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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man presents with a dry cough and progressive exertional dyspnoea that...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with a dry cough and progressive exertional dyspnoea that has been worsening over the past nine months. He quit smoking 30 years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day. Upon examination, fine bibasal crackles and finger clubbing are noted, while his oxygen saturations are 97% on room air and respiratory rate is 14/min. The following investigations were conducted:

      B-type natriuretic peptide 88 pg/ml (< 100pg/ml)

      ECG: sinus rhythm, 72/min

      Spirometry

      FEV1 1.57 L (50% of predicted)
      FVC 1.63 L (39% of predicted)
      FEV1/FVC 96%

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lung cancer

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      A common scenario for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis involves a man between the ages of 50 and 70 who experiences worsening shortness of breath during physical activity. This is often accompanied by clubbing of the fingers and a spirometry test that shows a restrictive pattern. The absence of elevated B-type natriuretic peptide levels makes it highly unlikely that the patient is suffering from heart failure.

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is commonly seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is twice as common in men. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as progressive exertional dyspnea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation.

      To diagnose IPF, spirometry is used to show a restrictive picture, with FEV1 normal/decreased, FVC decreased, and FEV1/FVC increased. Impaired gas exchange is also observed, with reduced transfer factor (TLCO). Imaging tests such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scanning are used to confirm the diagnosis. ANA is positive in 30% of cases, while rheumatoid factor is positive in 10%, but this doesn’t necessarily mean that the fibrosis is secondary to a connective tissue disease.

      Management of IPF involves pulmonary rehabilitation, and very few medications have been shown to give any benefit in IPF. Pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will require supplementary oxygen and eventually a lung transplant. Unfortunately, the prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years.

      In summary, IPF is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. It is diagnosed through spirometry and imaging tests, and management involves pulmonary rehabilitation and medication. However, the prognosis for IPF is poor, and patients may require a lung transplant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 2 - Which statement about obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is accurate?

      Your Answer: doesn't improve with tonsillectomy

      Correct Answer: Is associated with thyroid dysfunction

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options and Risks for Obstructive Sleep Apnoea

      Obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) is a condition that affects breathing during sleep, leading to interrupted sleep and daytime fatigue. In the UK, the Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (UPPP) treatment is used for simple snoring, while in the USA, it is used to treat OSA with a success rate of around 65%. Tonsillectomy can also benefit some cases. However, successful treatment with continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP) is the most effective way to reduce the risk of road traffic accidents (RTA) to normal levels and doesn’t exclude the sufferer from holding any type of driving licence. The risk of RTA, untreated, is estimated to be eight times normal. OSA is also associated with hypothyroidism and acromegaly, according to a study published in the Medicine Journal in May 2008. It is important to consider the various treatment options and risks associated with OSA to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old man presents with a complaint of a sore throat. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man presents with a complaint of a sore throat. What is not included in the Centor criteria for evaluating the probability of a bacterial origin?

      Your Answer: Absence of cough

      Correct Answer: Duration > 5 days

      Explanation:

      In 2008, NICE released guidelines for the management of respiratory tract infections in primary care, specifically focusing on the prescribing of antibiotics for self-limiting infections in both adults and children. The guidelines recommend a no antibiotic or delayed antibiotic prescribing approach for acute otitis media, acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis, common cold, acute rhinosinusitis, and acute cough/acute bronchitis. However, an immediate antibiotic prescribing approach may be considered for certain patients, such as children under 2 years with bilateral acute otitis media or patients with acute sore throat/acute pharyngitis/acute tonsillitis who have 3 or more Centor criteria present. The guidelines also suggest advising patients on the expected duration of their respiratory tract infection. If a patient is deemed at risk of developing complications, an immediate antibiotic prescribing policy is recommended. This includes patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs suggestive of serious illness and/or complications, or are at high risk of serious complications due to pre-existing comorbidity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 4 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a persistent cough and two episodes of haemoptysis...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a persistent cough and two episodes of haemoptysis over the past six weeks. She is an ex-smoker who quit 10 years ago after smoking 20 cigarettes a day for 30 years. A chest x-ray four weeks ago was normal, but her symptoms have persisted. On examination, she appears well and is not short of breath. Blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, pulse rate is 70 bpm regular, and oxygen saturations are 98% in room air. Lung fields are clear, and there is no cyanosis, anaemia, or peripheral oedema. What is the most appropriate management strategy?

      Your Answer: Refer the patient urgently to a respiratory physician

      Correct Answer: Admit the patient to hospital immediately as a medical emergency

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Referral of Suspected Lung Cancer Patients

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has issued guidelines for the recognition and referral of suspected lung cancer patients. According to the guidelines, patients aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis should be referred urgently for an appointment within two weeks, even if their chest x-ray is normal. Additionally, patients with two or more unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss, or those with persistent or recurrent chest infection, finger clubbing, supraclavicular lymphadenopathy or persistent cervical lymphadenopathy, chest signs consistent with lung cancer, or thrombocytosis should be offered an urgent chest x-ray within two weeks to assess for lung cancer. These guidelines aim to ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of lung cancer, which is crucial for improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents for follow-up. Over the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of asthma presents for follow-up. Over the last couple of years, she has experienced approximately six asthma exacerbations that necessitated oral steroid treatment. Her current regimen consists of beclomethasone 200 mcg 1 puff bd and salbutamol 2 puffs prn. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m^2, is a non-smoker, and has demonstrated proper inhaler technique. What is the most suitable course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add oral montelukast

      Explanation:

      As per the NICE 2017 guidelines, if a patient with asthma is not effectively managed with a SABA + ICS, their treatment plan should include the addition of a LTRA instead of a LABA. In this case, since the patient is already taking a short-acting beta-agonist and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid, the recommended course of action would be to offer them an oral leukotriene receptor antagonist. This is in contrast to the previous BTS guidance which would have suggested the use of a long-acting beta-agonist in such a scenario.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 British Thoracic Society (BTS) guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist, not a LABA. NICE doesn’t follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. It should be noted that NICE doesn’t recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance.

      The steps for managing asthma in adults are as follows: for newly-diagnosed asthma, a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If the patient is not controlled on the previous step or has symptoms >= 3/week or night-time waking, a SABA + low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is recommended. For step 3, a SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is recommended. Step 4 involves a SABA + low-dose ICS + long-acting beta agonist (LABA), and LTRA should be continued depending on the patient’s response. Step 5 involves a SABA +/- LTRA, and switching ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) that includes a low-dose ICS. Step 6 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + medium-dose ICS MART, or changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA. Step 7 involves a SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options: increasing ICS to high-dose (only as part of a fixed-dose regime, not as a MART), a trial of an additional drug (for example, a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist or theophylline), or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma.

      It is important to note that the definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have changed. For adults, <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budes

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of intermittent shortness of breath. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old construction worker presents with complaints of intermittent shortness of breath. He reports experiencing wheezing and coughing while on the job. The possibility of occupational asthma is being considered. What is the most suitable diagnostic test for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serial peak flow measurements at work and at home

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 7 - What is the suggested starting dosage of oral prednisolone for the treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the suggested starting dosage of oral prednisolone for the treatment of acute severe asthma in adults?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 60 mg daily for at least 10 days

      Explanation:

      Effective Treatment for Acute Asthma

      When it comes to treating acute asthma, steroid tablets and injected steroids are equally effective. A dose of oral prednisolone of 40-50 mg per day for at least five days or intravenous hydrocortisone 400 mg can be used. It is important to continue taking prednisolone until recovery, which should be a minimum of five days. Additionally, it is important to not stop inhaled corticosteroids during the prescription of oral corticosteroids. By following these key points, patients can effectively manage their acute asthma symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 8 - A 24-year-old man is seen with a severe asthma exacerbation, which is typically...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man is seen with a severe asthma exacerbation, which is typically controlled with maximal inhaled corticosteroid and LABA. He has presented with worsening symptoms of cough and wheeze, which his partner reports began two days ago with a heavy cold. What is the appropriate clinical management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal heart rate is always associated with a good prognosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tachycardia and Bradycardia in Acute Asthma

      Tachycardia is a common symptom in acute asthma, but severe attacks may also lead to episodes of bradycardia. A peak flow measurement of only 30% of predicted indicates severe airway obstruction and requires immediate admission and aggressive treatment. While oximetry is useful for assessing oxygenation, it cannot provide information on CO2 retention or acid-base status. Therefore, high-flow oxygen should always be administered in the management of acute asthma.

      Understanding the symptoms and measurements associated with acute asthma is crucial for effective management. Tachycardia and bradycardia are two possible heart rate changes that may occur during an asthma attack. Additionally, a peak flow measurement of 30% or less of predicted indicates severe airway obstruction and requires prompt medical attention. While oximetry is useful for assessing oxygenation, it cannot provide a complete picture of the patient’s respiratory status. Therefore, high-flow oxygen should always be given to patients with acute asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man presents with a productive cough and fever. He has smoked...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a productive cough and fever. He has smoked 20 cigarettes per day for 40 years.

      On examination he has dullness to percussion and reduced air entry at the right lung base. He doesn't have any pain and is not breathless. You arrange a chest x ray, prescribe antibiotics and review him in one week.

      He now feels better with less cough and no fever. His chest x ray reports an area of consolidation with a small pleural effusion at the right lung base. The radiologist recommends a follow up x ray in four weeks.

      When the patient returns for the result of the follow up x ray the radiologist reports that there is little change in the appearances.

      What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to a respiratory physician urgently

      Explanation:

      Importance of Thorough Respiratory Examination in Lung Cancer Diagnosis

      Pleural effusion and slowly resolving consolidation may indicate lung cancer, requiring urgent referral to a respiratory physician under the two week wait criteria. However, a comprehensive examination is necessary to avoid missing an effusion. Simply auscultating the chest is insufficient. A thorough respiratory examination, including noting any deviation of the trachea, percussion note, and tactile vocal fremitus, can provide important clues and need not significantly prolong the examination time. Failure to perform a thorough examination or investigation of malignancy is a contributing factor to delay in cancer diagnosis, according to the NPSA. In this case, the patient’s smoking history and slow-to-resolve consolidation further support the need for urgent referral and detailed imaging to reveal any underlying cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 10 - Your next patient is a 32-year-old teacher who has come for their annual...

    Incorrect

    • Your next patient is a 32-year-old teacher who has come for their annual review. Until around two years ago they used just a salbutamol inhaler as required. Following a series of exacerbations, they were started on a corticosteroid inhaler and currently takes Clenil (beclomethasone dipropionate) 400mcg bd. The patient reports that their asthma control has been 'good' for the past six months or so. They have had to use their asthma inhaler twice over the past six months, both times after going for a long jog. Their peak flow today is 520 l/min which is 90% of the best value recorded 5 years ago but up from the 510 l/min recorded 12 months ago. Their inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decrease the Clenil dose to 200mcg bd

      Explanation:

      If asthma is well controlled, it is advisable to reduce the treatment, as per the guidelines of the British Thoracic Society.

      Stepping Down Asthma Treatment: BTS Guidelines

      The British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends that asthma treatment should be reviewed every three months to consider stepping down treatment. However, the guidelines do not suggest a strict move from one step to another but rather advise taking into account the duration of treatment, side-effects, and patient preference. When reducing the dose of inhaled steroids, the BTS suggests doing so by 25-50% at a time.

      Patients with stable asthma may only require a formal review once a year. However, if a patient has recently had an escalation of asthma treatment, they are likely to be reviewed more frequently. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines to ensure that patients receive the appropriate level of treatment for their asthma and to avoid unnecessary side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 11 - A 61-year-old complains of breathlessness for six months.

    He has recently been to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old complains of breathlessness for six months.

      He has recently been to the hospital for spirometry testing and these are his post bronchodilator results:

      FEV1/FVC ratio 0.65

      FEV1 (% predicted) 57%

      A colleague has given him a short acting muscarinic antagonist but he has returned because he has persistent breathlessness.

      Which of the following would be included in the next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antitussive therapy

      Explanation:

      Management of Moderate COPD

      Patients with an FEV1/FVC ratio <0.70 and an FEV1 of 50-79% predicted are classified as having stage 2 moderate COPD. The initial management for this condition is a short acting beta agonist or a short acting muscarinic antagonist. However, if symptoms persist, a long acting beta agonist or a long acting muscarinic antagonist may be used. Inhaled corticosteroids alone are not recommended, but may be used in combination with a long acting beta agonist as a second line treatment for patients with FEV1 <50% and asthmatic features. Maintenance use of oral corticosteroid therapy is not recommended, and antitussive therapy should also be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 12 - As the duty doctor, you encounter a 59-year-old woman who complains of increased...

    Incorrect

    • As the duty doctor, you encounter a 59-year-old woman who complains of increased cough and wheeze for the past 3 days. The patient has a history of COPD and is currently taking salbutamol and umeclidinium/vilanterol (Anoro Ellipta). She has no other medical conditions, has not taken antibiotics for 2 years, and has not been admitted for acute exacerbation of COPD. The patient smokes 10 cigarettes daily and denies any changes in sputum production, colour, and thickness. Upon examination, she has mild wheezing and no focal chest signs. Her cardiovascular examination and vital signs are normal.

      Which of the following options should be excluded from your management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe oral antibiotics

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, oral antibiotics should only be prescribed in cases of acute exacerbation of COPD if there is purulent sputum or clinical signs of pneumonia. As this patient doesn’t exhibit these symptoms, prescribing oral antibiotics is not recommended.

      Instead, increasing the frequency of inhaled bronchodilators is a suitable step in managing this patient’s acute exacerbation of COPD. The patient’s mild wheeze should improve with this treatment.

      NICE recommends a review in 6 weeks if there is no rapid or significant worsening of symptoms. However, if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly, the patient should be reviewed sooner by the appropriate healthcare provider.

      Prescribing oral steroids is appropriate for managing this patient’s acute exacerbation of COPD as it can reduce inflammation and improve symptoms.

      It is also appropriate to discuss smoking cessation with the patient, as they are still smoking. However, it should be documented if the patient is not interested in considering smoking cessation. Any opportunity for smoking cessation advice should be utilized.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospitalization in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, such as Haemophilus influenza, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis, as well as respiratory viruses, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators, such as beta adrenergic agonists and muscarinic antagonists, should also be used. Steroid therapy and IV theophylline may be considered, and non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure. BiPAP is typically used with initial settings of EPAP at 4-5 cm H2O and IPAP at 10-15 cm H2O.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old man comes in for his regular asthma check-up. He is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes in for his regular asthma check-up. He is currently taking salbutamol and formoterol-beclomethasone (Fostair) for his asthma, but he informs you that he is not experiencing any relief from either medication. He was diagnosed with asthma through spirometry testing recently. He claims to be using the inhalers as prescribed but has some doubts about how to use them correctly. Both of his inhalers are pressurised metered-dose inhalers.

      What is the most suitable advice to give to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: After inhaling a dose of the medication, he should ideally hold his breath for 10 seconds

      Explanation:

      To ensure effective use of an inhaler, it is important to follow proper technique. Asthma UK provides helpful guidance on inhaler usage for different types of inhalers.

      For a pressurised metered dose inhaler, it is advised to hold your breath for 10 seconds after inhaling the medication. This allows sufficient time for the medication to reach the airways, rather than being exhaled prematurely.

      To use the inhaler, breathe in slowly and steadily while pressing down on the canister in one smooth motion. If a second dose is needed, wait for about 30 seconds before repeating to avoid any interference with the delivery of the medication.

      Proper Inhaler Technique for Metered-Dose Inhalers

      Metered-dose inhalers are commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). However, it is important to use them correctly to ensure that the medication is delivered effectively to the lungs. Here is a step-by-step guide to proper inhaler technique:

      1. Remove the cap and shake the inhaler.

      2. Breathe out gently.

      3. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and begin to breathe in slowly and deeply.

      4. As you start to inhale, press down on the canister to release the medication. Continue to inhale steadily and deeply.

      5. Hold your breath for 10 seconds, or as long as is comfortable.

      6. If a second dose is needed, wait approximately 30 seconds before repeating steps 1-5.

      It is important to note that inhalers should only be used for the number of doses specified on the label. Once the inhaler is empty, a new one should be started. By following these steps, patients can ensure that they are using their inhaler correctly and receiving the full benefits of their medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 14 - A 22-year-old male college student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old male college student comes to the clinic complaining of shortness of breath during physical activity that has been going on for two months. He denies any other symptoms and is a non-smoker. On examination, there are no abnormalities, and his full blood count and chest x-ray are normal. What is the most useful test to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for arterial blood studies before and after exercise

      Explanation:

      Confirming Exercise-Induced Asthma

      This patient is showing signs of exercise-induced asthma. To confirm this diagnosis, the most appropriate investigation would be spirometry before and after exercise. This is because exercise is the trigger for his asthma symptoms, and spirometry can measure any changes in lung function before and after physical activity. By comparing the results, doctors can determine if the patient has exercise-induced asthma and develop an appropriate treatment plan. It is important to confirm the diagnosis to ensure the patient receives the correct treatment and can continue to participate in physical activity safely.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 15 - You are working in the out-patient respiratory clinic where a 65-year-old male patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in the out-patient respiratory clinic where a 65-year-old male patient attends for follow-up. He has a diagnosis of COPD (FEV1/FVC= 0.68, FEV1=46% predicted) and currently smokes 30 cigarettes per day. He has noted progressive ankle swelling over last year but has not suffered any exacerbations in this time. He currently takes a tiotropium inhaler as well as a combination inhaler of salmeterol/fluticasone with a salbutamol inhaler when required, his inhaler technique has been assessed as good. In the clinic, his arterial blood gas results on air give a pO2 of 7.3kPa and 7.8kPa respectively from today and from clinic two months ago. He continues to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation therapy.

      The patient would like to be considered for home oxygen therapy. According to current NICE guidelines, what advice should you give him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Home oxygen is contraindicated as she is a current smoker

      Explanation:

      What are the indications for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) in COPD patients?

      In COPD patients, LTOT is typically indicated when their PaO2 is less than 7.3kPa when stable. However, this threshold is increased to less than 8kPa if they have secondary polycythemia, pulmonary hypertension, or peripheral edema. Arterial oxygen concentration should be assessed when stable and with at least two readings taken at least three weeks apart. To achieve the greatest effect, supplementary oxygen should be used for more than 20 hours per day, but a minimum of 15 hours per day is required.

      Maintenance oral corticosteroid use is not routinely recommended and should only be considered when it is not possible to fully wean steroids between exacerbations.

      As per the 2018 NICE update to the COPD guidelines, LTOT is no longer recommended for current smokers.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 16 - What statement about cough is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • What statement about cough is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiectasis is usually associated with purulent sputum

      Explanation:

      Cough Characteristics and Associated Conditions

      A bovine cough, resembling the sound of cattle, is often heard in cases of recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy, which is commonly caused by lung cancer. Bronchiectasis, on the other hand, is characterized by the production of large amounts of purulent sputum. In women, chronic cough without airways disease is more common, and reflux is often the underlying cause. In cases of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), a productive cough is typical, but it may become non-productive in the end stages of the disease. These distinct cough characteristics can provide valuable clues in diagnosing and managing various respiratory conditions.

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      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 17 - You have a practice nurse who performs spirometry for diagnosis of Chronic obstructive...

    Incorrect

    • You have a practice nurse who performs spirometry for diagnosis of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in the practice. She is updating the practice team about how to perform and interpret spirometry correctly.

      What is the appropriate number and quality of spirometry readings needed for precise evaluation of patients with respiratory conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients should keep having attempts at blowing until two sets of readings within 10% of each other are recorded

      Explanation:

      Spirometry Procedure for Health Care Providers

      To perform spirometry, a clean, disposable, one-way mouthpiece should be attached to the spirometer. The patient should be instructed to take a deep breath until their lungs feel full and then hold their breath long enough to seal their lips tightly around the mouthpiece. The patient should then blast the air out as forcibly and fast as possible until there is no more air left to expel, while the operator verbally encourages them to keep blowing and maintain a good mouth seal.

      It is important to watch the patient to ensure a good mouth seal is achieved and to check that an adequate trace has been achieved. The procedure can be repeated at least twice until three acceptable and repeatable blows are obtained, with a maximum of 8 efforts. Finally, there should be three readings, of which the best two are within 150 mL or 5% of each other. By following these steps, health care providers can accurately measure a patient’s lung function using spirometry.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 18 - You are conducting an annual COPD review for Mrs. Patel. You quickly refer...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting an annual COPD review for Mrs. Patel. You quickly refer to the latest NICE guidelines.

      Which of the following factors in her medical history would warrant the prescription of prophylactic antibiotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He has had 5 exacerbations in the past year

      Explanation:

      Patients with COPD who experience frequent exacerbations and meet specific criteria are recommended to undergo azithromycin prophylaxis. According to NICE guidelines, this treatment should be considered for non-smokers, patients who have already undergone pulmonary rehabilitation and are on the maximum inhaled therapy, and those who have had more than four exacerbations resulting in hospitalization with sputum production. Before starting the antibiotics, patients should undergo a CT scan to eliminate other lung pathologies.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

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  • Question 19 - A 29-year-old man presents with an acute exacerbation of asthma.

    On examination he has...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man presents with an acute exacerbation of asthma.

      On examination he has a respiratory rate of 20, a pulse rate of 104 bpm, a blood pressure of 98/70 mmHg and a peak expiratory flow rate 170 L/min (usual 500 L/min). Auscultation of the chest reveals diffuse bilateral polyphonic wheeze.

      As per the British Thoracic Society Guidelines for the management of asthma, which of his clinical findings would categorize his asthma exacerbation as a 'severe' attack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate

      Explanation:

      British Thoracic Society Guidelines for Asthma Management

      The British Thoracic Society has provided guidelines for the management of asthma, which is a potentially life-threatening condition. To categorize the severity of an acute asthma attack and guide management, parameters such as respiratory rate, pulse rate, and peak flow rate are essential. For instance, a peak flow rate of just over 33% of the patient’s best is considered an ‘acute severe’ attack.

      An ‘acute severe’ attack is defined as any one of the following: peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% best or predicted, respiratory rate of 25 or more per minute, heart rate of 110 or more beats per minute, or inability to complete sentences in one breath. On the other hand, a ‘life-threatening’ attack is defined as any of the following features in a patient with severe asthma: peak expiratory flow rate <33% best or predicted, oxygen saturation less than 92%, PaO2 of <8 kPa, normal PaCO2, silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, arrhythmia, or exhaustion/altered conscious level. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to ensure appropriate management of asthma and prevent life-threatening complications.

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  • Question 20 - You see a 28-year-old lady with an acute exacerbation of asthma. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 28-year-old lady with an acute exacerbation of asthma. She reports that she previously had a dry cough which has now become productive and is associated with increased difficulty in breathing. She is able to speak normally, has a PEFR 50% of her best. Her observations include: RR 24/min, O2 sats 95%, pulse 90 bpm and is apyrexial.

      On examination, a wheeze is heard bilaterally. There is no cyanosis or use of accessory muscles. She has already been given salbutamol nebulisers from the practice nurse. Three years ago, she had a life-threatening asthma exacerbation and reports this doesn't feel as bad as that.

      What would be the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discuss with on-call medical team

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance on Hospital Admission for Acute Asthma Exacerbations

      When it comes to acute asthma exacerbations, it is important to know when hospital admission is necessary. According to NICE guidance, a life-threatening asthma exacerbation is an obvious reason for hospitalization. However, there are cases where a severe or even moderate attack may require hospital monitoring and treatment.

      NICE advises clinicians to consider hospital admission for patients with severe asthma attacks that persist after initial bronchodilator treatment. This also applies to patients with moderate asthma exacerbations who have had a previous near-fatal asthma attack.

      For example, if a patient is experiencing a moderate exacerbation that may be developing into an acute severe exacerbation, hospital referral should be considered. This is evidenced by a PEFR of 50%, which is the lower end of a moderate attack, along with a potentially rising respiratory rate and heart rate. Even if the patient is not bordering on an acute severe exacerbation, a referral should be considered if they have previously had a life-threatening attack and have not responded adequately to nebulizers.

      While amoxicillin and prednisolone may be options, it is important to review the patient earlier than 48 hours if a referral to the hospital is not felt to be appropriate. Intramuscular methylprednisolone is considered as an alternative to oral prednisolone if the patient cannot swallow the medication. It is not recommended to increase the inhaled corticosteroid dose during an exacerbation as an alternative to oral corticosteroids.

      In summary, understanding NICE guidance on hospital admission for acute asthma exacerbations is crucial for clinicians to provide appropriate care for their patients.

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  • Question 21 - A 48-year-old woman who complains of exertional breathlessness presents to the clinic as...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman who complains of exertional breathlessness presents to the clinic as she is desperate to stop smoking. She has had a number of unsuccessful attempts to stop smoking over the years and has tried nicotine patches.

      Which of the following would be an appropriate choice to assist in her attempts at smoking cessation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varenicline

      Explanation:

      Varenicline: An Effective Anti-Smoking Agent

      Varenicline, also known as Champix, is an oral medication that helps individuals quit smoking. It has a dual action, reducing the craving for cigarettes and making smoking less pleasurable. Clinical trials have shown that Varenicline is more effective than both bupropion and placebo.

      The medication is prescribed for 12 weeks initially, and if cravings persist, a further 12-week course may be prescribed. Varenicline has been proven to be an effective tool in helping individuals quit smoking and can be a valuable addition to a comprehensive smoking cessation program.

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  • Question 22 - A 59-year-old presents with a complaint of breathlessness that has been ongoing for...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old presents with a complaint of breathlessness that has been ongoing for six months. The patient recently underwent spirometry testing with the practice nurse and the post bronchodilator results are as follows:
      • FEV1/FVC ratio: 0.64
      • FEV1 (% predicted) 60%
      Despite receiving a short acting muscarinic antagonist from a colleague, the patient reports persistent breathlessness. Based on NICE guidance, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer Long Acting Beta Agonist + Long Acting Muscarinic Antagonist

      Explanation:

      Management of Moderate COPD

      Patients with an FEV1/FVC ratio <0.70 and an FEV1 of 50-79% predicted are classified as having stage 2 moderate COPD. The initial management for such patients would be a short acting beta agonist or a short acting muscarinic antagonist. However, if symptoms persist, NICE recommends the use of a long acting beta agonist plus a long acting muscarinic antagonist. In cases where a long acting muscarinic antagonist is given, the short acting muscarinic antagonist should be stopped.

      Inhaled corticosteroids alone are not recommended for moderate COPD. Instead, they should be used in combination with a long acting beta agonist as a second line treatment for patients with an FEV1 < 50%. Maintenance use of oral corticosteroid therapy in COPD is not normally recommended. Antitussive therapy is also not recommended.

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  • Question 23 - You review a 65-year-old male who has just been diagnosed with chronic obstructive...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 65-year-old male who has just been diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) following clinical assessment and spirometry at your practice.

      Which of the following tests should always be performed in addition to spirometry in the initial diagnosis of COPD?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Electrocardiography

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for COPD

      In addition to spirometry, it is recommended that patients with COPD undergo several diagnostic tests at the time of diagnosis. These tests include a chest x-ray to rule out other potential lung pathologies, a full blood count to assess for anemia or polycythemia, and a calculation of body mass index.

      Depending on the patient’s history and examination findings, other diagnostic tests may be necessary. For example, if asthma is suspected, serial peak flow measurements may be indicated. If signs or symptoms of cor pulmonale are present, an ECG or echocardiogram may be necessary. By conducting these diagnostic tests, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose and manage COPD in their patients.

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  • Question 24 - What is the primary factor in deciding whether a patient with COPD, who...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary factor in deciding whether a patient with COPD, who is elderly, should be provided with long-term oxygen therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      If a person with COPD has two measurements of pO2 below 7.3 kPa, they should receive LTOT.

      Long-Term Oxygen Therapy for COPD Patients

      Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) is recommended for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who have severe or very severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, or oxygen saturations less than or equal to 92% on room air. LTOT involves breathing supplementary oxygen for at least 15 hours a day using oxygen concentrators.

      To assess patients for LTOT, arterial blood gases are measured on two occasions at least three weeks apart in patients with stable COPD on optimal management. Patients with a pO2 of less than 7.3 kPa or those with a pO2 of 7.3-8 kPa and secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension should be offered LTOT. However, LTOT should not be offered to people who continue to smoke despite being offered smoking cessation advice and treatment, and referral to specialist stop smoking services.

      Before offering LTOT, a structured risk assessment should be carried out to evaluate the risks of falls from tripping over the equipment, the risks of burns and fires, and the increased risk of these for people who live in homes where someone smokes (including e-cigarettes).

      Overall, LTOT is an important treatment option for COPD patients with severe or very severe airflow obstruction or other related symptoms.

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  • Question 25 - A 47-year-old male presents with frequent episodes of waking up in distress. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old male presents with frequent episodes of waking up in distress. He reports feeling breathless and his heart racing late at night. These episodes are causing him significant worry. His wife notes that he snores loudly and sometimes stops if he changes position. Additionally, he has been taking short naps during the day which is impacting his work as an IT technician. The patient has a history of type 2 diabetes and obesity.

      What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polysomnography (PSG)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome

      Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep due to a blockage in the airway. This can lead to a range of health problems, including daytime somnolence, respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. Partners of those with OSAHS often complain of excessive snoring and periods of apnoea.

      To assess sleepiness, patients may complete the Epworth Sleepiness Scale questionnaire, and undergo the Multiple Sleep Latency Test (MSLT) to measure the time it takes to fall asleep in a dark room. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies (polysomnography), which measure a range of physiological factors such as EEG, respiratory airflow, thoraco-abdominal movement, snoring, and pulse oximetry.

      Management of OSAHS includes weight loss and the use of continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as a first-line treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices, such as mandibular advancement, may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS without daytime sleepiness. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, they may be considered in certain cases.

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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old man who has smoked for 35 years has several other symptoms.

    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who has smoked for 35 years has several other symptoms.

      Which symptom according to NICE guidance supports the diagnosis of Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Childhood asthma

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Risk Factors for COPD

      A diagnosis of COPD should be considered in patients who are over 35 years old and have a risk factor, typically smoking. If a patient presents with one or more of the following symptoms, they should be evaluated for COPD: exertional breathlessness, chronic cough, regular sputum production, frequent winter bronchitis, or wheeze. However, chest pain and haemoptysis are uncommon and should lead to consideration of an alternative diagnosis. It is important to recognize these symptoms and risk factors in order to diagnose and treat COPD early, which can improve patient outcomes and quality of life.

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  • Question 27 - A 49-year-old female becomes ill after returning from a foreign holiday.

    She complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old female becomes ill after returning from a foreign holiday.

      She complains of a dry cough, myalgia, abdominal pain and diarrhoea. She has a temperature of 38.3°C and auscultation of the chest reveals bibasal crepitations.

      She had seen the out of hours GP two days previously who had prescribed her amoxicillin but this has not produced a clinical response.

      Blood tests show:

      Haemoglobin 136 g/L (130-180)

      WBC 14.1 ×109/L (4-11)

      Neutrophils 12.2 ×109/L (1.5-7)

      Lymphocytes 0.9 ×109/L (1.5-4)

      Sodium 121 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 4.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Urea 10.3 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 176 µmol/L (60-110)

      What is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii

      Explanation:

      Legionnaires Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Legionnaires disease is a type of pneumonia caused by the Gram-negative bacillus, Legionella pneumophilia. The disease is usually associated with contaminated water cooling systems, air conditioning units, or showers. However, sporadic cases can also occur. People who travel and stay in hotels or resorts with poorly maintained air conditioning or showers are at risk of exposure to the bacteria.

      The symptoms of Legionnaires disease can vary and may include gastrointestinal upset, flu-like symptoms, diarrhea, jaundice, headache, and confusion. Patients may also experience a decrease in their white blood cell count, resulting in lymphopenia. Additionally, the disease can cause the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), leading to hyponatremia. Abnormal liver and renal biochemistry occur in about half of patients.

      Amoxicillin is not an effective treatment for Legionnaires disease. Instead, macrolides such as erythromycin or clarithromycin are typically used. Some doctors prefer to use quinolones as the first choice of treatment.

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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and a cough for four weeks. Has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and a cough for four weeks. Has been a publican for 35 years. He is a lifelong non-smoker and drinks around 20 units of alcohol per week.

      He did not worry too much about his symptoms because he is a non-smoker, the amount of blood was very small and he also has a cold with a productive cough.

      He has no abnormality in his chest on examination.

      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange urgent admission to hospital

      Explanation:

      Lung Cancer and Passive Smoking

      According to NICE NG12 guidelines, individuals with chest X-ray findings that suggest lung cancer or those aged 40 and over with unexplained haemoptysis should be referred for an appointment within two weeks. While smoking is the leading cause of lung cancer, a small but significant proportion of cases are not linked to smoking. The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) evaluates evidence on the carcinogenic risk to humans of various exposures, including tobacco, alcohol, infections, radiation, occupational exposures, and medications. The World Cancer Research Fund/American Institute for Cancer Research (WCRF/AICR) evaluates evidence for other exposures, such as diet, overweight and obesity, and physical exercise.

      Living with someone who smokes increases the risk of lung cancer in non-smokers by about a quarter. Exposure to passive smoke in the home is estimated to cause around 11,000 deaths every year in the UK from lung cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease. This patient, who is not a smoker, has worked for many years in an environment where he would have been exposed to significant levels of smoke over a prolonged period (passive smoking), which is a risk factor for lung cancer. It is important to note that the smoking ban in public places was only introduced in the UK over the period 2006 to 2007, so individuals like this patient would have been exposed to passive smoke for many years before this time.

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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and pleuritic chest pain.

    Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and pleuritic chest pain.

      Her medical history includes a deep vein thrombosis affecting the right leg eight years ago. She is not on any current regular medication.

      On examination, her heart rate is 108 bpm, blood pressure is 104/68, respiratory rate is 24, oxygen saturations are 94% in room air and she is afebrile. She has no calf or leg swelling.

      You suspect she might have a pulmonary embolism and there is nothing to find to suggest an alternative cause.

      You calculate her two-level PE Wells score.

      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit as an emergency

      Explanation:

      Calculating the Wells Score for Pulmonary Embolism

      To determine the likelihood of a patient having a pulmonary embolism (PE), healthcare professionals use the Wells score. This score is calculated based on several factors, including clinical examination consistent with deep vein thrombosis, pulse rate, immobilization or recent surgery, past medical history, haemoptysis, cancer, and the likelihood of an alternative diagnosis.

      If the two-level Wells score is more than 4 points, hospital admission should be arranged for an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram. If the score is 4 or lower, a D-dimer blood test should be arranged. A negative result may indicate an alternative diagnosis, while a positive result should be managed the same way as a two-level Wells score of more than 4.

      It is important to note that HASBLED and CHADS2VASC scoring are used in the management of patients with atrial fibrillation, not pulmonary embolism. By using the Wells score, healthcare professionals can quickly and accurately determine the likelihood of a patient having a PE and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old man presents with a one week history of a productive cough....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a one week history of a productive cough. He has no past medical history of any cardiorespiratory disease and is a lifelong non-smoker. He reports that his cough is not improving and that he is now coughing up some 'thick green phlegm'. He denies any coughing up blood.
      Upon examination, he is alert and oriented, with a temperature of 37.6°C, a regular pulse rate of 94 bpm, a respiratory rate of 16, and a blood pressure of 124/68 mmHg. Chest auscultation reveals coarse crepitations in the left lower zone with some bronchial breath sounds.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No immediate treatment, send him for a chest x ray to guide the need for antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia

      When a patient presents with signs and symptoms of a lower respiratory tract infection, it is important to differentiate between non-pneumonic and pneumonic infections. In cases of non-pneumonic infections, antibiotics should not be given unless the patient is showing signs of severity. However, if chest signs are present, a diagnosis of community-acquired pneumonia should be made, and early administration of antibiotics is crucial to prevent the development of severe illness.

      While chest radiography and CRP levels are not useful in the acute setting of pneumonia, they may be indicated in certain cases. A chest x-ray may be necessary if treatment response is unsatisfactory or in smokers during the convalescent period. CRP levels can be helpful in making a decision about antibiotic treatment for individuals with symptoms of LRTI but no signs.

      According to NICE guidelines, antibiotic therapy should not be routinely offered if the CRP concentration is less than 20 mg/litre. A delayed antibiotic prescription should be considered if the CRP concentration is between 20 mg/litre and 100 mg/litre, and antibiotic therapy should be offered if the CRP concentration is greater than 100 mg/litre. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can effectively diagnose and manage community-acquired pneumonia.

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