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Question 1
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What is the mode of spread of chickenpox?
Your Answer: Airborne
Explanation:Chickenpox is a highly communicable viral disease caused by human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus, VZV). It is transmitted from person to person by direct contact (touching the rash), droplet or air born spread (coughing and sneezing).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 2
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A 65 yr. old male with a history of smoking and alcohol was admitted with an ST elevation myocardial infarction. He was obese and lives a sedentary lifestyle. What is the non-pharmacological intervention which will be most helpful to reduce future ischaemic events?
Your Answer: Stopping smoking
Explanation:Stopping smoking is the single most effective non-pharmacological intervention which will reduce future ischaemic events. But the rest of the responses are also important interventions with regards to reducing future ischaemic events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with a 6 month history of progressive weakness of both lower limbs, complains of lethargy and of difficulties climbing stairs. He also claims he's experienced muscle loss in his lower limbs. History reveals type 2 diabetes mellitus and heavy alcohol use for the last 4 years. Clinical examination reveals marked loss of fine touch and proprioception. The distribution is in a stocking manner and bilateral. However, no evidence of ataxia is present. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Wernicke's encephalopathy
Correct Answer: Dry beriberi
Explanation:Hypovitaminosis B1, consistent with dry beriberi is crucially a treatable condition, although sometimes with incomplete recovery, but it is probably under-recognized yet increasingly common given increasing levels of alcohol abuse in the western world. Dry beriberi or ‘acute nutritional polyneuropathy’ is considered to be rare in the western world. Rapid deterioration can occur, typically with weakness, paraesthesia and neuropathic pain. Striking motor nerve involvement can occur, mimicking Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS). In the context of increasing alcohol abuse in the western world, it is possible that alcoholic neuropathy associated with abrupt deterioration due to concomitant nutritional hypovitaminosis B1 may be seen increasingly often.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 4
Correct
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Which of the following procedures does not require antibiotic prophylaxis?
Your Answer: Dental procedure for a patient with an atrial septal defect
Explanation:According to latest NICE guidelines, patients with isolated atrial septal defects do not require prophylactic antibiotics originally used in prevention of infective endocarditis in dental procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 5
Correct
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A 52-year-old chef presents to the ED with acute visual changes. He has a past medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. On neurological examination, his upper and lower limbs are normal however he has a homonymous hemianopia with central preservation. Where is the most likely cause of his problems within the central nervous system?
Your Answer: Optic radiation
Explanation:Lesions in the optic radiation can cause a homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing, as a result of collateral circulation offered to macular tracts by the middle cerebral artery.
Lesions in the optic tract also cause a homonymous hemianopia, but without macular sparing.
Lesions in the optic chiasm, optic nerve, and temporal lobe cause bitemporal hemianopia, ipsilateral complete blindness, and superior homonymous quadrantanopia respectively. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy suffers recurrent episodes of haematuria following a flu-like illness. He is otherwise well. Physical examination is normal. Urinalysis reveals no proteinuria, blood ++, and 2–3 white blood cells/mm3. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:IgA nephropathy’s characteristic presentation is haematuria following a non-specific upper respiratory infection as was evident in this case. IgA nephropathy also usually occurs in children and young males, like this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 70 yr. old female was brought in by the paramedics after she collapsed whilst shopping. She has a tachycardia of 150 bpm and her BP is 100/60 mmHg. Her ECG showed a broad complex tachycardia. Which of the following is more suggestive of a ventricular tachycardia (VT) over a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) with aberrant conduction?
Your Answer: Atrioventricular dissociation
Explanation:To differentiate VT from SVT with aberrant conduction the following electrocardiographic features should be looked for:
Evidence of preceding atrial activity for SVT. Oesophageal leads are helpful if P waves are hidden in the QRS complex.
QRS duration more than 140 ms for VT.
QRS morphology: Features of QRS morphology that favour SVT are RBBB or triphasic patterns like rSR in V1 and qRS in V6. Monophasic pattern like R or qR in V1 and rS or QS in V6 or multiple morphology QRS complexes favour VT.
AV dissociation for VT. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Correct
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You are a ST1 doctor working on a medical ward. You are struggling to cope with the workload and often leave the ward late. Who is the most appropriate action to take?
Your Answer: Speak to your consultant
Explanation:Speaking to your consultant is the most appropriate first action to take in this scenario. They are best placed to be able to take action to try and amend the situation. The consultant is also ultimately responsible for patient care and hterefore have a right to know if you are struggling, as this may affect patient care.
Arriving early and taking time off sick do not address the problem. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 9
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman presents with anxiety and weight loss with increased appetite. Thyrotoxicosis is suspected and various investigations are performed. Which of the following findings is most consistent with Graves’ disease?
Your Answer: High titre of thyroid peroxidase autoantibodies
Explanation:Free T4 levels or the free T4 index is usually elevated, as is the free T3 level or free T3 index
– Assays for thyrotropin-receptor antibodies (particularly TSIs) almost always are positive.
– Detection of TSIs is diagnostic for Graves disease.
– Other markers of thyroid autoimmunity, such as antithyroglobulin antibodies or antithyroid peroxidase antibodies, are usually present.
– Other autoantibodies that may be present include thyrotropin receptor-blocking antibodies and anti–sodium-iodide symporter antibody.
The presence of these antibodies supports the diagnosis of autoimmune thyroid disease.
– The radioactive iodine uptake is increased and the uptake is diffusely distributed over the entire gland. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 60 yr. old man with atrial fibrillation (AF) who is on warfarin, is awaiting tooth extraction. His latest INR 2 weeks ago was 2.7 and his target INR is 2.0-3.0. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Admit to hospital + switch to intravenous heparin prior to extraction
Correct Answer: Check INR 72 hours before procedure, proceed if INR < 3.5
Explanation:The latest research recommends that simple tooth extraction in patients on warfarin treatment can be performed safely without high risk of bleeding, providing that the INR is equal to or less than 3.5 on the day of extraction. A close follow-up and monitoring of patients taking warfarin is mandatory after dental extraction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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