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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to a spirometry clinic with a history of progressive dyspnea on exertion over the past six months, particularly when hurrying or walking uphill. What spirometry result would indicate a possible diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease in this patient?
Your Answer: FEV1: < 80% predicted, FEV1/FVC ratio: < 0.70
Correct Answer:
Explanation:Interpreting Spirometry Results: Understanding FEV1 and FEV1/FVC Ratio
Spirometry is a common diagnostic test used to assess lung function. It measures the amount of air that can be exhaled forcefully and quickly after taking a deep breath. Two important measurements obtained from spirometry are the forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and the ratio of FEV1 to forced vital capacity (FVC).
Identifying an obstructive disease pattern
In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the airways are obstructed, resulting in a reduced FEV1. However, the lung volume is relatively normal, and therefore the FVC will be near normal too. COPD is diagnosed as an FEV1 < 80% predicted and an FEV1/FVC < 0.70. Understanding the clinical scenario While an FEV1 < 30% predicted and an FEV1/FVC < 0.70 indicate an obstructive picture, it is important to refer to the clinical scenario. Shortness of breath on mild exertion, particularly walking up hills or when hurrying, is likely to relate to an FEV1 between 50-80%, defined by NICE as moderate airflow obstruction. Differentiating between obstructive and restrictive lung patterns An FVC < 80% expected value is indicative of a restrictive lung pattern. In COPD, the FVC is usually preserved or increased, hence the FEV1/FVC ratio decreases. An FEV1 of <0.30 indicates severe COPD, but it is not possible to have an FEV1/FVC ratio of > 0.70 with an FEV1 this low in COPD. It is important to note, however, that in patterns of restrictive lung disease, you can have a reduced FEV1 with a normal FEV1/FVC ratio.
Conclusion
Interpreting spirometry results requires an understanding of FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio. Identifying an obstructive disease pattern, understanding the clinical scenario, and differentiating between obstructive and restrictive lung patterns are crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A nurse in the Emergency Department presents an electrocardiogram (ECG) to you. The elderly patient is feeling breathless and has long-standing limited mobility. The ECG shows a sinus tachycardia with an S-wave in lead I, Q-wave in lead III and T-wave inversion in lead III.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Correct Answer: Pulmonary embolus
Explanation:Diagnosis of Pulmonary Embolus Based on ECG Findings
The ECG changes observed in this clinical presentation strongly suggest a pulmonary embolus. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot blocks one of the blood vessels in the lungs, leading to symptoms such as chest pain, breathlessness, and sudden collapse. Patients who are immobile or have undergone surgery are at a higher risk of developing this condition, which accounts for around 50% of cases that occur in hospital. To confirm the diagnosis, further tests such as a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) or ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan may be required. Although exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a possible differential diagnosis, the history of immobility, sinus tachycardia, and ECG changes make pulmonary embolism more likely. The ECG findings are not consistent with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) or non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and there is no evidence of ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 3
Correct
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A 62-year-old teacher visits her GP as she has noticed that she is becoming increasingly breathless whilst walking. She has always enjoyed walking and usually walks 5 times a week. Over the past year she has noted that she can no longer manage the same distance that she has been accustomed to without getting breathless and needing to stop. She wonders if this is a normal part of ageing or if there could be an underlying medical problem.
Which of the following are consistent with normal ageing with respect to the respiratory system?Your Answer: Reduction of forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) by 20–30%
Explanation:Age-Related Changes in Respiratory Function and Abnormalities to Watch For
As we age, our respiratory system undergoes natural changes that can affect our lung function. By the age of 80, it is normal to experience a reduction in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC) by about 25-30%. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) also decreases by approximately 30% in both men and women. However, if these changes are accompanied by abnormal readings such as PaO2 levels below 8.0 kPa, PaCO2 levels above 6.5 kPa, or O2 saturation levels below 91% on air, it may indicate hypoxemia or hypercapnia, which are not consistent with normal aging. It is important to monitor these readings and seek medical attention if abnormalities are detected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe breathlessness after being exposed to smoke during a house fire. He reports vomiting twice and experiencing a headache and dizziness.
Upon examination, the patient is found to be tachypnoeic with good air entry, and his oxygen saturations are at 100% on air. He appears drowsy, but his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 15, and there are no signs of head injury on his neurological examination.
What is the initial step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium
Correct Answer: High-flow oxygen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Smoke Inhalation Injury
Smoke inhalation injury can lead to carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, which is characterized by symptoms such as headache, dizziness, and vomiting. It is important to note that normal oxygen saturation may be present despite respiratory distress due to the inability of a pulse oximeter to differentiate between carboxyhaemoglobin and oxyhaemoglobin. Therefore, any conscious patient with suspected CO poisoning should be immediately treated with high-flow oxygen, which can reduce the half-life of carboxyhaemoglobin from up to four hours to 90 minutes.
Cyanide poisoning, which is comparatively rare, can also be caused by smoke inhalation. The treatment of choice for cyanide poisoning is a combination of hydroxocobalamin and sodium thiosulphate.
Hyperbaric oxygen may be beneficial for managing patients with CO poisoning, but high-flow oxygen should be provided immediately while waiting for initiation. Indications for hyperbaric oxygen include an unconscious patient, COHb > 25%, pH < 7.1, and evidence of end-organ damage due to CO poisoning. Bronchodilators such as nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium may be useful as supportive care in cases of inhalation injury where signs of bronchospasm occur. However, in this case, compatible signs such as wheeze and reduced air entry are not present. Metoclopramide may provide symptomatic relief of nausea, but it does not replace the need for immediate high-flow oxygen. Therefore, it is crucial to prioritize the administration of high-flow oxygen in patients with suspected smoke inhalation injury. Managing Smoke Inhalation Injury: Treatment Options and Priorities
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 5
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a productive cough, difficulty breathing, and chills lasting for 4 days. Upon examination, bronchial breathing is heard at the left lower lung base. Inflammatory markers are elevated, and a chest X-ray shows consolidation in the left lower zone. What is the most frequently encountered pathogen linked to community-acquired pneumonia?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:Common Bacterial Causes of Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a lung infection that can be categorized as either community-acquired or hospital-acquired, depending on the likely causative pathogens. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia is Streptococcus pneumoniae, a type of Gram-positive coccus. Staphylococcus aureus pneumonia typically affects older individuals, often after they have had the flu, and can result in cavitating lesions in the upper lobes of the lungs. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can also cause cavitating lung disease, which is characterized by caseating granulomatous inflammation. This type of pneumonia is more common in certain groups, such as Asians and immunocompromised individuals, and is diagnosed through sputum smears, cultures, or bronchoscopy. Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative bacteria that can cause meningitis and pneumonia, but it is much less common now due to routine vaccination. Finally, Neisseria meningitidis is typically associated with bacterial meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female patient presents to your clinic seeking help to quit smoking. Despite several attempts in the past, she has been unsuccessful. She has a medical history of bipolar disorder and well-managed epilepsy, for which she takes lamotrigine. She currently smokes 15 cigarettes per day and is especially interested in the health benefits of quitting smoking since she has recently found out that she is pregnant. As her physician, you decide to prescribe a suitable medication to assist her in her efforts. What would be the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nicotine gum
Explanation:Standard treatments for nicotine dependence do not include amitriptyline, fluoxetine, or gabapentin. Nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) can be helpful for motivated patients, but it is not a cure for addiction and may require multiple attempts. Bupropion and varenicline are other smoking cessation aids, but they have multiple side effects and may not be suitable for all patients. NICE guidelines recommend discussing the best method of smoking cessation with the patient, but NRT is considered safer in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired caretaker with a well-documented history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted, for his fourth time this year, with shortness of breath and a cough productive of green sputum. Examination findings are: respiratory rate (RR) 32 breaths/min, temperature 37.4 °C, SpO2 86% on room air, asterixis and coarse crepitations at the left base. A chest X-ray (CXR) confirms left basal consolidation.
Which arterial blood gas (ABG) picture is likely to belong to the above patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: pH: 7.27, pa (O2): 7.1, pa (CO2): 8.9, HCO3–: 33.20, base excess (BE) 4.9 mmol
Explanation:Interpreting Blood Gas Results in COPD Patients
COPD is a common respiratory disease that can lead to exacerbations requiring hospitalization. In these patients, lower respiratory tract infections can quickly lead to respiratory failure and the need for respiratory support. Blood gas results can provide important information about the patient’s respiratory and metabolic status. In COPD patients, a type II respiratory failure with hypercapnia and acidosis is common, resulting in a low pH and elevated bicarbonate levels. However, blood gas results that show low carbon dioxide or metabolic acidosis are less likely to be in keeping with COPD. Understanding and interpreting blood gas results is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations and providing appropriate respiratory support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has presented with recurrent respiratory distress over the last 4 years. She has also complained of wheezing at night and coughing up of tenacious sputum, which was occasionally black. Blood reports showed:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 112g/dl 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 12 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophil count 6.0 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Eosinophil count 1.5 × 109/l 0–0.4 × 109/l
Lymphocyte count 4.1 × 109/l 1.0–4.5 × 109/l
Serum immunoglobulin E (IgE) 2800 IU/l 1–87 IU/l
Which of the following is the most likely finding on a chest computerised tomography (CT) scan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Central cystic/varicose bronchiectasis in multiple lobes
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Bronchiectasis and Their Possible Underlying Causes
Bronchiectasis is a condition where the bronchial tubes in the lungs become permanently damaged and widened, leading to chronic cough, sputum production, and recurrent infections. However, bronchiectasis can have different patterns and locations, which may indicate different underlying causes or associated conditions. Here are some examples:
– Central cystic/varicose bronchiectasis in multiple lobes: This may suggest allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA) or allergic bronchopulmonary mycosis (ABPM), which are allergic reactions to Aspergillus fungi. ABPA can also occur without bronchiectasis, but the presence of bronchiectasis can worsen the prognosis. Other possible differentials include sarcoidosis, Churg–Strauss syndrome, bronchocentric granulomatosis, or eosinophilic pneumonia.
– Bronchiectasis mainly in upper lobes: This may be seen in chronic asthma, but usually, it is focal and limited to one or two lobes.
– Central bronchiectasis in mainly a single lobe: This may also suggest chronic asthma.
– Lower lobe fibrosis in both lungs: This may suggest interstitial lung disease, which is a group of conditions that cause inflammation and scarring of the lung tissue.
– Diffuse bronchiectasis involving mid-lung fields: This may suggest immotile Ciliary syndrome, which is a genetic disorder that affects the function of Ciliary, the tiny hair-like structures that help move mucous out of the airways.In summary, the location and pattern of bronchiectasis can provide clues to the underlying cause or associated conditions, but further tests and evaluations are needed to confirm the diagnosis and guide the treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Incorrect
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An older woman presents to the Emergency Department with probable community acquired pneumonia (CAP). The consultant asks you to refer to the CURB-65 score to determine the next management plan.
Which of the following statements is part of the CURB-65 score?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urea > 7 mmol/l
Explanation:Understanding the CURB-65 Score for Assessing Severity of CAP
The CURB-65 score is a clinical prediction tool recommended by the British Thoracic Society for assessing the severity of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). It is a 6-point score based on five criteria: confusion, urea level, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. Patients with a score of 0 are at low risk and may not require hospitalization, while those with a score of 3 or more are at higher risk of death and may require urgent admission. It is important to use the correct criteria for each parameter, such as an Abbreviated Mental Test Score of 8 or less for confusion and a respiratory rate of 30 or more for tachypnea. Understanding and documenting the CURB-65 score can aid in clinical decision-making for patients with CAP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old retired electrician presents with complaints of progressive dyspnea, unintentional weight loss, and two episodes of hemoptysis in the past week. He has a history of smoking 40 pack years. Upon examination, there is stony dullness at the right base with absent breath sounds and decreased vocal resonance.
Which of the following statements about mesothelioma is most accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It may have a lag period of up to 45 years between exposure and diagnosis
Explanation:Understanding Mesothelioma: Causes, Diagnosis, and Prognosis
Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that affects the pleura, and while it can be caused by factors other than asbestos exposure, the majority of cases are linked to this cause. Asbestos was commonly used in various industries until the late 1970s/early 1980s, and the lag period between exposure and diagnosis can be up to 45 years. This means that the predicted peak of incidence of mesothelioma in the UK is around 2015-2020.
Contrary to popular belief, smoking does not cause mesothelioma. However, smoking and asbestos exposure can act as synergistic risk factors for bronchial carcinoma. Unfortunately, there is no known cure for mesothelioma, and the 5-year survival rate is less than 5%. Treatment is supportive and palliative, with an emphasis on managing symptoms and improving quality of life.
Diagnosis is usually made through CT imaging, with or without thoracoscopic-guided biopsy. Open lung biopsy is only considered if other biopsy methods are not feasible. Mesothelioma typically presents with a malignant pleural effusion, which can be difficult to distinguish from a pleural tumor on a plain chest X-ray. The effusion will be an exudate.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, diagnosis, and prognosis of mesothelioma is crucial for early detection and management of this devastating disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with confusion and difficulty breathing, with an AMTS score of 9. During the examination, his respiratory rate is 32 breaths/minute, and his blood pressure is 100/70 mmHg. His blood test shows a urea level of 6 mmol/l. What is a predictive factor for increased mortality in this pneumonia patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory rate >30 breaths/minute
Explanation:Prognostic Indicators in Pneumonia: Understanding the CURB 65 Score
The CURB 65 score is a widely used prognostic tool for patients with pneumonia. It consists of five indicators, including confusion, urea levels, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and age. A respiratory rate of >30 breaths/minute and new-onset confusion with an AMTS score of <8 are two of the indicators that make up the CURB 65 score. However, in the case of a patient with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths/minute and an AMTS score of 9, these indicators still suggest a poor prognosis. A urea level of >7 mmol/l and a blood pressure of <90 mmHg systolic and/or 60 mmHg diastolic are also indicators of a poor prognosis. Finally, age >65 is another indicator that contributes to the CURB 65 score. Understanding these indicators can help healthcare professionals assess the severity of pneumonia and determine appropriate treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient came in with worsening shortness of breath. A CT scan of the chest revealed a lesion in the right middle lobe of the lung. The radiologist described the findings as an area of ground-glass opacity surrounded by denser lung tissue.
What is the more common name for this sign?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atoll sign
Explanation:Radiological Signs in Lung Imaging: Atoll, Halo, Kerley B, Signet Ring, and Tree-in-Bud
When examining CT scans of the lungs, radiologists look for specific patterns that can indicate various pathologies. One such pattern is the atoll sign, also known as the reversed halo sign. This sign is characterized by a region of ground-glass opacity surrounded by denser tissue, forming a crescent or annular shape that is at least 2 mm thick. It is often seen in cases of cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (COP), but can also be caused by tuberculosis or other infections.
Another important sign is the halo sign, which is seen in angioinvasive aspergillosis. This sign appears as a ground-glass opacity surrounding a pulmonary nodule or mass, indicating alveolar hemorrhage.
Kerley B lines are another pattern that can be seen on lung imaging, indicating pulmonary edema. These lines are caused by fluid accumulation in the interlobular septae at the periphery of the lung.
The signet ring sign is a pattern seen in bronchiectasis, where a dilated bronchus and accompanying pulmonary artery branch are visible in cross-section. This sign is characterized by a marked dilation of the bronchus, which is not seen in the normal population.
Finally, the tree-in-bud sign is a pattern seen in endobronchial tuberculosis or other endobronchial pathologies. This sign appears as multiple centrilobular nodules with a linear branching pattern, and can also be seen in cases of cystic fibrosis or viral pneumonia.
Overall, understanding these radiological signs can help clinicians diagnose and treat various lung pathologies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male smoker arrived in the Emergency Department by ambulance. He had become increasingly breathless at home, and despite receiving high-flow oxygen in the ambulance he is no better. He has a flapping tremor of his hands, a bounding pulse and palmar erythema.
What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypercapnia
Explanation:Understanding Hypercapnia: A Possible Cause of Breathlessness and Flapping Tremor in COPD Patients
Hypercapnia is a condition that can occur in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and respiratory failure. It is caused by the retention of carbon dioxide (CO2) due to a relative loss of surface area for gas exchange within the lungs. This can lead to bronchospasm and inflammation, which can further exacerbate the problem. In some cases, patients with chronic hypoxia and hypercapnia may become dependent on hypoxia to drive respiration. If high concentrations of oxygen are given, this drive may be reduced or lost completely, leading to hypoventilation, reduced minute ventilation, accumulation of CO2, and subsequent respiratory acidosis (type 2 respiratory failure).
External signs of hypercapnia include reduced Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score, flapping tremor (asterixis), palmar erythema, and bounding pulses (due to CO2-induced vasodilation). While other conditions such as hepatic encephalopathy, Parkinson’s disease, delirium tremens, and hyperthyroidism can also cause tremors and other symptoms, they do not typically cause breathlessness or the specific type of tremor seen in hypercapnia.
It is important for healthcare professionals to recognize the signs and symptoms of hypercapnia in COPD patients, as prompt intervention can help prevent further complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. She also reports haemoptysis. An ECG shows no signs of ischaemia. Her heart rate is 88 bpm and blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. The patient flew from Dubai to the UK yesterday. She has type I diabetes mellitus which is well managed. She had a tonsillectomy two years ago and her brother has asthma. She has been taking the combined oral contraceptive pill for six months and uses insulin for her diabetes but takes no other medications.
What is the most significant risk factor for the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Assessing Risk Factors for Pulmonary Embolism in a Patient with Sudden Onset of Symptoms
This patient presents with sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and haemoptysis, suggesting a pulmonary embolism. A history of long-haul flight and use of combined oral contraceptive pill further increase the risk for this condition. However, tonsillectomy two years ago is not a current risk factor. Type I diabetes mellitus and asthma are also not associated with pulmonary embolism. A family history of malignancy may increase the risk for developing a malignancy, which in turn increases the risk for pulmonary embolism. Overall, a thorough assessment of risk factors is crucial in identifying and managing pulmonary embolism in patients with acute symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man has just returned from a trip to Kenya. He has been experiencing a productive cough with blood-stained sputum, fever, and general malaise for the past week. Upon testing his sputum, he is diagnosed with tuberculosis and is prescribed isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for the initial phase of treatment. What drugs will he take during the continuation phase, which will last for four months after the initial two-month phase?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rifampicin + Isoniazid
Explanation:Treatment Options for Tuberculosis: Medications and Considerations
Tuberculosis (TB) is a serious infectious disease that requires prompt and effective treatment. The following are some of the medications used in the treatment of TB, along with important considerations to keep in mind:
Rifampicin + Isoniazid
This combination is used in the initial treatment of TB, which lasts for two months. Before starting treatment, it is important to check liver and kidney function, as these medications can be associated with liver toxicity. Ethambutol should be avoided in patients with renal impairment. If TB meningitis is diagnosed, the continuation phase of treatment should be extended to 10 months and a glucocorticoid should be used in the first two weeks of treatment. Side effects to watch for include visual disturbances with ethambutol and peripheral neuropathy with isoniazid.Rifampicin + Pyrazinamide
Pyrazinamide is used only in the initial two-month treatment, while rifampicin is used in both the initial and continuation phases.Pyrazinamide + Ethambutol
These medications are used only in the initial stage of TB treatment.Rifampicin alone
Rifampicin is used in combination with isoniazid for the continuation phase of TB treatment.Rifampicin + Ethambutol
Rifampicin is used in the continuation phase, while ethambutol is used only in the initial two-month treatment.It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for TB, taking into account individual patient factors and potential medication side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A middle-aged overweight woman visits the clinic accompanied by her husband. She expresses concern about feeling excessively tired during the day and experiencing frequent episodes of sleepiness.
Her husband reports that she snores heavily at night and sometimes stops breathing. Additionally, her work performance has been declining, and she is at risk of losing her job.
What is the most suitable initial step in managing this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continuous Positive Airways Pressure (CPAP)
Explanation:Obstructive Sleep Apnoea and its Treatment
The presence of heavy snoring, apnoea attacks at night, and daytime somnolence suggests the possibility of obstructive sleep apnoea. The recommended treatment for this condition is continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP), which helps maintain airway patency during sleep. In addition to CPAP, weight loss and smoking cessation are also helpful measures. Surgery is not necessary for this condition.
Long-term oxygen therapy is indicated for individuals with chronic hypoxia associated with chronic respiratory disease to prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension. However, bronchodilators are not useful in this case. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present to receive proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old smoker is referred by his General Practitioner (GP) for diagnostic spirometry after presenting with worsening respiratory symptoms suggestive of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Regarding spirometry, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: FEV1 is a good marker of disease severity in COPD
Explanation:Common Misconceptions about Pulmonary Function Tests
Pulmonary function tests (PFTs) are a group of tests that measure how well the lungs are functioning. However, there are several misconceptions about PFTs that can lead to confusion and misinterpretation of results. Here are some common misconceptions about PFTs:
FEV1 is the only marker of disease severity in COPD: While FEV1 is a good marker of COPD disease severity, it should not be the only factor considered. Other factors such as symptoms, exacerbation history, and quality of life should also be taken into account.
Peak flow is helpful in the diagnosis of COPD: Peak flow is not a reliable tool for diagnosing COPD. It is primarily used in monitoring asthma and can be affected by factors such as age, gender, and height.
Residual volume can be measured by spirometer: Residual volume cannot be measured by spirometer alone. It requires additional tests such as gas dilution or body plethysmography.
Vital capacity increases with age: Vital capacity actually decreases with age due to changes in lung elasticity and muscle strength.
Peak flow measures the calibre of small airways: Peak flow is a measure of the large and medium airways, not the small airways.
By understanding these common misconceptions, healthcare professionals can better interpret PFT results and provide more accurate diagnoses and treatment plans for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with known asthma presents to the Emergency Department with severe breathlessness and wheeze.
Which of the following is the most concerning finding on examination and initial investigations?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PaCO2 5.5 kPa
Explanation:Assessing the Severity of an Acute Asthma Exacerbation
When assessing the severity of an acute asthma exacerbation, several factors must be considered. A PaCO2 level of 5.5 kPa in an acutely exacerbating asthmatic is a worrying sign and is a marker of a life-threatening exacerbation. A respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute or higher is a sign of acute severe asthma, while poor respiratory effort is a sign of life-threatening asthma. Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) can also be used to help assess the severity of an acute exacerbation of asthma. A PEFR of 33-35% best or predicted is a sign of acute severe asthma, while a PEFR < 33% best or predicted is a sign of life-threatening asthma. A heart rate of 140 bpm or higher is a feature of acute severe asthma, while arrhythmia and/or hypotension are signs of life-threatening asthma. Inability to complete sentences in one breath is a sign of acute severe asthma, while an altered conscious level is a sign of life-threatening asthma. By considering these factors, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of an acute asthma exacerbation and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old Romanian smoker presents with a 3-month history of cough productive of blood-tinged sputum, fever, night sweats and weight loss. At presentation he is haemodynamically stable, has a fever of 37.7°C and appears cachectic. On examination, there are coarse crepitations in the right upper zone of lung. Chest radiograph reveals patchy, non-specific increased upper zone interstitial markings bilaterally together with a well-defined round opacity with a central lucency in the right upper zone and bilateral enlarged hila.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Subacute Presentation of Pulmonary Symptoms
Tuberculosis is a growing concern, particularly in Eastern European countries where multi-drug resistant strains are on the rise. The initial infection can occur anywhere in the body, but often affects the lung apices and forms a scarred granuloma. Latent bacteria can cause reinfection years later, leading to post-primary TB. Diagnosis is based on identifying acid-fast bacilli in sputum. Treatment involves a 6-month regimen of antibiotics. Staphylococcal and Klebsiella pneumonia can also present with pneumonia symptoms and cavitating lesions, but patients would be expected to be very ill with signs of sepsis. Squamous cell bronchial carcinoma is a possibility but less likely in this case. Primary pulmonary lymphoma is rare and typically occurs in HIV positive individuals, with atypical presentation and radiographic findings. Contact screening is essential for TB.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents with complaints of dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and an unintentional 25 lb weight loss over the last 4 months. He reports a medical history significant for mild asthma controlled with an albuterol inhaler as needed. He takes no other medications and has no allergies. He has a 55 pack-year smoking history and has worked as a naval shipyard worker for 40 years. Examination reveals diffuse crackles in the posterior lung fields bilaterally and there is dullness to percussion one-third of the way up the right lung field. Ultrasound reveals free fluid in the pleural space.
Which one of the following set of test values is most consistent with this patient’s presentation?
(LDH: lactate dehydrogenase)
Option LDH plasma LDH pleural Protein plasma Protein pleural
A 180 100 7 3
B 270 150 8 3
C 180 150 7 4
D 270 110 8 3
E 180 100 7 2Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Option C
Explanation:Interpreting Light’s Criteria for Pleural Effusions
When evaluating a patient with a history of occupational exposure and respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider the possibility of pneumoconiosis, specifically asbestosis. Chronic exposure to asbestos can lead to primary bronchogenic carcinoma and mesothelioma. Chest radiography may reveal radio-opaque pleural and diaphragmatic plaques. In this case, the patient’s dyspnea, hemoptysis, and weight loss suggest primary lung cancer, with a likely malignant pleural effusion observed under ultrasound.
To confirm the exudative nature of the pleural effusion, Light’s criteria can be used. These criteria include a pleural:serum protein ratio >0.5, a pleural:serum LDH ratio >0.6, and pleural LDH more than two-thirds the upper limit of normal serum LDH. Meeting any one of these criteria indicates an exudative effusion.
Option C is the correct answer as it satisfies Light’s criteria for an exudative pleural effusion. Options A, B, D, and E do not meet the criteria. Understanding Light’s criteria can aid in the diagnosis and management of pleural effusions, particularly in cases where malignancy is suspected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman has a small cell lung cancer. Her serum sodium level is 128 mmol/l on routine testing (136–145 mmol/l).
What is the single most likely cause for the biochemical abnormality?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Hyponatraemia: Differential Diagnosis
Hyponatraemia is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. There are several possible causes of hyponatraemia, including the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), primary adrenal insufficiency, diuretics, polydipsia, and vomiting.
SIADH is a common cause of hyponatraemia, particularly in small cell lung cancer patients. It occurs due to the ectopic production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to impaired water excretion and water retention. This results in hyponatraemia and hypo-osmolality.
Primary adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison’s disease, can also cause hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, and hypotension. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.
Diuretics, particularly loop diuretics and bendroflumethiazide, can also cause hyponatraemia. However, there is no information to suggest that the patient is taking diuretics.
Polydipsia, or excessive thirst, can also lead to hyponatraemia. However, there is no indication in the question that the patient has this condition.
Vomiting is another possible cause of hyponatraemia, but there is no information in the question to support this as a correct answer.
In summary, hyponatraemia can have several possible causes, and a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department after aspirating a peanut an hour earlier. He has a non-productive cough and shortness of breath. On arrival in the Emergency Department, he is tachypnoeic and has an oxygen saturation of 90% on room air. A chest X-ray demonstrates a complete whiteout of the right lung and the trachea is seen deviated to the right of the midline.
Which of the following processes is most likely causing the findings seen on the chest X-ray?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atelectasis
Explanation:Differentiating Acute Aspiration from Other Pulmonary Conditions
When a patient presents with acute aspiration, it is important to differentiate it from other pulmonary conditions. The most likely process in acute aspiration is atelectasis due to bronchial obstruction. This occurs when the main stem bronchus is blocked, preventing gas from entering the affected lung and causing it to collapse. A chest X-ray will show complete whiteout of the hemithorax and ipsilateral tension on the mediastinum, leading to shifting of the trachea towards the affected lung.
Pneumonia is less likely to develop so acutely and typically presents with productive cough and fever. Pneumothorax, on the other hand, would not cause a whiteout of the hemithorax and would instead show a line in the lung space with decreased lung markings peripherally. Pleural effusion could cause similar symptoms but would cause a contralateral mediastinal shift and is often associated with other systemic conditions. Pulmonary edema, which often occurs in the context of left heart failure, presents with cough and shortness of breath, but patients will have crackles on auscultation and are unlikely to have a mediastinal shift on chest X-ray.
Therefore, understanding the differences between these conditions is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating acute aspiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP clinic with his father for an asthma check-up. He is currently on Clenil® Modulite® (beclomethasone) 100 μg twice daily as a preventer inhaler, but still needs to use his salbutamol inhaler 2-3 times a day. During the examination, he is able to complete sentences, not using any accessory muscles of respiration, his oxygen saturation is 99%, his chest is clear, and PEFR is 85% of his predicted value. What is the recommended next step in managing this patient according to the latest BTS guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add formoterol a long-acting beta agonist (LABA)
Explanation:Managing Pediatric Asthma: Choosing the Next Step in Treatment
When treating pediatric asthma, it is important to follow guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for the patient. According to the 2019 SIGN/BTS guidelines, the next step after low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be to add a long-acting beta agonist (LABA) or leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) in addition to ICS. However, it is important to note that the NICE guidelines differ in that LTRA is recommended before LABA.
If the patient does not respond adequately to LABA and a trial of LTRA does not yield benefit, referral to a pediatrician is advised. Increasing the dose of ICS should only be considered after the addition of LTRA or LABA.
It is crucial to never stop ICS therapy, as adherence to therapy is a guiding principle in managing pediatric asthma. LABAs should never be used alone without ICS, as this has been linked to life-threatening asthma exacerbations. Always follow guidelines and consult with a pediatrician for the best possible treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male smoker presented with chronic dyspnoea. He used to work in the shipyard but now has a retired life with his dogs. He was under treatment as a case of COPD, but maximal therapy for COPD failed to bring him any relief. On re-evaluation, his chest X-ray showed fine reticular opacities in the lower zones. A CT scan of his thorax showed interstitial thickening, with some ground glass opacity in the upper lungs.
Pleural plaques were absent. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory bronchiolitis-associated interstitial lung disease (RB-ILD)
Explanation:Differentiating Interstitial Lung Diseases: A Case Study
The patient in question presents with dyspnoea and a history of smoking. While COPD is initially suspected, the radiograph and CT findings do not support this diagnosis. Instead, the patient may be suffering from an interstitial lung disease. RB-ILD is a possibility, given the presence of pigmented macrophages in the lung. Asbestosis is also considered, but the absence of pleural plaques makes this less likely. Pneumoconiosis and histoplasmosis are ruled out based on the patient’s history and imaging results. Treatment for interstitial lung diseases can be challenging, with steroids being the primary option. However, the effectiveness of this treatment is debatable. Ultimately, a lung biopsy may be necessary for a definitive diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of wheezing, chest tightness, cough, and difficulty breathing for the past three days. She reports that this started shortly after being exposed to a significant amount of hydrogen sulfide at work. She has no prior history of respiratory issues and is a non-smoker. What would be the most suitable initial management approach to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhaled bronchodilators
Explanation:Management of Reactive Airway Dysfunction Syndrome (RADS)
Reactive airway dysfunction syndrome (RADS) is a condition that presents with asthma-like symptoms within 24 hours of exposure to irritant gases, vapours or fumes. To diagnose RADS, pre-existing respiratory conditions must be absent, and symptoms must occur after a single exposure to high concentrations of irritants. A positive methacholine challenge test and possible airflow obstruction on pulmonary function tests are also indicative of RADS.
Inhaled bronchodilators, such as salbutamol, are the first-line treatment for RADS. Cromolyn sodium may be added in select cases, while inhaled corticosteroids are used if bronchodilators are ineffective. Oral steroids are not as effective in RADS as they are in asthma. High-dose vitamin D may be useful in some cases, but it is not routinely recommended for initial management.
In summary, the management of RADS involves the use of inhaled bronchodilators as the first-line treatment, with other medications added in if necessary. A proper diagnosis is crucial to ensure appropriate management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old, overweight accountant presents to the hospital with sudden onset of breathlessness and right posterior lower chest pain. This occurs three weeks after undergoing right total hip replacement surgery. The patient has a medical history of bronchiectasis and asthma, but denies any recent change in sputum colour or quantity. On air, oxygen saturation is 89%, but rises to 95% on (35%) oxygen. The patient is apyrexial. Chest examination reveals coarse leathery crackles at both lung bases. Peak flow rate is 350 L/min and chest radiograph shows bronchiectatic changes, also at both lung bases. Full blood count is normal.
What is the most appropriate investigation to conduct next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT-pulmonary angiography
Explanation:CT Pulmonary Angiography as the Preferred Diagnostic Tool for Pulmonary Embolism
Computerised tomography (CT) pulmonary angiography is the most suitable diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism. This is particularly true for patients with chronic lung disease, as a ventilation perfusion scan may be difficult to interpret. In this case, the patient almost certainly has a pulmonary embolism, making CT pulmonary angiography the investigation of choice.
It is important to note that while ventilation perfusion scans are useful in diagnosing pulmonary embolisms, they may not be the best option for patients with underlying lung disease. This is because the scan can be challenging to interpret, leading to inaccurate results. CT pulmonary angiography, on the other hand, provides a more accurate and reliable diagnosis, making it the preferred diagnostic tool for patients suspected of having a pulmonary embolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with sudden-onset shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. After workup, including blood tests, an electrocardiogram (ECG) and a chest X-ray, a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected.
In which situation might a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan be preferred to a computerised tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) to confirm a diagnosis of PE?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal impairment
Explanation:Choosing the Right Imaging Test for Suspected Pulmonary Embolism: Considerations and Limitations
When evaluating a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), choosing the appropriate imaging test can be challenging. Several factors need to be considered, including the patient’s medical history, clinical presentation, and available resources. Here are some examples of how different patient characteristics can influence the choice of imaging test:
Renal impairment: A V/Q scan may be preferred over a CTPA in patients with renal impairment, as the latter uses radiocontrast that can be nephrotoxic.
Abnormal chest X-ray: If the chest X-ray is abnormal, a V/Q scan may not be the best option, as it can be difficult to interpret. A CTPA would be more appropriate in this case.
Wells PE score of 3: The Wells score alone does not dictate the choice of imaging test. A D-dimer blood test should be obtained first, and if positive, a CTPA or V/Q scan may be necessary.
Weekend admission: Availability of imaging tests may be limited during weekends. A CTPA scan may be more feasible than a V/Q scan, as the latter requires nuclear medicine facilities that may not be available out of hours.
History of COPD: In patients with lung abnormalities such as severe COPD, a V/Q scan may be challenging to interpret. A CTPA would be a better option in this case.
In summary, choosing the right imaging test for suspected PE requires careful consideration of the patient’s characteristics and available resources. Consultation with a radiologist may be necessary in some cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You have a telephone consultation with a 28-year-old male who wants to start trying to conceive. He has a history of asthma and takes salbutamol 100mcg as needed.
Which of the following would be most important to advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Take folic acid 5 mg once daily from before conception until 12 weeks of pregnancy
Explanation:Women who are taking antiepileptic medication and are planning to conceive should be prescribed a daily dose of 5mg folic acid instead of the standard 400mcg. This high-dose folic acid should be taken from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. It is important to refer these women to specialist care, but they should continue to use effective contraception until they have had a full assessment. Despite the medication, it is still likely that they will have a normal pregnancy and healthy baby. If trying to conceive, women should start taking folic acid as soon as possible, rather than waiting for a positive pregnancy test.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man is referred to the Respiratory Outpatient clinic due to a chronic non-productive cough. He is a non-smoker and reports no other symptoms. Initial tests show a normal full blood count and C-reactive protein, normal chest X-ray, and normal spirometry. What is the next most suitable test to perform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchial provocation testing
Explanation:Investigating Chronic Cough: Recommended Tests and Procedures
Chronic cough with normal chest X-ray and spirometry, and no ‘red flag’ symptoms in a non-smoker can be caused by cough-variant asthma, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and post-nasal drip. To investigate for bronchial hyper-reactivity, bronchial provocation testing is recommended using methacholine or histamine. A CT thorax may eventually be required to look for underlying structural lung disease, but in the first instance, investigating for cough-variant asthma is appropriate. Bronchoscopy is not a first-line investigation but may be used in specialist centres to investigate chronic cough. Sputum culture is unlikely to be useful in a patient with a dry cough. Maximal inspiratory and expiratory pressures are used to investigate respiratory muscle weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with right-sided pleural effusion. Thoracentesis is performed and the pleural fluid analysis reveals the following results:
Pleural fluid Pleural fluid analysis Serum Normal value
Protein 2.5 g/dl 7.3 g/dl 6-7.8 g/dl
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 145 IU/l 350 IU/l 100-250 IU/l
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heart failure
Explanation:Causes of Transudative and Exudative Pleural Effusions
Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which can be classified as transudative or exudative based on Light’s criteria. The most common cause of transudative pleural effusion is congestive heart failure, which can also cause bilateral or unilateral effusions. Other causes of transudative effusions include cirrhosis and nephrotic syndrome. Exudative pleural effusions are typically caused by pneumonia, malignancy, or pleural infections. Nephrotic syndrome can also cause transudative effusions, while breast cancer and viral pleuritis are associated with exudative effusions. Proper identification of the underlying cause is crucial for appropriate management of pleural effusions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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