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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman expresses a concern during her booking appointment that is forwarded to the obstetrician. She discloses that her previous child was born with a congenital defect and inquires if any action needs to be taken during her current pregnancy. Upon reviewing the notes from her previous pregnancy, the obstetrician notes that the neonate had a left subclavicular thrill, a heaving apex beat, and a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur.
What is the appropriate course of action for managing this defect?Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1 to be given to the neonate, postnatally
Correct Answer: Indomethacin to be given to the neonate, postnatally
Explanation:The correct management for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) in a neonate is to administer indomethacin postnatally, not to the mother during the antenatal period. If a PDA is identified on examination, indomethacin is given to the neonate to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and close the defect. Dexamethasone is not used for PDA management but for fetal lung maturation in cases of suspected premature delivery. Administering indomethacin to the mother antenatally or prostaglandin E1 antenatally or postnatally is incorrect. Prostaglandin E1 is only given postnatally if another congenital heart defect is found that requires surgery.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old typist presents with pain and weakness of the right hand. The patient notes that she also has symptoms of numbness and tingling of her right hand and wrist, which seem to be worse at night, but improve when she hangs her arm down by the side of the bed. She has also had some difficulty gripping objects and finds it increasingly difficult opening bottles and jars. The clinician suspects that she may have carpal tunnel syndrome.
These clinical features of carpal tunnel syndrome are due to compression of which structure?Your Answer: Ulnar nerve
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome and Related Nerves and Arteries
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition caused by the compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel, a canal located on the anterior side of the wrist. The tunnel is composed of carpal bones, with the flexor retinaculum forming its roof. The median nerve and tendons of flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum superficialis and profundus pass through this tunnel. Inflammation of the ulnar bursa sheath can compress the median nerve, leading to pain and weakness in the hand. However, the radial and ulnar arteries and nerves do not pass through the carpal tunnel. Compression of the radial or ulnar artery can result in ischaemic symptoms, while the ulnar nerve may become entrapped in the cubital tunnel, causing cubital tunnel syndrome. Understanding the anatomy and related conditions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of wrist and hand pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Orthopaedics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old patient presents with a history of well demarcated, erythematous lesions with silvery-white scaling plaques on the extensor surfaces of the elbows. There is evidence of nail pitting.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Phototherapy
Correct Answer: Topical betnovate + vitamin D
Explanation:The recommended first-line treatment for psoriasis is the application of betnovate (or another potent steroid) plus vitamin D for four weeks. If there is no or minimal improvement, referral to a specialist may be considered. Dermovate, a very potent steroid, should only be initiated by a specialist who may alter the treatment or advance it to include phototherapy or biologics. Hydrocortisone is not recommended for psoriasis treatment as it is not potent enough. Phototherapy is not the first-line treatment and should only be initiated by a dermatologist after considering all risks and benefits. Biologics are the last stage of treatment and are only initiated by a dermatologist if the detrimental effects of psoriasis are heavily impacting the patient’s life, despite other treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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What is the term used to describe the force exerted by a muscle that causes a portion of the bone to detach from its point of insertion?
Your Answer: Avulsion fracture
Explanation:Types of Fractures
Avulsion fracture happens when a muscle pulls a part of the bone away from its usual attachment site due to a breaking force. On the other hand, pathological fracture occurs in a bone that is weakened or damaged by a disease. Meanwhile, torus fracture, also known as greenstick or ripple fracture, is a type of fracture that occurs on one side of the bone and is commonly seen in children. Lastly, a stress fracture is a microscopic fracture that results from repeated jarring and overuse of a bone. These types of fractures have different causes and characteristics, but they all require proper medical attention to ensure proper healing and recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Correct
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A 31-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. An ultrasound scan reveals the presence of gallstones and an abnormal dilation of the common bile duct measuring 7 mm. The patient is currently taking morphine for pain relief. After four hours, the pain subsides, and she is discharged without any symptoms. Two weeks later, she returns for a follow-up visit and reports being symptom-free. What is the most appropriate next step in managing her condition?
Your Answer: Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Explanation:The patient had symptoms of biliary colic, including nausea, vomiting, and right upper quadrant pain, and an ultrasound scan revealed gallstones and a dilated common bile duct. While the patient’s pain has subsided, there is a risk of complications from gallstone disease. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography is a non-invasive diagnostic procedure that visualizes the biliary and pancreatic ducts, but it does not offer a management option. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography can diagnose and treat obstruction caused by gallstones, but it is only a symptomatic treatment and not a definitive management. Repeat ultrasound has no added value in management. The only definitive management for gallstones is cholecystectomy, or removal of the gallbladder. Doing nothing puts the patient at risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with a history of back pain uses paracetamol and ibuprofen regularly for pain relief. She and her partner are planning to have a baby, and would like to know about the safety of analgesics during pregnancy.
What is the best statement regarding the safety of analgesics in pregnancy?Your Answer: Paracetamol can be used as it does not cross the placenta
Correct Answer: Codeine phosphate can be used at low doses if needed
Explanation:Safe and Unsafe Painkillers in Pregnancy
Pregnancy can be a challenging time for women, especially when it comes to managing pain. While some painkillers are safe to use during pregnancy, others can have harmful effects on the developing fetus. Here is a breakdown of some commonly used painkillers and their safety in pregnancy.
Codeine phosphate: Low doses of codeine phosphate are generally safe to use during pregnancy. However, if taken closer to delivery, the neonate should be observed for signs of respiratory depression, drowsiness, or opioid withdrawal.
Naproxen: Naproxen belongs to the family of NSAIDs and is contraindicated in pregnancy. However, it is safe to use in the postpartum period and by women who are breastfeeding.
Ibuprofen: Ibuprofen and other NSAIDs should be avoided during pregnancy as they are associated with teratogenic effects and other congenital problems.
Paracetamol: Paracetamol is the analgesic of choice in pregnancy and is safe to use within the recommended limits. However, patients should be cautioned against taking paracetamol and low-dose co-codamol concurrently.
Tramadol: Tramadol should be avoided in pregnancy as it has been shown to be embryotoxic in animal models.
In conclusion, it is important for pregnant women to consult with their healthcare provider before taking any painkillers to ensure the safety of both mother and fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with acute confusion and disorientation over the past 2 days. His vital signs are notable for a heart rate of 122 /min, oxygen saturation of 98% on air, BP 168/88 mmHg, and temperature of 37.9ºC. Physical examination reveals sweating, upper limb rigidity, and hyperreflexia. An ECG shows sinus tachycardia. The patient has a history of depression, anxiety, schizophrenia, and lower back pain, and is currently taking sertraline. He recently started a new medication after seeing his GP. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Understanding Serotonin Syndrome
Serotonin syndrome is a potentially life-threatening condition caused by an excess of serotonin in the body. It can be triggered by a variety of medications and substances, including monoamine oxidase inhibitors, SSRIs, St John’s Wort, tramadol, ecstasy, and amphetamines. The condition is characterized by neuromuscular excitation, hyperreflexia, myoclonus, rigidity, autonomic nervous system excitation, hyperthermia, sweating, and altered mental state, including confusion.
Management of serotonin syndrome is primarily supportive, with IV fluids and benzodiazepines used to manage symptoms. In more severe cases, serotonin antagonists such as cyproheptadine and chlorpromazine may be used. It is important to note that serotonin syndrome can be easily confused with neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which has similar symptoms but is caused by a different mechanism. Both conditions can cause a raised creatine kinase (CK), but it tends to be more associated with NMS. Understanding the causes, features, and management of serotonin syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to ensure prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old male is being seen on the surgical ward round, four days after his abdominal surgery. He complains of a peculiar sensation over the wound while shifting in bed. Upon removing the dressings, it is discovered that the wound is gaping open, with visible internal organs. Despite this, his vital signs are all normal, and he does not seem to be bothered by the situation. The wound is covered with gauze impregnated with saline. While waiting for additional surgical assistance, what other urgent treatment should be provided?
Your Answer: IV ceftriaxone and metronidazole
Explanation:The initial management for abdominal wound dehiscence involves covering the wound with saline impregnated gauze and administering broad-spectrum antibiotics intravenously. In this case, a combination of ceftriaxone and metronidazole would be appropriate. Flucloxacillin is not broad enough to cover the range of organisms that may be present. While fluids are important, a 1 L stat bolus is excessive at this stage. Analgesia should be provided, but it is less urgent than antibiotics. Oxygen is not indicated based on the patient’s current condition.
Abdominal wound dehiscence is a serious issue that surgeons who perform abdominal surgery frequently encounter. It occurs when all layers of an abdominal mass closure fail, resulting in the protrusion of the viscera externally. This condition is associated with a 30% mortality rate and can be classified as either superficial or complete, depending on the extent of the wound failure.
Several factors increase the risk of abdominal wound dehiscence, including malnutrition, vitamin deficiencies, jaundice, steroid use, major wound contamination (such as faecal peritonitis), and poor surgical technique. To prevent this condition, the preferred method is the mass closure technique, also known as the Jenkins Rule.
When sudden full dehiscence occurs, the wound should be covered with saline impregnated gauze, and the patient should receive IV broad-spectrum antibiotics, analgesia, and IV fluids. Arrangements should also be made for a return to the operating theatre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Correct
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A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father, complaining of right-sided hip pain that has been present for the past 3 weeks. The pain has gradually worsened over time. When asked to point to the location of the pain, he indicates his right hip and groin area. Upon examination, his heart rate is 71 bpm and temperature is 37.3ºC. He is able to walk, but with moderate discomfort and an antalgic gait that causes him to out-toe. Passive movement of the hip reveals a loss of internal rotation of the right leg in flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
Explanation:Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a possible diagnosis for a boy aged 10-15 years old presenting with hip pain and a key examination finding of limited internal rotation of the leg in flexion. Other diagnoses such as septic arthritis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, and Perthe’s disease are less likely based on the absence of certain symptoms and age range. Further investigation and imaging should be done to confirm the diagnosis.
Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children
Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.
The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.
The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.
In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the correct information regarding the storage requirements and lifespan of blood products?
Your Answer: Packed red cells are stored at 4°C for up to 25 days
Correct Answer: Fresh frozen plasma is stored at −25°C for up to 36 months
Explanation:Storage Guidelines for Blood Products
Blood products such as fresh frozen plasma, red cells, and platelets have specific storage guidelines to ensure their safety and efficacy. Fresh frozen plasma can be stored for up to 36 months at a temperature of −25°C. On the other hand, red cells are stored at a temperature of 4°C for a maximum of 35 days, while platelets are stored at a temperature of 22°C for up to 5 days on a platelet shaker/agitator.
These guidelines are important to follow to maintain the quality of blood products and prevent any adverse reactions in patients who receive them. It is crucial to store blood products at the appropriate temperature and for the recommended duration to ensure their effectiveness when used in transfusions. Healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines and ensure that they are followed to provide safe and effective blood transfusions to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old man is admitted to hospital with worsening control of his chronic back pain. He admits he is struggling to continue with his oral morphine as it is making him feel nauseated. He enquires about whether he can have injections or an analgesia patch. He currently takes paracetamol 1000 mg orally (PO) four times daily (QDS), codeine 60 mg PO QDS, ibuprofen 400 mg PO three times daily (TDS) and morphine sulphate 30 mg PO QDS.
Which of the following fentanyl patches would be appropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Fentanyl 100 µg/hour patch every 72 hours
Correct Answer: Fentanyl 50 µg/hour patch every 72 hours
Explanation:Equianalgesic Dosing of Fentanyl Patches Compared to Morphine
Fentanyl patches are a common form of opioid medication used for chronic pain management. The dosage of fentanyl patches is often compared to the equivalent dosage of morphine to ensure proper pain control.
For example, a patient taking the 24-hour equivalent of 140 mg morphine sulphate would require a fentanyl ’50’ patch. This patient should also be prescribed breakthrough analgesia to manage any sudden spikes in pain.
Other equianalgesic dosages include a fentanyl ’12’ patch equivalent to 30 mg morphine sulphate in 24 hours, a fentanyl ’25’ patch equivalent to 60 mg morphine sulphate in 24 hours, and a fentanyl ‘100’ patch equivalent to 240 mg morphine sulphate in 24 hours. It’s important to note that a fentanyl ‘120’ patch is not available.
Overall, understanding the equianalgesic dosing of fentanyl patches compared to morphine can help healthcare providers properly manage a patient’s pain and avoid potential overdose or underdose situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old retired teacher is prescribed donepezil for mild Alzheimer's dementia. What side-effects should she be warned about before starting the medication?
Your Answer: Constipation
Correct Answer: Hallucination
Explanation:Understanding the Side Effects of Donepezil: A Guide for Patients
Donepezil is a medication commonly used to treat symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease. However, like all medications, it can cause side effects. It is important for patients to understand these potential side effects in order to make informed decisions about their treatment.
Gastrointestinal side effects are the most common with donepezil, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and dyspepsia. In rare cases, it may even cause peptic ulcer disease. Genitourinary side effects such as urinary incontinence may also occur.
Central nervous system side effects are also possible, including hallucinations, agitation, seizures, and insomnia. While cardiac side effects are rare, donepezil may increase the risk of stroke and myocardial infarction and may rarely cause sinoatrial node and atrioventricular node block.
It is important to note that anticholinesterase medications like donepezil should be started at a low dose and gradually increased over weeks to months to avoid side effects.
Hypertension, constipation, and atrial fibrillation are not recognized side effects of donepezil. Drowsiness and sedation are also not commonly associated with donepezil, but agitation and insomnia may occur.
In summary, patients taking donepezil should be aware of the potential side effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. With proper monitoring and management, the benefits of donepezil may outweigh the risks for many patients with Alzheimer’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with non-specific chest pain lasting 6 hours. His ECG shows no significant changes, and cardiac enzymes are normal. As the pain becomes sharper and localizes to the left side of his chest over the next 48 hours, he reports that it worsens when lying down and taking deep breaths. The diagnosis is pericarditis.
What can be said about the pericardium in this case?Your Answer: The visceral layer of the serous pericardium derives from the embryonic endoderm
Correct Answer: The transverse sinus of the pericardium can be found behind the major vessels emerging from the ventricles, but in front of the superior vena cava
Explanation:Pericardium Layers and Sinuses: Understanding the Anatomy of the Heart’s Protective Membrane
The pericardium is a protective membrane that surrounds the heart. It consists of two layers: the fibrous pericardium and the serous pericardium. The fibrous pericardium adheres to the heart muscle and is derived from the somatopleuric mesoderm of the body cavity. The visceral layer of the serous pericardium, also known as the epicardium, adheres to the heart muscle and is derived from the splanchnopleuric mesoderm of the body cavity.
The pericardium also contains two sinuses: the transverse sinus and the oblique sinus. The transverse sinus can be found behind the major vessels emerging from the ventricles, but in front of the superior vena cava. The oblique sinus is the other pericardial sinus.
It is important to understand the anatomy of the pericardium in order to properly diagnose and treat conditions that affect the heart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 16-year-old boy comes to the emergency department complaining of severe pain in his left testicle. The pain started about an hour ago and he rates it as 10/10. He has experienced this pain three times before, but he has never sought medical attention as it usually goes away within an hour. Upon examination, there is swelling and redness of the scrotum.
After being admitted, the pain and swelling begin to subside.
What treatment should be administered in this case based on his presentation?Your Answer: Emergency surgical fixation
Explanation:In cases of intermittent testicular torsion, prophylactic fixing should be considered. This is especially important for a boy who has experienced repeated episodes of acute testicular pain. Emergency surgical fixation is the most appropriate treatment, as the patient is at high risk of immediate retorsion. Elective surgical fixation is not quick enough for this patient’s presentation. Orchiectomy is only considered in cases where surgery finds dead tissue or the torsion has lasted for more than 24 hours. Co-amoxiclav is not indicated as there is no indication of infection. No treatment is not an option, as prophylactic fixing is necessary even after detorsion.
Testicular Torsion: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Testicular torsion is a medical condition that occurs when the spermatic cord twists, leading to testicular ischaemia and necrosis. This condition is most common in males aged between 10 and 30, with a peak incidence between 13 and 15 years. The symptoms of testicular torsion are sudden and severe pain, which may be referred to the lower abdomen. Nausea and vomiting may also be present. On examination, the affected testis is usually swollen, tender, and retracted upwards, with reddened skin. The cremasteric reflex is lost, and elevation of the testis does not ease the pain (Prehn’s sign).
The treatment for testicular torsion is urgent surgical exploration. If a torted testis is identified, both testes should be fixed, as the condition of bell clapper testis is often bilateral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male, who is breastfeeding, came in with mastitis symptoms. During the examination, erythema was observed around the nipple. The patient was prescribed flucloxacillin and an analgesic. What analgesic should be avoided in this case?
Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Breastfeeding mothers should steer clear of aspirin
Breastfeeding mothers are advised against taking aspirin, especially in high doses for pain relief. This is because aspirin has been linked to Reye’s syndrome, a condition that can result in liver and brain harm.
Breastfeeding has some contraindications that are important to know, especially when it comes to drugs. Antibiotics like penicillins, cephalosporins, and trimethoprim are safe for breastfeeding mothers, as are endocrine drugs like glucocorticoids (in low doses) and levothyroxine. Epilepsy drugs like sodium valproate and carbamazepine, asthma drugs like salbutamol and theophyllines, and hypertension drugs like beta-blockers and hydralazine are also safe. Anticoagulants like warfarin and heparin, as well as digoxin, are also safe. However, some drugs should be avoided, such as antibiotics like ciprofloxacin, tetracycline, chloramphenicol, and sulphonamides, psychiatric drugs like lithium and benzodiazepines, aspirin, carbimazole, methotrexate, sulfonylureas, cytotoxic drugs, and amiodarone. Other contraindications include galactosaemia and viral infections, although the latter is controversial in the developing world due to the increased risk of infant mortality and morbidity associated with bottle feeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the least likely to worsen bronchospasm in severe asthma?
Your Answer: Adenosine
Correct Answer: Alfentanil
Explanation:Safe and Unsafe Medications for Asthmatics
Alfentanil is a type of painkiller that belongs to the opioid family. It is commonly used during the induction of anesthesia and is considered safe for asthmatics. Adenosine, on the other hand, is a medication that can cause wheezing and bronchospasm, making it unsuitable for asthmatics. It can also cause other unpleasant side effects and is therefore contraindicated.
Diclofenac is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that should not be given to patients with a history of asthma or those whose symptoms have worsened following aspirin. This is because it can trigger an asthma attack and worsen the symptoms. Labetalol, a beta-blocker, is also contraindicated for asthmatics.
Morphine is another medication that should be used with caution in asthmatics. It can release histamine, which can make bronchospasm worse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A 20-year-old man presents with complaints of palpitations and dizzy spells. Upon performing an echocardiogram, the diagnosis of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is made.
What will be visualized on the echocardiogram?Your Answer: Reduced left ventricular cavity size
Explanation:Echocardiographic Findings in Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a condition characterized by thickening of the heart muscle, particularly the septum, which can lead to obstruction of blood flow out of the heart. Echocardiography is a useful tool for diagnosing and monitoring HOCM. Here are some echocardiographic findings commonly seen in HOCM:
Reduced left ventricular cavity size: Patients with HOCM often have a banana-shaped left ventricular cavity, with reduced size due to septal hypertrophy.
Increased left ventricular outflow tract gradients: HOCM can cause obstruction of blood flow out of the heart, leading to increased pressure gradients in the left ventricular outflow tract.
Systolic anterior motion of the mitral leaflet: This is a characteristic finding in HOCM, where the mitral valve moves forward during systole and can contribute to obstruction of blood flow.
Asymmetrical septal hypertrophy: While some patients with HOCM may have symmetrically hypertrophied ventricles, the more common presentation is asymmetrical hypertrophy, with thickening of the septum.
Mitral regurgitation: HOCM can cause dysfunction of the mitral valve, leading to mild to moderate regurgitation of blood back into the left atrium.
Overall, echocardiography plays an important role in the diagnosis and management of HOCM, allowing for visualization of the structural and functional abnormalities associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 35-year-old man was bitten by a stray dog during his travels. The dog bit him on his leg, causing a deep wound with bleeding. The dog appeared sickly and there was a high possibility that it was infected with rabies. As a precautionary measure, the dog was euthanized and its tissues were tested. The results confirmed that the dog was indeed positive for rabies. What is the recommended course of treatment for this individual?
Your Answer: Wash the wound thoroughly, give the vaccination and give rabies immune globulin
Explanation:Rabies and Post-Exposure Treatment
Rabies is a severe viral infection that affects the blood and central nervous system. It is a zoonotic disease, meaning it is transmitted from animals to humans. Symptoms of rabies in humans include fever, itch at the site of infection, hydrophobia, and changes in personality, including aggressive behavior. The World Health Organization (WHO) has categorized three types of contact that determine the need for post-exposure treatment.
Category I contact involves touching or feeding animals or licks on the skin, which requires no treatment. Category II contact includes nibbling of uncovered skin, minor scratches or abrasions without bleeding, and licks on broken skin, which requires immediate vaccination. Category III contact involves single or multiple transdermal bites or scratches, contamination of mucous membrane with saliva from licks, or exposure to bat bites or scratches, which requires immediate vaccination and administration of rabies immune globulin.
It is crucial to note that all bites and wounds require immediate and thorough washing and flushing. Post-exposure prophylaxis is used when there are no symptoms, as once symptoms develop, rabies is almost always fatal, and treatment is based on symptom control. This case describes a category III contact, and the correct treatment is immediate vaccination and administration of rabies immune globulin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 19
Correct
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A 35-year-old female who is post-partum and on the oral contraceptive pill, presents with right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting, hepatosplenomegaly and ascites.
What is the most probable reason for these symptoms?Your Answer: Budd-Chiari syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension
Hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension can have various causes, including pre-hepatic, hepatic, and post-hepatic problems. One potential cause is Budd-Chiari syndrome, which results from hepatic vein thrombosis and is associated with pregnancy and oral contraceptive use. Alcoholic cirrhosis is another possible cause, but is unlikely in the absence of alcohol excess. Pylephlebitis, a rare complication of appendicitis, is not consistent with the case history provided. Splenectomy cannot explain the palpable splenomegaly in this patient. Tricuspid valve incompetence can also lead to portal hypertension and hepatosplenomegaly, but given the postpartum status of the patient, Budd-Chiari syndrome is a more probable diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male presents to your clinic for a follow-up of his irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). He reports feeling generally well and has not experienced any episodes of diarrhoea for the past 4 months. His medical history includes hypertension and anxiety, and he takes a daily dose of lisinopril, omeprazole and sertraline. Laboratory investigations are ordered as part of this follow-up, and the results are as follows:
Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 5.6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Magnesium 0.48 mmol/L (0.7 - 1.0)
Creatinine 101 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Phosphate 0.82 mmol/L (0.8 - 1.4)
What is the most likely cause of these laboratory findings?Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
Correct Answer: Omeprazole
Explanation:Hypomagnesemia is often attributed to the use of proton pump inhibitors, like omeprazole, as evidenced by the patient’s laboratory results. Although most diuretics can also lead to low serum magnesium levels, amiloride is an exception. This potassium-sparing diuretic functions by inhibiting the epithelial sodium channel (ENaC) in the kidney’s collecting tubule and has the added advantage of decreasing net magnesium excretion by encouraging reuptake in the cortical collecting tubule.
Understanding Hypomagnesaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of magnesium in the blood. There are several causes of this condition, including the use of certain drugs such as diuretics and proton pump inhibitors, total parenteral nutrition, and chronic or acute diarrhoea. Alcohol consumption, hypokalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and metabolic disorders like Gitelman’s and Bartter’s can also lead to hypomagnesaemia. The symptoms of this condition may be similar to those of hypocalcaemia, including paraesthesia, tetany, seizures, and arrhythmias.
When the magnesium level drops below 0.4 mmol/L or when there are symptoms of tetany, arrhythmias, or seizures, intravenous magnesium replacement is commonly given. An example regime would be 40 mmol of magnesium sulphate over 24 hours. For magnesium levels above 0.4 mmol/L, oral magnesium salts are prescribed in divided doses of 10-20 mmol per day. However, diarrhoea can occur with oral magnesium salts. It is important to note that hypomagnesaemia can exacerbate digoxin toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 21
Correct
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John is a 70-year-old man who is retired. Lately, he has been experiencing stiffness in his fingers while playing guitar. He also notices that his fingers ache more than usual during and after playing. John used to work as a computer programmer and does not smoke or drink alcohol. His body mass index is 30 kg/m². What radiological findings are most indicative of John's condition?
Your Answer: Osteophytes at the distal interphalangeal joints (DIPs) and base of the thumb
Explanation:Hand osteoarthritis is characterized by the involvement of the carpometacarpal and distal interphalangeal joints, with the presence of osteophytes at the base of the thumb and distal interphalangeal joints being a typical finding. Lytic bone lesions are unlikely to be the cause of this presentation, as they are more commonly associated with metastasis or osteomyelitis. While rheumatoid arthritis can also involve the proximal interphalangeal joints and cause joint effusions, this woman’s age, history, and symptoms suggest that osteoarthritis is more likely. The pencil in cup appearance seen in psoriatic arthritis is not present in this case, as the patient does not report any skin lesions. Although most cases of osteoarthritis are asymptomatic, the patient’s symptoms suggest that some radiological changes have occurred.
Understanding Osteoarthritis of the Hand
Osteoarthritis of the hand, also known as nodal arthritis, is a condition that occurs when the cartilage at synovial joints is lost, leading to the degeneration of underlying bone. It is more common in women, usually presenting after the age of 55, and may have a genetic component. Risk factors include previous joint trauma, obesity, hypermobility, and certain occupations. Interestingly, osteoporosis may actually reduce the risk of developing hand OA.
Symptoms of hand OA include episodic joint pain, stiffness that worsens after periods of inactivity, and the development of painless bony swellings known as Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes. These nodes are the result of osteophyte formation and are typically found at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints, respectively. In severe cases, there may be reduced grip strength and deformity of the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, resulting in fixed adduction.
Diagnosis is typically made through X-ray, which may show signs of osteophyte formation and joint space narrowing before symptoms develop. While hand OA may not significantly impact a patient’s daily function, it is important to manage symptoms through pain relief and joint protection strategies. Additionally, the presence of hand OA may increase the risk of future hip and knee OA, particularly for hip OA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Correct
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Samantha is a 67-year-old woman who presents with skin changes on her left lower leg. Upon examination, Samantha has a low-grade fever and the left lower leg is erythematosus, mildly swollen, and warm to the touch. The diagnosis is cellulitis, and due to Samantha's penicillin allergy, a course of oral clarithromycin is prescribed.
One week later, Samantha returns with new palpitations. What potential ECG side effect can be associated with this antibiotic?Your Answer: Prolonged QT interval
Explanation:Macrolides have the potential to cause QT interval prolongation, which is a known side effect. Additionally, palpitations may occur as an uncommon side effect of macrolides. A shortened PR interval may indicate pre-excitation or an AV nodal (junctional) rhythm, while a prolonged PR interval suggests first-degree AV block. Prominent P waves are typically caused by right atrial enlargement, which can be due to various conditions such as chronic lung disease, tricuspid stenosis, congenital heart disease, or primary pulmonary hypertension.
Macrolides: Antibiotics that Inhibit Bacterial Protein Synthesis
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation, which inhibits bacterial protein synthesis. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated.
Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA. Adverse effects of macrolides include prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, with nausea being less common with clarithromycin than erythromycin. Cholestatic jaundice is also a potential risk, although using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which can cause interactions with other medications. For example, taking macrolides concurrently with statins significantly increases the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, macrolides are a useful class of antibiotics that can effectively treat bacterial infections. However, it is important to be aware of their potential adverse effects and interactions with other medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A woman aged 57 presents with a unilateral ovarian mass, accompanied by a large omental metastasis.
Which of the following postoperative treatments is the most appropriate?Your Answer: Bleomycin, cisplatin and etoposide
Correct Answer: Carboplatin and Taxol®
Explanation:Chemotherapy Options for Ovarian Cancer
Platinum-based drugs, such as carboplatin and cisplatin, are the primary treatment for ovarian cancer. Carboplatin is preferred over cisplatin due to its lower risk of kidney and nerve damage. For germ cell tumors of the testicles or ovaries, a combination of bleomycin, cisplatin, and etoposide (BEP) may be used.
While Taxol® can be used alone, it is not as effective as when combined with a platinum-based drug. In 2002, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommended the addition of Taxol® as a first-line drug for ovarian cancer treatment, based on large multicenter randomized trials. Overall, the choice of chemotherapy depends on the type and stage of ovarian cancer, as well as individual patient factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the most common visual field defect associated with multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer: Increased blind spot
Correct Answer: Central scotoma
Explanation:Visual Field Defects and Their Causes
Central scotoma refers to a reduction in vision at the point of fixation, which can interfere with central vision. This condition is often caused by a lesion between the optic nerve head and the chiasm and is commonly associated with retrobulbar neuritis and optic atrophy. Tunnel vision, on the other hand, occurs in conditions such as glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, and retinal panphotocoagulation. These conditions cause a loss of peripheral vision, resulting in a narrow visual field.
Another visual field defect is an increased blind spot, which is often caused by papilloedema. This condition can lead to optic atrophy and is characterized by an enlargement of the blind spot. Finally, optic chiasma compression can cause bitemporal hemianopia, which is a loss of vision in both temporal fields. This condition is often caused by tumors or other lesions that compress the optic chiasm. these different visual field defects and their causes is important for diagnosing and treating vision problems.
Overall, it is important to note that any changes in vision should be promptly evaluated by a healthcare professional. Early detection and treatment of visual field defects can help prevent further vision loss and improve overall quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient has just been administered intravenous ceftazidime. Suddenly, the patient experiences flushing and wheezing, and their blood pressure drops to 80/40 mmHg. What is the most suitable immediate action to take for this patient?
Your Answer: Adrenaline 0.5 mg of 1:1,000 IM
Explanation:Immediate Treatment for Anaphylaxis and Non-Shockable Cardiac Arrest
Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The first step is to stop whatever caused the reaction. After that, the patient should be given oxygen, fluids, and adrenaline. It is important to check the concentration of adrenaline, especially in high-pressure situations. Adrenaline can be administered intramuscularly or subcutaneously at a dose of 0.5 mg of 1:1,000. However, intravenous administration of adrenaline can be hazardous unless it is appropriately diluted.
In the case of a non-shockable cardiac arrest, the treatment involves the intravenous administration of adrenaline at a dose of 0.5mg of 1:10,000. It is important to note that the concentration of adrenaline used in the treatment of anaphylaxis is different from that used in the treatment of non-shockable cardiac arrest. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of the appropriate concentration of adrenaline to use in each situation. Proper administration of adrenaline can be life-saving in both anaphylaxis and non-shockable cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male with a history of alcohol dependence and chronic hepatitis presents with reduced consciousness. He was discovered at home by a friend who reported that he had been depressed and threatening suicide.
Upon examination, the patient is found to be tachycardic and hypotensive, with a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg. His Glasgow coma scale is 13/15, and there are no signs of jaundice or hepatomegaly. A plasma-paracetamol concentration of 70 mg/litre is detected.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?Your Answer: Oral methionine
Correct Answer: IV acetylcysteine
Explanation:Treatment for Paracetamol Overdose
This patient may have taken too much paracetamol, but it is unclear when this occurred. The paracetamol level in their blood is 70 mg/litre, which is difficult to interpret without knowing the timing of the overdose. If there is any doubt about the timing or need for treatment, the patient should receive N-acetylcysteine. In remote areas where this is not available, oral methionine can be used instead. Gastric lavage, which involves washing out the stomach, is not typically helpful for patients who have only overdosed on paracetamol. Overall, prompt treatment is essential to prevent serious liver damage and other complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A woman experiences a significant post-partum haemorrhage leading to shock. Subsequently, she develops a visual field defect and severe headache. What are the most probable complications that may arise?
Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Sheehan’s syndrome
Explanation:Peripartum Complications: Sheehan’s Syndrome, Eclampsia, and Other Causes of Headache and Visual Disturbances
Peripartum complications can present with a variety of symptoms, including headache and visual disturbances. Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results from pituitary infarction due to haemorrhagic shock during labour and the peripartum period. It typically affects the anterior pituitary, leading to hormonal deficiencies that may present acutely or more indolently. Hormone replacement is the mainstay of treatment.
Eclampsia is another peripartum complication that can cause high blood pressure and seizures, sometimes leading to loss of consciousness. It requires urgent medical attention.
Other causes of headache and visual disturbances in the peripartum period include subarachnoid haemorrhage, which may present with sudden onset headache and visual disturbances, and extradural haemorrhage, which is typically found in trauma adjacent to fractures of the temporal bone. Occipital haemorrhagic infarction can also cause these symptoms, but a visual field defect is more suggestive of Sheehan’s syndrome.
It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential complications and to promptly evaluate and manage them to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of painful tingling over the lateral side of her left hand upon awakening in recent weeks. She also reports experiencing clumsiness in her hand. Upon examination, the doctor notes reduced sensation on the palmar aspects of her left thumb, index, and middle and ring fingers, leading to a suspicion of carpal tunnel syndrome. What clinical examination would be most effective in confirming this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abduction of the thumb with palpation of the thenar eminence
Explanation:Testing for Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Thumb Abduction and Thenar Eminence Palpation
When testing for carpal tunnel syndrome, one method involves abducting the thumb and palpating the thenar eminence, where the abductor pollicis brevis muscle is located. If this muscle cannot be palpated while the thumb is abducted, it suggests that the abduction is due to contraction of the abductor pollicis longus muscle only, which is supplied by the radial nerve. This indicates a possible issue with the median nerve, which can be compressed in carpal tunnel syndrome. Symptoms of this condition include pain, numbness, and weakness in the hand. Other testing methods, such as opposition of the thumb or palpation of the dorsal interossei muscle, are not as helpful in diagnosing carpal tunnel syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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You are on your general practice placement, and a pregnant woman attends for a routine antenatal check-up. You examine her abdomen and find that her abdomen is distended up to her umbilicus. Your general practitioner asks you how many weeks you think she is, but you do not have a measuring tape.
How many weeks would you estimate her gestation to be if she was in her mid-30s?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 20
Explanation:Measuring Uterine Growth During Pregnancy
During pregnancy, the size of the uterus can be used to estimate the gestational age of the fetus. At around 20 weeks, the uterus reaches the level of the umbilicus. This can be measured using the symphysio-fundal height (SFH), which is usually equal to the number of weeks of gestation (± 2 cm). To measure the SFH, the fundus of the uterus is first palpated and the tape measure is placed at this point. The tape measure is then rolled over the longitudinal axis of the uterus until it reaches the pubic symphysis, and the length in centimeters is recorded.
At 16 weeks, the uterus would not be palpable at the level of the umbilicus. The fundus of the uterus can be palpated at the midpoint between the umbilicus and the pubic symphysis. Similarly, at 18 weeks, the uterus would not be palpable at the level of the umbilicus.
By 22 weeks, the uterus would be past the level of the umbilicus. And by 24 weeks, the uterus would be higher in the abdomen than the umbilicus. Regular measurement of the SFH can help monitor fetal growth and ensure that the pregnancy is progressing normally.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman who is 28-weeks pregnant arrives at the emergency department with a swollen and tender left calf, which is confirmed as a DVT. Suddenly, she experiences acute shortness of breath and complains of pleuritic chest pain. What is the best initial management step for the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should be started immediately on low molecular weight heparin
Explanation:When a pregnant woman with a confirmed DVT is suspected of having a PE, the first step is to immediately administer LMWH to avoid any delay in treatment. PE during pregnancy can be life-threatening for both the mother and the foetus, causing hypoxia and even cardiac arrest. Thrombolysis is not recommended during pregnancy as it can lead to severe haemorrhage in the placenta and foetus. Apixaban is not approved for use during pregnancy and may have teratogenic effects. Similarly, warfarin is not safe during pregnancy and can cause congenital malformations and haemorrhage in the placenta. While a CTPA can be diagnostic, waiting for the scan can be risky for the mother and baby. Therefore, LMWH should be started without delay, and further investigations can be carried out to confirm or rule out a PE.
Investigation of DVT/PE during Pregnancy
Guidelines for investigating deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE) during pregnancy were updated in 2015 by the Royal College of Obstetricians. For suspected DVT, compression duplex ultrasound should be performed if there is clinical suspicion. In cases of suspected PE, an ECG and chest x-ray should be performed in all patients. If a woman presents with symptoms and signs of DVT, compression duplex ultrasound should be performed. If DVT is confirmed, no further investigation is necessary, and treatment for venous thromboembolism (VTE) should continue. The decision to perform a ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan or computed tomography pulmonary angiography (CTPA) should be made at a local level after discussion with the patient and radiologist.
When comparing CTPA to V/Q scanning in pregnancy, it is important to note that CTPA slightly increases the lifetime risk of maternal breast cancer (up to 13.6%, with a background risk of 1/200 for the study population). Pregnancy makes breast tissue particularly sensitive to the effects of radiation. On the other hand, V/Q scanning carries a slightly increased risk of childhood cancer compared to CTPA (1/50,000 versus less than 1/1,000,000). It is also important to note that D-dimer is of limited use in the investigation of thromboembolism during pregnancy as it is often raised in pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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