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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old presents with a rash that developed after a camping trip. He...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old presents with a rash that developed after a camping trip. He mentions being bitten by a tick during the trip. He explains that the rash is red, not itchy, and began at the site of the bite before spreading outward. The center of the rash has now cleared, resulting in a bulls-eye appearance. What is the name of this rash?

      Your Answer: Erythema migrans

      Explanation:

      Lyme Disease: Symptoms and Progression

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection that is transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. The disease progresses in two stages, with early and later features. The early features of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, which is a small papule that often appears at the site of the tick bite. This papule develops into a larger annular lesion with central clearing, resembling a bulls-eye. This occurs in 70% of patients and is accompanied by systemic symptoms such as malaise, fever, and arthralgia.

      In the later stages of Lyme disease, patients may experience cardiovascular symptoms such as heart block and myocarditis. Neurological symptoms may also occur, including cranial nerve palsies and meningitis. Additionally, patients may develop polyarthritis, which is inflammation in multiple joints. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur after a tick bite, as early treatment can prevent the progression of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 58-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) experiences an exacerbation of...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) experiences an exacerbation of breathlessness and a productive cough with green sputum.
      What is the most appropriate treatment option for him?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline and prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for COPD Exacerbations: Antibiotics and Corticosteroids

      COPD exacerbations are characterized by a sudden worsening of symptoms beyond the patient’s usual stable state. These symptoms include increased breathlessness, cough, sputum production, and changes in sputum color. To treat exacerbations, a combination of antibiotics and corticosteroids is often used.

      Oral corticosteroids, such as prednisolone, should be prescribed for five days to patients experiencing a significant increase in breathlessness that interferes with daily activities. Antibiotics are recommended for exacerbations associated with purulent sputum, with first-line agents including amoxicillin, doxycycline, and clarithromycin.

      It is important to follow local microbiologist guidance when initiating empirical antibiotic treatment. Flucloxacillin and clindamycin are not useful in treating COPD exacerbations and are recommended for other conditions such as skin infections and bacterial vaginosis, respectively. Nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim are used for urinary tract infections and may be considered as first or second-line agents depending on antibiotic resistance and previous sensitivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      132.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 63-year-old male is being seen in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male is being seen in the nurse-led heart failure clinic. Despite being on current treatment with furosemide, bisoprolol, enalapril, and spironolactone, he continues to experience breathlessness with minimal exertion. Upon examination, his chest is clear to auscultation and there is minimal ankle edema. Recent test results show sinus rhythm with a rate of 84 bpm on ECG, cardiomegaly with clear lung fields on chest x-ray, and an ejection fraction of 35% on echo. Isosorbide dinitrate with hydralazine was recently attempted but had to be discontinued due to side effects. What additional medication would be most effective in alleviating his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 4 - A 12-year-old boy presents acutely with petechiae on his legs, severe abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents acutely with petechiae on his legs, severe abdominal pain, bloody faeces, haematuria and painful joint swelling. The haematology laboratory results are normal.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Henoch–Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Common Pediatric Diseases: Symptoms and Management

      Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP), Acute lymphocytic leukaemia, Alport’s syndrome, and Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) are some of the common pediatric diseases that require prompt diagnosis and management. HSP is an autoimmune hypersensitivity vasculitis that often affects children and is associated with IgA dominant immune complexes. ALL is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow, causing symptoms such as fatigue, fever, and joint pain. Alport’s syndrome is a hereditary nephritis that can lead to chronic kidney disease, hearing loss, and ocular abnormalities. JRA is characterized by swollen joints, fever, and joint pain. Prompt diagnosis and management are crucial in these diseases, which may require supportive treatment, pain relief, and monitoring for potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      0
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She speaks very little English and is 20 weeks' pregnant in her first pregnancy. No medical history of note can be obtained.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 101 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Haematocrit 38% 40–54%
      Red blood cell count (RBC) 5.24 × 1012/l 4.0–5.0 × 1012/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 63 fl 80–100 fl
      Mean corpuscular Hb (McHb) 20 pg 27–32 pg
      Mean corpuscular Hb concentration 32 g/dl 32–36 g/dl
      White cell count (WCC) 6.9 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 241 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Foetal Hb (HbF) 0.6% < 1%
      Haemoglobin A2 (HbA2) 4.5% 1.5–3.5%
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: β-Thalassaemia trait

      Explanation:

      Understanding β-Thalassaemia Trait: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Implications for Pregnancy

      β-Thalassaemia trait is a genetic condition that can cause microcytic/hypochromic anaemia with a raised RBC and normal MCHC. This condition is often asymptomatic and can be diagnosed through a blood test that shows raised HbA2 levels. It is important to distinguish β-thalassaemia trait from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms, such as folic acid deficiency, sickle-cell anaemia, α-thalassaemia trait, and iron deficiency.

      If both parents have β-thalassaemia trait, there is a 25% chance of producing a child with β-thalassaemia major, a more severe form of the condition that can cause serious health problems. Therefore, it is important to screen both partners for β-thalassaemia trait before planning a pregnancy.

      In summary, understanding β-thalassaemia trait and its implications for pregnancy can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 6 - A 43-year-old woman complains of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon examination, her neck's...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman complains of muscle cramps and fatigue. Upon examination, her neck's front is tender and swollen to touch. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. Her blood results show a TSH level of 12.3 mU/L (0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 4.2 pmol/L (9.0 - 18). What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's)

      Explanation:

      Subacute thyroiditis can be differentiated from Hashimoto’s thyroiditis as a cause of hypothyroidism by the presence of tenderness in the thyroid gland. The symptoms are indicative of hypothyroidism, which is confirmed by elevated TSH levels and low T4 levels in the thyroid function tests. The occurrence of a painful goitre points towards subacute thyroiditis as the most probable diagnosis. Graves’ disease, on the other hand, leads to hyperthyroidism and not hypothyroidism. Although Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can also cause hypothyroidism, it is typically painless. Riedel thyroiditis can cause hypothyroidism and may be painful, but it is less likely than subacute thyroiditis.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.

      In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Nephrology Clinic with an estimated glomerular filtration...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Nephrology Clinic with an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 3 ml/min/1.73 m2. He is already undergoing renal replacement therapy. He also presents with worsening anaemia.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Erythropoietin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Causes of Anaemia in End-Stage Renal Failure Patients

      Anaemia is a common complication in patients with end-stage renal failure, primarily due to a decrease in the production of erythropoietin by the kidneys. Other causes of anaemia can include folate and vitamin B12 deficiency, uraemic inhibitors, and reduced half-life of circulating blood cells. The prevalence of anaemia in patients with chronic kidney disease (CKD) increases as eGFR levels decrease, with a prevalence of 12% in CKD patients. Folate deficiency and iron deficiency can also cause anaemia, but in this case, the anaemia is more likely related to poor kidney function. Deficiencies in granulocyte colony-stimulating factor and pyridoxine are less likely causes of anaemia in end-stage renal failure patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman presents to you with her husband. Her husband complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to you with her husband. Her husband complains of frequently waking up in the middle of the night and experiencing difficulty in breathing. She also notes that he feels excessively tired during the day and often dozes off while reading the newspaper. You suspect moderate sleep apnoea and decide to refer him for further evaluation. The patient is curious about the treatment options available. What is the primary treatment for moderate sleep apnoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obstructive Sleep Apnoea/Hypopnoea Syndrome

      Obstructive sleep apnoea/hypopnoea syndrome (OSAHS) is a condition where the upper airway becomes partially or completely blocked during sleep, leading to interrupted breathing and reduced oxygen levels in the body. There are several predisposing factors for OSAHS, including obesity, macroglossia, large tonsils, and Marfan’s syndrome. The condition is often characterized by excessive snoring and periods of apnoea, which can be reported by the patient’s partner.

      OSAHS can have several consequences, including daytime somnolence, compensated respiratory acidosis, and hypertension. To assess sleepiness, healthcare professionals may use tools such as the Epworth Sleepiness Scale or the Multiple Sleep Latency Test. Diagnostic tests for OSAHS include sleep studies, ranging from monitoring pulse oximetry to full polysomnography.

      Management of OSAHS typically involves weight loss and continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) as the first line of treatment for moderate or severe cases. Intra-oral devices may be used if CPAP is not tolerated or for patients with mild OSAHS. It is important to inform the DVLA if OSAHS is causing excessive daytime sleepiness. While there is limited evidence to support the use of pharmacological agents, healthcare professionals may consider them in certain cases.

      Overall, understanding OSAHS and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 9 - A 7-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner with his mother, having just...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to his General Practitioner with his mother, having just woken up from a nap and experienced twitching of the left side of his mouth. He complains of a ‘buzzing’ sensation in his lips. His speech is unclear and he drooled from the left side of his mouth. His symptoms resolved within two minutes and he remained conscious throughout the episode.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy (BRE)

      Explanation:

      Types of Epilepsy: Characteristics and Differences

      Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures. There are different types of epilepsy, each with its own set of clinical features and diagnostic criteria. Here are some of the most common types of epilepsy and their distinguishing characteristics:

      Benign Rolandic Epilepsy (BRE)
      BRE, also known as childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes, is characterized by seizures that often occur during sleep or just before waking. Children may experience paraesthesia of their lips, tongue, or the inside of their mouth, which can interfere with speech and cause drooling. Twitching of one side of the mouth or face often develops, followed by twitching in the limbs on the same side. Seizures typically last less than two minutes, and the child remains conscious.

      Absence Seizures
      Absence seizures are a form of generalized epilepsy that impairs consciousness. Children are most commonly affected, and the seizures usually last only a few seconds but may occur many times a day. During the absence, the child stops activity and stares blankly, not responding to questions. There may be lip-smacking or facial tics. An EEG will reveal a characteristic spike-and-wave activity.

      Temporal Lobe Epilepsy (TLE)
      TLE is characterized by partial and/or focal seizures that may be simple or complex, with some loss of awareness. The clinical features of TLE reflect the function of the temporal lobe, primarily speech, taste, smell, and memory. Presentations may include déjà vu, gastrointestinal disturbance, amnesia during an attack, olfactory or gustatory hallucinations, and abnormal sensations crawling up the body. Repetitive vocalizations, automatism, and lip-smacking may be seen.

      Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy (JME)
      JME describes generalized epilepsy that impairs consciousness. JME usually presents in later childhood, with a peak onset at 10–16 years. The defining seizure is myoclonic and usually occurs in the first hour after waking. These seizures occur as sudden jerks, which commonly involve the arms and/or trunk. However, any muscle may be affected. The patient is generally conscious while myoclonic jerks are occurring. Generalized tonic-clonic seizures often accompany myoclonic seizures in JME, which may lead to reduced consciousness.

      Infantile Spasms
      Infantile spasms develop in the first year of life, with peak

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - Which of the following is a common feature of ulcerative colitis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a common feature of ulcerative colitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudopolyps

      Explanation:

      Pseudopolyps observed during endoscopy are indicative of ulcerative colitis.

      Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are the two main types of inflammatory bowel disease with many similarities in symptoms and management options. However, there are key differences such as non-bloody diarrhea and upper gastrointestinal symptoms being more common in Crohn’s disease, while bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant are more common in ulcerative colitis. Complications and pathology also differ between the two diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 52-year-old man on several medications develops bruising. Blood tests reveal thrombocytopenia.
    Which medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man on several medications develops bruising. Blood tests reveal thrombocytopenia.
      Which medication is the most probable cause of this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Medications and their potential to cause thrombocytopenia

      Thrombocytopenia is a condition where there is a low platelet count in the blood, which can lead to bleeding and bruising. Some medications have been known to cause immune-mediated, drug-induced thrombocytopenia. Ibuprofen, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), is one such medication. It interacts with platelet membrane glycoprotein, resulting in the formation of drug-glycoprotein complexes that can trigger the production of antibodies. The mechanism behind this is not entirely clear. Paracetamol and bisoprolol have a low likelihood of causing thrombocytopenia, making them safer alternatives. Simvastatin also has a low risk of causing thrombocytopenia. Warfarin, on the other hand, has a potential side effect of bleeding but is not directly linked to causing thrombocytopenia. It is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with medications and to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old male has been diagnosed with upper rectal cancer. The cancer is...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old male has been diagnosed with upper rectal cancer. The cancer is confined to the area and the medical team has decided to perform an anterior resection to remove it. The surgeon believes that to achieve the best long-term outcome, it is necessary to temporarily divert the colon to safeguard the colorectal anastomosis. What type of stoma would be most suitable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loop ileostomy

      Explanation:

      A loop ileostomy is the appropriate procedure for defunctioning the colon to protect an anastomosis. This involves taking a loop of ileum, making a horizontal incision, and bringing it up to the skin. It is commonly used after rectal cancer surgery and can be reversed at a later time.

      An end colostomy is performed when an anastomosis is not possible or desirable, and the colon needs to be diverted or resected. The distal part of the colon is brought up to the skin in this procedure.

      An end ileostomy is typically done after the complete removal of the colon or when an ileocolic anastomosis is not planned. While it can be used to defunction the colon, it is more challenging to reverse.

      A gastrostomy is used for gastric decompression or feeding.

      A loop jejunostomy is used as a high-output stoma and may be performed after an emergency laparotomy with planned early closure.

      Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with a complaint of right...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with a complaint of right eye pain that has been present for 2 days. She reports sensitivity to bright light but denies any history of eye trauma or regular use of contact lenses. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and is currently taking methotrexate.

      During the examination, the patient's vital signs are normal. The right eye appears red and is tearing. Fluorescein staining reveals the presence of a dendritic ulcer.

      What is the recommended treatment for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical aciclovir

      Explanation:

      The appropriate treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is topical aciclovir. This patient’s symptoms and examination findings suggest herpes simplex keratitis, which is more common in immunosuppressed individuals. Topical aciclovir is the preferred treatment option. Artificial tears are not likely to be helpful as the patient’s eye is already watery. Oral flucloxacillin is not indicated for this condition, as it is typically used for superficial skin infections. Topical chloramphenicol is not appropriate for this patient, as it is used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis, which presents with different symptoms.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis

      Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old woman presents with complaints of hot flashes and night sweats. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with complaints of hot flashes and night sweats. Upon investigation, her blood work reveals a significantly elevated FSH level, indicating menopause. After discussing her options, she chooses to undergo hormone replacement therapy. What is the primary risk associated with prescribing an estrogen-only treatment instead of a combination estrogen-progestogen treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progestogen in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progestogen is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progestogen can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progestogen is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progestogen is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 15 - A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile and otherwise well. She has no known allergies. Her Wells' score is -2.
      Which of the following would be the best option?
      Select the SINGLE best option from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cellulitis and the Use of Doppler Ultrasound for DVT Diagnosis

      Cellulitis is a common bacterial skin infection that can be treated with oral flucloxacillin, according to UK antimicrobial guidelines. Hospital admission for cellulitis treatment is only necessary for febrile and ill patients or those with comorbidities. Oral co-amoxiclav is recommended for facial cellulitis, but not for cellulitis in other locations. Oral vancomycin is used for Clostridium difficile infection, not cellulitis.

      A Doppler ultrasound scan can be useful in diagnosing deep venous thrombosis (DVT), but it is unlikely to be necessary for a patient with cellulitis who is otherwise well and has a low Wells’ score. The Wells’ score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of DVT based on clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 16 - You perform an annual medication review of a 68-year-old man with chronic kidney...

    Incorrect

    • You perform an annual medication review of a 68-year-old man with chronic kidney disease (CKD) stage 5 (GFR <15 ml/min/1.73 m2) on dialysis.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of death in this group of patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiovascular disease

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Mortality in Dialysis Patients

      Cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death in the dialysis population, with mortality rates 10-20 times higher than the general population. Hyperkalaemia, often resulting from missed dialysis or dietary indiscretion, is the most common cause of sudden death in end-stage renal disease patients. Hypocalcaemia is a common manifestation of CKD and should be treated with calcium supplements. While there is no known association between reduced renal function and overall cancer risk, some studies suggest an increased risk of urinary, endocrine, and digestive tract cancers among dialysis patients. Sepsis related to dialysis is rare with modern techniques, but minimizing the use of temporary catheters can further reduce the risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after consuming a cake containing...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department after consuming a cake containing hazelnut chocolate spread. He has a known allergy to tree nuts and has previously been hospitalized due to an anaphylactic reaction.

      Upon examination, he displays a widespread, confluent erythematous urticarial rash at flexor sites. He is speaking in full sentences and has no signs of oral or peri-oral edema. There is no audible wheeze.

      His vital signs indicate a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min, 98% oxygen saturation in room air, a heart rate of 115 beats/min, and a blood pressure of 97/68 mmHg.

      What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IM adrenaline only

      Explanation:

      In cases of anaphylaxis, the most crucial drug to administer is IM adrenaline, even if the patient does not have breathing difficulties. This patient is displaying signs of anaphylaxis, such as tachycardia and hypotension. The recommended site for administering IM adrenaline is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. If the patient responds well to the first dose, they may be discharged after two hours of symptom resolution.

      IV chlorphenamine is no longer part of the initial management for anaphylaxis. Instead, non-sedating oral antihistamines are preferred after initial treatment. IV chlorphenamine may be used later in management if IM adrenaline is insufficient, and it can be continued orally or by injection for 24-48 hours to prevent relapse.

      IV hydrocortisone was previously recommended as an adjuvant drug in the management of acute anaphylaxis. However, due to the lack of evidence and delayed onset of action, it is no longer recommended in the initial management of anaphylaxis.

      Oral chlorphenamine is not the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its sedating properties. Non-sedating oral antihistamines, such as cetirizine, are preferred in the management of allergic reactions and in stabilized patients after acute anaphylaxis has resolved (2021 Resus Council Guidelines). If the patient’s urticaria symptoms persist, a non-sedating antihistamine may be prescribed.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 18 - A 17-year-old girl with a history of acne is interested in starting a...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl with a history of acne is interested in starting a combined oral contraceptive pill (COC). She has been taking doxycycline for the past 2 months. What advice should be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She can start using a COC with usual advice

      Explanation:

      If the COC is not started on the first day of the next period, it is important to follow the standard guidelines and use condoms for 7 days.

      Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      Concurrent antibiotic use has been a concern for many years in the UK, as doctors have advised that it may interfere with the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines to abandon the extra precautions previously advised during antibiotic treatment and for 7 days afterwards. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated to reflect this guidance, although precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.

      When it comes to switching combined oral contraceptive pills, the BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice. The FSRH’s Combined Oral Contraception guidelines state that the pill-free interval does not need to be omitted, while the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given this uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF’s advice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A patient with a history of depression at the age of 50 presents...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a history of depression at the age of 50 presents for review. What indicates an elevated risk of suicide?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of arm cutting

      Explanation:

      Arm cutting may be seen as attention-seeking or a way to release pain, but studies indicate that it increases the risk of suicide for those with a history of deliberate self harm. Employment is a protective factor.

      Suicide Risk Factors and Protective Factors

      Suicide risk assessment is a common practice in psychiatric care, with patients being stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories. However, there is a lack of evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that such assessments may not be useful in guiding decision-making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. Nevertheless, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, including male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional risk factors to consider, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as family support, having children at home, and religious belief. It is important to consider both risk and protective factors when assessing suicide risk and developing a treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old man with a past medical history of polyarthralgia, back pain, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a past medical history of polyarthralgia, back pain, and diarrhea presents with a 3 cm red lesion on his shin that is beginning to ulcerate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual is suffering from ulcerative colitis, a condition that is commonly linked to arthritis in large joints, sacroiliitis, and pyoderma gangrenosum.

      Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other diseases.

      The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. In some cases, systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia may also be present. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other potential causes.

      Management of pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line treatment due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies such as ciclosporin and infliximab may also be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and seeking prompt medical attention can help manage this rare and painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 21 - A 54-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a three-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a three-day history of blurring of vision. He has a past medical history of hypertension, managed with amlodipine, ramipril, and indapamide, and type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes with a reduction in colour vision. There is no relative afferent pupillary defect. On direct fundoscopy, the optic disc's margins are ill-defined and seem to be raised in both eyes. There are also some cotton-wool spots scattered around the retina in both eyes.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hypertensive Retinopathy from Other Eye Conditions

      Hypertensive retinopathy is a serious condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. A grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy, as classified by the Keith-Wagener-Barker system, is characterized by bilateral optic disc swelling and cotton-wool spots. This condition can cause a reduction in visual acuity and color vision due to optic neuropathy secondary to hypertension.

      It is important to differentiate hypertensive retinopathy from other eye conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy, for example, is unlikely if the patient’s type II diabetes is well-controlled. The presence of cotton-wool spots does not indicate diabetic retinopathy.

      An intracranial space-occupying lesion is also not indicated in the patient’s history. Optic neuritis, while it can present with loss of optic nerve function, is more likely to present unilaterally and without cotton-wool spots.

      Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is also unlikely in this case, as the patient’s diabetes is well-controlled. In diabetic retinopathy, optic discs will not be raised.

      In summary, a thorough understanding of the patient’s medical history and symptoms is necessary to accurately diagnose hypertensive retinopathy and differentiate it from other eye conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with rapid onset abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with rapid onset abdominal pain, which is worse on lying. He feels nauseous and is vomiting.
      On examination, he is tachycardic and pyrexial at 38.1°C. His abdomen is tender with marked guarding. There is bruising around his umbilicus.
      The patient reports drinking six cans of strong lager per day. He also smokes two packets of cigarettes a day. He says he was last in hospital two years ago when he was vomiting blood. He cannot remember what treatment he was given. He has no other medical history of note. He does not take any medications regularly.
      What is the most likely cause for the man’s presentation and signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a man with abdominal pain and retroperitoneal haemorrhage

      The man in question presents with classic symptoms of pancreatitis, including abdominal pain that radiates to the back and worsens on lying down, as well as nausea. However, his periumbilical bruising suggests retroperitoneal haemorrhage, which can also manifest as flank bruising. This condition may be related to his alcohol consumption, which increases the risk of both pancreatitis and coagulopathy.

      While bleeding oesophageal varices are another potential consequence of alcohol abuse, they would not explain the absence of haematemesis or malanea on this admission, nor the retroperitoneal haemorrhage. Similarly, hepatic cirrhosis and consequent coagulopathy could contribute to bleeding but would not account for the sudden onset of abdominal pain or the lack of ecchymosis elsewhere. A pancreatic abscess, which can develop as a complication of pancreatitis, would typically present with a swinging fever and a longer history of symptoms.

      Finally, a ruptured duodenal ulcer could cause upper gastrointestinal bleeding, but there is no evidence of this in the current case. The absence of reflux also makes this diagnosis less likely. Overall, the differential diagnosis for this patient includes pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage, which may be related to alcohol use, and other conditions that do not fully fit the clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 23 - A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department with exertional chest pain. She had a positive exercise test at the Cardiology Clinic and was started on aspirin, metoprolol, rosuvastatin and a glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray.
      Eight months later, she presented to her General Practitioner with an increasing frequency of anginal episodes. These responded to GTN spray and did not occur at rest.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate additional medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      The treatment of stable angina involves lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is either a beta-blocker or a calcium-channel blocker (CCB), depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a beta-blocker at the maximum tolerated dose is not controlling angina, a long-acting dihydropyridine CCB, such as amlodipine, modified-release nifedipine, or modified-release felodipine, should be added. Aspirin and a statin should also be given, along with sublingual GTN to abort angina attacks.

      However, if a patient is taking a beta-blocker, a non-rate-limiting long-acting dihydropyridine CCB should be used instead of diltiazem, as the combination of diltiazem and a beta-blocker can lead to life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure. If a patient cannot tolerate a beta-blocker or CCB, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Ivabradine should only be used on specialist advice and cannot be initiated if the resting heart rate is less than 70 bpm. Nicorandil induces vasodilation of arterioles and large coronary arteries by activating potassium channels. Verapamil should also be avoided in combination with a beta-blocker, as it can result in life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old woman with a 30-pack-year history of smoking visits her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman with a 30-pack-year history of smoking visits her General Practitioner with complaints of dark urine, nausea and overall weakness. She reports experiencing a seizure and was admitted to the hospital where she was diagnosed with a 'hormone tumor'. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Small-cell carcinoma of the lung (SCLC)

      Explanation:

      Small-cell carcinoma of the lung (SCLC) is a type of lung cancer that is often associated with a condition called syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone syndrome (SIADH). SIADH is caused by the abnormal release of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to impaired water excretion and hyponatremia. This can result in symptoms such as nausea, weakness, confusion, and seizures. While SCLC is the most common cause of SIADH, it can also be caused by other types of cancer, certain drugs, intracranial lesions, and infections. Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC) of the lung, on the other hand, does not typically result in SIADH as it does not originate from neuroendocrine cells. Pancreatic cancer can also cause SIADH, but it is less common than in SCLC. Prostate cancer, which is the second most common cancer globally, does not usually present with hormonal effects but rather with lower urinary tract symptoms. Bronchial carcinoid tumors, which are neuroendocrine tumors of the lung, can cause hormonal effects such as weight gain, high blood pressure, and hirsutism, but these symptoms are not indicated in the scenario given.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 25 - A 63-year-old librarian complains of a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old librarian complains of a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical activity. A chest CT scan reveals a ground-glass appearance. What is the most frequently linked mechanism responsible for this reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      Hypersensitivity Reactions: Types and Examples

      Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that can cause tissue damage and inflammation. There are four types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with different mechanisms and clinical presentations.

      Type I hypersensitivity reaction is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE in response to an innocuous environmental antigen. Examples of such reactions are allergic rhinitis and systemic urticaria.

      Type II hypersensitivity reaction is an antibody-mediated reaction. Cellular injury may result from complement activation, antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity or phagocytosis. Examples include incompatible blood transfusions, haemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune haemolytic anaemias.

      Type III hypersensitivity reaction is an immune complex-mediated reaction. Immune complexes are lattices of antibody and antigen. When these are not cleared from the circulation, they may trigger an inflammatory response. An example of this type of reaction is extrinsic allergic alveolitis, otherwise known as ‘bird fancier’s lung’, a hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by exposure to bird droppings.

      Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction involving T helper cells that become activated upon contact with an antigen, which results in a clonal expansion over 1–2 weeks. Repeated exposure to the antigen results in cytokine release from sensitised T-cells, leading to macrophage-induced phagocytosis.

      Anaphylaxis is a type I-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, involving the release of inflammatory mediators (such as histamine), which precipitate vasodilatation and oedema. Anaphylaxis is characterised by the rapid onset of respiratory and circulatory compromise.

      Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important for diagnosis and treatment. Treatment may involve removal of the source of hypersensitivity, immunosuppressive therapy, or administration of epinephrine in the case of anaphylaxis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 26 - A 33-year-old man presents to the eye casualty department with an eye injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man presents to the eye casualty department with an eye injury sustained during a game of squash. Upon examination of his right eye, there is evidence of blood in the anterior chamber, proptosis, a stiff eyelid, and a relative afferent pupillary defect, leading to a suspected diagnosis of orbital compartment syndrome. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediate canthotomy

      Explanation:

      In cases of ocular trauma, it is important to assess for orbital compartment syndrome as it may require urgent decompression before any imaging is done.

      A man presents with symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome, including blood in the front part of the eye, bulging of the eye, a stiff eyelid, and a pupil defect. This is a medical emergency that requires immediate attention as it can lead to permanent vision loss. The condition is caused by an increase in volume within the orbit, which can be due to bleeding or swelling of the eye. It can be caused by surgical or external trauma, such as a sports injury. In this case, the correct course of action is to perform an immediate canthotomy to relieve the pressure.

      B-scan ultrasonography is not the correct answer. This imaging technique is useful for examining the back part of the eye and is used to diagnose conditions such as retinal detachment or vitreous hemorrhage. It is not helpful in diagnosing orbital compartment syndrome.

      Immediate IV acetazolamide is also not the correct answer. While this medication can be used to reduce intraocular pressure in acute closed-angle glaucoma, it is not the primary treatment for orbital compartment syndrome.

      Non-contrast head CT is not the correct answer either. While this imaging test can help confirm the diagnosis and determine the cause of the condition, it should not be done before immediate surgical decompression is performed due to the severity of the condition.

      Ocular Trauma and Hyphema

      Ocular trauma can lead to hyphema, which is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. This condition requires immediate referral to an ophthalmic specialist for assessment and management. The main concern is the risk of raised intraocular pressure due to the blockage of the angle and trabecular meshwork with erythrocytes. Patients with high-risk cases are often admitted and require strict bed rest to prevent the redispersement of blood. Even isolated hyphema requires daily ophthalmic review and pressure checks initially as an outpatient.

      In addition to hyphema, an assessment should also be made for orbital compartment syndrome, which can occur secondary to retrobulbar hemorrhage. This is a true ophthalmic emergency and requires urgent management. Symptoms of orbital compartment syndrome include eye pain and swelling, proptosis, ‘rock hard’ eyelids, and a relevant afferent pupillary defect.

      To manage orbital compartment syndrome, urgent lateral canthotomy is necessary to decompress the orbit. This should be done before diagnostic imaging to prevent further damage. Proper management and prompt referral to an ophthalmic specialist can help prevent vision loss and other complications associated with ocular trauma and hyphema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 27 - A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with nausea and vomiting, with associated lethargy. He has mild asthma which is well controlled with a steroid inhaler but has no other medical history of note. He does not smoke but drinks up to 30 units of alcohol a week, mostly on the weekends.
      Observations are as follows: Temperature is 37.2 oC, blood pressure is 108/68 mmHg, heart rate is 92 bpm and regular.
      On examination, the patient appears to be clinically dehydrated, but there are no other abnormalities noted.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal Values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 145 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 8.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Urea 9.2 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 178 µmol/l
      (bloods carried out one year
      previously showed a creatinine
      of 76) 50–120 µmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 131 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Which of the following is most suggestive of acute kidney injury rather than chronic renal failure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oliguria

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs and Symptoms of Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be difficult to diagnose, especially when there are no previous urea and electrolyte levels available for comparison. However, there are certain signs and symptoms that can indicate whether the condition is acute or chronic.

      Acute renal failure may present with acute lethargy/fatigue, dehydration, shortness of breath, nausea and vomiting, oliguria, acute onset peripheral edema/edema of the face, confusion, seizures, and coma. On the other hand, chronic renal failure may manifest as anemia, pruritus, long-standing fatigue, weight loss, reduced appetite, and a history of underlying medical conditions such as diabetes or hypertension.

      Oliguria, or reduced urine output, is a hallmark of renal failure and can be an early sign of acute renal injury. Nocturia, or increased urination at night, is often found in patients with chronic kidney disease. Peripheral neuropathy is likely to be present in patients with chronic renal failure due to an underlying history of diabetes. Raised parathyroid hormone levels are more commonly found in chronic renal failure, secondary to low calcium levels associated with the condition. Small kidneys are also seen in chronic renal failure, as long-standing conditions affecting the kidney can cause atrophy and reduce function, leading to progressive renal failure. The kidneys are more likely to be of normal size in acute injury.

      In summary, understanding the signs and symptoms of acute and chronic renal failure can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 28 - A 58-year-old man has been treated for many years with amlodipine for hypertension....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man has been treated for many years with amlodipine for hypertension. Now this is not adequately controlling his blood pressure, and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor treatment is planned. On routine baseline blood tests, prior to commencing treatment, the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 49 ml/min/1.73 m2 (reference range >90 ml/min/1.73 m2).
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Examine the patient, and perform urinalysis

      Explanation:

      Managing a Patient with Suspected Chronic Kidney Disease

      When a patient presents with suspected chronic kidney disease (CKD), it is important to perform a thorough examination and urinalysis to confirm the diagnosis. While patients with CKD stages 1-3 may not exhibit symptoms, those in stages 4-5 may experience endocrine/metabolic derangements or disturbances in water or electrolyte balance. Anaemia is often one of the first signs of CKD, but the lack of physical findings on examination does not exclude kidney disease. Initial screening for proteinuria can be done with a standard urine dipstick, and further testing may be necessary if the test is positive. Referral to a nephrology outpatient may be necessary, depending on the severity of the CKD. ACE inhibitors should only be started once the patient’s baseline renal function has been established, and blood tests should be rechecked in 2 weeks. Immediate admission is only necessary for patients with CKD stage 5 who present with acute indications for dialytic therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old man has recently returned from a backpacking trip in Southeast Asia....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has recently returned from a backpacking trip in Southeast Asia. While there, he consumed food from various street vendors. He complained of abdominal discomfort, bloating and loose stools. Analysis of three stool samples showed cysts in two of them. The patient was treated with metronidazole and showed improvement.
      What is the probable medical condition in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis: A Protozoal Parasite Causing Diarrhoeal Illness

      Giardiasis is a diarrhoeal disease caused by the flagellate protozoan Giardia intestinalis (previously known as G. lamblia). It is prevalent in areas with poor sanitation and can cause asymptomatic colonisation or acute or chronic diarrhoeal illness. Travellers to highly endemic areas are at high risk of infection. Ingestion of as few as ten Giardia cysts can cause infection. Diarrhoea is the most common symptom of acute Giardia infection, occurring in 90% of symptomatic subjects. The traditional basis of diagnosis is identification of G. intestinalis trophozoites or cysts in the stool of infected patients via stool ova and parasite examination. Standard treatment consists of antibiotic therapy, and metronidazole is the most commonly prescribed antibiotic for this condition. Giardia infection may occur more commonly in families with X-linked agammaglobulinaemia and in sexually active men who have sex with men (MSM).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 30 - A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old is brought to her General Practitioner by her parents after they noticed her eating habits had become irregular. The parents report that the patient eats large volumes of foods and is sometimes found vomiting shortly after eating dinner. This behaviour has been occurring for the past six months.
      On examination, the patient’s vital signs are normal and she has a body mass index body mass index (BMI) of 23 kg/m2. She has excoriations on the knuckles of her right hand. She also has erosions on her teeth and swelling bilaterally on the lateral aspects of the face along the mandibular rami.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Common Mental Health Disorders: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Bulimia Nervosa
      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by purging, usually in the form of vomiting. Patients with bulimia nervosa tend to have normal BMI despite purging behavior. Symptoms include teeth erosion, swelling along the mandibular rami (parotitis), and excoriations of the knuckles (Russell’s sign).

      Gender Dysphoria
      Gender dysphoria is a condition where an individual experiences a strong identification with a gender other than that assigned at birth. This can be managed through social or medical transition, such as hormone or surgical treatments that are gender-affirming.

      Anorexia Nervosa
      Anorexia nervosa is characterized by decreased dietary intake with or without purging behavior. Patients with anorexia nervosa tend to have extremely low BMI due to low calorie intake. Symptoms include early osteoporosis and electrolyte abnormalities due to malnutrition.

      Avoidant Personality Disorder
      Avoidant personality disorder is characterized by a person who wishes to have friends and social outlets but is so shy that they are unable to form relationships out of fear of rejection. This is different from the schizoid personality, which prefers to be alone.

      Binge Eating Disorder
      Binge eating disorder is characterized by purely binge eating without purging behavior. Symptoms include distress and weight gain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of dry...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-week history of dry cough and chest tightness. She was diagnosed with asthma 8-months ago and has been using a salbutamol inhaler as needed. However, she has noticed an increase in shortness of breath over the past month and has been using her inhaler up to 12 times per day.

      During the examination, her vital signs are normal. Her peak expiratory flow rate is 290L/min (best 400 L/min).

      What is the next course of action in managing this patient's asthma symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid

      Explanation:

      For an adult with asthma that is not controlled by a short-acting beta-agonist, the appropriate next step is to add a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid. This is in accordance with NICE guidelines. The addition of a combined inhaled corticosteroid and long-acting beta-agonist is not recommended until symptoms cannot be controlled with a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid and a short-acting beta-agonist, with or without a leukotriene receptor antagonist. Similarly, a leukotriene receptor antagonist or long-acting beta-agonist should not be introduced until symptoms are not controlled with a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid and a short-acting beta-agonist, with or without a leukotriene receptor antagonist.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 32 - A 60-year-old man comes in with complaints of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes in with complaints of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. During prostate examination, a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus is found. Blood tests reveal a PSA level of 1.3 ng/ml.

      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist

      Explanation:

      First-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia involves the use of alpha-1 antagonists.

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.

      Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 33 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with symptoms of urticarial rash, angioedema,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic with symptoms of urticarial rash, angioedema, and wheezing. According to her mother, she had recently attended her younger sister's party and had been assisting in inflating balloons. What could be the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Latex allergy

      Explanation:

      Latex allergy often presents as a Type I hypersensitivity reaction, which can lead to anaphylaxis. In such cases, it is crucial to administer adrenaline promptly and follow standard anaphylaxis management protocols.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is responsible for anaphylaxis and atopy, such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II, or cytotoxic hypersensitivity, happens when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface. This type of reaction is associated with autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, Goodpasture’s syndrome, and other conditions. Type III, or immune complex hypersensitivity, occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes. This type of reaction is responsible for serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, and extrinsic allergic alveolitis. Type IV, or delayed hypersensitivity, is T-cell mediated and is responsible for tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, allergic contact dermatitis, and other conditions.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is associated with Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important in diagnosing and treating various conditions. Proper identification of the type of reaction can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate treatment and management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 34 - A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with headaches and is found...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with headaches and is found to have a blood pressure of 170/90 mmHg. She is a non-smoker and has a history of diabetes. Renal artery stenosis is suspected as the underlying cause of her condition.
      Which of the following tests is the gold-standard investigation for diagnosis of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intra-arterial renal arteriography

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Renal Artery Stenosis

      Renal artery stenosis is a condition that can lead to reduced blood flow to the kidneys. There are several diagnostic tests that can be used to assess for this condition.

      Intra-arterial renal arteriography is an invasive test that involves passing radio-opaque dye through the renal arteries to assess for normal flow or stenosis. This is considered the gold-standard test for diagnosing renal artery stenosis. It can also be used as a therapeutic modality if stents can be used to increase the lumen of the artery.

      Renal ultrasound scan can be used to assess for a shrunken appearance of the affected kidney and reduced vascular flow in the renal artery. Duplex ultrasound can augment this scan.

      Peripheral plasma renin activity is no longer considered suitable for initial testing for renovascular disease. Investigations demonstrating the presence of stenosis or occlusion of the renal artery are preferred.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) arteriography can be performed to assess for patent renal arteries or stenosis. However, a plain MRI without contrast would not be as effective as an intra-arterial examination.

      A 24-hour urinary protein test may be arranged to assess for other causes of reduced renal function, but it would not be useful in assessing for patent renal arteries.

      Overall, a combination of these tests may be used to diagnose renal artery stenosis and determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 35 - A 28-year-old male patient visits his GP with complaints of progressive tunnel vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient visits his GP with complaints of progressive tunnel vision and difficulty seeing at night for the past year. He recalls his grandfather experiencing similar symptoms but is unsure of the cause. During fundus examination, bone-spicule pigmentation is observed in the peripheral retina. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinitis pigmentosa

      Explanation:

      The presence of black bone-spicule pigmentation on fundoscopy is a classic sign of retinitis pigmentosa, an inherited retinal disorder that causes tunnel vision and night blindness by affecting the peripheral retina.

      Understanding Retinitis Pigmentosa

      Retinitis pigmentosa is a condition that primarily affects the peripheral retina, leading to tunnel vision. The initial sign of this condition is often night blindness, which can progress to a loss of peripheral vision. Fundoscopy, a diagnostic test, reveals black bone spicule-shaped pigmentation in the peripheral retina and mottling of the retinal pigment epithelium. Retinitis pigmentosa is often associated with other diseases such as Refsum disease, Usher syndrome, abetalipoproteinemia, Lawrence-Moon-Biedl syndrome, Kearns-Sayre syndrome, and Alport’s syndrome.

      To better understand retinitis pigmentosa, it is important to know that it is a genetic disorder that affects the retina’s ability to respond to light. This condition can lead to the death of photoreceptor cells in the retina, which are responsible for detecting light and transmitting visual information to the brain. As a result, individuals with retinitis pigmentosa may experience difficulty seeing in low light conditions, loss of peripheral vision, and, in severe cases, complete blindness.

      In summary, retinitis pigmentosa is a genetic condition that primarily affects the peripheral retina, leading to tunnel vision. It is often associated with other diseases and can cause night blindness, loss of peripheral vision, and, in severe cases, complete blindness. Early diagnosis and management are crucial in preventing further vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 36 - A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman comes to you with concerns about skin lesions on her chest. Upon examination, you notice two small red papules with visible fine vessels surrounding them. The lesions blanch when pressure is applied. What commonly used medication could be causing these lesions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive

      Explanation:

      Spider naevi are a type of skin angioma that are typically found in the distribution of the superior vena cava. While they can occur without any apparent cause, the presence of multiple lesions may indicate an excess of oestrogen in the body. This is often associated with liver cirrhosis, as the liver is responsible for processing oestrogens. However, it can also occur during pregnancy or as a side effect of oestrogen-containing medications.

      Understanding Spider Naevi

      Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.

      To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.

      In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 37 - An 80-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of loin pain, haematuria...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of loin pain, haematuria and a palpable abdominal mass. He is diagnosed with renal clear cell carcinoma. Upon staging, it is discovered that the tumour has spread to the adrenal gland. What would be the primary management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immunomodulatory drugs

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Stage 4 Renal Cancer with Metastases

      Loin pain, haematuria, and a palpable abdominal mass are the classic symptoms of renal cancer, which is not very common. When the cancer has metastasized to the adrenal gland, it becomes a stage 4 tumor. Targeted molecular therapy is the first-line treatment for stage 4 renal cancer with metastases. Immunomodulatory drugs such as sunitinib, temsirolimus, and nivolumab are commonly used for this purpose.

      Other treatment options for renal cancer include cryotherapy, partial nephrectomy, radiofrequency ablation, and radical nephrectomy. Cryotherapy uses liquid nitrogen to freeze cancerous cells, but it is usually only used for early-stage disease and is not first-line here. Partial nephrectomy is reserved for patients with small renal masses, usually stage 1. Radiofrequency ablation can be used for non-surgical candidates with small renal masses without metastasis, usually stage 1 or 2. Radical nephrectomy involves removal of the entire kidney, which is primarily done for stage 2 and 3 renal cell cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 38 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic with a maculopapular rash and mouth...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic with a maculopapular rash and mouth ulcers. He had a painless penile ulcer two months ago. What is the most probable causative organism for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this individual suggest the presence of secondary syphilis.

      Understanding Syphilis: Symptoms and Stages

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through three stages: primary, secondary, and tertiary. The incubation period can range from 9 to 90 days.

      During the primary stage, a painless ulcer called a chancre appears at the site of sexual contact. Local lymph nodes may also become swollen, but this symptom may not be visible in women if the lesion is on the cervix.

      The secondary stage occurs 6 to 10 weeks after the primary infection and is characterized by systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy. A rash may appear on the trunk, palms, and soles, along with buccal ulcers and painless warty lesions on the genitalia.

      In the tertiary stage, granulomatous lesions called gummas may develop on the skin and bones, and there may be an ascending aortic aneurysm. Other symptoms include general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil.

      Congenital syphilis can also occur if a pregnant woman is infected. Symptoms include blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.

      Understanding the symptoms and stages of syphilis is important for early detection and treatment. It is a treatable infection, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 39 - A 42-year-old man comes in with an ongoing itchy rash that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man comes in with an ongoing itchy rash that has been present for a few weeks. During examination, he displays erythematous, scaly lesions beneath his eyebrows, around his nose, and at the top of his chest. He also has a history of dandruff that he manages well with over-the-counter shampoos. What is the best course of treatment for the lesions on his face and trunk?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical ketoconazole

      Explanation:

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is typically characterized by a scaly rash around the peri-orbital and nasolabial areas, as well as dandruff. The recommended initial treatment is topical ketoconazole.

      Understanding Seborrhoeic Dermatitis in Adults

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a chronic skin condition that affects around 2% of the general population. It is caused by an inflammatory reaction related to the overgrowth of a fungus called Malassezia furfur, which is a normal inhabitant of the skin. The condition is characterized by eczematous lesions that appear on the sebum-rich areas of the body, such as the scalp, periorbital, auricular, and nasolabial folds. It can also lead to the development of otitis externa and blepharitis.

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is often associated with other medical conditions, such as HIV and Parkinson’s disease. The management of the condition depends on the affected area. For scalp disease, over-the-counter preparations containing zinc pyrithione and tar are usually the first-line treatment. If these are not effective, ketoconazole is the preferred second-line agent. Selenium sulphide and topical corticosteroids may also be useful.

      For the face and body, topical antifungals such as ketoconazole and topical steroids are often used. However, it is important to use steroids for short periods only to avoid side effects. Seborrhoeic dermatitis can be difficult to treat, and recurrences are common. Therefore, it is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to manage the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 40 - A 25-year-old man comes to you complaining of severe, stabbing pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to you complaining of severe, stabbing pain in his right eye that has been occurring once a day for the past few weeks. The pain lasts for about 30 minutes and he is often seen pacing around and shouting during these episodes. His wife reports that his right eye appears red and he has clear nasal discharge during the episodes. Based on this presentation, what advice would you give the patient to prevent further episodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Cluster headaches are often triggered by alcohol, and they typically affect individuals of a certain age and gender.

      Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is known to be extremely painful. They are called cluster headaches because they tend to occur in clusters that last for several weeks, usually once a year. These headaches are more common in men and smokers, and alcohol and sleep patterns may trigger an attack. The pain typically occurs once or twice a day, lasting between 15 minutes to 2 hours. The pain is intense and sharp, usually around one eye, and is accompanied by redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, and nasal stuffiness. Some patients may also experience miosis and ptosis.

      To manage cluster headaches, 100% oxygen or subcutaneous triptan can be used for acute treatment, with response rates of 80% and 75% respectively within 15 minutes. Verapamil is the drug of choice for prophylaxis, and a tapering dose of prednisolone may also be effective. It is recommended to seek specialist advice from a neurologist if a patient develops cluster headaches, especially with respect to neuroimaging. Some neurologists use the term trigeminal autonomic cephalgia to group a number of conditions including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, and short-lived unilateral neuralgiform headache with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT). Patients with these conditions should be referred for specialist assessment as specific treatment may be required, such as indomethacin for paroxysmal hemicrania.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 41 - A 30-year-old male presents with a 3-month history of numbness in his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with a 3-month history of numbness in his right hand. During examination, you observe a loss of sensation in the palmar and dorsal regions of the 5th digit, while the sensation of the forearm remains intact. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is cubital tunnel syndrome. This condition is characterized by ulnar nerve neuropathy, which affects the sensory innervation of the palmar and dorsal aspects of 1.5 fingers medially. It can also cause wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals) and the hypothenar muscles. To test for ulnar neuropathy, Froment’s test can be used to assess the function of the adductor pollicis muscle.

      Axillary nerve neuropathy is not the correct answer. The axillary nerve has both motor and sensory functions, innervating the deltoid and teres minor muscles, as well as providing sensory innervation to the skin over the lower two-thirds of the posterior part of the deltoid and the long head of the triceps brachii.

      C8/T1 radiculopathy is also not the correct answer. While it can mimic ulnar nerve neuropathy, the preserved sensation of the forearm would suggest cubital tunnel syndrome instead. The medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve (C8 and T1) provides sensation to the medial forearm, not the ulnar nerve.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is also not the correct answer. This condition is caused by median nerve dysfunction, resulting in sensory loss over the lateral 3.5 digits and loss of motor function to the flexor muscles of the forearm and hand, as well as those responsible for thumb movement.

      The Ulnar Nerve: Overview, Branches, and Patterns of Damage

      The ulnar nerve is a nerve that arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 spinal nerves. It provides motor innervation to several muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. It also provides sensory innervation to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects.

      The ulnar nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm before entering the palm of the hand via the Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone. The nerve has several branches, including the muscular branch, palmar cutaneous branch, dorsal cutaneous branch, superficial branch, and deep branch. These branches supply various muscles and skin areas in the hand.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow. When damaged at the wrist, it can result in a claw hand deformity, which involves hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals) and hypothenar muscles, as well as sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers. When damaged at the elbow, the same symptoms may occur, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to note that in distal lesions, the clawing may be more severe, which is known as the ulnar paradox.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 42 - You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has just been diagnosed with type...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 23-year-old man who has just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. He works as a software engineer and has no other medical conditions. What should be his initial target for HbA1c?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 48 mmol/mol

      Explanation:

      Managing Type 1 Diabetes: NICE Guidelines

      The management of type 1 diabetes is a complex process that involves the collaboration of various healthcare professionals. It is crucial to monitor the condition regularly as it can reduce life expectancy by 13 years and lead to micro and macrovascular complications. In 2015, NICE released guidelines on the diagnosis and management of type 1 diabetes, which provide valuable information for clinicians caring for patients with this condition.

      One of the key recommendations is to monitor HbA1c levels every 3-6 months, with a target of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or lower for adults. However, other factors such as daily activities, comorbidities, and history of hypoglycemia should also be considered. Self-monitoring of blood glucose is also essential, with a minimum of four tests per day, including before meals and bedtime. Blood glucose targets should be between 5-7 mmol/l on waking and 4-7 mmol/l before meals at other times of the day.

      NICE recommends multiple daily injection basal-bolus insulin regimens as the preferred choice for adults with type 1 diabetes, rather than twice-daily mixed insulin regimens. Rapid-acting insulin analogues should be used before meals instead of rapid-acting soluble human or animal insulins. Metformin may also be considered if the patient’s BMI is 25 kg/m² or higher.

      In summary, managing type 1 diabetes requires a comprehensive approach that considers various factors. NICE guidelines provide a useful framework for clinicians to ensure optimal care for their patients with type 1 diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 43 - A 55-year-old woman presents with weight loss and anaemia. She has no significant...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with weight loss and anaemia. She has no significant medical history. Upon examination, she has massive splenomegaly and pale conjunctivae. Her full blood count shows a Hb of 10.9 g/dl, platelets of 702 * 109/l, and a WCC of 56.6 * 109/l. Leucocytosis is noted on her film, with all stages of granulocyte maturation seen. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Massive splenomegaly can be caused by myelofibrosis, chronic myeloid leukemia, visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar), malaria, and Gaucher’s syndrome. Among these, chronic myeloid leukemia is the most probable diagnosis, as it is the most common cause.

      Understanding Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia and its Management

      Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. It is characterized by the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome in more than 95% of patients. This chromosome is formed due to a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, resulting in the fusion of the ABL proto-oncogene and the BCR gene. The resulting BCR-ABL gene produces a fusion protein that has excessive tyrosine kinase activity.

      CML typically affects individuals between 60-70 years of age and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, weight loss, sweating, and splenomegaly. The condition is also associated with an increase in granulocytes at different stages of maturation and thrombocytosis. In some cases, CML may undergo blast transformation, leading to acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) or acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).

      The management of CML involves various treatment options, including imatinib, which is considered the first-line treatment. Imatinib is an inhibitor of the tyrosine kinase associated with the BCR-ABL defect and has a very high response rate in the chronic phase of CML. Other treatment options include hydroxyurea, interferon-alpha, and allogenic bone marrow transplant. With proper management, individuals with CML can lead a normal life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 44 - A 68-year-old man presents with persistent dyspepsia that is alleviated by omeprazole. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with persistent dyspepsia that is alleviated by omeprazole. He has been taking omeprazole 20 mg daily for the past 2 years. What is a drawback of using a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) for an extended period of time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of fractures

      Explanation:

      According to the BNF, PPIs should be taken in the lowest effective dose for the shortest possible time, and their long-term use should be regularly evaluated. Prolonged use of PPIs can conceal the signs of stomach cancer and heighten the likelihood of osteoporosis and fractures by hindering the absorption of calcium and magnesium.

      Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors and Their Adverse Effects

      Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that block the H+/K+ ATPase of the gastric parietal cell, leading to irreversible effects. Common examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole. While these medications are effective in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, they can also have adverse effects on the body.

      One of the potential adverse effects of PPIs is hyponatremia, which is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. PPIs can also lead to hypomagnesemia, which is a deficiency of magnesium in the blood. Additionally, long-term use of PPIs has been linked to an increased risk of osteoporosis and fractures. Another potential adverse effect is microscopic colitis, which is inflammation of the colon that can cause diarrhea and abdominal pain. Finally, PPIs have been associated with an increased risk of C. difficile infections, which can cause severe diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 45 - A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations and dyspnoea on exertion. His symptoms have come on quickly over the last three weeks. A full blood count is ordered and is suggestive of acute lymphoblastic myeloid leukaemia (AML).
      What Is the next most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is a type of blood cancer that affects the bone marrow. To diagnose AML, several diagnostic tests may be performed. The most common tests include a bone marrow biopsy, ultrasound scan of the abdomen, chest X-ray, computerised tomography (CT) scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis, and lumbar puncture.

      Bone Marrow Biopsy: This is the most important test for diagnosing AML. It involves extracting cells from the bone marrow and examining them under a microscope. AML is characterised by the presence of primitive myeloblasts and Auer rods in the bone marrow.

      Ultrasound Scan of the Abdomen: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the abdomen or spleen. If any enlarged lymph nodes are found, they may be biopsied to determine the extent of the leukaemia.

      Chest X-ray: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the mediastinum.

      CT Scan of Chest, Abdomen and Pelvis: This test is not usually used as a first-line investigation for AML. However, once the diagnosis is confirmed, a CT scan may be used to assess for the presence of enlarged lymph nodes or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.

      Lumbar Puncture: This test is not usually used in the diagnosis of AML unless it is suspected that the leukaemia cells are also present in the cerebrospinal fluid.

      In conclusion, a bone marrow biopsy is the most important test for diagnosing AML. Other tests may be used to determine the extent of the leukaemia or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 46 - A 3-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father who has concerns about her motor development which are echoed by her daycare provider. There are no concerns about her speech and she is usually well apart from a few episodes of constipation in the past for which she has received laxatives. Neurological examination is normal. Abdominal examination reveals mild distension and tenderness in the left upper quadrant.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      .

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glue ear

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss in Children

      Hearing loss in children can be caused by various factors. Two common causes are glue ear and otosclerosis. Glue ear, also known as otitis media with effusion, is the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear without acute inflammation. It can lead to conductive hearing loss, recurrent ear infections, speech delay, and behavioral problems. Children with Down syndrome and cleft palate are at higher risk of developing glue ear. On the other hand, otosclerosis is the abnormal growth of bone in the middle ear, resulting in gradual hearing loss in early adulthood.

      It is important to note that speech delay alone may not indicate autistic spectrum disorder. Children with this disorder typically exhibit issues with social interactions, non-verbal communication, and restrictive behaviors. In contrast, selective mutism is an anxiety disorder that causes a child to be unable to speak in certain situations. Impacted ear wax can also cause hearing loss or speech delay, but it can be diagnosed through ear examination.

      In summary, a child with recurrent earache and retracted tympanic membranes is more likely to have glue ear, especially if they have Down syndrome or cleft palate. It is important to monitor their development closely, especially if they also have a learning disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 47 - A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of feeling down. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of feeling down. He reports experiencing anhedonia, fatigue, weight loss, insomnia, and agitation. His PHQ-9 score is 20. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start citalopram and refer for CBT

      Explanation:

      Based on the man’s PHQ-9 score and varied symptoms, it appears that he is suffering from severe depression. According to NICE guidelines, a combination of an antidepressant and psychological intervention is recommended for this level of depression, with an SSRI being the first choice antidepressant. Therefore, citalopram with CBT would be the appropriate treatment in this case. Referral to psychiatry is not necessary at this time. Venlafaxine would be considered as a later option if other antidepressants were ineffective. While fluoxetine is a good first-line antidepressant, it should be combined with a psychological intervention for severe depression. CBT alone is suitable for mild to moderate depression, but for severe depression, an antidepressant in combination with psychological intervention is recommended.

      In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 48 - What is the primary mode of operation of simvastatin in elderly patients? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the primary mode of operation of simvastatin in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreases intrinsic cholesterol synthesis

      Explanation:

      The rate-limiting enzyme in hepatic cholesterol synthesis, HMG-CoA reductase, is inhibited by statins.

      Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.

      Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 49 - A 30-year-old woman presents with neck pain and swelling. She reports having symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with neck pain and swelling. She reports having symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection followed by neck pain and swelling for the past 2 weeks. During examination, she appears anxious, her heart rate is 98/min, and her thyroid gland is tender and diffusely swollen.
      Her blood tests reveal the following results:
      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.4 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 42 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
      ESR 65 mm/h (1-20)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's thyroiditis)

      Explanation:

      Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis is the likely diagnosis for this woman who presents with hyperthyroidism and a tender goitre following an upper respiratory tract infection. This condition is characterized by high ESR and painful thyroid gland. Graves’ disease, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and thyroid cancer are less likely causes as they do not present with these specific symptoms.

      Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases

      Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.

      To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.

      It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 50 - A 48-year-old man is admitted with right-sided pneumonia. According to the patient he...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is admitted with right-sided pneumonia. According to the patient he has been unwell for 3–4 days with malaise, fever, cough and muscular pain. He also has a rash on his abdomen and neck pain. He was previously fit and has not travelled abroad. He is a plumber and also keeps pigeons. According to his wife, two of his favourite pigeons died 2 weeks ago.
      Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for his pneumonia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia psittaci

      Explanation:

      Psittacosis is a disease caused by the bacterium Chlamydia psittaci, which is typically transmitted to humans through exposure to infected birds. Symptoms include fever, cough, headache, and sore throat, as well as a characteristic facial rash. Diagnosis is confirmed through serology tests, and treatment involves the use of tetracyclines or macrolides. Mycoplasma pneumoniae is another bacterium that can cause atypical pneumonia, with symptoms including fever, malaise, myalgia, headache, and a rash. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, while Legionella pneumophila can cause Legionnaires’ disease, which presents with fever, cough, dyspnea, and systemic symptoms. Coxiella burnetii is the bacterium responsible for Q fever, which can be transmitted by animals and arthropods and presents with non-specific symptoms. In the scenario presented, the patient’s history of exposure to infected birds and the presence of a rash suggest a diagnosis of psittacosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 51 - Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.

      The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 52 - A 50-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus comes in for a routine check-up. Upon examination, he appears healthy with no abnormal findings except for his blood pressure, which is measured at 160/110 mmHg. Routine blood tests are conducted and reveal the following results:
      - Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 16 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 163 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What additional factor would indicate that the cause of this presentation is chronic rather than acute?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia is a sign that the patient’s kidney disease is chronic rather than acute. This is because chronic renal failure can result in a lack of conversion of 25-hydroxyvitamin D to its active form, which is necessary for intestinal calcium absorption. As a result, hypocalcaemia is a marker that suggests the kidney disease is chronic and not acute. Anuria, haematuria, and normal parathyroid hormone levels are not indicative of chronic kidney disease. Most patients with chronic kidney disease are asymptomatic until very late-stage renal disease occurs, at which point they may experience other symptoms such as oedema, anaemia, and pruritus. Oliguria is more suggestive of an acute kidney injury in this scenario.

      Distinguishing between Acute Kidney Injury and Chronic Kidney Disease

      One of the most effective ways to differentiate between acute kidney injury (AKI) and chronic kidney disease (CKD) is through the use of renal ultrasound. In most cases, patients with CKD will have small kidneys that are bilateral. However, there are some exceptions to this rule, including individuals with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, diabetic nephropathy in its early stages, amyloidosis, and HIV-associated nephropathy.

      In addition to renal ultrasound, there are other features that can suggest CKD rather than AKI. For example, individuals with CKD may experience hypocalcaemia due to a lack of vitamin D. By identifying these distinguishing factors, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with kidney disease. Proper diagnosis is crucial, as the treatment and management of AKI and CKD differ significantly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 53 - A 30-year-old man presents with fatigue, joint pain, and abnormal liver function tests....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents with fatigue, joint pain, and abnormal liver function tests. After investigation, he is diagnosed with hereditary hemochromatosis. His wife undergoes genetic testing and is found to not carry the disease. What is the likelihood that their child will develop hemochromatosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Complications

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to the accumulation of iron in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is more common in people of European descent, with a prevalence of 1 in 200.

      In the early stages of haemochromatosis, symptoms are often non-specific, such as fatigue and joint pain. As the disease progresses, patients may develop bronze skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis.

      Treatment for haemochromatosis involves regular phlebotomy to remove excess iron from the body. Reversible complications of haemochromatosis include cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, liver cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy. However, irreversible complications include cirrhosis, which can lead to liver failure and other serious health problems.

      In conclusion, haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron metabolism and can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent irreversible damage and improve quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 54 - A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to urogynaecology with symptoms of urge incontinence. Despite attempting bladder retraining, her symptoms persist. The decision is made to prescribe a muscarinic antagonist. Can you identify an example of a medication that falls under this category?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tolterodine

      Explanation:

      Oxybutynin and solifenacin are other examples of muscarinic antagonists used for urinary incontinence. Muscarinic antagonists used for different conditions include ipratropium for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and procyclidine for Parkinson’s disease.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 55 - You assess a 75-year-old patient with a complex medical history and taking multiple...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 75-year-old patient with a complex medical history and taking multiple medications. The patient presents with significant bilateral breast tissue growth. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Goserelin (Zoladex)

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia may occur as a side effect of using GnRH agonists like goserelin for prostate cancer management. Tamoxifen can be prescribed to address gynaecomastia.

      Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers

      Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.

      There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.

      It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 56 - A 55-year-old man with a history of cytomegalovirus infection presented to the ED...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of cytomegalovirus infection presented to the ED complaining of blurred vision, light sensitivity, floaters, and redness in his right eye for the past two weeks. Upon fundus examination, a combination of white and red retinal lesions were observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chorioretinitis

      Explanation:

      Chorioretinitis can be identified through a pizza pie appearance on fundoscopy. This occurs when the choroid and retina become inflamed, typically in patients with cytomegalovirus. It is important to note that anterior uveitis will not show any fundal signs. While floaters may suggest retinal detachment, it does not present as a pizza pie appearance on fundoscopy.

      Causes of Chorioretinitis

      Chorioretinitis is a medical condition that affects the retina and choroid, which are the layers of tissue at the back of the eye. There are several causes of chorioretinitis, including syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can cause chorioretinitis as part of its secondary stage. Cytomegalovirus is a common virus that can cause chorioretinitis in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that can be contracted from contaminated food or water, and it can cause chorioretinitis in some cases.

      Sarcoidosis is a condition that causes inflammation in various parts of the body, including the eyes. It can lead to chorioretinitis in some cases. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body, including the eyes. It can cause chorioretinitis as a rare complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 57 - A 35-year-old man presents to you with right wrist discomfort three weeks after...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to you with right wrist discomfort three weeks after falling off his bike and landing on his outstretched hand. He went to the emergency department on the same day and had wrist x-rays, which were reported as normal. He was given pain relief and discharged without any follow-up.

      Currently, he is experiencing persistent pain that has not improved. On examination, the wrist appears normal, with no significant swelling or redness. The wrist's range of motion is slightly limited, likely due to pain. He is tender over the anatomical snuff box. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to hospital for urgent orthopaedic/emergency department review

      Explanation:

      The presentation and examination strongly suggest a scaphoid fracture, making conservative treatment with splinting, pain relief, and physiotherapy unsuitable due to the risk of avascular necrosis caused by the scaphoid bone’s blood supply. While an outpatient x-ray is an option, some scaphoid fractures may not be visible on x-rays and may require a CT scan or MRI. As a result, the patient should be referred to an orthopaedic clinic, either directly or through the local emergency department.

      Anatomy of the Scaphoid Bone

      The scaphoid bone is a small bone located in the wrist. It has several important features that allow it to articulate with other bones in the wrist and hand. The bone has a concave surface that articulates with the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface that corresponds with the lunate. Proximally, it has a wide convex surface that articulates with the radius. Distally, it has a tubercle that can be felt and an articular surface that faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones.

      The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum, which is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis. It is important to understand the anatomy of the scaphoid bone in order to properly diagnose and treat injuries to the wrist and hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 58 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to his General Practitioner (GP) by his mother. She is concerned that he has had consistently delayed motor milestones and that he has severe behavioural difficulties. To stand up from a sitting position, he first kneels on all fours and then uses his hands to ‘walk himself up’. The GP notices that the child has hypertrophy of his calf muscles.
      Which of the following tests is useful in the diagnosis of the underlying condition?
      Select the SINGLE most useful test from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy and Wilson’s Disease

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Wilson’s disease are two conditions that can present with non-specific symptoms. Here, we discuss the diagnostic tests used to identify these conditions.

      DMD is an X-linked recessive condition that predominantly affects males. Diagnosis is usually made by significantly elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing. Muscle biopsy may also be required. Symptoms usually present by age three and include delayed walking, muscle weakness, pseudohypertrophy of calf muscles, and learning difficulties. An MRI spine or head is not helpful in diagnosis as DMD is not caused by a central nervous system or spinal pathology.

      Wilson’s disease often presents with signs of liver failure and non-specific symptoms such as tiredness, weight loss, and abdominal pain. Neurological symptoms such as tremors, loss of motor skills, and behavioural problems are more common in teenagers and adults. Diagnosis is made by measuring serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing.

      In summary, elevated creatine kinase levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose DMD, while serum caeruloplasmin levels and genetic testing are used to diagnose Wilson’s disease. MRI scans are not helpful in the diagnosis of either condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 59 - Which one of the following statements regarding the NHS Breast Cancer Screening Programme...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the NHS Breast Cancer Screening Programme is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Women are screened every 3 years

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.

      For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 60 - A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema. He...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 4-year-old daughter to your clinic with worsening eczema. He reports that she has developed itchy blisters all over her body, including her face, torso, arms, and legs. Additionally, she is not behaving normally, eating and drinking less than usual, and not engaging with her favorite toys. She also has a fever of 39ºC. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to hospital

      Explanation:

      Immediate hospitalization and administration of IV antivirals are necessary for the treatment of eczema herpeticum, a severe condition. The child in question is exhibiting symptoms such as painful blisters, fever, and swollen lymph nodes, which require urgent medical attention. Any delay in seeking medical help could worsen the condition. Therefore, all other options are incorrect and should be avoided.

      Understanding Eczema Herpeticum

      Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.

      During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 61 - A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on both his wrists that has been present for 1 week. Upon examination, the doctor notes small purplish papules on the flexural aspect of both wrists with a flat top and small white lines on the surface. The patient also has areas of hyperpigmentation on the inner aspect of his elbows. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and medical history suggest a diagnosis of lichen planus, a skin condition with an unknown cause that is likely immune-mediated. The rash is typically itchy and appears as papules with a shiny, purplish color in areas such as the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and may have white lines known as Wickham’s striae. Over time, the papules flatten and are replaced by hyperpigmentation. Oral involvement is common, with a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Management usually involves topical steroids, but more severe cases may require oral steroids or immunosuppressants. Atopic eczema, irritant eczema, molluscum contagiosum, and psoriasis are different skin conditions that do not fit the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 62 - An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of progressive hearing loss...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor with a complaint of progressive hearing loss in both ears. What is the MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Presbycusis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss: A Brief Overview

      Hearing loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including age, infection, genetic predisposition, and growths in the ear. Here are some common causes of hearing loss:

      Presbyacusis: This is an age-related hearing loss that affects sounds at high frequency. It is the most likely diagnosis in cases of hearing loss in older adults.

      Otitis externa: This is inflammation of the external ear canal, which can cause pain, discharge, and conductive deafness.

      Cholesteatoma: This is a destructive and expanding growth consisting of keratinising squamous epithelium in the middle ear and/or mastoid process. It can cause ear discharge, conductive deafness, and other symptoms.

      Ménière’s disease: This is a condition that causes sudden attacks of tinnitus, vertigo, a sensation of fullness in the ear, and fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss.

      Otosclerosis: This is a form of conductive hearing loss that often occurs in early adult life. It can also cause tinnitus and transient vertigo.

      If you are experiencing hearing loss, it is important to see a healthcare professional for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 63 - A 49-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of difficulty walking. He describes...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of difficulty walking. He describes experiencing pain in both calves and feet after walking around 400m, which gradually worsens and eventually causes his legs to give out. The pain disappears completely after sitting and resting for a few minutes, and he has found that leaning forward helps him walk further before the pain returns. The patient has no prior medical history, and a physical examination of his lower limbs reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lumbar spinal stenosis

      Explanation:

      Lumbar spinal canal stenosis is often indicated by a history of progressive painful neurological deficit that improves when resting or leaning forward. This condition causes nerve root ischaemia due to inadequate microvascular blood flow to the spinal nerve roots, resulting in bilateral neuropathic pain and progressive deficit affecting the dermatomes and myotomes below the affected level. Leaning forward widens the canal, providing relief, while resting reduces the oxygen requirement of the nerve roots, allowing the ischaemia to slowly resolve. Neurological examination of the legs usually shows no abnormal findings as the symptoms are only brought on by consistent use of the nerve roots.

      Osteoarthritis, on the other hand, is a degenerative arthropathy that typically affects large weight-bearing joints in the lower limbs, causing pain that rarely improves with rest and is not associated with a neurological deficit. It is usually unilateral and does not cause symmetrical symptoms.

      Peripheral neuropathy can produce similar symptoms to spinal stenosis, but the pathology is not related to nerve use, and a deficit (usually sensory) would be detected on examination. The absence of such findings indicates that peripheral neuropathy is not the cause.

      Peripheral vascular disease is the most likely differential for patients with spinal stenosis and symptoms of progressive leg pain that is relieved by rest. However, evidence of vascular insufficiency, such as absent distal pulses, ulceration or skin changes, would be present on examination if the condition were severe enough to cause symptoms after relatively short distances of walking. Additionally, leaning forward does not improve symptoms in peripheral vascular disease, only rest does.

      Lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition where the central canal in the lower back is narrowed due to degenerative changes, such as a tumor or disk prolapse. Patients may experience back pain, neuropathic pain, and symptoms similar to claudication. However, one distinguishing factor is that the pain is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill. Degenerative disease is the most common cause, starting with changes in the intervertebral disk that lead to disk bulging and collapse. This puts stress on the facet joints, causing cartilage degeneration, hypertrophy, and osteophyte formation, which narrows the spinal canal and compresses the nerve roots of the cauda equina. MRI scanning is the best way to diagnose lumbar spinal stenosis, and treatment may involve a laminectomy.

      Overall, lumbar spinal stenosis is a condition that affects the lower back and can cause a range of symptoms, including pain and discomfort. It is often caused by degenerative changes in the intervertebral disk, which can lead to narrowing of the spinal canal and compression of the nerve roots. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI scanning, and treatment may involve a laminectomy. It is important to note that the pain associated with lumbar spinal stenosis is positional, with sitting being more comfortable than standing, and walking uphill being easier than downhill.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 64 - A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes is found to have an elevated...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes is found to have an elevated plasma creatinine of 150 μmol/l (reference range 62–106 μmol/l). Her blood pressure is 170/95 mmHg, and fundoscopy reveals mild hypertensive changes and background diabetic retinopathy. She has a neuroischaemic ulcer on her left foot and no palpable pedal pulses. Urine dipstick is negative, and renal ultrasound shows a 8.5-cm left kidney and a 6.2-cm right kidney, with reduced cortical thickness.
      What is the most likely cause of the renal impairment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Renal Dysfunction and Their Clinical Features

      Renal dysfunction can have various causes, and identifying the underlying condition is crucial for appropriate management. Here are some common causes of renal dysfunction and their clinical features:

      Renal artery stenosis (RAS): RAS can lead to renovascular hypertension and renal impairment, especially in older individuals with atherosclerosis or diabetes mellitus. Symptoms may include sudden worsening of hypertension or renal function, and ultrasonography may show kidney size asymmetry. Treatment options include pharmacologic control of hypertension and serum cholesterol levels, as well as surgical or percutaneous revascularisation in selected cases.

      Membranous nephropathy: This is a type of nephrotic syndrome that often presents with oedema and significant proteinuria (>3.5 g/24 h). It is more common in adults and may be asymptomatic in some cases.

      Cholesterol emboli syndrome: This condition may occur after an invasive arterial procedure and is characterised by renal dysfunction, hypertension, and distal ischaemia due to small-vessel occlusion. Livedo reticularis and blue toe syndrome may also be present.

      Diabetic glomerulosclerosis: This is a complication of diabetes mellitus that can cause persistent albuminuria, declining glomerular filtration rate, and elevated blood pressure. Physical findings associated with long-term diabetes may also be present.

      Reflux nephropathy: This condition is caused by the backflow of urine from the bladder to the kidneys and can lead to renal scarring. It is more common in children with urinary tract abnormalities but can also occur in adults with bladder outlet obstruction or neurogenic bladder. Symptoms may include nephrotic syndrome and urinary tract infection.

      In summary, renal dysfunction can have diverse causes and presentations, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to establish the diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 65 - A 63-year-old woman complains of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman complains of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb, and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus. Joint position sense is impaired at her left great toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal.
      Which of the following is the most likely site of the lesion?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate site of the lesion from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest Brown-Séquard syndrome, which is caused by a hemisection of the spinal cord. This results in ipsilateral pyramidal weakness and loss of joint position/vibration sense, along with contralateral loss of pain/temperature sensation. The patient’s lesion is located in the left mid-thoracic cord. A lesion in the left lumbosacral plexus would only affect the left lower limb. A cervical cord lesion would affect the upper limbs. A central lesion would produce bilateral symmetrical defects, which is not the case here. A right mid-thoracic cord lesion would produce similar symptoms, but on the right side instead. Other spinal cord syndromes include complete cord transection, anterior cord syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, syringomyelia, and cauda equina syndrome. Each of these has a distinct set of symptoms and affected areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 66 - The hand radiograph of a 43-year-old woman demonstrates periarticular osteoporosis, loss of joint...

    Incorrect

    • The hand radiograph of a 43-year-old woman demonstrates periarticular osteoporosis, loss of joint space and bone erosions.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

      Explanation:

      Radiographic Features of Common Rheumatologic Conditions

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is characterized by periarticular osteoporosis, narrowing of joint space, juxta-articular bony erosions, subluxation, gross deformity, and periarticular soft tissue swelling. In the hands, swan neck deformity of fingers, ulnar deviation of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints, boutonnière deformity of the thumb, and Bouchard’s nodes are common. However, the presence of Bouchard’s nodes without Heberden’s nodes is more indicative of RA than osteoarthritis.

      Gout may present with gouty tophi, which are soft tissue masses created by the deposition of urate crystals. Punched-out erosions caused by bone absorption may also be present. These changes tend to be sporadic and asymmetrical.

      Osteoarthritis is characterized by subchondral bone cysts, osteophytes, narrowing of joint space, and subchondral sclerosis. Clinically, both Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes may be present.

      Psoriatic arthritis most commonly affects the hands and feet. Radiographic features include erosions along the shaft of the phalanges, leading to ‘pencil-in-cup’ deformity and tufting of the bones. Unlike RA, osteoporosis is not a feature, and typically the more distal joints are affected.

      Hypercalcaemia does not have specific radiographic features. The changes seen would be those associated with the underlying cause of the hypercalcaemia, such as hyperparathyroidism or cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 67 - A 64-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of pain when swallowing for...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of pain when swallowing for the past 2 months. He works as a construction worker and has had two colds in the past 2 months since the new building project started - despite his cold symptoms resolving, he reports an ongoing painful swallow. He has noticed some hoarseness in his voice, but attributes this to drinking less water than usual due to his painful swallow. He has no past medical history. He has a 25 pack-year smoking history and does not drink alcohol.
      What should be the GP's next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for upper GI endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The presence of odynophagia in a patient with risk factors such as smoking and age is a concerning symptom that may indicate oesophageal cancer. In this case, the patient should be referred for a 2 week wait upper GI endoscopy and questioned about other symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, reflux, weight loss, and nausea. It would be inappropriate to reassure the patient and advise over-the-counter medications without further investigation. A chest x-ray is unlikely to show any clear oesophageal pathologies and a barium swallow is only useful if a benign pathology is suspected. As the patient has two features of oesophageal cancer and a smoking history, she should be worked up as a potential cancer patient. There are no emergency symptoms that warrant referral to the emergency department for same-day investigation and blood tests are unlikely to indicate malignancy in a clear and obvious manner.

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.

      Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.

      The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.

      Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.

      Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 68 - A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was prescribed ramipril two months ago for stage 2 hypertension, which was diagnosed after ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. His clinic readings have improved from 164/96 mmHg to 142/84 mmHg. However, he has been experiencing a persistent, dry cough for the past four weeks. What would be the best course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and start losartan

      Explanation:

      When ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, angiotensin-receptor blockers are recommended.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 69 - A 27 year old woman with a confirmed diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome (PMS)...

    Incorrect

    • A 27 year old woman with a confirmed diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) visits her GP seeking medical intervention. Despite implementing recommended lifestyle changes, she has seen minimal relief in her symptoms. She has no immediate plans of starting a family. What treatment option would be appropriate to suggest, provided there are no contraindications?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 70 - A 25-year-old woman seeks guidance on the Mirena (intrauterine system). What impact is...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman seeks guidance on the Mirena (intrauterine system). What impact is expected on her menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Initially irregular bleeding later followed by light menses or amenorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 71 - A 70 year-old male patient complains of leg weakness and exhibits purple plaques...

    Incorrect

    • A 70 year-old male patient complains of leg weakness and exhibits purple plaques on the dorsum of the hands. You suspect dermatomyositis. What underlying condition should be considered, as it is associated with dermatomyositis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal malignancy

      Explanation:

      Dermatomyositis primarily results from an autoimmune disorder and is prevalent among women aged 50-70. Nevertheless, it can also be a paraneoplastic ailment, with ovarian, breast, and lung cancers being the most frequent underlying malignancies. It is crucial to contemplate the likelihood of an underlying tumor, particularly in elderly patients.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilatation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 72 - A 32-year-old woman who lives with her husband comes to you for advice....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who lives with her husband comes to you for advice. She has been experiencing anal discharge and itching for the past 4 days. She also has some symptoms of painful urination. A urethral smear shows intracellular diplococci.

      What is the most probable infectious agent that matches this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae

      Explanation:

      Common Sexually Transmitted Infections and Diagnostic Methods

      Sexually transmitted infections (STIs) are a major public health concern worldwide. Here are some common STIs and their diagnostic methods:

      Neisseria gonorrhoeae: This bacterium causes gonorrhoea, which is a purulent infection of the mucous membranes. In men, symptoms include urethritis, acute epididymitis, and rectal infection. A Gram stain is the method of choice for detecting gonorrhoea in symptomatic men.

      Treponema pallidum: This spirochaete bacterium causes syphilis. Serologic testing is the standard method of detection for all stages of syphilis.

      Chlamydia trachomatis: This bacterium is an obligate intracellular micro-organism that infects squamocolumnar epithelial cells. Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT) is the most sensitive test for detecting C. trachomatis infection, and a urine sample is an effective specimen for this test.

      Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1): This virus is typically associated with orofacial disease. Tissue culture isolation and immunofluorescent staining can be used to diagnose HSV-1.

      Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2): This virus is typically associated with urogenital disease. Tissue culture isolation and immunofluorescent staining can be used to diagnose HSV-2.

      Common STIs and Their Diagnostic Methods

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 73 - A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a sudden onset of right-sided facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a sudden onset of right-sided facial weakness, which appears to be a lower motor neuron palsy. There are no other neurological symptoms on examination, and her ears appear normal. You diagnose her with Bell's palsy and prescribe prednisolone. What is the crucial next step in managing her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe artifical tears and advise eye taping at night

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 74 - A 30-year-old male patient comes to you with a rash that has spread...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male patient comes to you with a rash that has spread all over his body. He has multiple erythematous lesions less than 1 cm in diameter on his torso and limbs, some of which are covered by a fine scale. Two weeks ago, he had exudative tonsillitis when he was seen with a sore throat. Apart from asthma, he has no other medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Tear-drop scaly papules suddenly appearing on the trunk and limbs may indicate guttate psoriasis.

      Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The name guttate comes from the Latin word for drop, as the lesions appear as small, tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs. These papules are pink and scaly, and the onset of the condition is usually acute, occurring over a few days.

      In most cases, guttate psoriasis will resolve on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat the underlying streptococcal infection. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.

      It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be preceded by a respiratory tract infection. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple oval lesions with a fine scale. While guttate psoriasis resolves within a few months, pityriasis rosea typically resolves after around 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 75 - An increase in alkaline phosphatase can be attributed to any of the following...

    Incorrect

    • An increase in alkaline phosphatase can be attributed to any of the following conditions except?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Alkaline Phosphatase and Its Causes

      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is an enzyme found in various tissues throughout the body, including the liver, bones, and intestines. When the levels of ALP in the blood are elevated, it can indicate a potential health issue. The causes of raised ALP can be divided into two categories based on the calcium level in the blood.

      If both ALP and calcium levels are high, it may indicate bone metastases, hyperparathyroidism, osteomalacia, or renal failure. On the other hand, if ALP is high but calcium is low, it may be due to cholestasis, hepatitis, fatty liver, neoplasia, Paget’s disease, or physiological factors such as pregnancy, growing children, or healing fractures.

      It is important to note that elevated ALP levels do not necessarily indicate a specific condition, but rather serve as a signal for further investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 76 - A 45-year-old woman develops a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during the second trimester...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman develops a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during the second trimester of pregnancy.
      Which of the following treatments is she likely to be managed with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low-molecular-weight heparin (eg. Clexane®)

      Explanation:

      Anticoagulant Therapy for Deep Vein Thrombosis in Pregnancy

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy. Any woman with symptoms or signs suggestive of DVT should undergo objective testing and receive treatment with low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) immediately until the diagnosis is excluded. LMWH should be given in doses titrated against the woman’s weight and can be administered once daily or in two divided doses. It does not cross the placenta and has a lower risk of bleeding and heparin-induced osteoporosis compared to unfractionated heparin (UH). Fondaparinux, argatroban, or r-hirudin may be considered for pregnant women who cannot tolerate heparin.

      Aspirin is not recommended for thromboprophylaxis in obstetric patients, except for pregnant women with a known history of antiphospholipid syndrome. Intravenous UH is the preferred initial treatment for massive pulmonary embolism with cardiovascular compromise during pregnancy and the puerperium. Warfarin should not be used for antenatal DVT treatment due to its adverse effects on the fetus. Postnatal therapy can be with LMWH or oral anticoagulants, but regular blood tests are needed to monitor warfarin.

      Compression duplex ultrasonography should be performed when there is clinical suspicion of DVT. D-dimer testing should not be used in the investigation of acute DVT in pregnancy. Before anticoagulant therapy is started, blood tests should be taken for a full blood count, coagulation screen, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests. Thrombophilia screening before therapy is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 77 - A nurse updates you on a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant....

    Incorrect

    • A nurse updates you on a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. The nurse reports that her blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, which has increased from her previous reading of 152/85 mmHg taken 2 days ago. The woman had no health issues before her pregnancy. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral labetalol

      Explanation:

      Oral labetalol is the recommended initial treatment for this woman with moderate gestational hypertension, as per the current guidelines.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 78 - A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a check-up. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to your clinic for a check-up. She is currently 16 weeks pregnant and has had no complications so far. During her visit, she mentions that her 4-year-old son was recently diagnosed with chickenpox. The patient is concerned about the potential impact on her pregnancy as she cannot recall if she had chickenpox as a child. What would be the appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a blood test for varicella antibodies and await the result

      Explanation:

      In cases where a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox and her immunity status is uncertain, it is recommended to conduct a blood test to check for varicella antibodies. If she is found to be not immune and is over 20 weeks pregnant, either VZIG or aciclovir can be given. However, VZIG is the only option for those under 20 weeks pregnant and not immune. It is important to note that VZIG is effective up to 10 days post-exposure, so there is no need to administer it immediately after the blood test. Prescribing medication without confirming the patient’s immunity status is not recommended. Similarly, reassuring the patient and sending her away without following proper prophylaxis protocol is not appropriate. It is also important to note that the varicella-zoster vaccine is not currently part of the UK’s vaccination schedule and does not play a role in the management of pregnant women.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 79 - A 45-year-old businessman presents to the Emergency Department with his second episode of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old businessman presents to the Emergency Department with his second episode of epistaxis in a 24 hour period. On each occasion, the nosebleeds stopped with pressure applied just below the nasal bridge, but the most recent bleed went on for 30 minutes. He has hypertension, for which he takes medication regularly. He also admits to smoking a pack of cigarettes per day and drinking 10-15 units of alcohol each week. There is no history of trauma. He is worried about the problem affecting his work, as he has an important meeting the following day.
      On examination, he looks well and is not pale, and his blood pressure and pulse are within normal limits. He is peripherally well perfused. On inspection of the nasal vestibule, there are prominent blood vessels visible on the right side of the nasal septum, with a small amount of clotted blood also present.
      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cauterise the bleeding point using silver nitrate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Epistaxis: From Simple First-Aid Measures to Invasive Procedures

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can be treated through simple first-aid measures. However, in cases of repeated or prolonged nosebleeds, more invasive treatment may be necessary. Here are some treatment options for epistaxis:

      Cauterization: If an anterior bleeding point is seen, cautery can be attempted. This is usually achieved by the application of a silver nitrate stick to the area for around 10 seconds after giving topical local anesthesia.

      Blood tests and investigations: Blood tests and other investigations are of little use, as an underlying cause is highly unlikely in a young and otherwise well patient.

      First-aid measures: Epistaxis is mainly treated through simple first-aid measures. It is important to reassure the patient that the problem is normally self-limiting.

      Nasal tampon: Bleeds that do not settle with cautery, or significant bleeds where a bleeding point cannot be seen, require the application of a nasal tampon and referral to ENT.

      Admission: This patient does not require admission. Blood tests are unlikely to be helpful, and she is haemodynamically stable.

      In summary, treatment options for epistaxis range from simple first-aid measures to invasive procedures. The choice of treatment depends on the severity and frequency of the nosebleeds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 80 - A 9-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a one-month history of unusual...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl comes to the clinic with a one-month history of unusual facial movements noticed by her father. Her father reports that he first noticed her having twitching of left eye and face as well as drooling of saliva. This happens about twice a week, always at night. Each episode lasts for 1-2 minutes and after each episode, the girl is unable to speak properly for around 5 minutes. The girl is aware of these occurrences but reports unable to control them. The father reports that his daughter is otherwise normal with normal development.
      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Benign rolandic epilepsy

      Explanation:

      Benign rolandic epilepsy is identified by the occurrence of partial seizures during the night.

      The child displays typical indications of benign rolandic epilepsy, which is distinguished by partial seizures that occur during the night. Reflex anoxic seizures are caused by anoxia and typically manifest as syncope and subsequent convulsions in very young children. Panayiotopoulos syndrome is characterised by seizures, often prolonged, with predominantly autonomic symptoms such as nausea and retching. Idiopathic childhood occipital epilepsy of Gastaut is mainly characterised by visual hallucinations. Night terrors are a sleep disorder that causes feelings of dread or terror, typically during REM sleep.

      Benign rolandic epilepsy is a type of epilepsy that usually affects children between the ages of 4 and 12 years. This condition is characterized by seizures that typically occur at night and are often partial, causing sensations in the face. However, these seizures may also progress to involve the entire body. Despite these symptoms, children with benign rolandic epilepsy are otherwise healthy and normal.

      Diagnosis of benign rolandic epilepsy is typically confirmed through an electroencephalogram (EEG), which shows characteristic centrotemporal spikes. Fortunately, the prognosis for this condition is excellent, with seizures typically ceasing by adolescence. While the symptoms of benign rolandic epilepsy can be concerning for parents and caregivers, it is important to remember that this condition is generally not associated with any long-term complications or developmental delays.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 81 - A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset shortness of breath. She states that this occurred while walking up a flight of stairs and stopped once she sat down. The patient states that over the past few months she has been progressively unable to climb stairs due to shortness of breath and occasional central chest heaviness which occur when she starts climbing. She has a past medical history of diabetes and smokes around 20 cigarettes daily.
      Her parameters are stable, with oxygen saturations of 97%, blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg and heart rate of 90 bpm. A chest X-ray is done which comes back as normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis from the list below.
      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angina pectoris

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Chest Pain: Angina Pectoris, Anxiety Attack, COPD Exacerbation, Pneumothorax, and Unstable Angina

      Chest pain can be a symptom of various medical conditions, and it is crucial to differentiate between them to provide appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest angina pectoris, which is characterized by constricting discomfort in the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, triggered by physical exertion and relieved by rest or glyceryl trinitrate (GTN). However, diabetic patients may present with dyspnea instead of typical anginal pain. The patient’s cardiovascular risk factors, including diabetes, smoking, and hypertension, further support the diagnosis of angina.

      Anxiety attacks can also cause chest pain, along with palpitations, nausea, vomiting, sweating, insomnia, flushing, tremors, and urinary frequency. Therefore, anxiety should be considered as a possible diagnosis after ruling out life-threatening conditions such as ischemic heart disease.

      Exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is another potential cause of chest pain, especially in smokers. However, the absence of a known COPD diagnosis and normal oxygen saturation levels make this diagnosis less likely in this case.

      Pneumothorax, a collapsed lung, can also cause chest pain, but a normal chest X-ray makes this diagnosis unlikely.

      Finally, unstable angina is a severe form of angina that can occur unexpectedly and at rest, lasting longer than stable angina and not relieved by rest. It requires emergency treatment as it can quickly progress to a heart attack. However, in this case, the patient’s symptoms occur during exercise and resolve with rest, suggesting stable angina rather than unstable angina.

      In conclusion, the differential diagnosis for chest pain includes angina pectoris, anxiety attack, COPD exacerbation, pneumothorax, and unstable angina. A thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, risk factors, and symptoms is necessary to determine the underlying cause and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 82 - A General Practice is conducting an audit on the number of elderly patients...

    Incorrect

    • A General Practice is conducting an audit on the number of elderly patients with gastrointestinal symptoms who were referred for endoscopy without a clear clinical indication.
      Which of the following intestinal diseases necessitates blood tests and small intestinal biopsy for a precise diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Gastrointestinal Conditions through Biopsy Findings

      Biopsy findings play a crucial role in diagnosing various gastrointestinal conditions. However, some conditions require additional proof to confirm the diagnosis. Here are some examples:

      Coeliac disease: Biopsy findings may show changes in the small intestine, but they are non-specific. Positive serology for anti-endomysial or anti-gliadin antibodies is needed for confirmation.

      Abetalipoproteinemia: This condition can be diagnosed on biopsy findings alone. Clear enterocytes due to lipid accumulation are characteristic.

      Intestinal lymphangiectasia: Biopsy findings alone can diagnose primary intestinal lymphangiectasia, which is evidenced by the dilatation of lymphatics of the intestinal mucosa without any evidence of inflammation.

      Mycobacterium avium (M avium) infection: Foamy macrophages containing numerous acid-fast bacilli are characteristic of M avium infection and can be diagnosed through biopsy findings alone.

      Whipple’s disease: Biopsy findings alone can diagnose Whipple’s disease, which is characterised by swollen macrophages containing numerous periodic acid Schiff (PAS) positive granules due to the glycogen content of bacterial cell walls.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 83 - A 35-year-old man with ulcerative colitis is seen for his follow-up appointment. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with ulcerative colitis is seen for his follow-up appointment. He had a moderate flare-up of his condition two months ago, which was treated with oral steroids and resolved. He has not had any other flare-ups in the past year and his most recent colonoscopy showed left-sided disease. He is currently asymptomatic, with normal observations and bowel movements of 2-3 times per day. What is the best medical treatment to maintain remission for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral mesalazine

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 84 - A 62-year-old retired construction worker is found to have haematuria during a routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old retired construction worker is found to have haematuria during a routine check-up. He has a past history of hypertension, for which he takes medication. An abdominal X-ray shows no signs of renal stones. Blood tests reveal elevated plasma viscosity and mild anaemia, with a haemoglobin level of 110 g/l (reference range 120–160 g/l) and a slightly low ferritin level.
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder cancer

      Explanation:

      Bladder cancer is a prevalent type of urologic cancer that has a high recurrence rate. The most common type is transitional cell carcinoma, which is associated with environmental exposure, particularly smoking and certain occupations. Symptoms include painless gross hematuria, irritative bladder symptoms, and pelvic pain. Diagnosis is made through cystoscopy, which allows for biopsy and resection of papillary tumors. Treatment for non-muscle-invasive bladder cancer involves transurethral resection of the bladder tumor, followed by intravesical chemotherapy, intravesical BCG vaccine, and repeat resection and/or cystectomy in persistent or recurrent high-risk disease. Muscle-invasive bladder cancer is treated surgically, possibly with neoadjuvant chemotherapy.

      Chronic urinary tract infections typically present as dysuria or irritative voiding symptoms and are most commonly caused by infection with the original bacterial isolate in young, otherwise healthy women. Women with recurrent symptomatic UTIs can be treated with continuous or post-coital prophylactic antibiotics.

      Interstitial cystitis is an ongoing inflammation of the lower urinary tract that is not caused by pathogenic organisms. It affects mainly women over the age of 40 and presents as severe lower abdominal pain and polyuria. It is generally a diagnosis of exclusion.

      Analgesic nephropathy is characterized by kidney injury caused by excessive use of analgesic medications such as aspirin and other NSAIDs and paracetamol. This leads to renal papillary necrosis and chronic interstitial nephritis. Most healthy kidneys contain enough physiologic reserve to compensate for this NSAID-induced decrease in blood flow.

      Acute interstitial nephritis is a type of hypersensitivity nephropathy that is often drug-associated. Patients present with an abrupt onset of renal dysfunction, fever, and occasionally a rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 85 - A 70-year-old man presents to the GP for a blood pressure review after...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the GP for a blood pressure review after a clinic reading of 154/100 mmHg. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and COPD, which are managed with inhalers. His home blood pressure readings over the past week have averaged at 140/96 mmHg. What is the initial intervention that should be considered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that there was little difference in outcomes between patients who had tight blood pressure control (targets < 130/85 mmHg) and those with more relaxed control (< 140-160/90-100 mmHg), except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke in the former group. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. Further management then follows that of non-diabetic patients. It is important to note that autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. Therefore, the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, particularly when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 86 - A 35-year-old female patient complains of recurring episodes of vertigo accompanied by a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient complains of recurring episodes of vertigo accompanied by a sensation of 'fullness' and 'pressure' in her ears. She believes her hearing is impaired during these episodes. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meniere's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Meniere’s Disease

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is still unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The most prominent symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Other symptoms include a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease shows that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients are left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. To manage the condition, an ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis. Patients should inform the DVLA, and the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. During acute attacks, buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine may be administered, and admission to the hospital may be required. To prevent future attacks, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises may be of benefit.

      In summary, Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and can cause recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. While the cause is unknown, there are management strategies available to help control symptoms and prevent future attacks. It is important for patients to seek medical attention and inform the DVLA to ensure their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 87 - Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be diagnosed at birth...

    Incorrect

    • Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be diagnosed at birth or in adolescence and adulthood, a teenager seeks genetic counselling. His mother and brother have PKU, while his father is a carrier but does not have the disease. The teenager himself does not have PKU. What is the probability that he is a carrier of the disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autosomal-Recessive Inheritance and Phenylketonuria (PKU)

      Autosomal-recessive diseases require both parents to carry the gene, with one parent having the disease and the other being a carrier. In the case of Phenylketonuria (PKU), a specific enzyme deficiency leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine and a deficiency of tyrosine, resulting in reduced melanin and pigmented areas of the brain being affected. PKU is tested for at birth using the Guthrie test and can be treated by removing phenylalanine from the diet.

      In the given scenario, the teenager’s mother has the disease and his father is a carrier. This means there is a 100% chance that the teenager has at least one abnormal copy of the gene, making him a carrier. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of autosomal-recessive diseases to identify carriers and prevent mental retardation in affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 88 - A 47-year-old man undergoes evaluation for hypertension and is discovered to have blood...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man undergoes evaluation for hypertension and is discovered to have blood + on a urine dipstick from a recently voided sample. What could be the possible cause of this result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exercise

      Explanation:

      Managing Haematuria: Causes, Testing, and Referral Guidelines

      The management of haematuria can be challenging due to the lack of widely followed guidelines. Haematuria is classified as either visible or non-visible, with the latter being found in approximately 2.5% of the population. Transient or spurious non-visible haematuria can be caused by factors such as urinary tract infections, menstruation, vigorous exercise, or sexual intercourse. Persistent non-visible haematuria, on the other hand, may be indicative of underlying conditions such as cancer, stones, benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urethritis, or renal causes like IgA nephropathy or thin basement membrane disease.

      Current evidence does not support routine screening for haematuria, but patients taking aspirin or warfarin should still be investigated. Urine dipstick is the preferred test for detecting haematuria, and persistent non-visible haematuria is defined as blood being present in 2 out of 3 samples tested 2-3 weeks apart. Renal function, albumin:creatinine (ACR) or protein:creatinine ratio (PCR), and blood pressure should also be checked. NICE urgent cancer referral guidelines recommend urgent referral for patients aged 45 years or older with unexplained visible haematuria or aged 60 years or older with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised white cell count on a blood test. Patients under 40 years of age with normal renal function, no proteinuria, and normotension may be managed in primary care.

      In conclusion, managing haematuria requires careful consideration of the underlying causes and appropriate testing. Referral guidelines can help guide healthcare professionals in determining which patients require urgent or non-urgent referral for further investigation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 89 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-week history of diarrhoea, opening her bowels up to 2–3 times per day. She also complains of intermittent bloating and abdominal pain mostly prior to opening her bowels. There is no history of fever or vomiting and she has no past medical history of note. She returned from Thailand two weeks ago.
      Stool microscopy: trophozoites and cysts are seen.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what is the recommended management for this patient?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics for Diarrhoeal Illnesses: Understanding the Appropriate Treatment

      Giardiasis is a diarrhoeal illness caused by the protozoa Giardia lamblia, which is spread through contaminated food, water or faeces. The disease can last up to six weeks and presents with symptoms such as abdominal bloating, flatulence or malabsorption. Metronidazole is the preferred treatment for giardiasis due to its effectiveness and improved compliance.

      Doxycycline is used to treat cholera, a severe disease that causes watery diarrhoea and dehydration. However, the chronic duration of symptoms and presence of parasitic organisms make cholera unlikely.

      Ciprofloxacin is used to treat urinary-tract infections and some diarrhoeal illnesses such as cholera and Campylobacter jejuni infections. However, Campylobacter is usually self-limiting and has a much shorter duration of illness, making it an unlikely diagnosis.

      Clindamycin is not classically used to treat giardiasis and should be used with caution due to the increased risk of developing antibiotic-associated colitis and opportunistic infections such as Clostridium difficile.

      Co-amoxiclav may be used to treat intra-abdominal infections such as biliary sepsis, but it is not indicated for giardiasis.

      In summary, understanding the appropriate use of antibiotics for diarrhoeal illnesses is crucial in providing effective treatment and avoiding unnecessary risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 90 - A 68-year-old female is hospitalized due to a pulmonary embolism. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old female is hospitalized due to a pulmonary embolism. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, epilepsy, and schizophrenia. The patient is taking ramipril, olanzapine, metformin, gliclazide, and sodium valproate. The junior doctors are hesitant to start her on warfarin due to a potential interaction that could affect the dosage. Which medication is causing this interaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sodium valproate

      Explanation:

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 91 - A 31-year-old primigravida woman presents to the emergency department after a fall. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old primigravida woman presents to the emergency department after a fall. She is currently 36 weeks pregnant and experienced convulsions for approximately 1 minute following the fall. The patient has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and has been experiencing headaches and swollen feet for the past 48 hours. Upon assessment, her heart rate is 87 bpm and blood pressure is 179/115 mmHg. What is the next best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for eclampsia is intravenous magnesium sulphate. In this case, the woman has been diagnosed with eclampsia due to her tonic-clonic seizure and her symptoms of pre-eclampsia for the past two days. The initial management should focus on preventing further seizures and providing neuroprotection to the fetus, followed by considering delivery. It is important to monitor both the mother and fetus for signs of hypermagnesaemia, such as hyperreflexia and respiratory depression, and to continuously monitor their cardiotocography. Emergency caesarean section is not the most appropriate initial management as the woman needs to be stabilized first, given her high risk of having further seizures. Intravenous anti-hypertensives should also be administered after magnesium sulphate to lower her blood pressure. Intravenous furosemide and monitoring cardiotocography are not recommended as furosemide does not lower blood pressure in eclampsia. Intramuscular steroids are not necessary in this case as the woman is 35 weeks pregnant, and fetal lungs should be fully developed by now. Steroids are also not the most important management at this stage, even if the woman was earlier in her pregnancy.

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 92 - A 28-year-old man comes to your clinic seeking advice on how to improve...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to your clinic seeking advice on how to improve his health after his uncle passed away from a heart attack at the age of 50. He mentions that he has already begun going to the gym three times a week and has increased his consumption of fruits and vegetables. However, he works in finance and is finding it difficult to reduce his alcohol consumption. What is the highest recommended weekly alcohol limit for men in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 14 units

      Explanation:

      The latest recommendations state that individuals should limit their alcohol consumption to no more than 14 units per week, regardless of gender. Additionally, it is suggested that individuals should spread out their drinking over a minimum of three days if they regularly consume 14 units per week.

      Alcohol consumption guidelines were revised in 2016 by the Chief Medical Officer, based on recommendations from an expert group report. The most significant change was a reduction in the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol for men from 21 to 14, aligning with the guidelines for women. The government now advises that both men and women should not exceed 14 units of alcohol per week, and if they do, it is best to spread it evenly over three or more days. Pregnant women are advised not to drink alcohol at all, as it can cause long-term harm to the baby. One unit of alcohol is equivalent to 10 mL of pure ethanol, and the strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). Examples of one unit of alcohol include a 25ml single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40%, a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6%, and half a 175ml standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12%. To calculate the number of units in a drink, multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 93 - A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child presents to the emergency department with a 3 day history of left knee pain and irritability. The child had recently recovered from a viral respiratory tract infection and is currently asymptomatic and without fever. Upon examination, the joint is painful to move but not hot or red, and the child is able to bear weight. Laboratory results reveal a hemoglobin level of 140 g/L (male: 135-180, female: 115-160), platelet count of 450 * 109/L (150-400), white cell count of 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0), CRP of 29 mg/L (<5), and ESR of 32 mm/hr (0-10). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient synovitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Septic Arthritis in Children

      Septic arthritis is a condition that affects children and can lead to permanent joint damage and systemic infection if not treated promptly. It has an incidence of around 4-5 per 100,000 children and is more common in boys, with a M:F ratio of 2:1. The hip, knee, and ankle are the most commonly affected joints. Symptoms of septic arthritis include joint pain, limp, fever, and lethargy. Signs of the condition include a swollen and red joint, with minimal movement possible.

      To diagnose septic arthritis, joint aspiration is necessary to culture the affected area. This will show a raised white blood cell count. Inflammatory markers in the blood will also be raised, and blood cultures will be taken. The Kocher criteria are used to diagnose septic arthritis and include a fever of over 38.5 degrees Celsius, non-weight bearing, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and raised white cell count (WCC).

      Understanding septic arthritis in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment to reduce the risk of permanent joint damage and systemic infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 94 - A 42-year-old woman presents with a foot drop after a fall at home....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with a foot drop after a fall at home. On examination, there is weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and inversion, and weakness of extension of the little toe. She has some sensory loss restricted to the dorsum of her foot and medial side of the affected leg. Other examination is within normal limits.
      Which of the following is the most likely site of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve at the head of the fibula

      Explanation:

      Nerve Injuries and Clinical Features: A Guide

      The human body is a complex system of nerves and muscles, and injuries to these structures can have a significant impact on daily life. Here is a guide to some common nerve injuries and their associated clinical features.

      Common Peroneal Nerve at the Head of the Fibula
      The common peroneal nerve is often damaged as it wraps around the fibular head. This can result in foot drop, weak dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot, weak extension of the toes, sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and lateral side of the leg, and intact reflexes.

      Common Peroneal Nerve at the Ankle
      The common peroneal nerve bifurcates into two terminal branches shortly after passing over the fibular head. Damage to one of these branches can occur at the ankle, but not to the common peroneal nerve itself. Symptoms may include sensory loss and weakness in the affected area.

      Sciatic Nerve at the Sciatic Notch
      Injury to the sciatic nerve at this level can result in pain down the thigh, loss of sensation to the whole leg below the knee (except for a narrow area on the medial leg and medial foot border), widespread motor deficit, and foot drop. The ankle jerk is lost.

      Tibial Nerve at the Popliteal Fossa
      Damage to the tibial nerve at this level can lead to gastrocnemius paralysis, weakened inversion and plantar flexion at the ankle, and loss of the ankle jerk. This type of injury is relatively uncommon.

      Tibial Nerve at the Ankle
      Compression of the tibial nerve at the level of the medial malleolus can result in tarsal tunnel syndrome. Symptoms may include paraesthesiae or numbness affecting the medial ankle and plantar aspect of the foot, weakness to the toe abductors and flexors, and tenderness at the medial malleolus. Foot drop is not a feature.

      In summary, nerve injuries can have a range of clinical features depending on the location and severity of the damage. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have sustained a nerve injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 95 - A 64-year-old woman with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis due to antiphospholipid syndrome comes in for evaluation. She has been on warfarin for the past 8 years, with a desired INR range of 2.0 - 3.0. Her INR control is typically excellent, but her most recent reading was 1.2. What could be the reason for her current INR level?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recent rifampicin as she was a contact of a patient with meningococcal meningitis

      Explanation:

      Rifampicin induces P450 enzymes.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 96 - A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery as his father is worried about...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is brought to surgery as his father is worried about his weight. This has been a concern for more than three years and dad believes it is affecting his son's performance in school. What is the best way to determine the extent of his obesity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Body mass index percentile adjusted to age and gender

      Explanation:

      Understanding Obesity in Children

      Childhood obesity is a complex issue that requires careful assessment and management. Unlike adults, defining obesity in children is more challenging as body mass index (BMI) varies with age. To accurately assess BMI, percentile charts are needed. According to recent guidelines by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), the UK 1990 BMI charts should be used to provide age- and gender-specific information.

      NICE recommends tailored clinical intervention if BMI is at the 91st centile or above. If BMI is at the 98th centile or above, assessing for comorbidities is necessary. Lifestyle factors are the most common cause of obesity in childhood. However, other factors such as growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, Down’s syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and Prader-Willi syndrome can also contribute to obesity in children.

      Obesity in children can lead to various consequences, including orthopaedic problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphyses and Blount’s disease, musculoskeletal pains, psychological consequences like poor self-esteem and bullying, sleep apnoea, and benign intracranial hypertension. Moreover, obesity in childhood can increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and ischaemic heart disease in the long run. Therefore, it is crucial to identify and manage obesity in children to prevent these adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 97 - An 80-year-old woman comes in for a routine eye exam and is found...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman comes in for a routine eye exam and is found to have a reproducible peripheral vision defect in her left eye. She reports no noticeable changes in her vision. Tonometry shows intraocular pressure of 17 mmHg in the left eye and 19 mmHg in the right eye (normal range is 10-21 mmHg). Direct ophthalmoscopy reveals a cup-to-disc ratio of 0.8 (increased) in the left eye. Gonioscopy is normal and she has no significant medical history. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chronic open-angle glaucoma

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is chronic open-angle glaucoma, which can sometimes occur even with normal intraocular pressure. The patient’s symptoms, such as gradual peripheral vision loss, and the increased cup-to-disc ratio seen on investigations point towards this diagnosis. Gonioscopy also revealed a normal drainage angle, confirming that this is open-angle glaucoma.

      Dry age-related macular degeneration is an incorrect diagnosis in this case, as it typically presents with central vision loss and drusen on ophthalmoscopy, not changes in the cup-to-disc ratio.

      Hypertensive retinopathy is also an unlikely diagnosis, as it is often asymptomatic and associated with a medical history of hypertension. Additionally, it has a characteristic appearance on ophthalmoscopy that does not include changes in the cup-to-disc ratio.

      Optic neuritis is another incorrect diagnosis, as it typically presents with painful vision loss and other symptoms such as loss of color vision or acuity. It is also often associated with multiple sclerosis, which would present with additional symptoms such as sensory or motor deficits or other cranial nerve palsies.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG) is a type of glaucoma where the peripheral iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is important in draining aqueous humour from the eye. POAG is more common in older individuals and those with a family history of the condition. It may present insidiously with symptoms such as peripheral visual field loss, decreased visual acuity, and optic disc cupping. Diagnosis is made through a series of investigations including automated perimetry, slit lamp examination, applanation tonometry, central corneal thickness measurement, and gonioscopy. It is important to assess the risk of future visual impairment based on factors such as IOP, CCT, family history, and life expectancy. Referral to an ophthalmologist is typically done through a GP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 98 - A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge for ten days. He describes how he initially felt 'okay' with milder symptoms, but noticed a sudden deterioration in his symptoms a few days ago.
      Which of the following treatments would be the treatment of choice?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Sinusitis: Antibiotics, Decongestants, and Antihistamines

      Acute bacterial sinusitis is a common condition that can cause severe symptoms such as discolored or purulent discharge, severe localized pain, and fever. Antibiotics are prescribed only if the patient has a co-morbidity or if acute bacterial sinusitis is clinically suspected. The antibiotics of choice include amoxicillin, phenoxymethylpenicillin, doxycycline, or erythromycin. Second-line treatments include co-amoxiclav and azithromycin.

      Decongestants such as ephedrine can be used to relieve nasal congestion, but they should not be used for more than seven days to avoid rebound congestion. Antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine are not recommended unless there is a coexisting allergic rhinitis.

      It is important to note that flucloxacillin and metronidazole are not the antibiotics of choice for acute sinusitis. Doxycycline or erythromycin are acceptable alternatives. Treatment should be used only for persistent symptoms or purulent nasal discharge lasting at least 7 days, or if the symptoms are severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 99 - A 49-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of daily abdominal bloating and...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of daily abdominal bloating and cramps for the last 3 weeks. During the examination, the doctor palpates a small pelvic mass. What is the most suitable next test to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CA125 level

      Explanation:

      If females over 50 experience bloating and abdominal cramps, it is important to consider the possibility of ovarian cancer. The recommended course of action is to conduct a serum CA125 test. If the results show elevated levels, an abdominal and pelvic ultrasound should be scheduled. This information is based on NICE CG122 guidelines.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 100 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of fatigue, pain and stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of fatigue, pain and stiffness in her hips and shoulders, low mood, and loss of appetite. The pain and stiffness is worst first thing in the morning. Blood tests are shown below:

      Hb 126 g/L
      Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 288 * 109/L
      (150 - 400)

      WBC 9.8 * 109/L
      (4.0 - 11.0)

      ESR 78 mm/hr
      Men: < (age / 2)
      Women: < ((age + 10) / 2)

      CRP 56 mg/L
      (< 5)

      The patient is suspected to have polymyalgia rheumatica and is started on prednisolone. However, after 3 weeks, her symptoms have not improved. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Consider an alternative diagnosis

      Explanation:

      If a patient with polymyalgia rheumatica does not respond well to steroids, it is important to consider other possible diagnoses. Typically, patients with this condition experience a dramatic improvement in symptoms within two weeks of starting steroid treatment. Therefore, if there is no response, it is unlikely that polymyalgia rheumatica is the correct diagnosis. Other conditions that may be considered include rheumatoid arthritis, hypothyroidism, fibromyalgia, and polymyositis. Continuing with the same dose of prednisolone or increasing the dose is not recommended, as there should have been some response to the initial dose if polymyalgia rheumatica was present. Similarly, replacing oral prednisolone with IV methylprednisolone is not appropriate if there has been no response to the oral medication. Methotrexate is a second-line treatment option for polymyalgia rheumatica, but it is not the most appropriate next step if the diagnosis is uncertain.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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