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  • Question 1 - A 57-year-old male is scheduled for an elective robotic-assisted laparoscopic radical prostatectomy.

    During...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old male is scheduled for an elective robotic-assisted laparoscopic radical prostatectomy.

      During the procedure, there is a risk of urinary retention if the nerves responsible for providing parasympathetic innervation to the bladder are damaged. Can you correctly identify these nerves?

      Your Answer: Pelvic splanchnic nerves

      Explanation:

      The bladder is innervated by parasympathetic and sympathetic nerves. Parasympathetic nerves come from the pelvic splanchnic nerves, while sympathetic nerves come from L1 and L2 via the hypogastric nerve plexuses. Injury to these nerves can cause urinary retention. The vesicoprostatic venous plexus receives venous drainage from the bladder and prostate. The inferior vesical nerve is not a real nerve.

      Bladder Anatomy and Innervation

      The bladder is a three-sided pyramid-shaped organ located in the pelvic cavity. Its apex points towards the symphysis pubis, while the base lies anterior to the rectum or vagina. The bladder’s inferior aspect is retroperitoneal, while the superior aspect is covered by peritoneum. The trigone, the least mobile part of the bladder, contains the ureteric orifices and internal urethral orifice. The bladder’s blood supply comes from the superior and inferior vesical arteries, while venous drainage occurs through the vesicoprostatic or vesicouterine venous plexus. Lymphatic drainage occurs mainly to the external iliac and internal iliac nodes, with the obturator nodes also playing a role. The bladder is innervated by parasympathetic nerve fibers from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and sympathetic nerve fibers from L1 and L2 via the hypogastric nerve plexuses. The parasympathetic fibers cause detrusor muscle contraction, while the sympathetic fibers innervate the trigone muscle. The external urethral sphincter is under conscious control, and voiding occurs when the rate of neuronal firing to the detrusor muscle increases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50 year old man comes to the clinic complaining of weakness in...

    Correct

    • A 50 year old man comes to the clinic complaining of weakness in his hand. During the examination, he is asked to hold a piece of paper between his thumb and index finger. When the paper is pulled, he struggles to maintain his grip. The patient compensates by flexing his thumb at the interphalangeal joint. What nerve lesion is the most probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Deep branch of ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Froment’s sign is a test used to assess ulnar nerve palsy, specifically the function of the adductor pollicis muscle which is supplied by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve. It is important to note that the flexor pollicis longus muscle, which is innervated by the anterior interosseous branch of the median nerve and causes flexion of the thumb IP joint, branches off at a more proximal location near the wrist.

      The ulnar nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 nerve roots. It provides motor innervation to various muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. Sensory innervation is also provided to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. The nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm and enters the palm of the hand via Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone.

      The ulnar nerve has several branches that supply different muscles and areas of the hand. The muscular branch provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The palmar cutaneous branch arises near the middle of the forearm and supplies the skin on the medial part of the palm, while the dorsal cutaneous branch supplies the dorsal surface of the medial part of the hand. The superficial branch provides cutaneous fibers to the anterior surfaces of the medial one and one-half digits, and the deep branch supplies the hypothenar muscles, all the interosseous muscles, the third and fourth lumbricals, the adductor pollicis, and the medial head of the flexor pollicis brevis.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve at the wrist can result in a claw hand deformity, where there is hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except for the lateral two lumbricals), hypothenar muscles, and sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects. Damage to the nerve at the elbow can result in similar symptoms, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to diagnose and treat ulnar nerve damage promptly to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      23.1
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. After early...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. After early treatment, an arterial blood gas is taken, which shows the following results.

      ABG result - temperature 35.0 ºC:

      pH 7.30 (7.35 - 7.45)
      PaCO2 3.5 kPa (4.7 - 6.0)
      PaO2 10 kPa (11 - 13)
      HCO3- 16 mEq/L (22 - 26)
      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      What physiological change is occurring in this patient?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia is causing an increased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis is causing a decreased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen

      Explanation:

      In acidosis, the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right, indicating a decrease in affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen. This is due to an increase in the number of [H+] ions, reflecting greater metabolic activity. Low [H+] levels cause a shift to the left. The low HCO3- in this patient can be explained by metabolic acidosis, but it does not cause a shift in the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve. Hypokalaemia may be a result of treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis, but it does not cause a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve. When temperature increases, the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve also shifts to the right, causing a decrease in haemoglobin affinity for oxygen. Hypothermia causes a shift to the left, indicating an increased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 20-year-old woman at eight weeks gestation visits her doctor complaining of sporadic...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman at eight weeks gestation visits her doctor complaining of sporadic vaginal bleeding for the past four weeks and hyperemesis. During the obstetric examination, a non-tender, uterus larger than expected for the gestational age is observed. What condition is highly indicated by these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Molar pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption, placenta praevia, and ectopic pregnancy can cause vaginal bleeding, but they do not typically result in a non-tender, large-for-dates uterus. Gestational diabetes is not associated with vaginal bleeding or hyperemesis.

      Molar pregnancy is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease that occurs when there is an abnormal fertilization of an empty ovum. There are two types of molar pregnancies: complete and partial. Complete hydatidiform moles have a karyotype of 46 XX or 46 XY, with all genetic material coming from the father. Partial hydatidiform moles have a karyotype of 69 XXX or 69 XXY and contain both maternal and paternal chromosomes. Neither type of molar pregnancy can result in a viable fetus.

      The most common symptom of a molar pregnancy is vaginal bleeding, which can range from light to heavy. In about 25% of complete molar pregnancies, the uterus may be larger than expected for the gestational age. Complete hydatidiform moles produce high levels of beta hCG due to the large amounts of abnormal chorionic villi, which can lead to hyperemesis, hyperthyroidism, and other symptoms. Women who are under 20 years old or over 35 years old are at a higher risk of having a molar pregnancy.

      Gestational trophoblastic disorders refer to a range of conditions that originate from the placental trophoblast. These disorders include complete hydatidiform mole, partial hydatidiform mole, and choriocarcinoma. Complete hydatidiform mole is a benign tumor of trophoblastic material that occurs when an empty egg is fertilized by a single sperm that duplicates its own DNA, resulting in all 46 chromosomes being of paternal origin. Symptoms of this disorder include bleeding in the first or early second trimester, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, a large uterus for dates, and high levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the blood. Hypertension and hyperthyroidism may also be present. Urgent referral to a specialist center is necessary, and evacuation of the uterus is performed. Effective contraception is recommended to avoid pregnancy in the next 12 months. About 2-3% of cases may progress to choriocarcinoma. In partial mole, a normal haploid egg may be fertilized by two sperms or one sperm with duplication of paternal chromosomes, resulting in DNA that is both maternal and paternal in origin. Fetal parts may be visible, and the condition is usually triploid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      0
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  • Question 5 - A 29-year-old man contacts his primary care physician with concerns about his skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man contacts his primary care physician with concerns about his skin turning yellow. He reports that this change has been occurring gradually over the past few days and is not accompanied by any pain or other symptoms. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he was recently discharged from the hospital after receiving treatment for pyelonephritis. He denies any recent travel outside of his local area.

      The patient's liver function tests reveal the following results:
      - Bilirubin: 32 µmol/L (normal range: 3 - 17)
      - ALP: 41 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
      - ALT: 19 u/L (normal range: 3 - 40)
      - γGT: 26 u/L (normal range: 8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 43 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gilbert's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The patient’s presentation is consistent with Gilbert’s syndrome, which is characterized by an increase in serum bilirubin during times of physiological stress due to a deficiency in the liver’s ability to process bilirubin. This can be triggered by illness, exercise, or fasting.

      Autoimmune hepatitis, on the other hand, typically results in severely abnormal liver function tests with significantly elevated liver enzymes, which is not the case for this patient.

      Hepatitis A is often associated with recent foreign travel and is accompanied by symptoms such as abdominal pain and diarrhea.

      Mirizzi syndrome is a rare condition in which a gallstone becomes lodged in the biliary tree, causing a blockage of the bile duct. It typically presents with upper right quadrant pain and signs of obstructive jaundice.

      While painless jaundice can be a symptom of pancreatic cancer, it is highly unlikely in a 27-year-old patient and is therefore an unlikely diagnosis in this case.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a thyroid cancer. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a thyroid cancer. She has no significant family history and is in good health. During the examination, a nodule is found in the left lobe of her thyroid, which appears to be a small, distinct mass separate from the gland. What is the most probable cause of this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Papillary carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The most frequent subtype of thyroid cancer is papillary carcinoma, which can lead to lymph node metastasis. This occurrence is uncommon in follicular tumors. Anaplastic carcinoma is rare in this age group and would result in more localized symptoms.

      Thyroid cancer rarely causes hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism as it does not usually secrete thyroid hormones. The most common type of thyroid cancer is papillary carcinoma, which is often found in young females and has an excellent prognosis. Follicular carcinoma is less common, while medullary carcinoma is a cancer of the parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2. Anaplastic carcinoma is rare and not responsive to treatment, causing pressure symptoms. Lymphoma is also rare and associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

      Management of papillary and follicular cancer involves a total thyroidectomy followed by radioiodine to kill residual cells. Yearly thyroglobulin levels are monitored to detect early recurrent disease. Papillary carcinoma usually contains a mixture of papillary and colloidal filled follicles, while follicular adenoma presents as a solitary thyroid nodule and malignancy can only be excluded on formal histological assessment. Follicular carcinoma may appear macroscopically encapsulated, but microscopically capsular invasion is seen. Medullary carcinoma is associated with raised serum calcitonin levels and familial genetic disease in up to 20% of cases. Anaplastic carcinoma is most common in elderly females and is treated by resection where possible, with palliation achieved through isthmusectomy and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy is ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
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  • Question 7 - Sophie presents acutely to the hospital with severe epigastric pain that is radiating...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie presents acutely to the hospital with severe epigastric pain that is radiating to the back, nausea and vomiting. Upon questioning, she has suffered from several episodes of biliary colic in the past. A blood test reveals a lipase level of 1000U/L.

      What is the underlying pathophysiology of Sophie's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic enzymes released as a result of inflammation autodigest the pancreatic tissue

      Explanation:

      The cause of acute pancreatitis is the autodigestion of pancreatic tissue by pancreatic enzymes, which results in tissue necrosis. The patient is experiencing typical symptoms of acute pancreatitis, including epigastric pain that radiates to the back, nausea, and vomiting. The presence of elevated lipase levels, which are more than three times the upper limit of normal, is also indicative of acute pancreatitis. The patient’s history of biliary colic suggests that gallstones may be the underlying cause of this condition.

      During acute pancreatitis, inflammation of the pancreas triggers the release and activation of pancreatic enzymes, which then begin to digest the pancreatic tissue. This process is known as autodigestion. Autodigestion of fat can lead to tissue necrosis, while autodigestion of blood vessels can cause retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which can be identified by the presence of Grey Turner’s sign and Cullen’s sign.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The most common symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Although rare, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may also be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life, making it useful for late presentations. Imaging, such as ultrasound or contrast-enhanced CT, may also be necessary to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors indicating severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. However, the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is important to diagnose and manage it promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 6-year-old girl is taken to the pediatrician. Her father reports that she...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is taken to the pediatrician. Her father reports that she experiences wheezing and difficulty breathing when she is around their dog. Besides IgE, which complement proteins can trigger mast cells and basophils to produce allergic reactions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C3a and C5a

      Explanation:

      Mast cells and basophils can be activated by various factors, including IgE, C3a and C5a, substance P released by local sensory nerves, and direct contact with pathogens.

      Overview of Complement Pathways

      Complement pathways are a group of proteins that play a crucial role in the body’s immune and inflammatory response. These proteins are involved in various processes such as chemotaxis, cell lysis, and opsonisation. There are two main complement pathways: classical and alternative.

      The classical pathway is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes, specifically IgM and IgG. The proteins involved in this pathway include C1qrs, C2, and C4. On the other hand, the alternative pathway is initiated by polysaccharides found in Gram-negative bacteria and IgA. The proteins involved in this pathway are C3, factor B, and properdin.

      Understanding the complement pathways is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases. Dysregulation of these pathways can lead to autoimmune disorders, infections, and other inflammatory conditions. By identifying the specific complement pathway involved in a disease, targeted therapies can be developed to effectively treat the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of hearing difficulties....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of hearing difficulties. He states that he has been increasingly struggling to hear his wife's conversations for the past six months. He is concerned that this problem will worsen and eventually lead to complete hearing loss, making it difficult for him to communicate with his children over the phone. His wife is also distressed by the situation, as he frequently asks her to turn up the volume on the television. The man has no history of exposure to loud noises and has well-controlled hypertension. He is a retired police officer and currently resides with his wife. What is the primary pathology underlying this man's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Degeneration of the cells at the cochlear base

      Explanation:

      The patient has a gradual-onset hearing loss, which is most likely due to presbycusis, an aging-related sensorineural hearing loss. This condition has multiple causes, including environmental factors like noise pollution and biological factors like genetics and oxidative stress. Damage to the organ of Corti stereocilia from exposure to sudden loud noises can also cause hearing loss, which is typically sudden and associated with a history of exposure to loud noises. Other conditions that can cause hearing loss include cholesteatoma, which is due to the accumulation of keratin debris in the middle ear, and otosclerosis, which is characterized by the overgrowth of bone in the middle ear.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of growing clumsiness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to your clinic with complaints of growing clumsiness and lack of coordination, along with involuntary limb movements. He also reports increased irritability and forgetfulness, which his wife has noticed. Interestingly, his father had similar symptoms but at the age of 55 and eventually passed away due to a neurodegenerative disease.

      What could be the reason for the patient's symptoms appearing earlier than his father's?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Penetrance refers to the degree to which an individual experiences or is certain to develop a disease. Lower numbers may indicate milder symptoms or a lower probability of developing the disease. In the case of Huntington’s disease, increased penetrance is associated with a higher number of trinucleotide repeats, so reduced penetrance is not applicable.

      Trinucleotide repeat disorders are genetic conditions that occur due to an abnormal number of repeats of a repetitive sequence of three nucleotides. These expansions are unstable and may enlarge, leading to an earlier age of onset in successive generations, a phenomenon known as anticipation. In most cases, an increase in the severity of symptoms is also observed. It is important to note that these disorders are predominantly neurological in nature. Examples of such disorders include Fragile X, Huntington’s, myotonic dystrophy, Friedreich’s ataxia, spinocerebellar ataxia, spinobulbar muscular atrophy, and dentatorubral pallidoluysian atrophy. It is interesting to note that Friedreich’s ataxia is an exception to the rule and does not demonstrate anticipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 11 - During an Ivor Lewis Oesophagectomy for carcinoma of the upper third of the...

    Incorrect

    • During an Ivor Lewis Oesophagectomy for carcinoma of the upper third of the oesophagus which structure is divided to allow mobilisation of the oesophagus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azygos vein

      Explanation:

      The azygos vein is divided during oesophagectomy to allow mobilisation. It inserts into the SVC on the right side.

      Treatment Options for Oesophageal Cancer

      Oesophageal cancer is typically treated through surgical resection, with neoadjuvant chemotherapy given prior to the procedure. In situ disease may be managed through endoscopic mucosal resection, while unresectable disease may benefit from local ablative procedures, palliative chemotherapy, or stent insertion. However, resections are not typically offered to patients with distant metastasis or N2 disease, and local nodal involvement is not a contraindication to resection.

      For lower and middle third oesophageal tumours, an Ivor-Lewis procedure is commonly performed. This involves a combined laparotomy and right thoracotomy, with the stomach mobilized through a rooftop incision and the oesophagus removed through a thoracotomy. The chest is then closed with underwater seal drainage and tube drains to the abdominal cavity. Postoperatively, patients will typically recover in the intensive care unit and may experience complications such as atelectasis, anastomotic leakage, and delayed gastric emptying.

      Overall, treatment options for oesophageal cancer depend on the extent of the disease and the patient’s individual circumstances. While surgical resection is the mainstay of treatment, other options such as chemotherapy and local ablative procedures may be considered for unresectable disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old patient diagnosed with severe sepsis is admitted to the ICU. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient diagnosed with severe sepsis is admitted to the ICU. Despite the implementation of the sepsis 6 bundle, the patient's condition deteriorates and bleeding is discovered at all peripheral venous cannula sites. The patient's respiratory rate is 28 breaths/min, heart rate is 124 beats/min, and blood pressure is 90/55 mmHg. A coagulation profile is requested and the results show a prolonged prothrombin time, a decreased fibrinogen level and a significantly elevated D-dimer. What is the probable cause of the bleeding based on these results and the clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC)

      Explanation:

      DIC is a severe and life-threatening complication that typically presents as a late sign of sepsis. The coagulation profile can confirm the diagnosis by revealing specific abnormalities, such as a prolonged prothrombin time indicating a bleeding tendency, depleted fibrinogen levels due to clot formation, and elevated D-dimer levels indicating the body’s efforts to dissolve clots.

      Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation

      Under normal conditions, the coagulation and fibrinolysis processes work together to maintain hemostasis. However, in cases of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One of the critical factors in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. TF is normally not in contact with the circulation but is exposed after vascular damage or in response to cytokines and endotoxins. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, leading to the activation of the intrinsic pathway and the formation of clots.

      DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy. Diagnosis of DIC typically involves a blood test that shows decreased platelet count and fibrinogen levels, prolonged prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time, and increased fibrinogen degradation products. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia may also be present, leading to the formation of schistocytes.

      Overall, understanding the pathophysiology and diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective management of this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 13 - A 48-hour-old boy who was born by vaginal delivery has not passed meconium....

    Incorrect

    • A 48-hour-old boy who was born by vaginal delivery has not passed meconium.

      A patent anal orifice can be seen, but an abdominal x-ray reveals dilatation of the bowel proximal to the sigmoid colon. A rectal mucosa biopsy confirms the diagnosis.

      What is the probable condition affecting this infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Explanation:

      Hirschsprung’s Disease and Other Causes of Failure to Pass Meconium in Neonates

      There are various reasons why a newborn may fail to pass meconium within the first 24 hours of life. One of these is Hirschsprung’s disease, which is caused by a loss of function mutation in the RET oncogene resulting in the absence of ganglion cells. This condition is always present in the rectum and extends proximally for a varying distance. The affected area is immotile, and proximal to it is a dilated section of the colon known as megacolon. Diagnosis is made through a rectal biopsy that confirms the absence of ganglion cells.

      Chagas’ disease, on the other hand, is caused by infection with Trypanosoma cruzi and can also cause immotile megacolon, but it is not a condition that presents in newborns. Crohn’s disease, which usually presents with diarrhea rather than constipation, does not occur in neonates. Cystic fibrosis can cause meconium ileus, where thick meconium becomes lodged at the ileocecal valve, but the anatomical location is not correct in this case, and biopsy is not required. Congenital hypothyroidism may cause constipation, but it does not result in megacolon, and biopsy is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old female delivers a baby girl at 36 weeks gestation. The infant's...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female delivers a baby girl at 36 weeks gestation. The infant's weight is below average for gestational age, and her APGAR scores are persistently low. Upon physical examination, no abnormalities are found except for the presence of chorioretinitis during ophthalmological assessment and intracranial calcifications scattered throughout the brain on neuroimaging. The mother denies any illness during pregnancy or exposure to sick individuals, and resides at home with her spouse and two cats.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital toxoplasmosis

      Explanation:

      The classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis includes chorioretinitis, intracranial calcifications, and hydrocephalus. Toxoplasma gondii is a protozoan parasite that is found everywhere and typically does not cause symptoms in people with a healthy immune system. Pregnant women can become infected by consuming raw or undercooked meat or by handling cat litter, and toxoplasmosis is one of the ToRCHeS infections.

      Congenital Toxoplasmosis: Effects on Neurological and Ophthalmic Health

      Congenital toxoplasmosis is a condition that occurs when a pregnant woman passes the Toxoplasma gondii parasite to her unborn child. This can result in a range of health issues, particularly affecting the neurological and ophthalmic systems.

      Neurological damage is a common feature of congenital toxoplasmosis, with cerebral calcification and hydrocephalus being two potential outcomes. Cerebral calcification refers to the buildup of calcium deposits in the brain, which can lead to seizures, developmental delays, and other neurological problems. Hydrocephalus, on the other hand, is a condition in which there is an excess of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain, causing pressure and potentially leading to brain damage.

      In addition to neurological damage, congenital toxoplasmosis can also cause ophthalmic damage. Chorioretinitis, a condition in which the retina becomes inflamed, is a common outcome. This can lead to vision loss and other eye-related problems. Retinopathy and cataracts are also potential effects of congenital toxoplasmosis.

      Overall, congenital toxoplasmosis can have significant impacts on a child’s health, particularly in terms of neurological and ophthalmic function. Early detection and treatment are crucial for minimizing the potential long-term effects of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 15 - A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother, complaining of ear...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother, complaining of ear pain that started last night. He has been unable to sleep due to the pain and has not been eating well. His mother reports that he seems different than his usual self. The affected side has muffled sounds, and he has a fever. Otoscopy reveals a bulging tympanic membrane with visible fluid-level. What is the structure that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Eustachian tube

      Explanation:

      The pharyngotympanic tube, also known as the Eustachian tube, is responsible for connecting the middle ear and the nasopharynx, allowing for pressure equalization in the middle ear. It opens on the anterior wall of the middle ear and extends anteriorly, medially, and inferiorly to open into the nasopharynx. The palatovaginal canal connects the pterygopalatine fossa with the nasopharynx, while the pterygoid canal runs from the anterior boundary of the foramen lacerum to the pterygopalatine fossa. The semicircular canals are responsible for sensing balance, while the greater palatine canal transmits the greater and lesser palatine nerves, as well as the descending palatine artery and vein. In the case of ear pain, otitis media is a likely cause, which can be confirmed through otoscopy. The pharyngotympanic tube is particularly important in otitis media as it is the only outlet for pus or fluid in the middle ear, provided the tympanic membrane is intact.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 16 - A 13-year-old girl presents to the paediatric emergency department with neck stiffness, photophobia...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl presents to the paediatric emergency department with neck stiffness, photophobia and a systemic, purpuric rash. She has a fever of 39.2ºC. Paracetamol is administered and intravenous fluids are initiated.

      What is the recommended course of action for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this boy is meningococcal septicaemia and bacterial meningitis caused by Neisseria meningitidis, which is the most dangerous form of meningitis. The initial empirical therapy for meningitis in patients over 3 months of age is IV 3rd generation cephalosporin, such as ceftriaxone, which is effective against Neisseria meningitidis. Delaying treatment until culture and sensitivity results are available can be dangerous, as it can take 3-5 days to obtain these results. Intravenous acyclovir is used if viral meningitis is suspected or confirmed, but it is not sufficient in this case, especially in the presence of a purpuric rash, which indicates a high possibility of meningococcal septicaemia. Intravenous benzylpenicillin may be appropriate if sensitivities to any culture taken suggest it, but a third-generation cephalosporin would be the most appropriate choice to cover for meningococcal infection.

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. It is important to investigate and manage it promptly to prevent complications. When investigating meningitis, a lumbar puncture is usually done to obtain cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) for analysis. However, there are contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and signs of cerebral herniation. In such cases, blood cultures and PCR for meningococcus should be obtained for patients with meningococcal septicaemia.

      The management of meningitis involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) + IV cefotaxime for children under 3 months and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for those over 3 months. Steroids may also be given, but NICE advises against giving corticosteroids in children younger than 3 months. Dexamethasone should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals purulent CSF, a CSF white blood cell count greater than 1000/microlitre, raised CSF white blood cell count with protein concentration greater than 1 g/litre, or bacteria on Gram stain.

      Fluids should also be given to treat any shock, such as with colloid. Cerebral monitoring is necessary, and mechanical ventilation may be required if there is respiratory impairment. Public health notification and antibiotic prophylaxis of contacts are also important. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for prophylaxis. By following these guidelines, meningitis in children can be effectively managed and treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 17 - Sarah, a 73-year-old woman, is currently admitted to the medical ward after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 73-year-old woman, is currently admitted to the medical ward after experiencing chest pain. A recent blood test revealed low levels of potassium. The doctors explained that potassium plays a crucial role in the normal functioning of the heart and any changes in its concentration can affect the heart's ability to contract and relax properly.

      How does potassium contribute to a normal cardiac action potential?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A slow influx of the electrolyte causes a plateau in the myocardial action potential

      Explanation:

      Calcium causes a plateau in the cardiac action potential, prolonging contraction and reflected in the ST-segment of an ECG. A low concentration of calcium ions can result in a prolonged QT-segment. Sodium ions cause depolarisation, potassium ions cause repolarisation, and their movement maintains the resting potential. Calcium ions also bind to troponin-C to trigger muscle contraction.

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 18 - A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe, central abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents to the emergency department with severe, central abdominal pain that is radiating to his back. He has vomited twice and on examination you find he has hypotension and tachycardia. He is a current smoker with a past medical history of hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia. You suspect a visceral artery aneurysm and urgently request a CT scan to confirm. The CT scan reveals an aneurysm in the superior mesenteric artery.

      From which level of the vertebrae does this artery originate from the aorta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L1

      Explanation:

      The common iliac veins come together at

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 19 - A 48 month study compared two treatments for hypertension in patients over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 48 month study compared two treatments for hypertension in patients over the age of 60.
      The null hypothesis was that there was no difference between the two treatments.
      The primary outcome was reduction of systolic blood pressure below 140 mmHg. This outcome was reached in 75% of patients taking treatment A and 80% of patients taking treatment B. The results were reported as being significant with a p-value of 0.05.
      What is the correct interpretation of the P value?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There is a 5% probability of finding this result if there is no difference between the regimens

      Explanation:

      The Misunderstood P Value

      The P value is often misunderstood and over-interpreted. It is important to note that the P value only indicates the probability of obtaining the results by chance if there was no difference between the regimens being compared. It does not provide information on the actual difference between the regimens or the likelihood of one being better than the other. This confusion has led to the increased use of confidence intervals as a more informative measure.

      Goodman SN’s article Toward Evidence-Based Medical Statistics delves deeper into this issue and highlights the fallacy of relying solely on P values. It is crucial to understand the limitations of the P value and to use it in conjunction with other statistical measures to draw accurate conclusions. By doing so, we can ensure that our research is evidence-based and reliable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of acute abdominal pain and diarrhoea that started 3 hours ago. Upon examination, his pulse is 105 bpm, blood pressure is 98/70 mmHg, and temperature is 37.5 ºC. The abdominal examination reveals diffuse tenderness with rebound and guarding. The X-ray shows thumbprinting, leading you to suspect that he may have ischaemic colitis. Which specific area is the most probable site of involvement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Ischemic colitis is a condition where blood flow to a part of the large intestine is temporarily reduced, often due to a blockage or hypo-perfusion. While any part of the colon can be affected, it most commonly affects the left side. The hepatic flexure, located on the right side of the colon, is less likely to be involved as it has a good blood supply from the superior mesenteric artery (SMA). The ileocecal junction is also less likely to be affected as it has a good blood supply from the ileocolic artery, a branch of the SMA. The splenic flexure, located between the left colon and the transverse colon, is the most likely area to be affected by ischaemic colitis as it is a watershed area supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery. The sigmoid colon, supplied by the sigmoidal branches of the inferior mesenteric artery, is less likely to be affected. The recto-sigmoid junction is also a watershed area and vulnerable to ischaemic colitis, but it is less common than ischaemia at the splenic flexure.

      Ischaemia to the lower gastrointestinal tract can result in acute mesenteric ischaemia, chronic mesenteric ischaemia, and ischaemic colitis. Common predisposing factors include increasing age, atrial fibrillation, other causes of emboli, cardiovascular disease risk factors, and cocaine use. Common features include abdominal pain, rectal bleeding, diarrhea, fever, and elevated white blood cell count with lactic acidosis. CT is the investigation of choice. Acute mesenteric ischaemia is typically caused by an embolism and requires urgent surgery. Chronic mesenteric ischaemia presents with intermittent abdominal pain. Ischaemic colitis is an acute but transient compromise in blood flow to the large bowel and may require surgery in a minority of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 21 - What is the endocrine condition that is linked to low blood sugar levels?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the endocrine condition that is linked to low blood sugar levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoadrenalism

      Explanation:

      Hypoglycaemia in Adults

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition where the blood glucose level falls below the typical fasting level, which is around <4 mmol/L for adults. This condition can be caused by various endocrine factors such as hypoadrenalism, growth hormone deficiency, glucagon deficiency, and hypothyroidism. However, the most common cause of hypoglycaemia in adults is medication for diabetes, particularly insulin or sulphonylureas. Symptoms of hypoglycaemia are caused by sympathetic activity and disrupted central nervous system function due to inadequate glucose. These symptoms include tremors, sweating, nausea, lightheadedness, hunger, and disorientation. Severe hypoglycaemia can cause confusion, aggressive behaviour, and reduced consciousness. Mild hypoglycaemia is common during fasting, pregnancy, and minor illness. Apart from medication and endocrine factors, other causes of hypoglycaemia in adults include non-diabetic drugs, alcohol, hepatic failure, critical illness, hormone deficiency, malignancy, insulinoma, non-insulinoma pancreatogenous hypoglycaemia syndrome (NIPHS), and bariatric surgery. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hypoglycaemia to provide appropriate treatment. In summary, hypoglycaemia is a condition where the blood glucose level falls below the typical fasting level. It can be caused by various factors, including medication, endocrine factors, and other medical conditions. Recognizing the symptoms and identifying the underlying cause is crucial in managing hypoglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old female patient complains of cough and difficulty breathing. During examination, a...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female patient complains of cough and difficulty breathing. During examination, a mid-diastolic murmur is detected and the patient has a flushed face. What past infection could have caused these symptoms 10-20 years ago?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Rheumatic Heart Disease and Mitral Stenosis

      Rheumatic heart disease is the leading cause of mitral stenosis, a condition characterized by shortness of breath and a mid-diastolic murmur in the heart. This disease is an immune response to a Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, such as streptococcus pyogenes. Acute rheumatic fever can occur within two weeks of the initial infection and can lead to a pan carditis, along with other symptoms like erythema marginatum and arthritis. If left untreated, chronic carditis may develop, which can result in mitral stenosis.

      Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diptheriae, while Enterococcus faecalis is a group G streptococcal organism that can cause urinary tract and intra-abdominal infections. Neisseria meningitidis is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis, and Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin, bone, and joint infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the haematology clinic after experiencing 2 DVTs within...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the haematology clinic after experiencing 2 DVTs within a year. She mentions that her mother passed away at the age of 50 due to a pulmonary embolism. Her full blood count appears normal, but her coagulation screen suggests a coagulopathy.

      What is the underlying pathological mechanism of the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activated protein C resistance

      Explanation:

      The presence of factor V Leiden mutation leads to resistance to activated protein C.

      The most probable cause of the patient’s recurrent DVTs and family history of thrombo-embolic events is factor V Leiden, which is the most common inherited thrombophilia. This mutation results in activated protein C resistance, as activated factor V is not inactivated as efficiently by protein C.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is an acquired thrombophilia that can cause both arterial and venous thromboses, and may present with thrombocytopenia. However, the patient’s positive family history and normal full blood count make this diagnosis less likely than factor V Leiden.

      Protein C deficiency, protein S deficiency, and antithrombin III deficiency are all inherited thrombophilias, but they are less prevalent in the population compared to factor V Leiden. Therefore, they are less likely to be the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Factor V Leiden

      Factor V Leiden is a common inherited thrombophilia, affecting around 5% of the UK population. It is caused by a mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein, resulting in activated factor V being inactivated 10 times more slowly by activated protein C than normal. This leads to activated protein C resistance, which increases the risk of venous thrombosis. Heterozygotes have a 4-5 fold risk of venous thrombosis, while homozygotes have a 10 fold risk, although the prevalence of homozygotes is much lower at 0.05%.

      Despite its prevalence, screening for Factor V Leiden is not recommended, even after a venous thromboembolism. This is because a previous thromboembolism itself is a risk factor for further events, and specific management should be based on this rather than the particular thrombophilia identified.

      Other inherited thrombophilias include Prothrombin gene mutation, Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin III deficiency. The table below shows the prevalence and relative risk of venous thromboembolism for each of these conditions.

      Overall, understanding Factor V Leiden and other inherited thrombophilias can help healthcare professionals identify individuals at higher risk of venous thrombosis and provide appropriate management to prevent future events.

      Condition | Prevalence | Relative risk of VTE
      — | — | —
      Factor V Leiden (heterozygous) | 5% | 4
      Factor V Leiden (homozygous) | 0.05% | 10
      Prothrombin gene mutation (heterozygous) | 1.5% | 3
      Protein C deficiency | 0.3% | 10
      Protein S deficiency | 0.1% | 5-10
      Antithrombin III deficiency | 0.02% | 10-20

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old female visits her GP complaining of weight loss, fatigue, and night...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female visits her GP complaining of weight loss, fatigue, and night sweats that have been ongoing for the past 2 months. During the examination, the GP discovers cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. The patient is referred to the hospital for further investigation, which includes a biopsy of her cervical lymph nodes.

      The biopsy report reveals the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. These cells belong to the same lineage as which of the following cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NK cells

      Explanation:

      Common lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to NK cells, as well as B-cells and T-cells. The biopsy of the patient in this case reveals Reed-Sternberg cells, indicating Hodgkin’s lymphoma, a cancer of B-cells. Platelets, monocytes, basophils, and erythrocytes, on the other hand, are derived from common myeloid progenitor cells.

      Haematopoiesis: The Generation of Immune Cells

      Haematopoiesis is the process by which immune cells are produced from haematopoietic stem cells in the bone marrow. These stem cells give rise to two main types of progenitor cells: myeloid and lymphoid progenitor cells. All immune cells are derived from these progenitor cells.

      The myeloid progenitor cells generate cells such as macrophages/monocytes, dendritic cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and mast cells. On the other hand, lymphoid progenitor cells give rise to T cells, NK cells, B cells, and dendritic cells.

      This process is essential for the proper functioning of the immune system. Without haematopoiesis, the body would not be able to produce the necessary immune cells to fight off infections and diseases. Understanding haematopoiesis is crucial in developing treatments for diseases that affect the immune system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
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  • Question 25 - An 80-year-old patient is initiated on warfarin after being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old patient is initiated on warfarin after being diagnosed with atrial fibrillation. The patient has a medical history of a metallic heart valve.

      The patient is informed that INR levels will be used to monitor the effects of warfarin. INR is a ratio of the value during warfarin treatment to the normal value, which is used to measure a specific aspect of clotting.

      What is the value that is utilized during this monitoring process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prothrombin time

      Explanation:

      Warfarin leads to an extended prothrombin time, which is the correct answer. The prothrombin time assesses the extrinsic and common pathways of the clotting cascade, and warfarin affects factor VII from the extrinsic pathway, as well as factor II (prothrombin) and factor X from the common pathway. This results in a prolonged prothrombin time, and the INR is a ratio of the prothrombin time during warfarin treatment to the normal prothrombin time.

      The activated partial thromboplastin time is an incorrect answer. Although high levels of warfarin may prolong the activated partial thromboplastin time, the INR is solely based on the prothrombin time.

      Bleeding time is also an incorrect answer. While warfarin can cause a prolonged bleeding time, the INR measures the prothrombin time.

      Fibrinogen levels are another incorrect answer. Fibrinogen is necessary for blood clotting, and warfarin can decrease fibrinogen levels after prolonged use. However, fibrinogen levels are not used in the INR measurement.

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 26 - A 75-year-old male has been admitted to the stroke ward after experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male has been admitted to the stroke ward after experiencing a stroke 2 days ago. During a mini mental state examination, it was observed that the patient struggled with repeating sentences. Upon further assessment, the doctor discovered that the patient had difficulty with speech repetition. Nevertheless, the patient had no issues with speech comprehension or production during conversation.

      What could be the probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Conduction aphasia

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely experiencing conduction aphasia, which is characterized by fluent speech but poor repetition ability. This is caused by an impairment to the arcuate fasciculus, which connects Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. While comprehension is usually preserved in this type of aphasia, patients may struggle with repeating words or phrases. Broca’s aphasia, global aphasia, and primary progressive aphasia are less likely explanations for the patient’s symptoms.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old man with chronic kidney disease secondary to diabetes is scheduled to...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man with chronic kidney disease secondary to diabetes is scheduled to undergo a contrast-enhanced CT scan for a suspected brain lesion. His latest eGFR is 51ml/min/1.73m2. After a multidisciplinary team discussion, it was decided that using contrast in the scan was in the patient's best interests, despite the increased risk of contrast-induced acute kidney injury. What would be the most suitable approach to minimize the risk of contrast-induced acute kidney injury in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer IV hydration before and after infusion

      Explanation:

      To reduce the risk of contrast-induced acute kidney injury in high-risk patients, NICE guidelines recommend administering sodium chloride at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours before and after the procedure. While there is some evidence supporting the use of acetylcysteine via IV infusion, it is not strong enough to be recommended in the guidelines. In at-risk patients, it is important to discuss whether the contrast is necessary. Waiting for the patient’s eGFR to improve is not a realistic option in this scenario, as the patient has chronic kidney disease. While maintaining tight glycaemic control is important for long-term kidney function, it is less relevant in this setting. Potentially nephrotoxic medications such as NSAIDs should be temporarily stopped, and ACE inhibitor therapy should be considered for cessation in patients with an eGFR less than 40ml/min/1.73m2, according to NICE guidelines.

      Contrast media nephrotoxicity is characterized by a 25% increase in creatinine levels within three days of receiving intravascular contrast media. This condition typically occurs between two to five days after administration and is more likely to affect patients with pre-existing renal impairment, dehydration, cardiac failure, or those taking nephrotoxic drugs like NSAIDs. Procedures that may cause contrast-induced nephropathy include CT scans with contrast and coronary angiography or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Around 5% of patients who undergo PCI experience a temporary increase in plasma creatinine levels of more than 88 µmol/L.

      To prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride should be administered at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours before and after the procedure. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate may also be used. While N-acetylcysteine was previously used, recent evidence suggests it is not effective. Patients at high risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for at least 48 hours and until their renal function returns to normal to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
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  • Question 28 - A 79-year-old woman arrived at the hospital complaining of pain in her right...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman arrived at the hospital complaining of pain in her right hip and thigh after falling from her bed. According to her, she fell while attempting to get up and go to the bathroom during the night. During the physical examination, the physician observed that her right leg was externally rotated and shorter than her left leg. What is the most probable pathological alteration present in this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased cortical and trabecular bone mass with normal bone mineralization

      Explanation:

      The patient’s shortened and externally rotated right leg indicated a fracture of the neck of the femur, which was determined to be a fragility fracture due to osteoporosis. This condition is a common cause of fragility fractures in postmenopausal women, as decreased estrogen levels lead to increased bone resorption and decreased bone mass. Other bone-related conditions, such as osteopetrosis, osteomalacia, Paget disease of the bone, and osteosarcoma, have different underlying causes and presentations.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.

      If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 29 - A 75-year-old male presents with an ejection systolic murmur that is most audible...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents with an ejection systolic murmur that is most audible over the aortic region. The patient also reports experiencing dyspnoea and angina. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Aortic Stenosis from Other Cardiac Conditions

      Aortic stenosis is a common cardiac condition that can be identified through auscultation. However, it is important to differentiate it from other conditions such as aortic sclerosis, HOCM, pulmonary stenosis, and aortic regurgitation. While aortic sclerosis may also present with an ejection systolic murmur, it is typically asymptomatic. The presence of dyspnoea, angina, or syncope would suggest a diagnosis of aortic stenosis instead. HOCM would not typically cause these symptoms, and pulmonary stenosis would not be associated with a murmur at the location of the aortic valve. Aortic regurgitation, on the other hand, would present with a wide pulse pressure and an early diastolic murmur. Therefore, careful consideration of symptoms and additional diagnostic tests may be necessary to accurately diagnose and differentiate between these cardiac conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain and persistent diarrhoea. He recently returned from a trip to Brazil and noticed the symptoms a few days after his return. He initially thought it was food-related, but he also developed an urticarial rash on his abdomen and papulovesicular lesions on the soles of his feet. Stool cultures are ordered to determine the most likely causative agent.

      What is the probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Strongyloides stercoralis

      Explanation:

      The patient in the vignette is likely infected with Strongyloides stercoralis, as he presents with diarrhoea and abdominal pain, along with papulovesicular lesions on the soles of his feet and an urticarial rash. S. stercoralis is a parasitic roundworm that resides in the small intestine and is commonly found in areas with poor sanitation. The other options in the vignette do not match the patient’s symptoms, as they do not involve papulovesicular lesions.

      Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.

      Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures

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Neurological System (1/1) 100%
Respiratory System (0/1) 0%
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