PE cases should be administering treatment-dose DOAC or LMWH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in the shipyard but now has a retired life with his dogs. He was under treatment as a case of COPD, but maximal therapy for COPD failed to bring him any relief. On re-evaluation, his chest X-ray showed fine reticular opacities in the lower zones. A CT scan of his thorax showed interstitial thickening, with some ground glass opacity in the upper lungs.
Pleural plaques were absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease (RB-ILD)
Explanation:Differentiating Interstitial Lung Diseases: A Case Study
The patient in question presents with dyspnoea and a history of smoking. While COPD is initially suspected, the radiograph and CT findings do not support this diagnosis. Instead, the patient may be suffering from an interstitial lung disease. RB-ILD is a possibility, given the presence of pigmented macrophages in the lung. Asbestosis is also considered, but the absence of pleural plaques makes this less likely. Pneumoconiosis and histoplasmosis are ruled out based on the patient’s history and imaging results. Treatment for interstitial lung diseases can be challenging, with steroids being the primary option. However, the effectiveness of this treatment is debatable. Ultimately, a lung biopsy may be necessary for a definitive diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old electrician was referred to the hospital by his doctor. He had visited his GP a week ago, complaining of malaise, headache, and myalgia for three days. Despite being prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted and he developed a dry cough and fever. At the time of referral, he was experiencing mild dyspnea, a global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. On examination, he appeared unwell, had a fever of 39°C, and had a maculopapular rash on his upper body. Fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest, and mild neck stiffness was noted.
The following investigations were conducted: Hb 84 g/L (130-180), WBC 8 ×109/L (4-11), Platelets 210 ×109/L (150-400), Reticulocytes 8% (0.5-2.4), Na 129 mmol/L (137-144), K 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), Urea 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), Creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-110), Bilirubin 89 µmol/L (1-22), Alk phos 130 U/L (45-105), AST 54 U/L (1-31), and GGT 48 U/L (<50). A chest x-ray revealed patchy consolidation in both mid-zones.
What is the most likely cause of his abnormal blood count?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgM anti-i antibodies
Explanation:The patient has pneumonia, hepatitis, and haemolytic anaemia, which can be caused by Mycoplasma pneumonia. This condition can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as renal failure, myocarditis, and meningitis. Haemolysis is associated with the presence of IgM antibodies, and sepsis may cause microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia. Clavulanic acid can cause hepatitis, and some drugs can induce haemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A middle-aged overweight woman visits the clinic accompanied by her husband. She expresses concern about feeling excessively tired during the day and experiencing frequent episodes of sleepiness.
Her husband reports that she snores heavily at night and sometimes stops breathing. Additionally, her work performance has been declining, and she is at risk of losing her job.
What is the most suitable initial step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continuous Positive Airways Pressure (CPAP)
Explanation:Obstructive Sleep Apnoea and its Treatment
The presence of heavy snoring, apnoea attacks at night, and daytime somnolence suggests the possibility of obstructive sleep apnoea. The recommended treatment for this condition is continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP), which helps maintain airway patency during sleep. In addition to CPAP, weight loss and smoking cessation are also helpful measures. Surgery is not necessary for this condition.
Long-term oxygen therapy is indicated for individuals with chronic hypoxia associated with chronic respiratory disease to prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension. However, bronchodilators are not useful in this case. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman had a productive cough due to upper respiratory tract infection two weeks ago. She experienced a burning sensation in her chest during coughing. About a week ago, she coughed up a teaspoonful of yellow sputum with flecks of blood. The next morning, she had a small amount of blood-tinged sputum but has not had any subsequent haemoptysis. Her cough is resolving, and she is starting to feel better. She has no history of respiratory problems and has never smoked cigarettes. On examination, there are no abnormalities found in her chest, heart, or abdomen. Her chest x-ray is normal.
What would be your recommendation at this point?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Observation only
Explanation:Acute Bronchitis
Acute bronchitis is a type of respiratory tract infection that causes inflammation in the bronchial tubes. This condition is usually caused by viral infections, with up to 95% of cases being attributed to viruses such as adenovirus, coronavirus, and influenzae viruses A and B. While antibiotics are often prescribed for acute bronchitis, there is little evidence to suggest that they provide significant relief or shorten the duration of the illness.
Other viruses that can cause acute bronchitis include parainfluenza virus, respiratory syncytial virus, coxsackievirus A21, rhinovirus, and viruses that cause rubella and measles. It is important to note that in cases where there is no evidence of bronchoconstriction or bacterial infection, and the patient is not experiencing respiratory distress, observation is advised.
Overall, the causes and symptoms of acute bronchitis can help individuals take the necessary steps to manage their condition and prevent its spread to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 133
Incorrect
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After reviewing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in clinic, the respiratory consultant discusses the anatomy of the lungs with a group of undergraduate students.
With regard to the lungs, which one of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lungs receive a dual blood supply
Explanation:Facts about the Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a vital organ responsible for respiration. Here are some important facts about their anatomy:
– The lungs receive a dual blood supply from the pulmonary artery and the bronchial arteries. A pulmonary embolus may only result in infarction when the circulation is already inadequate.
– The left lung has two lobes, while the right lung has three. The horizontal fissure is present only in the right lung.
– Each lung has ten bronchopulmonary segments, which can be selectively removed surgically if diseased.
– The right bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left bronchus, making it more likely for foreign bodies to enter it. Aspiration pneumonia and abscess formation are common in the apical segment of the right lower lobe.Important Facts about the Anatomy of the Lungs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 134
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has just returned from a trip to Kenya. He has been experiencing a productive cough with blood-stained sputum, fever, and general malaise for the past week. Upon testing his sputum, he is diagnosed with tuberculosis and is prescribed isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for the initial phase of treatment. What drugs will he take during the continuation phase, which will last for four months after the initial two-month phase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rifampicin + Isoniazid
Explanation:Treatment Options for Tuberculosis: Medications and Considerations
Tuberculosis (TB) is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The following are some of the medications used in the treatment of TB, along with important considerations to keep in mind:
Rifampicin + Isoniazid
This combination is used in the initial treatment of TB, which lasts for two months. Before starting treatment, it is important to check liver and kidney function, as these medications can be associated with liver toxicity. Ethambutol should be avoided in patients with renal impairment. If TB meningitis is diagnosed, the continuation phase of treatment should be extended to 10 months and a glucocorticoid should be used in the first two weeks of treatment. Side effects to watch for include visual disturbances with ethambutol and peripheral neuropathy with isoniazid.Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
Pyrazinamide is used only in the initial two-month treatment, while rifampicin is used in both the initial and continuation phases.Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
These medications are used only in the initial stage of TB treatment.Rifampicin alone
Rifampicin is used in combination with isoniazid for the continuation phase of TB treatment.Rifampicin + Ethambutol
Rifampicin is used in the continuation phase, while ethambutol is used only in the initial two-month treatment.It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for TB, taking into account individual patient factors and potential medication side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 135
Incorrect
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Emily is a 6-year-old overweight girl brought in by concerned parents who are worried about her loud snoring and frequent interruptions in breathing which have been getting progressively worse. Her parents have been receiving complaints from the school teachers about her disruptive and inattentive behaviour in class. On examination, Emily has a short, thick neck and mildly enlarged tonsils but no other abnormalities.
What is the next best step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Order an overnight polysomnographic study
Explanation:Childhood Obstructive Sleep Apnoea: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Childhood obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a pathological condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. A polysomnographic study should be performed before booking for an operation, as adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice for childhood OSA.
The clinical presentation of childhood OSA is non-specific but typically includes symptoms such as mouth breathing, abnormal breathing during sleep, poor sleep with frequent awakening or restlessness, nocturnal enuresis, nightmares, difficulty awakening, excessive daytime sleepiness or hyperactivity, and behavioural problems. However, parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is very normal in children his age and that his behaviour pattern will improve as he matures.
Before any intervention is undertaken, the patient should be first worked up for OSA with a polysomnographic study. While dental splints may have a small role to play in OSA, they are not the ideal treatment option. Intranasal budesonide is an option for mild to moderate OSA, but it is only a temporising measure and not a proven effective long-term treatment.
In conclusion, childhood OSA requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Adenotonsillectomy is the treatment of choice, but a polysomnographic study should be performed before any intervention is undertaken. Parents should be reassured that snoring loudly is normal in children his age, and other treatment options such as dental splints and intranasal budesonide should be considered only after a thorough evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 136
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired plumber presents with progressive shortness of breath, haemoptysis and weight loss. He has a smoking history of 25 pack years.
A focal mass is seen peripherally in the left lower lobe on chest X-ray (CXR).
Serum biochemistry reveals:
Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+): 3.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
Corrected Ca2+: 3.32 mmol/l (normal range: 2.20–2.60 mmol/l)
Urea: 6.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5–6.5 mmol/l)
Creatinine: 76 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 µmol/l)
Albumin: 38 g/l (normal range: 35–55 g/l)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma
Explanation:Understanding Squamous Cell Bronchial Carcinoma and Hypercalcemia
Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a type of non-small cell lung cancer that can cause hypercalcemia, a condition characterized by elevated levels of calcium in the blood. This occurs because the cancer produces a hormone that mimics the action of parathyroid hormone, leading to the release of calcium from bones, kidneys, and the gut. Focal lung masses on a chest X-ray can be caused by various conditions, including bronchial carcinoma, abscess, tuberculosis, and metastasis. Differentiating between subtypes of bronchial carcinoma requires tissue sampling, but certain features of a patient’s history may suggest a particular subtype. Small cell bronchial carcinoma, for example, is associated with paraneoplastic phenomena such as Cushing’s syndrome and SIADH. Mesothelioma, on the other hand, is linked to asbestos exposure and presents with pleural thickening or malignant pleural effusion on a chest X-ray. Overall, a focal lung mass in a smoker should be viewed with suspicion and thoroughly evaluated to determine the underlying cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old female patient complains of breathlessness and weight loss over the past three months. She is a smoker who consumes 10 cigarettes per day. During the examination, you observe clubbing of the fingers and a few crackles in the chest. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Respiratory Causes of Clubbing
Clubbing is a condition where the fingertips and nails become enlarged and rounded. It is often associated with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases. One of the respiratory causes of clubbing is pulmonary fibrosis, which is characterized by weight loss and breathlessness. Other respiratory causes include bronchiectasis, empyema, bronchial carcinoma, and mesothelioma. These conditions can also lead to weight loss and breathlessness, making it important to seek medical attention if these symptoms are present. On the other hand, cardiovascular causes of clubbing include cyanotic congenital heart disease and infective endocarditis. It is important to identify the underlying cause of clubbing in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 138
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of difficulty breathing. His vital signs show a pulse rate of 105 bpm, a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute, and SpO2 saturations of 80% on pulse oximetry. He has a history of COPD for the past 10 years. Upon examination, there is reduced air entry bilaterally and coarse crackles. What would be the most crucial investigation to conduct next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arterial blood gas (ABG)
Explanation:Importance of Different Investigations in Assessing Acute Respiratory Failure
When a patient presents with acute respiratory failure, it is important to conduct various investigations to determine the underlying cause and severity of the condition. Among the different investigations, arterial blood gas (ABG) is the most important as it helps assess the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as well as the patient’s pH level. This information can help classify respiratory failure into type I or II and identify potential causes of respiratory deterioration. In patients with a history of COPD, ABG can also determine if they are retaining carbon dioxide, which affects their target oxygen saturations.
While a chest X-ray may be considered to assess for underlying pathology, it is not the most important investigation. A D-dimer may be used to rule out pulmonary embolism, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) may be done to assess for cardiac causes of respiratory failure. However, ABG should be prioritized before these investigations.
Pulmonary function tests may be required after initial assessment of oxygen saturations to predict potential respiratory failure based on the peak expiratory flow rate. Overall, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose and manage acute respiratory failure effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman is discovered outside in the early hours of the morning after falling to the ground. She is confused and uncertain of what happened and is admitted to the hospital. An abbreviated mental test (AMT) is conducted, and she scores 4/10. During the examination, crackles are heard at the base of her left lung.
Blood tests reveal:
Investigation Result Normal value
C-reactive protein (CRP) 89 mg/l < 10 mg/l
White cell count (WCC) 15 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 11.4 × 109/l 5–7.58 × 109/l
The remainder of her blood tests, including full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&Es), and liver function test (LFT), were normal.
Observations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Respiratory rate 32 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
Oxygen saturation 90% on air
Heart rate (HR) 88 beats/min 60–100 beats/min
Blood pressure (BP) 105/68 mmHg Hypertension: >120/80 mmHg*
Hypotension: <90/60 mmHg*
Temperature 39.1°C 1–37.2°C
*Normal ranges should be based on the individual's clinical picture. The values are provided as estimates.
Based on her CURB 65 score, what is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit the patient and consider ITU
Explanation:Understanding the CURB Score and Appropriate Patient Management
The CURB score is a tool used to assess the severity of community-acquired pneumonia and determine the appropriate level of care for the patient. A score of 0-1 indicates that the patient can be discharged home, a score of 2 suggests hospital treatment, and a score of 3 or more warrants consideration for intensive care unit (ITU) admission.
In the case of a patient with a CURB score of 3, such as a 68-year-old with a respiratory rate of >30 breaths/min and confusion (AMT score of 4), ITU admission should be considered. Admitting the patient to a general ward or discharging them home with advice to see their GP the following day would not be appropriate.
It is important for healthcare professionals to understand and utilize the CURB score to ensure appropriate management of patients with community-acquired pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 140
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden onset of difficulty breathing and sharp chest pain that worsens when he inhales. He has no significant medical history and is generally healthy and active. He admits to smoking and drinking occasionally. The patient is diagnosed with a pneumothorax caused by the spontaneous rupture of an apical bulla.
What is the most accurate description of the lung volume and chest wall position in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The lung collapses inward and the chest wall expands outward
Explanation:Understanding Pneumothorax: Causes and Management
Pneumothorax is a common thoracic disease characterized by the presence of air in the pleural space. It can be spontaneous, traumatic, secondary, or iatrogenic. When air enters the pleural space, it causes the lung to collapse inward and the chest wall to expand outward. In cases of tension pneumothorax, immediate medical attention is required to decompress the pleural space with a wide-bore needle. For non-tension pneumothorax, management depends on the patient’s symptoms. If the pneumothorax is larger than 2 cm and the patient is breathless, aspiration with a large-bore cannula and oxygen therapy may be necessary. If the pneumothorax is small and the patient is asymptomatic, they can be discharged with an outpatient appointment in 6 weeks. However, if the pneumothorax is larger than 2 cm or the patient remains breathless after decompression, a chest drain will need to be inserted. It is important to understand the causes and management of pneumothorax to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man was in a car accident and was taken to the Emergency Department where a chest tube was inserted to drain fluid. The thoracic wall is composed of several structures, including the skin, external intercostal muscle, internal intercostal muscle, innermost intercostal muscle, parietal pleura, and visceral pleura. What is the correct order of structures that the tube would pass through during the procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-5-1-3-4
Explanation:Correct Order of Structures Traversed in Chest Drain Insertion
When inserting a chest drain, it is important to know the correct order of structures that will be traversed. The order is as follows: skin, external intercostal muscle, internal intercostal muscle, innermost intercostal muscle, and parietal pleura.
The external intercostal muscles are encountered first in chest drain insertion before the internal and innermost intercostal muscles, as suggested by their names. The skin is the first structure to be traversed by the tube. The parietal pleura lines the inner surface of the thoracic cavity and is the outer boundary of the pleural cavity. The chest drain tip should enter the pleural cavity which is bound by the parietal and visceral pleura. The parietal pleura is therefore encountered before reaching the visceral pleura. The visceral pleura should not be penetrated in chest drain insertion.
Knowing the correct order of structures to be traversed during chest drain insertion is crucial to ensure the procedure is done safely and effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old man presents with wheezing and shortness of breath. He reports no history of smoking or drug use. An ultrasound reveals cirrhosis of the liver, and he is diagnosed with alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency. He undergoes a liver transplant. What type of emphysema is he now at higher risk of developing?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Panacinar
Explanation:Different Types of Emphysema and Their Characteristics
Emphysema is a lung condition that has various forms, each with its own distinct characteristics. The four main types of emphysema are panacinar, compensatory, interstitial, centriacinar, and paraseptal.
Panacinar emphysema affects the entire acinus, from the respiratory bronchiole to the distal alveoli. It is often associated with α-1-antitrypsin deficiency.
Compensatory emphysema occurs when the lung parenchyma is scarred, but it is usually asymptomatic.
Interstitial emphysema is not a true form of emphysema, but rather occurs when air penetrates the pulmonary interstitium. It can be caused by chest wounds or alveolar tears resulting from coughing and airway obstruction.
Centriacinar emphysema is characterized by enlargement of the central portions of the acinus, specifically the respiratory bronchiole. It is often caused by exposure to coal dust and tobacco products.
Paraseptal emphysema is associated with scarring and can lead to spontaneous pneumothorax in young patients. It is more severe when it occurs in areas adjacent to the pleura, where it can cause the development of large, cyst-like structures that can rupture into the pleural cavity.
In summary, understanding the different types of emphysema and their characteristics is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man with known alcohol dependence presents to the Emergency Department with a few weeks of productive cough, weight loss, fever and haemoptysis. He is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day. On a chest X-ray, multiple nodules 1-3 mm in size are visible throughout both lung fields. What is the best treatment option to effectively address the underlying cause of this man's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-tuberculous (TB) chemotherapy
Explanation:Choosing the Right Treatment: Evaluating Options for a Patient with Suspected TB
A patient presents with a subacute history of fever, productive cough, weight loss, and haemoptysis, along with a chest X-ray description compatible with miliary TB. Given the patient’s risk factors for TB, such as alcohol dependence and smoking, anti-TB chemotherapy is the most appropriate response, despite the possibility of lung cancer. IV antibiotics may be used until sputum staining and culture results are available, but systemic chemotherapy would likely lead to overwhelming infection and death. Tranexamic acid may be useful for significant haemoptysis, but it will not treat the underlying diagnosis. acyclovir is not indicated, as the patient does not have a history of rash, and a diagnosis of miliary TB is more likely than varicella pneumonia. Careful evaluation of the patient’s history and symptoms is crucial in choosing the right treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his doctor seeking assistance in quitting smoking. He has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily for the past six years and has a history of epilepsy. Which smoking cessation aid is most likely to result in adverse effects for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bupropion
Explanation:Options for Smoking Cessation in Patients with Seizure History
Patients with a predisposition or past history of seizures should avoid bupropion due to an increased risk of seizures. The Medicines and Health products Regulatory Authority (MHRA) warns against prescribing bupropion to patients who experience seizures. However, behavioural therapy is encouraged for all patients who wish to quit smoking. E-cigarettes can be a safer alternative and may eventually help patients quit entirely, but they are not currently funded by the NHS. Nicotine replacement therapy in the form of patches or gum can also be used. Varenicline is cautioned but not contraindicated for use in patients with seizures, so it should only be used if the benefits outweigh the risk.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 145
Incorrect
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A 55-year old complains of difficulty breathing. A CT scan of the chest reveals the presence of an air-crescent sign. Which microorganism is commonly linked to this sign?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspergillus
Explanation:Radiological Findings in Pulmonary Infections: Air-Crescent Sign and More
Different pulmonary infections can cause distinct radiological findings that aid in their diagnosis and management. Here are some examples:
– Aspergillosis: This fungal infection can lead to the air-crescent sign, which shows air filling the space left by necrotic lung tissue as the immune system fights back. It indicates a sign of recovery and is found in about half of cases. Aspergilloma, a different form of aspergillosis, can also present with a similar radiological finding called the monad sign.
– Mycobacterium avium intracellulare: This organism causes non-tuberculous mycobacterial infection in the lungs, which tends to affect patients with pre-existing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease or immunocompromised states.
– Staphylococcus aureus: This bacterium can cause cavitating lung lesions and abscesses, which appear as round cavities with an air-fluid level.
– Pseudomonas aeruginosa: This bacterium can cause pneumonia in patients with chronic lung disease, and CT scans may show ground-glass attenuation, bronchial wall thickening, peribronchial infiltration, and pleural effusions.
– Mycobacterium tuberculosis: This bacterium may cause cavitation in the apical regions of the lungs, but it does not typically lead to the air-crescent sign.Understanding these radiological findings can help clinicians narrow down the possible causes of pulmonary infections and tailor their treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A previously fit 36-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a 4-day history of shortness of breath, a productive cough and flu-like symptoms. There is no past medical history of note. He is a non-smoker and exercises regularly. On examination, he appears unwell. There is reduced chest expansion on the left-hand side of the chest and a dull percussion note over the lower lobe of the left lung. The GP suspects a lobar pneumonia.
Which organism is likely to be responsible for this patient’s symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:Common Causes of Community-Acquired Pneumonia
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is a lower respiratory tract infection that can be acquired outside of a hospital setting. The most common cause of CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can result in lobar or bronchopneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is another cause of CAP, often presenting with flu-like symptoms and a dry cough. Haemophilus influenzae can also cause CAP, as well as other infections such as otitis media and acute epiglottitis. Legionella pneumophila can cause outbreaks of Legionnaires disease and present with flu-like symptoms and bibasal consolidation on a chest X-ray. While Staphylococcus aureus is not a common cause of respiratory infections, it can cause severe pneumonia following influenzae or in certain populations such as the young, elderly, or intravenous drug users. Proper classification of the type of pneumonia can help predict the responsible organism and guide treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman of Chinese descent is referred to a Respiratory Physician by her General Practitioner due to a productive cough with mucopurulent sputum and occasional blood tinges. She has also been experiencing shortness of breath lately. Her medical history shows that she had a similar episode of shortness of breath and productive cough a year ago, and had multiple bouts of pneumonia during childhood. What is the most reliable test to confirm the probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High-resolution computed tomography (HRCT) chest
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Bronchiectasis: Understanding Their Uses and Limitations
Bronchiectasis is a respiratory condition that can be challenging to diagnose. While there are several diagnostic tests available, each has its own uses and limitations. Here, we will discuss the most common tests used to diagnose bronchiectasis and their respective roles in clinical practice.
High-Resolution Computed Tomography (HRCT) Chest
HRCT chest is considered the gold-standard imaging test for diagnosing bronchiectasis. It can identify bronchial dilation with or without airway thickening, which are the main findings associated with this condition. However, more specific findings may also point to the underlying cause of bronchiectasis.Chest X-Ray
A chest X-ray is often the first imaging test ordered for patients with respiratory symptoms. While it can suggest a diagnosis of bronchiectasis, it is not the gold-standard diagnostic test.Autoimmune Panel
Autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, Sjögren syndrome, and inflammatory bowel disease can cause systemic inflammation in the lungs that underlies the pathology of bronchiectasis. While an autoimmune panel may be conducted if bronchiectasis is suspected, it is not very sensitive for this condition and is not the gold standard.Bronchoscopy
Bronchoscopy may be used in certain cases of bronchiectasis, particularly when there is localized bronchiectasis due to an obstruction. It can help identify the site of the obstruction and its potential cause, such as foreign-body aspiration or luminal-airway tumor.Pulse Oximetry
Pulse oximetry is a useful tool for assessing the severity of respiratory or cardiac disease. However, it is not specific for any particular underlying pathology and is unlikely to help make a diagnosis. It is primarily used to guide clinical management.In conclusion, while there are several diagnostic tests available for bronchiectasis, each has its own uses and limitations. HRCT chest is the gold-standard test, while other tests may be used to support a diagnosis or identify potential underlying causes. Understanding the role of each test can help clinicians make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with 6 months of recurrent episodes of shortness of breath. She describes it as ‘coming on suddenly without warning’. They have woken her at night before. She describes the attacks as a ‘tightness’ in the chest and says that they are associated with tingling in her fingers. The episodes resolve in a few minutes by themselves. She is otherwise medically fit and well. She smokes 15 cigarettes per day and has a family history of asthma. Examination is normal, and the peak expiratory flow rate is normal for her age and height.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Panic attacks
Explanation:Differentiating between possible causes of acute shortness of breath: A medical analysis
When a patient presents with acute shortness of breath, it is important to consider a range of possible causes. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest panic attacks rather than left ventricular failure, acute asthma attacks, COPD, or anaemia.
Panic attacks are characterized by sudden onset and spontaneous resolution, numbness of extremities, and normal examination and peak flow measurement. They can be triggered or occur unexpectedly, and may be due to a disorder such as panic disorder or post-traumatic stress disorder, or secondary to medical problems such as thyroid disease. Treatment includes psychological therapies, breathing exercises, stress avoidance, and pharmacological therapies such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.
Left ventricular failure, on the other hand, would cause respiratory problems due to pulmonary congestion, leading to reduced pulmonary compliance and increased airway resistance. Examination of someone with left ventricular failure would reveal pulmonary crackles and possibly a small mitral regurgitation murmur. However, it is unlikely that a woman would experience acute episodes such as these due to heart failure.
Acute asthma attacks are typically triggered by inhaled allergens or other factors such as cold/dry air, stress, or upper respiratory tract infections. The absence of triggers in this case suggests that asthma is not the diagnosis.
COPD is a possible differential due to the patient’s smoking history, but it is unlikely to have worsened so acutely and resolved in a matter of minutes. The normal peak expiratory flow rate also suggests that COPD is not the cause.
Finally, anaemia would not account for acute episodes of shortness of breath, which are present normally on exertion in anaemic patients. Signs of anaemia such as pallor, tachycardia, cardiac dilation, or oedema are not mentioned in the patient’s history.
In conclusion, a careful analysis of the patient’s symptoms and medical history can help differentiate between possible causes of acute shortness of breath, leading to appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man who used to work as a stonemason presents to the clinic with complaints of shortness of breath on minimal exercise and a dry cough. He has been experiencing progressive shortness of breath over the past year. He is a smoker, consuming 20-30 cigarettes per day, and has occasional wheezing. On examination, he is clubbed and bilateral late-inspiratory crackles can be heard at both lung bases. A chest X-ray shows upper lobe nodular opacities. His test results show a haemoglobin level of 125 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), a WCC of 4.6 × 109/l (normal range: 4-11 × 109/l), platelets of 189 × 109/l (normal range: 150-410 × 109/l), a sodium level of 139 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l), a potassium level of 4.9 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l), a creatinine level of 135 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 μmol/l), an FVC of 2.1 litres (normal range: >4.05 litres), and an FEV1 of 1.82 litres (normal range: >3.15 litres). Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occupational interstitial lung disease
Explanation:Possible Occupational Lung Diseases and Differential Diagnosis
This patient’s history of working as a stonemason suggests a potential occupational exposure to silica dust, which can lead to silicosis. The restrictive lung defect seen in pulmonary function tests supports this diagnosis, which can be confirmed by high-resolution computerised tomography. Smoking cessation is crucial in slowing the progression of lung function decline.
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is another possible diagnosis, but the occupational exposure makes silicosis more likely. Occupational asthma, caused by specific workplace stimuli, is also a consideration, especially for those in certain occupations such as paint sprayers, food processors, welders, and animal handlers.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is unlikely due to the restrictive spirometry results, as it is characterised by an obstructive pattern. Non-occupational asthma is also less likely given the patient’s age, chest X-ray findings, and restrictive lung defect.
In summary, the patient’s occupational history and pulmonary function tests suggest a potential diagnosis of silicosis, with other possible occupational lung diseases and differential diagnoses to consider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 150
Incorrect
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What is the most effective tool for assessing a patient who is suspected of having occupational asthma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serial measurements of ventilatory function performed before, during, and after work
Explanation:Occupational Asthma
Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by conditions and factors present in a particular work environment. It is characterized by variable airflow limitation and/or airway hyper-responsiveness. This type of asthma accounts for about 10% of adult asthma cases. To diagnose occupational asthma, several investigations are conducted, including serial peak flow measurements at and away from work, specific IgE assay or skin prick testing, and specific inhalation testing. A consistent fall in peak flow values and increased intraday variability on working days, along with improvement on days away from work, confirms the diagnosis of occupational asthma. It is important to understand the causes and symptoms of occupational asthma to prevent and manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 151
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man has just been admitted to the medical ward. Two days ago, he returned from a business trip and his history suggests he may have caught an atypical pneumonia. While examining the patient’s chest clinically, you try to determine whether the pneumonia is affecting one lobe in particular or is affecting the whole lung.
On the right side of the patient’s chest, which one of the following surface landmarks would be most likely to mark the boundary between the middle and lower lobes?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sixth rib
Explanation:Surface Landmarks for Lung Lobes and Abdominal Planes
The human body has several surface landmarks that can be used to locate important anatomical structures. In the case of the lungs, the position of the lobes can be estimated using the oblique and horizontal fissures. The sixth rib is the most likely surface landmark to mark the boundary between the right middle and lower lobes, while the fourth costal cartilage indicates the level of the horizontal fissure separating the superior from the middle lobes of the right lung.
In the abdomen, the tip of the ninth costal cartilage is a useful landmark as it marks the position of the transpyloric plane. This imaginary axial plane is important as it is where many anatomical structures, such as the pylorus of the stomach and the neck of the pancreas, are located. Additionally, the horizontal line passing through the centre of the nipple, known as the mammillary line, can also be used as a surface landmark for certain procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man presents to the Respiratory Clinic with a history of two episodes of right-sided bronchial pneumonia in the past 2 months, which have not completely resolved. He has been a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day since he was 16 years old. On examination, he has signs consistent with COPD and right-sided consolidation on respiratory examination. His BMI is 18. Further investigations reveal a right hilar mass measuring 4 x 2 cm in size on chest X-ray, along with abnormal laboratory values including low haemoglobin, elevated WCC, and corrected calcium levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus
Explanation:Types of Bronchial Carcinomas
Bronchial carcinomas are a type of lung cancer that originates in the bronchial tubes. There are several types of bronchial carcinomas, each with their own characteristics and treatment options.
Squamous cell carcinoma of the bronchus is the most common type of bronchial carcinoma, accounting for 42% of cases. It typically occurs in the central part of the lung and is strongly associated with smoking. Patients with squamous cell carcinoma may also present with hypercalcemia.
Bronchial carcinoids are rare and slow-growing tumors that arise from the bronchial mucosa. They are typically benign but can become malignant in some cases.
Large cell bronchial carcinoma is a heterogeneous group of tumors that lack the organized features of other lung cancers. They tend to grow quickly and are often found in the periphery of the lung.
Small cell bronchial carcinoma is a highly aggressive type of lung cancer that grows rapidly and spreads early. It is strongly associated with smoking and is often found in the central part of the lung.
Adenocarcinoma of the bronchus is the least associated with smoking and typically presents with lesions in the lung peripheries rather than near the bronchus.
In summary, the type of bronchial carcinoma a patient has can vary greatly and can impact treatment options and prognosis. It is important for healthcare providers to accurately diagnose and classify the type of bronchial carcinoma to provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 153
Incorrect
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A 70-year old man is being evaluated by the respiratory team for progressive cough and shortness of breath over the last 10 months. He has no history of smoking and is typically healthy. The only notable change in his lifestyle is that he recently started breeding pigeons after retiring. Upon examination, the patient is diagnosed with interstitial pneumonia.
What is the most frequently linked organism with interstitial pneumonia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma
Explanation:Types of Bacterial Pneumonia and Their Patterns in the Lung
Bacterial pneumonia can be caused by various organisms, each with their own unique patterns in the lung. Mycoplasma, viruses like RSV and CMV, and fungal infections like histoplasmosis typically cause interstitial patterns in the lung. Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus, Pneumococcus, Escherichia coli, and Klebsiella all typically have the same alveolar pattern, with Klebsiella often causing an aggressive, necrotizing lobar pneumonia. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of typical bacterial pneumonia, while Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia is typically of the alveolar type and seen in intravenous drug users or patients with underlying debilitating conditions. Mycoplasma pneumonia may also have extra-pulmonary manifestations. These conditions are sometimes referred to as atypical pneumonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with cystic fibrosis (CF) arrives at the Emergency Department (ED) with haemoptysis. During his stay in the ED, he experiences another episode of frank haemoptysis, which measures 180 ml.
A prompt computed tomography (CT) aortogram is conducted, revealing dilated and tortuous bronchial arteries.
What action could potentially harm the management of this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-invasive ventilation
Explanation:Treatment options for massive haemoptysis in cystic fibrosis patients
Massive haemoptysis in cystic fibrosis (CF) patients can be a life-threatening complication. Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended as it may increase the risk of aspiration of blood and disturb clot formation. IV antibiotics should be given to treat acute inflammation related to pulmonary infection. Tranexamic acid, an anti-fibrinolytic drug, can be given orally or intravenously up to four times per day until bleeding is controlled. CF patients have impaired absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin K, which may lead to prolonged prothrombin time. In such cases, IV vitamin K should be given. Bronchial artery embolisation is often required to treat massive haemoptysis, particularly when larger hypertrophied bronchial arteries are seen on CT. This procedure is performed by an interventional vascular radiologist and may be done under sedation or general anaesthetic if the patient is in extremis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man, who had recently undergone a full bone marrow transplantation for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML), presented with progressive dyspnoea over the past 2 weeks. He also had a dry cough, but no fever. During examination, scattered wheeze and some expiratory high-pitched sounds were observed. The C-reactive protein (CRP) level was normal, and the Mantoux test was negative. Spirometry results showed a Forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) of 51%, Forced vital capacity (FVC) of 88%, and FEV1/FVC of 58%. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis obliterans
Explanation:Understanding Bronchiolitis Obliterans: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment Options
Bronchiolitis obliterans (BO) is a condition that can occur in patients who have undergone bone marrow, heart, or lung transplants. It is characterized by an obstructive picture on spirometry, which may be accompanied by cough, cold, dyspnea, tachypnea, chest wall retraction, and cyanosis. The pulmonary defect is usually irreversible, and a CT scan may show areas of air trapping. Common infections associated with bronchiolitis include influenzae, adenovirus, Mycoplasma, and Bordetella. In adults, bronchiolitis is mainly caused by Mycoplasma, while among connective tissue disorders, BO is found in rheumatoid arthritis and, rarely, in Sjögren’s syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus. Treatment options include corticosteroids, with variable results. Lung biopsy reveals concentric inflammation and fibrosis around bronchioles. Other conditions, such as acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), drug-induced lung disorder, fungal infection, and pneumocystis pneumonia, have different clinical findings and require different treatment approaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A morbidly obese 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner for review. His main reason for attendance is that his wife is concerned about his loud snoring and the fact that he stops breathing during the night for periods of up to 8–10 seconds, followed by coughing, snoring or waking. Recently he has become hypertensive and is also on treatment for impotence. His 24-hour urinary free cortisol level is normal.
Which diagnosis best fits this picture?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obstructive sleep apnoea
Explanation:Distinguishing Between Obstructive Sleep Apnoea and Other Conditions
Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a common sleep disorder that can have significant impacts on a person’s health and well-being. Symptoms of OSA include memory impairment, daytime somnolence, disrupted sleep patterns, decreased libido, and systemic hypertension. When investigating potential causes of these symptoms, it is important to rule out other conditions that may contribute to or mimic OSA.
For example, thyroid function testing should be conducted to rule out hypothyroidism, and the uvula and tonsils should be assessed for mechanical obstruction that may be treatable with surgery. Diagnosis of OSA is typically made using overnight oximetry. The mainstay of management for OSA is weight loss, along with the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) ventilation during sleep.
When considering potential diagnoses for a patient with symptoms of OSA, it is important to distinguish between other conditions that may contribute to or mimic OSA. For example, Cushing’s disease can be identified through elevated 24-hour urinary free cortisol levels. Essential hypertension may contribute to OSA, but it does not fully explain the symptoms described. Simple obesity may be a contributing factor, but it does not account for the full clinical picture. Finally, simple snoring can be ruled out if apnoeic episodes are present. By carefully considering all potential diagnoses, healthcare providers can provide the most effective treatment for patients with OSA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to the General Practice Clinic complaining of feeling unwell for the past few days. She has been experiencing nasal discharge, sneezing, fatigue, and a cough. Her 3-year-old daughter recently recovered from very similar symptoms. During the examination, her pulse rate is 62 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.2 °C. What is the probable causative organism for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rhinovirus
Explanation:Identifying the Most Common Causative Organisms of the Common Cold
The common cold is a viral infection that affects millions of people worldwide. Among the different viruses that can cause the common cold, rhinoviruses are the most common, responsible for 30-50% of cases annually. influenzae viruses can also cause milder symptoms that overlap with those of the common cold, accounting for 5-15% of cases. Adenoviruses and enteroviruses are less common causes, accounting for less than 5% of cases each. Respiratory syncytial virus is also a rare cause of the common cold, accounting for only 5% of cases annually. When trying to identify the causative organism of a common cold, it is important to consider the patient’s symptoms, recent exposure to sick individuals, and prevalence of different viruses in the community.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 158
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden chest pain and difficulty breathing. She has a history of factor V Leiden mutation and has smoked 20 packs of cigarettes per year. Upon examination, the patient has a fever of 38.0 °C, blood pressure of 134/82 mmHg, heart rate of 101 bpm, respiratory rate of 28 breaths/minute, and oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. Both lungs are clear upon auscultation. Cardiac examination reveals a loud P2 and a new systolic murmur at the left lower sternal border. The patient also has a swollen and red right lower extremity. An electrocardiogram (ECG) taken in the Emergency Department was normal, and troponins were within the normal range.
Which of the following chest X-ray findings is consistent with the most likely underlying pathology in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wedge-shaped opacity in the right middle lobe
Explanation:Radiological Findings and Their Significance in Diagnosing Medical Conditions
Wedge-shaped opacity in the right middle lobe
A wedge-shaped opacity in the right middle lobe on a chest X-ray could indicate a pulmonary embolism, which is a blockage in a lung artery. This finding is particularly significant in patients with risk factors for clotting, such as a history of smoking or factor V Leiden mutation.
Diffuse bilateral patchy, cloudy opacities
Diffuse bilateral patchy, cloudy opacities on a chest X-ray could suggest acute respiratory distress syndrome or pneumonia. These conditions can cause inflammation and fluid buildup in the lungs, leading to the appearance of cloudy areas on the X-ray.
Rib-notching
Rib-notching is a radiological finding that can indicate coarctation of the aorta, a narrowing of the main artery that carries blood from the heart. Dilated vessels in the chest can obscure the ribs, leading to the appearance of notches on the X-ray.
Cardiomegaly
Cardiomegaly, or an enlarged heart, can be seen on a chest X-ray and may indicate heart failure. This condition occurs when the heart is unable to pump blood effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs and other parts of the body.
Lower lobe opacities with blunting of the costophrenic angle on PA chest film and opacities along the left lateral thorax on left lateral decubitus film
Lower lobe opacities with blunting of the costophrenic angle on a posterior-anterior chest X-ray and opacities along the left lateral thorax on a left lateral decubitus film can indicate pleural effusion. This condition occurs when fluid accumulates in the space between the lungs and the chest wall, causing the lung to collapse and leading to the appearance of cloudy areas on the X-ray. The location of the opacities can shift depending on the patient’s position.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 159
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of wheezing, chest tightness, cough, and difficulty breathing for the past three days. She reports that this started shortly after being exposed to a significant amount of hydrogen sulfide at work. She has no prior history of respiratory issues and is a non-smoker. What would be the most suitable initial management approach to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhaled bronchodilators
Explanation:Management of Reactive Airway Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS)
Reactive airway dysfunction syndrome (RADS) is a condition that presents with asthma-like symptoms within 24 hours of exposure to irritant gases, vapours or fumes. To diagnose RADS, pre-existing respiratory conditions must be absent, and symptoms must occur after a single exposure to high concentrations of irritants. A positive methacholine challenge test and possible airflow obstruction on pulmonary function tests are also indicative of RADS.
Inhaled bronchodilators, such as salbutamol, are the first-line treatment for RADS. Cromolyn sodium may be added in select cases, while inhaled corticosteroids are used if bronchodilators are ineffective. Oral steroids are not as effective in RADS as they are in asthma. High-dose vitamin D may be useful in some cases, but it is not routinely recommended for initial management.
In summary, the management of RADS involves the use of inhaled bronchodilators as the first-line treatment, with other medications added in if necessary. A proper diagnosis is crucial to ensure appropriate management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted, for his fourth time this year, with shortness of breath and a cough productive of green sputum. Examination findings are: respiratory rate (RR) 32 breaths/min, temperature 37.4 °C, SpO2 86% on room air, asterixis and coarse crepitations at the left base. A chest X-ray (CXR) confirms left basal consolidation.
Which arterial blood gas (ABG) picture is likely to belong to the above patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pH: 7.27, pa (O2): 7.1, pa (CO2): 8.9, HCO3–: 33.20, base excess (BE) 4.9 mmol
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Gas Results in COPD Patients
COPD is a common respiratory disease that can lead to exacerbations requiring hospitalization. In these patients, lower respiratory tract infections can quickly lead to respiratory failure and the need for respiratory support. Blood gas results can provide important information about the patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. In COPD patients, a type II respiratory failure with hypercapnia and acidosis is common, resulting in a low pH and elevated bicarbonate levels. However, blood gas results that show low carbon dioxide or metabolic acidosis are less likely to be in keeping with COPD. Understanding and interpreting blood gas results is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and providing appropriate respiratory support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old electrician presents with a 4-month history of cough and weight loss. On further questioning, the patient reports experiencing some episodes of haemoptysis. He has a long-standing history of hypothyroidism, which is well managed with thyroxine 100 µg daily. The patient smokes ten cigarettes a day and has no other significant medical history. Blood tests and an X-ray are carried out, which reveal possible signs of asbestosis. A CT scan is ordered to investigate further.
What is the typical CT scan finding of asbestosis in the lung?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Honeycombing of the lung with parenchymal bands and pleural plaques
Explanation:Differentiating Lung Diseases: Radiological Findings
Asbestosis is a lung disease characterized by interstitial pneumonitis and fibrosis, resulting in honeycombing of the lungs with parenchymal bands and pleural plaques. Smoking can accelerate its presentation. On a chest X-ray, bilateral reticulonodular opacities in the lower zones are observed, while a CT scan shows increased interlobular septae, parenchymal bands, and honeycombing. Silicosis, on the other hand, presents with irregular linear shadows and hilar lymphadenopathy, which can progress to PMF with compensatory emphysema. Tuberculosis is characterized by cavitation of upper zones, while pneumoconiosis shows parenchymal nodules and lower zone emphysema. Proper diagnosis is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management of these lung diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a productive cough, difficulty breathing, and chills lasting for 4 days. Upon examination, bronchial breathing is heard at the left lower lung base. Inflammatory markers are elevated, and a chest X-ray shows consolidation in the left lower zone. What is the most frequently encountered pathogen linked to community-acquired pneumonia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:Common Bacterial Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a lung infection that can be categorized as either community-acquired or hospital-acquired, depending on the likely causative pathogens. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae, a type of Gram-positive coccus. Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia typically affects older individuals, often after they have had the flu, and can result in cavitating lesions in the upper lobes of the lungs. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause cavitating lung disease, which is characterized by caseating granulomatous inflammation. This type of pneumonia is more common in certain groups, such as Asians and immunocompromised individuals, and is diagnosed through sputum smears, cultures, or bronchoscopy. Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative bacteria that can cause meningitis and pneumonia, but it is much less common now due to routine vaccination. Finally, Neisseria meningitidis is typically associated with bacterial meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with haemoptysis over the last 2 days. He has had a productive cough for 7 years, which has gradually worsened. Over the last few winters, he has been particularly bad and required admission to hospital. Past medical history includes pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) at age 20. On examination, he is cyanotic and clubbed, and has florid crepitations in both lower zones.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis
Explanation:Diagnosing Respiratory Conditions: Bronchiectasis vs. Asthma vs. Pulmonary Fibrosis vs. COPD vs. Lung Cancer
Bronchiectasis is the most probable diagnosis for a patient who presents with copious sputum production, recurrent chest infections, haemoptysis, clubbing, cyanosis, and florid crepitations at both bases that change with coughing. This condition is often exacerbated by a previous history of tuberculosis.
Asthma, on the other hand, is characterized by reversible obstruction of airways due to bronchial muscle contraction in response to various stimuli. The absence of wheezing, the patient’s age, and the presence of haemoptysis make asthma an unlikely diagnosis in this case.
Pulmonary fibrosis involves parenchymal fibrosis and interstitial remodelling, leading to shortness of breath and a non-productive cough. Patients with pulmonary fibrosis may develop clubbing, basal crepitations, and a dry cough, but the acute presentation and haemoptysis in this case would not be explained.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a progressive disorder characterized by airway obstruction, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema. However, the absence of wheezing, smoking history, and acute new haemoptysis make COPD a less likely diagnosis.
Lung cancer is a possibility given the haemoptysis and clubbing, but the long history of productive cough, florid crepitations, and previous history of TB make bronchiectasis a more likely diagnosis. Overall, a thorough evaluation of symptoms and medical history is necessary to accurately diagnose respiratory conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with asthma presented with rapidly developing asthma and wheezing. She was admitted, and during her treatment, she coughed out tubular gelatinous materials. A chest X-ray showed collapse of the lingular lobe.
What is this clinical spectrum better known as?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plastic bronchitis
Explanation:Respiratory Conditions: Plastic Bronchitis, Loeffler Syndrome, Lofgren Syndrome, Cardiac Asthma, and Croup
Plastic Bronchitis: Gelatinous or rigid casts form in the airways, leading to coughing. It is associated with asthma, bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis, and respiratory infections. Treatment involves bronchial washing, sputum induction, and preventing infections. Bronchoscopy may be necessary for therapeutic removal of the casts.
Loeffler Syndrome: Accumulation of eosinophils in the lungs due to parasitic larvae passage. Charcot-Leyden crystals may be present in the sputum.
Lofgren Syndrome: Acute presentation of sarcoidosis with hilar lymphadenopathy and erythema nodosum. Usually self-resolving.
Cardiac Asthma: Old term for acute pulmonary edema, causing peribronchial fluid collection and wheezing. Pink frothy sputum is produced.
Croup: Acute pharyngeal infection in children aged 6 months to 3 years, presenting with stridor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male patient presented to the Emergency department with sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath that had been ongoing for six hours. The symptoms appeared out of nowhere while he was watching TV, and lying flat made the breathlessness worse. The patient denied any recent history of infection, cough, fever, leg pain, swelling, or travel.
Upon examination, the patient was apyrexial and showed no signs of cyanosis. Respiratory examination revealed reduced breath sounds and hyperresonance in the right lung.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary spontaneous pneumothorax
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of a Primary Spontaneous Pneumothorax
Given the sudden onset of shortness of breath and reduced breath sounds from the right lung, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is a right-sided primary spontaneous pneumothorax (PSP). Primary pneumothoraces occur in patients without chronic lung disease, while secondary pneumothoraces occur in patients with existing lung disease. To rule out a pulmonary embolism, a D-dimer test should be performed. A positive D-dimer does not necessarily mean a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, but a negative result can rule it out. If the D-dimer is positive, imaging would be the next step in management.
A 12-lead ECG should also be performed to check for any ischaemic or infarcted changes, although there is no clinical suspicion of acute coronary syndrome in this patient. Bornholm disease, a viral infection causing myalgia and severe pleuritic chest pain, is unlikely given the examination findings. An asthma attack would present similarly, but there is no history to suggest this condition in this patient.
In summary, a primary spontaneous pneumothorax is the most likely diagnosis for this patient. A D-dimer test should be performed to rule out a pulmonary embolism, and a 12-lead ECG should be done to check for any ischaemic or infarcted changes. Bornholm disease and asthma are unlikely diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean lady undergoes a routine chest X-ray during a career-associated medical examination. The chest X-ray report reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. On closer questioning the patient admits to symptoms of fatigue and weight loss and painful blue-red nodules on her shins.
What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Hilar Lymphadenopathy and Erythema Nodosum
Sarcoidosis is a condition characterized by granulomas affecting multiple systems, with lung involvement being the most common. It typically affects young adults, especially females and Afro-Caribbean populations. While the cause is unknown, infections and environmental factors have been suggested. Symptoms include weight loss, fatigue, and fever, as well as erythema nodosum and anterior uveitis. Acute sarcoidosis usually resolves without treatment, while chronic sarcoidosis requires steroids and monitoring of lung function, ESR, CRP, and serum ACE levels.
Tuberculosis is a potential differential diagnosis, as it can also present with erythema nodosum and hilar lymphadenopathy. However, the absence of a fever and risk factors make it less likely.
Lung cancer is rare in young adults and typically presents as a mass or pleural effusion on X-ray.
Pneumonia is an infection of the lung parenchyma, but the absence of infective symptoms and consolidation on X-ray make it less likely.
Mesothelioma is a cancer associated with asbestos exposure and typically presents in older individuals. The absence of exposure and the patient’s age make it less likely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old smoker with a pack year history of 80 years was admitted with haemoptysis and weight loss. A chest X-ray shows a 4-cm cavitating lung lesion in the right middle lobe.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Types of Lung Cancer and Cavitating Lesions
Lung cancer can be classified into different subtypes based on their histology and response to treatments. Among these subtypes, squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type that causes cavitating lesions on a chest X-ray. This occurs when the tumour outgrows its blood supply and becomes necrotic, forming a cavity. Squamous cell carcinomas are usually centrally located and can also cause ectopic hormone production, leading to hypercalcaemia.
Other causes of cavitating lesions include pulmonary tuberculosis, bacterial pneumonia, rheumatoid nodules, and septic emboli. Bronchoalveolar cell carcinoma is an uncommon subtype of adenocarcinoma that does not commonly cavitate. Small cell carcinoma and large cell carcinoma also do not commonly cause cavitating lesions.
Adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is the most common type of lung cancer and is usually caused by smoking. It typically originates in the peripheral lung tissue and can also cavitate, although it is less common than in squamous cell carcinoma. Understanding the different types of lung cancer and their characteristics can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy visits his General Practitioner complaining of feeling unwell for the past two days. He reports having a sore throat, general malaise, and nasal congestion, but no cough or fever. During the examination, his pulse rate is 70 bpm, respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute, and temperature 37.3 °C. The doctor notes tender, swollen anterior cervical lymph nodes. What investigation should the doctor consider requesting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Throat swab
Explanation:Investigations for Upper Respiratory Tract Infections: A Case Study
When a patient presents with symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection, it is important to consider appropriate investigations to differentiate between viral and bacterial causes. In this case study, a young boy presents with a sore throat, tender/swollen lymph nodes, and absence of a cough. A McIsaac score of 3 suggests a potential for streptococcal pharyngitis.
Throat swab is a useful investigation to differentiate between symptoms of the common cold and streptococcal pharyngitis. Sputum culture may be indicated if there is spread of the infection to the lower respiratory tract. A chest X-ray is not indicated as a first-line investigation, but may be later indicated if there is a spread to the lower respiratory tract. Full blood count is not routinely indicated, as it is only likely to show lymphocytosis for viral infections. Viral testing is not conducted routinely, unless required for public health research or data in the event of a disease outbreak.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman has been hospitalized with haemoptysis and epistaxis. On her chest X-ray, there are several rounded lesions with alveolar shadowing. Her serum test shows a positive result for cytoplasmic anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Pulmonary Granulomas and Positive c-ANCA: A Case Study
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) is a rare autoimmune disease that often presents with granulomatous lung disease and alveolar capillaritis. Symptoms include cough, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and chest pain. Chest X-ray and computed tomography can show rounded lesions that may cavitate, while bronchoscopy can reveal granulomatous inflammation. In this case study, the chest radiograph appearances, epistaxis, and positive c-ANCA are more indicative of GPA than lung cancer, echinococcosis, systemic lupus erythematosus, or tuberculosis. While SLE can also cause pulmonary manifestations, cavitating lesions are not typical. Positive c-ANCA is associated with GPA, while SLE is associated with positive antinuclear antibodies, double-stranded DNA antibodies, and extractable nuclear antigens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient complained of cough with heavy sputum production, shortness of breath, and a low-grade fever. She has been smoking 20 cigarettes per day for the past 25 years. Upon examination, her arterial blood gases showed a pH of 7.4 (normal range: 7.36-7.44), pCO2 of 6 kPa (normal range: 4.5-6), and pO2 of 7.9 kPa (normal range: 8-12). Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic bronchitis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Acute Exacerbation of Chronic Obstructive Airways Disease
There is a high probability that the patient is experiencing an acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive airways disease (COAD), particularly towards the chronic bronchitic end of the spectrum. This conclusion is based on the patient’s symptoms and the relative hypoxia with high pCO2. The diagnosis suggests that the patient’s airways are obstructed, leading to difficulty in breathing and reduced oxygen supply to the body. The exacerbation may have been triggered by an infection or exposure to irritants such as cigarette smoke. Early intervention is crucial to manage the symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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