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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic cardiac failure with reduced ventricular systolic function presents with recent onset of increasing breathlessness, and worsening peripheral oedema and lethargy. He is currently taking ramipril and bisoprolol alongside occasional paracetamol.
What is the most appropriate long-term management?Your Answer: Addition of furosemide
Correct Answer: Addition of spironolactone
Explanation:For the management of heart failure, first line options include ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and aldosterone antagonists. In this case, the patient was already on a beta-blocker and an ACE inhibitor which had been effective. The addition of an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone would be the best option as it prevents fluid retention and reduces pressure on the heart. Ivabradine is a specialist intervention that should only be considered after trying all other recommended options. Addition of furosemide would only provide symptomatic relief. Insertion of an implantable cardiac defibrillator device is a late-stage intervention. Encouraging regular exercise and a healthy diet is important but does not directly address the patient’s clinical deterioration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 70-year-old patient comes to her doctor for a routine check-up. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured in both arms, and the readings are as follows:
Right arm 152/100
Left arm 138/92
What should be the next step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Ask the patient to start ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
Explanation:Proper Management of High Blood Pressure Readings
In order to properly manage high blood pressure readings, it is important to follow established guidelines. If a patient displays a blood pressure of over 140/90 in one arm, the patient should have ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) in order to confirm the presence or lack of hypertension, in accordance with NICE guidelines.
It is important to note that a diagnosis of hypertension cannot be made from one blood pressure recording. However, if hypertension is confirmed, based upon the patients’ age, amlodipine would be the antihypertensive of choice.
When measuring blood pressure in both arms (as it should clinically be done), the higher of the two readings should be taken. Asking the patient to come back in one week to re-record blood pressure sounds reasonable, but it is not in accordance with the NICE guidelines.
Lastly, it is important to note that considering the patients’ age, ramipril is second line and should not be the first choice for treatment. Proper management of high blood pressure readings is crucial for the overall health and well-being of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset of palpitations and shortness of breath. She is speaking in broken sentences and appears distressed, with visible sweating. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 70/30, heart rate 180 bpm, respiratory rate 28, and sats 98% on air. Upon auscultation, there are crepitations at both lung bases. The patient reports experiencing crushing chest pain during the assessment. A 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals a regular broad complex tachycardia. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Sedation and synchronised direct current (DC) shock
Explanation:Management of Ventricular Tachycardia with a Pulse: Choosing the Right Intervention
When faced with a patient in ventricular tachycardia (VT) with a pulse, the presence of adverse signs is a crucial factor in determining the appropriate intervention. Adverse signs such as syncope, chest pain, heart failure, and altered consciousness indicate imminent risk of deterioration and potential cardiac arrest. In such cases, prompt direct current (DC) cardioversion is necessary, and sedation may be required if the patient is conscious.
While drug therapy may be an option in the absence of adverse signs, it is unlikely to work quickly enough in the presence of such signs. For instance, an amiodarone loading dose may not be effective in a patient with heart failure and shock. Similarly, beta blockers like iv metoprolol are not indicated in the acute management of VT with a pulse.
In contrast, immediate precordial thump has limited utility and is only indicated in a witnessed monitored cardiac arrest. A fluid challenge may be given, but it is unlikely to address the underlying problem. Therefore, in the presence of adverse signs, DC shock is the best option for managing VT with a pulse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which statement about congenital heart disease is accurate?
Your Answer: Failure to thrive is often found associated with Fallot's tetralogy at under 3 months of age
Correct Answer: In Down's syndrome with an endocardial cushion defect, irreversible pulmonary hypertension occurs earlier than in children with normal chromosomes
Explanation:Common Congenital Heart Defects and their Characteristics
An endocardial cushion defect, also known as an AVSD, is the most prevalent cardiac malformation in individuals with Down Syndrome. This defect can lead to irreversible pulmonary hypertension, which is known as Eisenmenger’s syndrome. It is unclear why children with Down Syndrome tend to have more severe cardiac disease than unaffected children with the same abnormality.
ASDs, or atrial septal defects, may close on their own, and the likelihood of spontaneous closure is related to the size of the defect. If the defect is between 5-8 mm, there is an 80% chance of closure, but if it is larger than 8 mm, the chance of closure is minimal.
Tetralogy of Fallot, a cyanotic congenital heart disease, typically presents after three months of age. The murmur of VSD, or ventricular septal defect, becomes more pronounced after one month of life. Overall, the characteristics of these common congenital heart defects is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A foundation year 1 (FY1) doctor on the cardiology wards is teaching a group of first year medical students. She asks the students to work out the heart rate of a patient by interpreting his ECG taken during an episode of tachycardia.
What is the duration, in seconds, of one small square on an ECG?Your Answer: 0.2 seconds
Correct Answer: 0.04 seconds
Explanation:Understanding ECG Time Measurements
When reading an electrocardiogram (ECG), it is important to understand the time measurements represented on the grid paper. The horizontal axis of the ECG represents time, with each small square measuring 1 mm in length and representing 40 milliseconds (0.04 seconds). A large square on the ECG grid has a length of 5 mm and represents 0.2 seconds. Five large squares covering a length of 25 mm on the grid represent 1 second of time. It is important to note that each small square has a length of 1 mm and equates to 40 milliseconds, not 4 seconds. Understanding these time measurements is crucial for accurately interpreting an ECG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman is admitted with central chest pain of 18 hours’ duration and shortness of breath. Her troponin is elevated, and her electrocardiogram (ECG) shows changes in leads V2–V6. While undergoing initial management in preparation for primary percutaneous coronary intervention (primary PCI), she deteriorates suddenly and goes into cardiac arrest. Efforts to resuscitate her are unsuccessful. At post-mortem, rupture of the left ventricular cardiac wall is evident at the apex.
Which is the most likely blood vessel to have been involved in the infarct?Your Answer: The circumflex artery
Correct Answer: The anterior interventricular (left anterior descending) artery
Explanation:Coronary Arteries and Their Blood Supply to the Heart
The heart is supplied with blood by the coronary arteries. There are four main coronary arteries that provide blood to different parts of the heart.
The anterior interventricular artery, also known as the left anterior descending artery, supplies blood to the apex of the heart, as well as the anterior part of the interventricular septum and adjacent anterior walls of the right and left ventricles.
The right marginal artery supplies the anteroinferior aspect of the right ventricle.
The posterior interventricular artery supplies the interventricular septum and adjacent right and left ventricles on the diaphragmatic surface of the heart, but does not reach the apex.
The circumflex artery supplies the posterolateral aspect of the left ventricle.
Finally, the conus branch of the right coronary artery supplies the outflow tract of the right ventricle.
Understanding the blood supply to different parts of the heart is important in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with severe central chest pain that worsens when lying down, is relieved by sitting forward, and radiates to his left shoulder. He has a history of prostate cancer and has recently completed two cycles of radiotherapy. On examination, his blood pressure is 96/52 mmHg (normal <120/80 mmHg), his JVP is elevated, and his pulse is 98 bpm with a decrease in amplitude during inspiration. Heart sounds are faint. The ECG shows low-voltage QRS complexes. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Your Answer: Urgent pericardiocentesis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing cardiac tamponade, which is caused by fluid in the pericardial sac compressing the heart and reducing ventricular filling. This is likely due to pericarditis caused by recent radiotherapy. Beck’s triad of low blood pressure, raised JVP, and muffled heart sounds are indicative of tamponade. Urgent pericardiocentesis is necessary to aspirate the pericardial fluid, preferably under echocardiographic guidance. A fluid challenge with sodium chloride is not recommended as it may worsen the pericardial fluid. Ibuprofen is not effective in severe cases of pericardial effusion. GTN spray, morphine, clopidogrel, and aspirin are useful in managing myocardial infarction, which is a differential diagnosis to rule out. LMWH is not appropriate for tamponade and may worsen the condition if caused by haemopericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 62-year-old salesman is found to have a blood pressure (BP) of 141/91 mmHg on a routine medical check. Two months later, his BP was 137/89 mmHg. He leads a physically active life, despite being a heavy smoker. He is not diabetic and his cholesterol levels are low. There is no past medical history of note.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Lifestyle advice and reassess every year
Explanation:Hypertension Management and Lifestyle Advice
Managing hypertension requires careful consideration of various factors, including cardiovascular risk, age, and other risk factors. The 2011 NICE guidelines recommend further investigation and assessment for those with a BP of 140/90 mmHg or higher and for those at high risk. Once diagnosed, lifestyle advice and annual reassessment are recommended, with drug therapy considered based on the number of risk factors present.
For patients with cardiovascular risk factors, lifestyle advice and education on reducing cardiovascular risk are crucial. This includes support for smoking cessation, as smoking is a significant risk factor for cardiovascular disease. Patients with high risk, such as the elderly or heavy smokers, should be monitored annually.
While pharmacological treatment may be necessary, thiazide diuretics are no longer used first-line for hypertension management. For patients over 55, calcium channel blockers are recommended as first-line treatment. ACE inhibitors would not be used first-line in patients over 55.
In summary, managing hypertension requires a comprehensive approach that considers various factors, including cardiovascular risk, age, and other risk factors. Lifestyle advice and annual reassessment are crucial for patients with hypertension, with drug therapy considered based on the number of risk factors present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 61-year-old man experiences persistent, intense chest pain that spreads to his left arm. Despite taking multiple antacid tablets, he finds no relief. He eventually seeks medical attention at the Emergency Department and is diagnosed with a heart attack. He is admitted to the hospital and stabilized before being discharged five days later.
About three weeks later, the man begins to experience a constant, burning sensation in his chest. He returns to the hospital, where a friction rub is detected during auscultation. Additionally, his heart sounds are muffled.
What is the most likely cause of this complication, given the man's medical history?Your Answer: Autoimmune phenomenon
Explanation:Understanding Dressler Syndrome
Dressler syndrome is a condition that occurs several weeks after a myocardial infarction (MI) and results in fibrinous pericarditis with fever and pleuropericardial chest pain. It is believed to be an autoimmune phenomenon, rather than a result of viral, bacterial, or fungal infections. While these types of infections can cause pericarditis, they are less likely in the context of a recent MI. Chlamydial infection, in particular, does not cause pericarditis. Understanding the underlying cause of pericarditis is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of Dressler syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl is referred to cardiology outpatients with intermittent palpitations. She describes occasional spontaneous episodes of being abnormally aware of her heart. She says her heart rate is markedly increased during episodes. She has no significant medical or family history. She is on the oral contraceptive pill. ECG is performed. She is in sinus rhythm at 80 beats per min. PR interval is 108 ms. A slurring slow rise of the initial portion of the QRS complex is noted; QRS duration is 125 ms.
What is the correct diagnosis?Your Answer: Hyperthyroidism
Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Wolff-Parkinson-White Syndrome: An Abnormal Congenital Accessory Pathway with Tachyarrhythmia Episodes
Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a rare condition with an incidence of about 1.5 per 1000. It is characterized by the presence of an abnormal congenital accessory pathway that bypasses the atrioventricular node, known as the Bundle of Kent, and episodes of tachyarrhythmia. While the condition may be asymptomatic or subtle, it can increase the risk of sudden cardiac death.
The presence of a pre-excitation pathway in WPW results in specific ECG changes, including shortening of the PR interval, a Delta wave, and QRS prolongation. The ST segment and T wave may also be discordant to the major component of the QRS complex. These features may be more pronounced with increased vagal tone.
Upon diagnosis of WPW, risk stratification is performed based on a combination of history, ECG, and invasive cardiac electrophysiology studies. Treatment is only offered to those who are considered to have significant risk of sudden cardiac death. Definitive treatment involves the destruction of the abnormal electrical pathway by radiofrequency catheter ablation, which has a high success rate but is not without complication. Patients who experience regular tachyarrhythmias may be offered pharmacological treatment based on the specific arrhythmia.
Other conditions, such as first-degree heart block, pulmonary embolism, hyperthyroidism, and Wenckebach syndrome, have different ECG findings and are not associated with WPW. Understanding the specific features of WPW can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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