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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic with a cough and wheeze.

    Which...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic with a cough and wheeze.

      Which of the following features would suggest that further investigation or specialist referral is necessary?

      Your Answer: Unilateral wheeze

      Explanation:

      Unilateral Wheeze and Poor Asthma Control

      All the symptoms of asthma are present, but a peak flow of less than 300 indicates poor control. However, a unilateral wheeze may indicate a foreign body or tumor, especially in children. Therefore, further investigation is necessary to determine the cause of the wheeze.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 2 - Can you interpret the post-bronchodilator spirometry results of a 54-year-old woman who has...

    Incorrect

    • Can you interpret the post-bronchodilator spirometry results of a 54-year-old woman who has been experiencing gradual shortness-of-breath?

      FEV1/FVC 0.60
      FEV1% predicted 60%

      Your Answer: COPD (stage 1 - mild)

      Correct Answer: COPD (stage 2 - moderate)

      Explanation:

      Investigating and Diagnosing COPD

      To diagnose COPD, NICE recommends considering patients over 35 years of age who are smokers or ex-smokers and have symptoms such as chronic cough, exertional breathlessness, or regular sputum production. The following investigations are recommended: post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, chest x-ray to exclude lung cancer and identify hyperinflation, bullae, or flat hemidiaphragm, full blood count to exclude secondary polycythaemia, and BMI calculation. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with Stage 1 being mild and Stage 4 being very severe. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction. It is important to note that the grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 3 - You see a 50-year-old gentleman with known bronchiectasis. Over the past 3 days,...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old gentleman with known bronchiectasis. Over the past 3 days, his cough has become increasingly productive and the sputum has become more thick and green than usual. He is slightly more short of breath than usual.

      On examination, he is apyrexial, has a respiratory rate of 20, coarse crackles in both lung bases and doesn't appear cyanosed. He has no drug allergies.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sputum culture then amoxicillin 500mg TDS for 5-7 days

      Explanation:

      Treating Infective Exacerbation of Bronchiectasis

      When managing a suspected infective exacerbation of bronchiectasis, it is crucial to obtain a sputum culture before initiating antibiotics. However, treatment should not be delayed until the culture results are available. It is also recommended to administer a more extended course of antibiotics than what is typically prescribed for a lower respiratory tract infection.

      NICE provides specific guidance on the selection and duration of antibiotics based on the identified organism. Additionally, hospital admission should be considered if there are indications of a more severe illness, such as cyanosis, confusion, respiratory rate exceeding 25 breaths per minute, significant breathlessness, or a temperature of 38°C or higher.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 4 - What is the accurate statement about pertussis infection? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about pertussis infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: doesn't occur in the neonatal period

      Explanation:

      Pertussis: Symptoms and Complications

      Pertussis, also known as whooping cough, is a respiratory condition that can manifest at any time. Patients with pertussis experience paroxysms of coughing during waking hours, but unlike many respiratory conditions, sleep is usually undisturbed. An inspiratory whoop may not be present, and complete apnoea may occur. A useful feature in the history taking is that patients typically do not experience disturbed sleep. Additionally, there is typically a lymphocytosis present.

      It is important to note that asthma in the mother is not a contraindication for pertussis. However, complications can arise from the disease, such as hemiplegia and convulsions.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man comes in for his regular asthma check-up. He is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes in for his regular asthma check-up. He is currently taking salbutamol and formoterol-beclomethasone (Fostair) for his asthma, but he informs you that he is not experiencing any relief from either medication. He was diagnosed with asthma through spirometry testing recently. He claims to be using the inhalers as prescribed but has some doubts about how to use them correctly. Both of his inhalers are pressurised metered-dose inhalers.

      What is the most suitable advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After inhaling a dose of the medication, he should ideally hold his breath for 10 seconds

      Explanation:

      To ensure effective use of an inhaler, it is important to follow proper technique. Asthma UK provides helpful guidance on inhaler usage for different types of inhalers.

      For a pressurised metered dose inhaler, it is advised to hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication. This allows sufficient time for the medication to reach the airways, rather than being exhaled prematurely.

      To use the inhaler, breathe in slowly and steadily while pressing down on the canister in one smooth motion. If a second dose is needed, wait for about 30 seconds before repeating to avoid any interference with the delivery of the medication.

      Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers

      Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:

      1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.

      2. Breathe out gently.

      3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.

      4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.

      5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.

      6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.

      It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a worsening of her asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female comes to the clinic with a worsening of her asthma symptoms. During the examination, her peak flow is measured at 300 l/min (normally 450 l/min) and she is able to speak in full sentences. Her pulse is 90 bpm and her respiratory rate is 18 / min. Upon chest examination, bilateral expiratory wheezing is detected, but there are no other notable findings. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nebulised salbutamol + prednisolone + allow home if settles with follow-up review

      Explanation:

      Asthma Assessment and Management in Primary Care

      Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. In primary care, patients with acute asthma are stratified into moderate, severe, or life-threatening categories based on their symptoms. For moderate asthma, treatment involves the use of beta 2 agonists such as salbutamol, either nebulized or via a spacer. If the patient’s peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) is between 50-75%, prednisolone 40-50 mg may also be prescribed.

      For severe asthma, admission may be necessary, and oxygen should be given to hypoxemic patients to maintain a SpO2 of 94-98%. Beta 2 agonists such as salbutamol, either nebulized or via a spacer, and prednisolone 40-50 mg should also be administered. If there is no response to treatment, admission is recommended.

      In life-threatening asthma cases, immediate admission should be arranged through a 999 call. Oxygen should be given to hypoxemic patients to maintain a SpO2 of 94-98%, and nebulized beta 2 agonists (e.g. Salbutamol) + ipratropium should be administered. Prednisolone 40-50 mg or IV hydrocortisone 100 mg may also be prescribed.

      In summary, the management of asthma in primary care involves stratifying patients based on their symptoms and administering appropriate treatment based on their category. It is important to closely monitor patients and adjust treatment as necessary to prevent exacerbations and improve their quality of life.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 7 - A 54-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old ex-smoker comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath when exerting himself and lying flat at night. He reports no weight loss or coughing up blood and feels generally healthy. His medical records indicate that he had a normal chest X-ray three months ago and had a heart attack three years ago. During the examination, the doctor detects mild crepitations in both lung bases. What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check natriuretic peptide levels

      Explanation:

      According to the updated NICE guidelines in 2018, all individuals who are suspected to have chronic heart failure should undergo an NT-proBNP test as the initial diagnostic test, irrespective of their history of myocardial infarction.

      Diagnosis of Chronic Heart Failure

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the diagnosis and management of chronic heart failure. According to the new guidelines, all patients should undergo an N-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT‑proBNP) blood test as the first-line investigation, regardless of whether they have previously had a myocardial infarction or not.

      Interpreting the NT-proBNP test is crucial in determining the severity of the condition. If the levels are high, specialist assessment, including transthoracic echocardiography, should be arranged within two weeks. If the levels are raised, specialist assessment, including echocardiogram, should be arranged within six weeks.

      BNP is a hormone produced mainly by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Very high levels of BNP are associated with a poor prognosis. The table above shows the different levels of BNP and NTproBNP and their corresponding interpretations.

      It is important to note that certain factors can alter the BNP level. For instance, left ventricular hypertrophy, ischaemia, tachycardia, and right ventricular overload can increase BNP levels, while diuretics, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, and aldosterone antagonists can decrease BNP levels. Therefore, it is crucial to consider these factors when interpreting the NT-proBNP test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man comes for a follow-up with his GP after being released...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes for a follow-up with his GP after being released from the hospital. He underwent surgery to repair a tibial plateau fracture and experienced a deep vein thrombosis and small pulmonary emboli during his recovery, which were treated with apixaban. He has no prior history of thrombosis or other medical problems.

      What is the recommended duration of anticoagulation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      A provoked pulmonary embolism, which occurred after surgery and immobilisation in a middle-aged man, typically requires treatment for at least 3 months. However, the duration of treatment may need to be extended or specialist referral may be necessary depending on the patient’s leg and respiratory symptoms. Indefinite anticoagulation is not recommended unless the problem is recurrent or the patient has thrombophilia. Referral to a haematologist is also not necessary unless the treatment is unsuccessful or the patient experiences further thrombosis issues. Anticoagulation for 6 months may be considered for unprovoked pulmonary embolism, but in this case, the patient’s condition was provoked by surgery and immobilisation.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management. The guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment for PE, followed by LMWH, dabigatran, edoxaban, or a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) if necessary. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation depends on whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically lasting for at least three months. Patients with unprovoked VTE may continue treatment for up to six months, depending on their risk of recurrence and bleeding.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Other invasive approaches may also be considered where appropriate facilities exist. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak, and further studies are needed.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 9 - What is the primary factor in deciding whether a patient with COPD, who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary factor in deciding whether a patient with COPD, who is elderly, should be provided with long-term oxygen therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      If a person with COPD has two measurements of pO2 below 7.3 kPa, they should receive LTOT.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 10 - You encounter a 28-year-old man who has asthma. He informs you that he...

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 28-year-old man who has asthma. He informs you that he has visited you today because one of the partners is unwilling to modify his inhaler treatment until he quits smoking. He is presently using a salbutamol inhaler as needed, but he is experiencing frequent wheezing episodes and has developed a cough at night. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alter his inhaler treatment and speak to the doctor concerned

      Explanation:

      It is important to note that a patient’s decision to continue smoking should not be a reason to deny them treatment for their asthma. As a healthcare professional, it is your responsibility to bring this to the attention of the doctor involved and discuss the situation with them. This will also give the doctor an opportunity to explain their perspective on the matter. It is not recommended to bring this up during a practice meeting as it may come across as confrontational.

      Simply changing the patient’s inhaler treatment will not address the issue of treatment being withheld. It is not acceptable to refuse to adjust their inhalers until they agree to seek smoking cessation treatment, as this can be seen as blackmail. Additionally, removing the patient from the practice list for not quitting smoking is not an appropriate course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 11 - You see a 50-year-old lady who complains of a chronic cough, often with...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old lady who complains of a chronic cough, often with yellow sputum that has persisted months. She thinks she is more breathless than her previous baseline. She reports no weight loss, no night sweats and is a non-smoker.

      On examination, she has coarse crackles in the lower lung zones. A trial of amoxicillin was started but did not improve her symptoms so a sputum sample was sent which grew Pseudomonas aeruginosa. A chest X ray was normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis

      Explanation:

      Bronchiectasis as a Possible Diagnosis for Chronic Non-Productive Cough

      Consider bronchiectasis as a possible diagnosis for a patient with a chronic non-productive cough, especially if the patient is a non-smoker. While other diagnoses are also possible, bronchiectasis is more likely if the patient doesn’t exhibit symptoms such as night sweats, weight loss, or the growth of Pseudomonas. It is important to note that a chest X-ray may not always show abnormalities in patients with bronchiectasis, and a CT-scan is often necessary for an accurate diagnosis. Therefore, if a patient presents with a chronic non-productive cough, bronchiectasis should be considered as a possible diagnosis, particularly in non-smokers.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 12 - What interventions can be used to identify asthma when there is diagnostic uncertainty...

    Incorrect

    • What interventions can be used to identify asthma when there is diagnostic uncertainty or coexistence of COPD and asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhaled beclomethasone (BDP) 200 mcg twice daily for 10 days

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Treatment of Asthma in Adults

      In adults, the diagnosis of asthma can be challenging, especially when there is diagnostic uncertainty or when both asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are present. The British Thoracic Society recommends a 6-8 week treatment trial of inhaled beclomethasone (or equivalent) twice daily for patients with significant airflow obstruction. However, in patients with suspected inhaled corticosteroid resistance, a two-week treatment trial of oral prednisolone 30 mg daily is preferred.

      To help identify asthma, clinicians should assess FEV1 (or PEF) and/or symptoms before and after 400mcg inhaled salbutamol. A >400ml improvement in FEV1 to either b2 agonists or corticosteroid treatment strongly suggests underlying asthma. Serial peak flow measurements showing 20% or greater diurnal or day-to-day variability can also be used to help diagnose asthma.

      NICE NG115 further clarifies that a large response to bronchodilators or oral prednisolone (over 400 ml) can also help identify asthma. Clinically significant COPD is not present if the FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio return to normal with drug therapy. In cases of diagnostic uncertainty, a combination of these findings can be used to help diagnose asthma and guide treatment decisions.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old man with a history of psoriasis complains of dyspnoea during physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of psoriasis complains of dyspnoea during physical activity. Upon examination, his respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation is 94% on room air, heart rate is 90 beats per minute, and his chest reveals diffuse fine inspiratory crackles. Spirometry shows an FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.8. Which medication could be responsible for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Methotrexate can lead to pulmonary fibrosis, while there is no evidence to suggest that terbinafine, paracetamol, montelukast, and tramadol have this side effect. The onset of pulmonary fibrosis due to low-dose methotrexate use can occur within weeks to months.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 14 - You come across a 60-year-old woman who is feeling under the weather. She...

    Incorrect

    • You come across a 60-year-old woman who is feeling under the weather. She has been experiencing a productive cough for the past 3 days and is coughing up brown-green sputum. She feels feverish and lethargic. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis, which she has been dealing with for over 30 years. She has been taking etanercept for the past 3 years, and her condition is well controlled.

      During the examination, her temperature is recorded at 37.5 degrees Celsius, her respiratory rate is 17 breaths per minute, and her oxygen saturation levels are at 98%. Slight crackles are heard in the base of her left lung.

      You prescribe a 7-day course of amoxicillin for her lower respiratory tract infection and provide her with advice on how to manage her worsening condition.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A patient with RA taking etanercept who develops an infection needs to stop the etanercept until the infection is cleared

      Explanation:

      Patients with RA who are taking etanercept are at a higher risk of developing infections, including chest infections and sepsis. If an infection does occur, it is important to discontinue the use of etanercept until the infection has been cleared. Additionally, biologic therapy can increase the risk of TB or reactivation of latent TB, and patients on this type of therapy require regular blood monitoring. This includes a full blood count, urea and electrolytes (with creatinine), and liver function tests initially, followed by monitoring every 6 months once stable, unless there is a clinical need for more frequent monitoring.

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) management has been transformed by the introduction of disease-modifying therapies in recent years. Patients with joint inflammation should begin a combination of disease-modifying drugs (DMARD) as soon as possible. Other important treatment options include analgesia, physiotherapy, and surgery.

      In 2018, NICE updated their guidelines for RA management, recommending DMARD monotherapy with or without a short course of bridging prednisolone as the initial step. Previously, dual DMARD therapy was advocated. To monitor response to treatment, NICE suggests using a combination of CRP and disease activity (using a composite score such as DAS28).

      Flares of RA are often managed with corticosteroids, either orally or intramuscularly. Methotrexate is the most commonly used DMARD, but monitoring of FBC & LFTs is essential due to the risk of myelosuppression and liver cirrhosis. Other important side-effects include pneumonitis. Other DMARDs include sulfasalazine, leflunomide, and hydroxychloroquine.

      TNF-inhibitors are indicated for patients who have had an inadequate response to at least two DMARDs, including methotrexate. Etanercept is a recombinant human protein that acts as a decoy receptor for TNF-α and is administered subcutaneously. Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to TNF-α and prevents it from binding with TNF receptors, and is administered intravenously. Adalimumab is also a monoclonal antibody, administered subcutaneously. Risks associated with TNF-inhibitors include reactivation of tuberculosis and demyelination.

      Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody that results in B-cell depletion. Two 1g intravenous infusions are given two weeks apart, but infusion reactions are common. Abatacept is a fusion protein that modulates a key signal required for activation of T lymphocytes, leading to decreased T-cell proliferation and cytokine production. It is given as an infusion but is not currently recommended by NICE.

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  • Question 15 - A patient of yours with COPD who is in his 60s wants to...

    Incorrect

    • A patient of yours with COPD who is in his 60s wants to travel to Spain on holiday. He plans to fly, but is prepared to drive and take the ferry if you tell him that he is not fit to do so.

      You currently manage his COPD with a high dose seretide inhaler and PRN salbutamol. On examination at the surgery he looks relatively well. He has good bilateral air entry on auscultation of his chest and sparse bilateral wheeze.

      How far should he be able to walk without shortness of breath to be able to fly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 25 m

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Safe Air Travel

      When it comes to air travel, there are certain guidelines that need to be followed to ensure a safe journey. One of the most important factors is the ability to walk 50 meters on level ground or climb one flight of stairs without experiencing shortness of breath. This is usually indicative of being able to fly without any issues.

      Another important consideration is the hypoxic challenge test, which mimics the conditions on the plane. If the PaO2 level is less than 55 mmHg, it is not recommended to fly. At rest, the oxygen saturation level should be 95% or higher.

      If you have had a pneumothorax, it is recommended to wait for at least two weeks before considering air travel. This is especially important if the pneumothorax has been conservatively managed. Only after there is evidence that the pneumothorax has resolved should you consider flying.

      By following these guidelines, you can ensure a safe and comfortable air travel experience.

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  • Question 16 - A six-year-old has been brought to the GP by his mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A six-year-old has been brought to the GP by his mother due to frequent episodes of shortness of breath and wheeze during physical education lessons at school and when out playing with friends. He also has been coughing and complaining of chest tightness at night. Examination and vital signs are within normal limits. Peak flow is slightly reduced based on height.

      What is the most appropriate next step for diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spirometry and bronchodilator reversibility testing

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, the diagnosis of asthma in adults should include bronchodilator reversibility testing, while children aged 5-16 should also undergo this test if feasible. Fractional exhaled nitrous oxide (FeNO) testing is not recommended as the initial step for diagnosing asthma in children, but may be considered in cases of diagnostic uncertainty where spirometry is normal or obstructive with negative bronchodilator reversibility. Methacholine bronchial challenge is not used in children and should only be considered in adults if other tests have not provided a clear diagnosis. Peak flow readings may be offered in children aged 5-16 with normal or obstructive spirometry and positive FeNO. While symptoms may indicate asthma, further objective testing is necessary, starting with spirometry and bronchodilator reversibility testing in children aged 5-16. A diagnosis of asthma in this age group may be made with positive bronchodilator reversibility or positive FeNO with positive peak flow variability.

      Asthma diagnosis has been updated by NICE guidelines in 2017, which emphasizes the use of objective tests rather than subjective/clinical judgments. The guidance recommends the use of fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO) test, which measures the level of nitric oxide produced by inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils. Other established objective tests such as spirometry and peak flow variability are still important. All patients aged five and above should have objective tests to confirm the diagnosis. For patients aged 17 and above, spirometry with a bronchodilator reversibility (BDR) test and FeNO test should be performed. For children aged 5-16, spirometry with a BDR test and FeNO test should be requested if there is normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative BDR test. For patients under five years old, diagnosis should be made based on clinical judgment. The specific points about the tests include a FeNO level of >= 40 ppb for adults and >= 35 ppb for children considered positive, and a FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% or below the lower limit of normal considered obstructive for spirometry. A positive reversibility test is indicated by an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more for adults, and an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more for children.

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  • Question 17 - A 72-year-old male presents with worsening shortness of breath for the past week....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents with worsening shortness of breath for the past week. He has a history of COPD and smokes around 15 cigarettes a day. He has had a chronic cough for several years, which has not changed in character recently. On chest auscultation, he has reduced air entry throughout, diffuse wheeze, and no focal crepitations. His respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min, his temperature is 37.50ºC, and his oxygen saturations are 94% on air. His heart rate and blood pressure are within normal limits.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase use of bronchodilator inhaler and prescribe a five day course of oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, oral antibiotics should only be given to patients with acute exacerbation of COPD if they have purulent sputum or clinical signs of pneumonia. Since the patient in question doesn’t exhibit any signs of bacterial pneumonia, such as a change in cough or clinical signs of consolidation, NICE recommends a trial of steroids with increased inhaler use as the first line of treatment.

      Based on the information provided, the patient’s observations are reasonable, and hospital admission is not necessary. However, she should be monitored for any deterioration, and a tool like CURB65 can be used to guide decisions regarding hospital admission.

      If there are specific markers of infection clinically, such as focal consolidation or purulent sputum, a combination of amoxicillin and prednisolone may be indicated. It is important for patients with COPD to continue using their inhalers, especially when they are unwell.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.

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  • Question 18 - A 59-year-old presents with a complaint of breathlessness that has been ongoing for...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old presents with a complaint of breathlessness that has been ongoing for six months. The patient recently underwent spirometry testing with the practice nurse and the post bronchodilator results are as follows:
      • FEV1/FVC ratio: 0.64
      • FEV1 (% predicted) 60%
      Despite receiving a short acting muscarinic antagonist from a colleague, the patient reports persistent breathlessness. Based on NICE guidance, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer Long Acting Beta Agonist + Long Acting Muscarinic Antagonist

      Explanation:

      Management of Moderate COPD

      Patients with an FEV1/FVC ratio <0.70 and an FEV1 of 50-79% predicted are classified as having stage 2 moderate COPD. The initial management for such patients would be a short acting beta agonist or a short acting muscarinic antagonist. However, if symptoms persist, NICE recommends the use of a long acting beta agonist plus a long acting muscarinic antagonist. In cases where a long acting muscarinic antagonist is given, the short acting muscarinic antagonist should be stopped.

      Inhaled corticosteroids alone are not recommended for moderate COPD. Instead, they should be used in combination with a long acting beta agonist as a second line treatment for patients with an FEV1 < 50%. Maintenance use of oral corticosteroid therapy in COPD is not normally recommended. Antitussive therapy is also not recommended.

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  • Question 19 - Your next patient is a 32-year-old teacher who has come for their annual...

    Incorrect

    • Your next patient is a 32-year-old teacher who has come for their annual review. Until around two years ago they used just a salbutamol inhaler as required. Following a series of exacerbations, they were started on a corticosteroid inhaler and currently takes Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) 400mcg bd. The patient reports that their asthma control has been 'good' for the past six months or so. They have had to use their asthma inhaler twice over the past six months, both times after going for a long jog. Their peak flow today is 520 l/min which is 90% of the best value recorded 5 years ago but up from the 510 l/min recorded 12 months ago. Their inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease the Clenil dose to 200mcg bd

      Explanation:

      If asthma is well controlled, it is advisable to reduce the treatment, as per the guidelines of the British Thoracic Society.

      Stepping Down Asthma Treatment: BTS Guidelines

      The British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends that asthma treatment should be reviewed every three months to consider stepping down treatment. However, the guidelines do not suggest a strict move from one step to another but rather advise taking into account the duration of treatment, side-effects, and patient preference. When reducing the dose of inhaled steroids, the BTS suggests doing so by 25-50% at a time.

      Patients with stable asthma may only require a formal review once a year. However, if a patient has recently had an escalation of asthma treatment, they are likely to be reviewed more frequently. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of treatment for their asthma and to avoid unnecessary side-effects.

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  • Question 20 - A 68-year-old man presents with a dry cough and progressive exertional dyspnoea that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a dry cough and progressive exertional dyspnoea that has been worsening over the past nine months. He quit smoking 30 years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles and finger clubbing are noted, while his oxygen saturations are 97% on room air and respiratory rate is 14/min. The following investigations were conducted:

      B-type natriuretic peptide 88 pg/ml (< 100pg/ml)

      ECG: sinus rhythm, 72/min

      Spirometry

      FEV1 1.57 L (50% of predicted)
      FVC 1.63 L (39% of predicted)
      FEV1/FVC 96%

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      A common scenario for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis involves a man between the ages of 50 and 70 who experiences worsening shortness of breath during physical activity. This is often accompanied by clubbing of the fingers and a spirometry test that shows a restrictive pattern. The absence of elevated B-type natriuretic peptide levels makes it highly unlikely that the patient is suffering from heart failure.

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is commonly seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is twice as common in men. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation.

      To diagnose IPF, spirometry is used to show a restrictive picture, with FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, and FEV1/FVC increased. Impaired gas exchange is also observed, with reduced transfer factor (TLCO). Imaging tests such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scanning are used to confirm the diagnosis. ANA is positive in 30% of cases, while rheumatoid factor is positive in 10%, but this doesn’t necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease.

      Management of IPF involves pulmonary rehabilitation, and very few medications have been shown to give any benefit in IPF. Pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will require supplementary oxygen and eventually a lung transplant. Unfortunately, the prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years.

      In summary, IPF is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. It is diagnosed through spirometry and imaging tests, and management involves pulmonary rehabilitation and medication. However, the prognosis for IPF is poor, and patients may require a lung transplant.

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  • Question 21 - You see a 35-year-old patient in your morning emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 35-year-old patient in your morning emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone 400 micrograms daily for her asthma. She is currently using her salbutamol more often than normal. Over the past two weeks she has been suffering with a 'cold' and feels her breathing has worsened. She is bringing up a small amount of white phlegm but doesn't complain of fevers. She tends to become wheezy (particularly at night). There are no associated chest pains but she does feel her chest is tight.

      On examination, she is afebrile and her oxygen saturations of 95% in air. Her peak flow is 340 L/min (usually 475 L/min). She is able to speak in full sentences. Her respiratory rate is 20 respirations per minute and pulse is 88 bpm.

      What would be the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe 40 mg prednisolone daily for five days

      Explanation:

      Management of Acute Asthma Symptoms

      Several important points should be considered when managing a patient with acute asthma symptoms. Firstly, it is important to note if the patient is already taking preventative treatment for asthma. If they are, an increase in the use of their salbutamol inhaler may indicate that their symptoms are worse than usual. Secondly, recent viral infections can trigger asthma symptoms. Additionally, the absence of discoloured thick phlegm and fever makes it less likely that the patient has a bacterial infection and therefore doesn’t require antibiotic therapy.

      When managing acute asthma symptoms, it is important to note that changing inhalers may not be appropriate at this stage. Oxygen therapy is not necessary if the patient’s oxygen saturations are above 94% in air. A nebuliser may not be indicated if the patient’s breathing rate is not compromised and they are clinically stable. It may be beneficial to initially try a salbutamol inhaler before ipratropium bromide. These considerations can help guide the management of acute asthma symptoms.

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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old man who has smoked for 35 years has several other symptoms.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who has smoked for 35 years has several other symptoms.

      Which symptom according to NICE guidance supports the diagnosis of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Childhood asthma

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Risk Factors for COPD

      A diagnosis of COPD should be considered in patients who are over 35 years old and have a risk factor, typically smoking. If a patient presents with one or more of the following symptoms, they should be evaluated for COPD: exertional breathlessness, chronic cough, regular sputum production, frequent winter bronchitis, or wheeze. However, chest pain and haemoptysis are uncommon and should lead to consideration of an alternative diagnosis. It is important to recognize these symptoms and risk factors in order to diagnose and treat COPD early, which can improve patient outcomes and quality of life.

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  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old smoker visits his GP clinic.

    As per the NICE guidelines for...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old smoker visits his GP clinic.

      As per the NICE guidelines for identifying and referring suspected cancer (NG12), which of the following symptoms would necessitate an urgent chest x-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Suspected rib fracture

      Explanation:

      Referral and Assessment Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Persistent haemoptysis, superior vena caval obstruction, and stridor are all red flags for possible lung cancer and require immediate referral to a cancer specialist. In addition, NICE NG12 recommends an urgent chest X-ray within two weeks for individuals aged 40 and over who have unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, especially if they have a history of smoking. For those with persistent or recurrent chest infections, finger clubbing, supraclavicular or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis, an urgent chest X-ray should also be considered. Early detection and referral can improve outcomes for individuals with lung cancer.

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  • Question 24 - A 57-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with pneumonia...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She was diagnosed with pneumonia six weeks ago after experiencing flu-like symptoms and a productive cough. Despite having no history of asthma, she quit smoking three years ago due to hypertension. A chest x-ray was performed and showed consolidation in the left lower zone, but no pleural effusion or abnormal heart size. She was treated with amoxicillin for a week and her symptoms improved. Now, six weeks later, a follow-up x-ray shows that the consolidation has improved but not completely resolved. Her cough is mostly gone and is no longer productive, and she has not experienced any coughing up of blood or weight loss. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to the chest clinic

      Explanation:

      As an ex-smoker, this woman is experiencing a gradual improvement in her consolidation, but she still has a persistent cough. It is recommended that she be referred for further evaluation under the 2 week wait rule to rule out the possibility of lung cancer.

      Referral Guidelines for Lung Cancer

      Lung cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. The 2015 NICE cancer referral guidelines provide clear advice on when to refer patients for suspected lung cancer. According to these guidelines, patients should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within 2 weeks if they have chest x-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or are aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis.

      For patients aged 40 and over who have 2 or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, an urgent chest x-ray should be offered within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer. This recommendation also applies to patients who have ever smoked and have 1 or more of these unexplained symptoms.

      In addition, patients aged 40 and over with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be considered for an urgent chest x-ray within 2 weeks to assess for lung cancer.

      Overall, these guidelines provide clear and specific recommendations for healthcare professionals to identify and refer patients with suspected lung cancer for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 25 - What PEFR variation over a two-week period is indicative of asthma diagnosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What PEFR variation over a two-week period is indicative of asthma diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less than 10% variation or less than 30 litres per minute on any day

      Explanation:

      Tests for Diagnosing Asthma

      The diagnosis of asthma can be challenging, but there are several tests available to help healthcare professionals make an accurate diagnosis. One such test is peak expiratory flow (PEF) variability, which involves measuring PEF readings four or more times per day. A variation of more than 20% is highly suggestive of asthma, although some patients may have lower variability.

      Other tests include fractional exhaled nitric oxide (FeNO), spirometry, and bronchodilator reversibility. FeNO levels of 40 parts per billion or more are considered positive for asthma in patients aged 17 and over. Obstructive spirometry, indicated by a forced expiratory volume in 1 second/forced vital capacity (FEV1/FVC) ratio of less than 70%, is also a positive test. Bronchodilator reversibility is positive if there is an improvement in FEV1 of 12% or more and an increase in volume of 200 ml or more in patients aged 17 and over.

      It is important to note that there are caveats and age limitations to these tests, and healthcare professionals should refer to the latest NICE guidance NG80 for more detailed information.

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  • Question 26 - You see a 55-year-old lady with shortness of breath on exertion and a...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 55-year-old lady with shortness of breath on exertion and a chronic non-productive cough. She quit smoking 5 years ago and reports no weight loss. On examination, you note clubbing and fine bilateral crackles.

      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

      Explanation:

      Consider Pulmonary Fibrosis in Patients with Persistent Breathlessness and Clubbing

      It is crucial to consider a diagnosis of pulmonary fibrosis in patients who present with persistent breathlessness, dry cough, bilateral inspiratory crackles, and clubbing of the fingers. While COPD may be a possibility, it would not explain the presence of clubbing. Heart failure typically presents with other features such as orthopnoea, peripheral oedema, and a raised JVP. Bronchiectasis usually has a productive cough, and a pulmonary embolism typically presents more acutely with chest pain and without clubbing or bi-basal crackles. Therefore, it is essential to consider pulmonary fibrosis as a potential diagnosis in patients with these symptoms. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help improve patient outcomes and quality of life.

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  • Question 27 - A 58-year-old complains of breathlessness for four months.
    She has recently seen the practice...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old complains of breathlessness for four months.
      She has recently seen the practice nurse for spirometry testing and these are her post bronchodilator results:
      FEV1/FVC ratio 0.60
      FEV1 (% predicted) 65%
      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhaled corticosteroids

      Explanation:

      Initial Management for COPD

      The most appropriate initial management for COPD would be a short acting beta agonist or a short acting muscarinic antagonist. According to the Guidelines in Practice summary, a LAMA+LABA combination should be offered to people with spirometrically confirmed COPD who do not have asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness and remain breathless or have exacerbations despite other treatments. LABA+ICS should be considered for those with asthmatic features or steroid responsiveness. Antitussive therapy is not recommended, but a mucolytic can be considered for those with a chronic productive cough. In this breathless patient, a short acting muscarinic antagonist is the better choice. By optimizing non-pharmacological management and relevant vaccinations, patients can improve their symptoms and quality of life.

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  • Question 28 - What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the single correct statement concerning the use of inhaled corticosteroids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hoarseness is a side-effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Inhaled Corticosteroids: Uses, Benefits, and Side Effects

      Inhaled corticosteroids are commonly used to manage reversible and irreversible airways disease. They can also help distinguish between asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) when used for 3-4 weeks. If there is clear improvement over this period, it suggests asthma. In COPD, inhaled corticosteroids can reduce exacerbations when combined with an inhaled long-acting beta2 agonist. However, it’s important to use corticosteroid inhalers regularly for maximum benefit, and improvement of symptoms usually occurs within 3-7 days.

      While inhaled corticosteroids are generally safe, high doses used for prolonged periods can induce adrenal suppression. However, in children, growth restriction associated with systemic corticosteroid therapy and high dose inhaled corticosteroids doesn’t seem to occur with recommended doses. Although initial growth velocity may be reduced, there appears to be no effect on achieving normal adult height. The most common side-effects are hoarseness, throat irritation, and candidiasis of the mouth or throat. Candidiasis can be reduced by using a spacer device and rinsing the mouth with water or cleaning a child’s teeth after taking a dose. Paradoxical bronchospasm is a rare occurrence.

      In summary, inhaled corticosteroids are a valuable tool in managing airways disease, but it’s important to use them as directed and be aware of potential side-effects. With proper use, they can provide significant relief and improve quality of life for those with asthma and COPD.

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  • Question 29 - A 38-year-old woman with symptoms of anxiety presents to the clinic with complaints...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with symptoms of anxiety presents to the clinic with complaints of intermittent pleuritic chest pain. She reports experiencing the pain particularly when she is stressed at work or unexpectedly exercising. On one occasion, she has fainted, and she sometimes experiences pins and needles around her mouth and in both hands. She has a history of mild asthma and uses PRN salbutamol. All tests, including ECG, peak flow rate, full blood count, thyroid function, and pulse oximetry, are normal. What is the most appropriate plan for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Cognitive Therapy and Breathing Exercises for Hyperventilation Syndrome

      Two studies have shown that cognitive therapy and breathing exercises can effectively treat hyperventilation syndrome. This condition often leads to pleuritic chest pain without any apparent cause. During therapy sessions, specific anxiety triggers can be identified and addressed. However, for those with chronic hyperventilation syndrome, cognitive therapy and breathing exercises can provide relief and improve overall quality of life. With these treatments, patients can learn to control their breathing and reduce symptoms of hyperventilation syndrome.

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  • Question 30 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with symptoms of a respiratory tract...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic with symptoms of a respiratory tract infection, including cough, shortness of breath, confusion, and diarrhea. He has recently returned from a long-term stay at a hotel in Spain. During the examination, you note a temperature of 39.2°C and signs of consolidation in the right lower lobe. Blood tests reveal an elevated white count and a sodium level of 128. What is the most appropriate statement regarding this man's pneumonia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long-term lung damage is common

      Explanation:

      Legionnaires Disease: Symptoms, Causes, and Treatment

      Legionnaires disease is a severe form of pneumonia caused by Legionella pneumophila, a Gram-negative bacillus. The disease is usually acquired from infected water supplies in cooling towers and air conditioning units. Although it is difficult to acquire, with a low attack rate of 5%, elderly individuals, smokers, and those with pre-existing chest disease are at a higher risk of developing the condition.

      The symptoms of Legionnaires disease are similar to those of the flu, including high fever (usually above 40°C), myalgias, and confusion. Treatment involves the use of ciprofloxacin or macrolides, and recovery is usually complete. However, if left untreated, the mortality rate can be as high as 15-20%.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Health (1/2) 50%
Passmed