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Question 1
Correct
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A 32-year-old man visits his General Practitioner to discuss his recent diagnosis of Crohn's disease. He presented eight months ago with weight loss and a change in bowel habit, and was referred to the Gastroenterology Department. The diagnosis was confirmed and he was successfully treated as an inpatient. At the time, he declined maintenance therapy but has since become very worried about this decision and would like to start the treatment. What is the most suitable agent to maintain remission in this patient?
Your Answer: Azathioprine
Explanation:Medications for Maintaining Remission in Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory condition that affects the digestive tract. While some patients may choose not to take medication to maintain remission, others may opt for drug therapy. The two main options are azathioprine and mercaptopurine, but it is important to measure thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) activity before using these drugs. Sulfasalazine is effective in maintaining remission for ulcerative colitis but has limited efficacy for Crohn’s disease. Methotrexate may be considered if other drugs fail or are not tolerated. Metronidazole is used for perianal disease but not for maintaining remission. Conventional corticosteroids like prednisolone or budesonide should not be used for long-term maintenance due to the risks associated with prolonged steroid use. Preventative treatment may be particularly appropriate for those with adverse prognostic factors such as early age of onset, perianal disease, corticosteroid use at presentation, and severe illness at presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has been experiencing abdominal pain and intermittent bloody diarrhoea for the past 4 months. She has a history of perianal abscess. Her blood test shows hypochromic, microcytic anaemia and mild hypokalaemia. Although her liver function tests are normal, her albumin is reduced. Barium imaging reveals a small bowel stricture with evidence of mucosal ulceration extending into the colon, interspersed with normal looking mucosa ‘skipping’. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Correct Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Understanding Crohn’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Differential Diagnosis
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory condition that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. The most commonly affected sites are the ileocecal region and the colon. Patients with Crohn’s disease experience relapses and remissions, with symptoms including low-grade fever, prolonged diarrhea, right lower quadrant or periumbilical pain, weight loss, and fatigue. Perianal disease may also occur, with symptoms such as perirectal pain, malodorous discharge, and fistula formation. Extra-intestinal manifestations may include arthritis, erythema nodosum, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.
To establish a diagnosis of Crohn’s disease, ileocolonoscopy and biopsies from affected areas are first-line procedures. A cobblestone-like appearance is often seen, representing areas of ulceration separated by narrow areas of healthy tissue. Barium follow-through examination is useful for looking for inflammation and narrowing of the small bowel.
Differential diagnosis for Crohn’s disease include coeliac disease, small bowel lymphoma, tropical sprue, and ulcerative colitis. Coeliac disease presents as a malabsorption syndrome with weight loss and steatorrhoea, while small bowel lymphoma is rare and presents with nonspecific symptoms such as abdominal pain and weight loss. Tropical sprue is a post-infectious malabsorption syndrome that occurs in tropical areas, and ulcerative colitis may be clinically indistinguishable from colonic Crohn’s disease but lacks the small bowel involvement and skip lesions seen in Crohn’s disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents to his GP clinic complaining of persistent diarrhoea. He has a medical history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.
He was recently hospitalized for pneumonia and received IV antibiotics. While in the hospital, he developed watery diarrhoea, nausea, and abdominal discomfort. After a stool sample, he was prescribed a 10-day course of oral vancomycin and discharged home. However, his diarrhoea has not improved.
Upon examination, he appears alert, his vital signs are normal, and his abdomen is non-tender.
What would be the next course of treatment to consider?Your Answer: Fidaxomicin
Explanation:If initial treatment with vancomycin is ineffective against Clostridium difficile, the next recommended option is oral fidaxomicin, unless the infection is life-threatening.
Based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, it is likely that he has contracted Clostridium difficile infection due to his recent antibiotic use and possible use of proton-pump inhibitors. Therefore, oral fidaxomicin would be the appropriate second-line treatment option.
Continuing with vancomycin would not be the best course of action, as fidaxomicin is recommended as the next step if vancomycin is ineffective.
Using loperamide for symptom relief is not recommended in cases of suspected Clostridium difficile infection, as it may slow down the clearance of toxins produced by the bacteria.
Piperacillin-tazobactam is not a suitable treatment option for Clostridium difficile infection, as it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can increase the risk of developing the infection.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.
To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with a complaint of burning retrosternal pain. He has had this issue before and has treated it with over-the-counter remedies. He sometimes experiences food sticking. He smokes 20 cigarettes daily. During the examination, there is some epigastric tenderness, but only upon deep palpation. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Lifestyle advice with a proton-pump inhibitor (PPI)
Correct Answer: Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy
Explanation:Management of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease with Red-Flag Symptom
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a common condition that can be managed with lifestyle advice and medication. However, when red-flag symptoms such as dysphagia are present, urgent investigation is necessary to rule out oesophageal cancer.
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends urgent direct-access upper gastrointestinal endoscopy within two weeks for people with dysphagia. Long-term reflux disease may lead to Barrett’s oesophagus, which requires surveillance endoscopy every two years.
Lifestyle advice is a key element in managing GORD, including weight loss, alcohol and smoking cessation, small regular meals, avoiding food and hot drinks before bedtime, and raising the head of the bed at night. Antacids are available over the counter but are not sufficient for red-flag symptoms. H2-antagonists are not the first-line treatment for reflux disease, and proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) are more effective in relieving heartburn.
For a new episode of reflux disease, a full dose of PPI is given for a month, and the dose is stepped down or a low-dose PPI is used for recurrent symptoms as required. PPIs are highly effective in symptom relief, but urgent endoscopy is necessary for red-flag symptoms such as dysphagia.
In summary, the management of GORD involves lifestyle advice and medication, but red-flag symptoms require urgent investigation to rule out oesophageal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to his general practice clinic with a 3-month history of alternating constipation and diarrhea, along with gradual weight loss. During the examination, he looks cachectic and has nodular hepatomegaly. He doesn't have jaundice, and his liver function tests are normal. What is the most probable diagnosis? Choose ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Lymphoma
Correct Answer: Liver metastases
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of nodular hepatomegaly
Nodular hepatomegaly, or an enlarged liver with palpable nodules, can have various causes. Among them, liver metastases and cirrhosis are common, while hepatocellular carcinoma, lymphoma, and myelofibrosis are less frequent but still possible differential diagnoses.
Liver metastases often originate from the bowel or breast and may not affect liver function until they involve over half of the liver or obstruct the biliary tract. Cirrhosis, on the other hand, results from chronic liver disease and typically raises the serum alanine aminotransferase level, but this patient’s liver function tests are normal.
Hepatocellular carcinoma, a type of liver cancer, shares some features with liver metastases but is less common and may be associated with hepatitis B or C. Lymphoma, a cancer of the lymphatic system, is even rarer than hepatocellular carcinoma as a cause of nodular hepatomegaly, but it may involve other sites besides the liver.
Myelofibrosis is a bone marrow disorder that can lead to fibrosis in the liver and spleen, among other organs. It may not cause symptoms in the early stages but can manifest as leukoerythroblastic anaemia, malaise, weight loss, and night sweats later on. While myelofibrosis is not a common cause of nodular hepatomegaly, it should be considered in the differential diagnosis, especially if other features suggest a myeloproliferative neoplasm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You have a consultation scheduled with Mr. Smith, a 74-year-old man who is interested in participating in the NHS bowel cancer screening program. He has never submitted the home test kits before and wants to know if he is eligible for screening.
Your Answer: He can self-refer for one-off bowel scope screening
Correct Answer: He can self-refer for home test kit
Explanation:Patients who are over the age of 74 are no longer eligible for bowel cancer screening within the NHS screening program. However, they can still receive a home test kit every 2 years by self-referral (helpline number on NHS website). It is important to note that if a patient develops symptoms of bowel cancer, they should be formally investigated according to NICE suspected cancer guidelines. Additionally, in areas where bowel scope screening has been rolled out, patients can self-refer up to the age of 60 for one-off bowel scope screening.
Colorectal Cancer Screening with FIT Test
Overview:
Colorectal cancer is often developed from adenomatous polyps. Screening for this cancer has been proven to reduce mortality by 16%. The NHS provides home-based screening for older adults through the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT). Although a one-off flexible sigmoidoscopy was trialled in England, it was abandoned in 2021 due to the inability to recruit enough clinical endoscopists, which was further exacerbated by the COVID-19 pandemic. However, the trial showed promising early results, and it remains to be seen whether flexible sigmoidoscopy will be used in future bowel screening programmes.Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT) Screening:
The NHS offers a national screening programme every two years to all men and women aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland. Patients aged over 74 years may request screening. Eligible patients are sent FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of faecal occult blood (FOB) test that uses antibodies that specifically recognise human haemoglobin (Hb). It is used to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. FIT has advantages over conventional FOB tests as it only detects human haemoglobin, not animal haemoglobin ingested through diet. Only one faecal sample is needed compared to the 2-3 for conventional FOB tests. Although a numerical value is generated, this is not reported to the patient or GP. Instead, they will be informed if the test is normal or abnormal. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.Colonoscopy:
Approximately 5 out of 10 patients will have a normal exam, 4 out of 10 patients will be found to have polyps that may be removed due to their premalignant potential, and 1 out of 10 patients will be found to have cancer. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man presents with a six week history of persistent loose stools. Prior to this he opened his bowels once a day most days and his stools were easily passed and 'soft'. Over the last six weeks he complains of loose 'watery' stools and is opening his bowels four to five times a day. This pattern has been occurring every day for the last six weeks.
He denies any weight loss, abdominal pain, rectal bleeding or passage of rectal mucous. There is no family history of note. He feels well with no fever or systemic symptoms.
Abdominal and rectal examinations are normal.
You refer the patient urgently to a lower GI specialist.
What additional investigation should be arranged at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Request tumour markers including CEA
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Patient with Change in Bowel Habit
This patient requires urgent referral as he is over 60 years old and has experienced a change in bowel habit. According to NICE guidelines, the only test that may be helpful in this case is a full blood count, which can be performed alongside the referral. This will ensure that the result is available for the specialist in clinic.
NICE guidelines recommend testing for occult blood in faeces to assess for colorectal cancer in adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, or are aged 60 and over and have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. However, in this case, there has been no history of weight loss or abdominal pain, and the patient is not known to be anaemic. Therefore, other tests or investigations are not recommended as they will only serve to delay the process.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You see a 38-year-old lady who has come to you for help reducing her weight. Her BMI is 32 kg/m2. She has tried joining a local dieting group and increasing her physical activity but is still finding it difficult to lose weight. After discussion, it is decided to start her on orlistat. She manages to lose 2Kg after 3 months treatment. She wants to know how much longer she is allowed to be on this medication.
Following an initial weight loss at 3 months, what is the restriction on how long orlistat should be prescribed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3 months
Explanation:Orlistat Prescription Guidelines
Orlistat is a medication that inhibits pancreatic lipase and is prescribed to patients with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more (or 28 kg/m2 with an associated risk factor). Patients are expected to lose 5% of their initial body weight at 3 months for the prescription to be continued. However, for patients with diabetes, a 3% loss of body weight at 3 months is recommended.
Beyond the initial weight loss at 3 months, there is no restriction on how long orlistat should be prescribed. The decision to continue treatment should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the benefits, risks, and cost of treatment. Regular reviews should be undertaken to assess the benefits, risks, and costs of treatment. According to NICE, For people who have lost the recommended amount of weight, there is no restriction on how long orlistat may be prescribed. This should be reviewed at regular intervals.
In summary, orlistat is a medication that can be prescribed for an extended period of time, but the decision to continue treatment should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the benefits, risks, and cost of treatment. Regular reviews should be conducted to ensure that the medication is still appropriate for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea and weight loss for the past four months. She describes the pain as dull, piercing and it radiates to her back. She has a history of anorexia. On physical examination, there is mild tenderness in the epigastric region but no palpable masses. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carcinoma of the pancreas
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Abdominal Pain: A Case Study
The patient presents with abdominal pain, and a differential diagnosis must be considered. The symptoms suggest carcinoma of the body or tail of the pancreas, as obstructive jaundice is not present. The pain is located in the epigastric region and radiates to the back, indicating retroperitoneal invasion of the splanchnic nerve plexus by the tumour.
Cholangiocarcinoma, a malignancy of the biliary duct system, is unlikely as jaundice is not present. Pain in the right upper quadrant may occur in advanced disease. Early gastric carcinoma often presents with symptoms of uncomplicated dyspepsia, while advanced disease presents with weight loss, vomiting, anorexia, upper abdominal pain, and anaemia.
Peptic ulcer disease is a possibility, with epigastric pain being the most common symptom. Duodenal ulcer pain often awakens the patient at night, and pain with radiation to the back can occur with posterior penetrating gastric ulcer complicated by pancreatitis. However, the presence of weight loss makes pancreatic carcinoma more likely.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, caused by a non-beta-islet-cell, gastrin-secreting tumour of the pancreas, is also a possibility. Epigastric pain due to ulceration is a common symptom, particularly in sporadic cases and in men. Diarrhoea is the most common symptom in patients with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1, as well as in female patients.
In conclusion, the differential diagnosis of abdominal pain in this case includes carcinoma of the pancreas, peptic ulcer disease, and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. Further diagnostic tests are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a two month history of mild nausea and upper abdominal discomfort after eating. You suspect gallstones so arrange an ultrasound scan of the abdomen along with a full blood count and liver function tests. Her BMI is 36.
The ultrasound scan doesn't show any stones in the Gallbladder and her liver function tests are normal. Her haemoglobin level is 95 g/L with a microcytic picture. When it was checked 18 months ago her haemoglobin level was 120 g/L. She has no history of vaginal bleeding or melaena. Her BMI is now 32.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a routine barium meal and swallow
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Upper GI Endoscopy in a Woman with Recent Onset Anemia and Weight Loss
This woman, aged over 55, has recently developed anemia and has also experienced weight loss. According to the latest NICE guidelines, urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy is necessary in such cases. Routine referrals for CT scan and barium meal are not appropriate. Treating with iron without referral is not recommended as it may delay diagnosis.
The loss of blood from the gastrointestinal tract is a common cause of anemia, and the symptoms experienced by this woman suggest an upper GI cause. Therefore, it is important to refer her for an upper GI endoscopy as soon as possible to identify the underlying cause of her symptoms and provide appropriate treatment. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further complications and improve the woman’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 37-year-old man who presented with an anal fissure caused by constipation and straining. He reports no systemic symptoms and is generally in good health. Despite using lidocaine ointment as prescribed, he continues to experience severe rectal pain during bowel movements and passes bright red blood with every stool. His stools have become softer due to modifications in his diet and regular lactulose use. What is the next step in managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe topical GTN ointment for 6-8 weeks and review if still not healed
Explanation:To alleviate pain and promote healing, suggest using an ointment (if there are no contraindications) twice a day for 6-8 weeks. Referral to colorectal surgeons is not necessary at this time since there are no indications of a severe underlying condition. If the GTN treatment is ineffective after 6-8 weeks, referral to the surgeons may be considered. Topical diltiazem may be prescribed under specialist guidance, but hydrocortisone ointment is not a recommended treatment for anal fissures.
Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the anal canal that can cause pain and rectal bleeding. They can be acute or chronic, depending on how long they have been present. Risk factors for developing anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.
Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, other underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.
Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, and the use of bulk-forming laxatives or lubricants before defecation. Topical anaesthetics and analgesia can also be used to manage pain.
For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, but topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after 8 weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered and a referral to secondary care may be necessary.
Understanding the causes, symptoms, and treatment options for anal fissures can help individuals manage their condition and seek appropriate medical care when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old stock-market trader presents with an 8 week history of upper abdominal pain that comes on in the evening and also wakes him up in the early hours of the morning. His symptoms are relieved by food and milk.
Select the single most likely diagnosis from the list below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peptic ulcer disease
Explanation:Common Gastrointestinal Disorders and their Symptoms
Peptic ulcer disease, chronic pancreatitis, cirrhosis, gallstones, and reflux oesophagitis are some of the most common gastrointestinal disorders. Peptic ulcers are often caused by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, alcohol, tobacco consumption, and Helicobacter pylori. The main symptom is epigastric pain, which is characterised by a gnawing or burning sensation and occurs after meals. Relief by food and alkalis is typical of duodenal ulcers, while food and alkalis provide only minimal relief in gastric ulcers.
Chronic pancreatitis causes intermittent attacks of severe pain, often in the mid-abdomen or left upper abdomen, and may be accompanied by diarrhoea and weight loss. Cirrhosis is often asymptomatic until there are obvious complications of liver disease, such as coagulopathy, ascites, variceal bleeding, or hepatic encephalopathy. Gallstones cause biliary colic, which is characterised by sporadic and unpredictable episodes of pain localised to the epigastrium or right upper quadrant. Obstructive jaundice may occur, and localising signs may be absent unless cholecystitis complicates the situation.
Reflux oesophagitis typically presents with heartburn, upper abdominal discomfort, regurgitation, and chest pain. There is no clear evidence to suggest that the stress of modern life or a steady diet of fast food causes ulcers. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman presents with fatigue and shortness of breath on exertion. She has a hiatus hernia diagnosed on upper gastrointestinal endoscopy 3 months ago and takes omeprazole. She has had no respiratory symptoms, no change in bowel habit, no dysphagia or indigestion. On examination she is pale and tachycardic with a pulse rate of 100/min. Abdominal examination is normal. Blood tests reveal the following results:
Haemoglobin 72 g/l
White cell count 5.5 x109/l
Platelets 536 x109/l
ESR 36 mm/h
(hypochromic microcytic red blood cells)
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right-sided colonic carcinoma
Explanation:Causes of Iron Deficiency Anaemia and the Importance of Gastrointestinal Tract Investigation
Iron deficiency anaemia is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. In older patients, it is important to investigate the gastrointestinal tract as a potential source of bleeding. Right-sided colonic carcinomas often do not cause any changes in bowel habit, leading to late diagnosis or incidental discovery during investigations for anaemia. On the other hand, rectal carcinomas usually result in a change in bowel habit. Oesophageal carcinoma can cause dysphagia and should have been detected during recent endoscopy. Hiatus hernia is unlikely to cause severe anaemia, especially if the patient is taking omeprazole. Poor diet is also an unlikely explanation for new-onset iron deficiency anaemia in older patients. Therefore, routine assessment of iron deficiency anaemia should include investigation of the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract, with particular attention to visualising the caecum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Rahul, a young adult, has been experiencing symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome and seeks advice from his doctor regarding dietary changes that could alleviate his bloating and constipation. What diet would be beneficial for young adults dealing with irritable bowel syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low FODMAP diet
Explanation:Monash University in Australia has recently introduced a low-FODMAP diet for managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). FODMAPs are short-chain carbohydrates that are poorly absorbed in the small intestine, leading to water intake and diarrhea or fermentation by bacteria causing bloating in the large bowel. A low-FODMAP diet has been found to reduce IBS symptoms such as bloating, abdominal pain, and irregular bowel habits. However, it is a challenging diet to follow as it excludes many foods containing Oligo-, Di-, Mono-saccharides and Polyols, including wheat, dairy, pulses, excess fructose, and some vegetables. Therefore, it is recommended to seek the advice of a dietician.
The LOFFLEX diet, which stands for low fat/fibre exclusion diet, has been developed for individuals with Crohn’s disease. It is often used after the elemental diet to maintain remission by avoiding high-fiber and high-fat foods that can trigger Crohn’s. The ketogenic diet has been shown to improve seizure control in people with epilepsy, particularly in children who are under the supervision of a pediatric dietician and have drug-resistant epilepsy. The specific carbohydrate and paleo diets are popular new diet trends that GPs may encounter, both of which significantly limit carbohydrate intake in the diet.
Managing irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be challenging and varies from patient to patient. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines in 2015 to provide recommendations for the management of IBS. The first-line pharmacological treatment depends on the predominant symptom, with antispasmodic agents recommended for pain, laxatives (excluding lactulose) for constipation, and loperamide for diarrhea. If conventional laxatives are not effective for constipation, linaclotide may be considered. Low-dose tricyclic antidepressants are the second-line pharmacological treatment of choice. For patients who do not respond to pharmacological treatments, psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioral therapy, hypnotherapy, or psychological therapy may be considered. Complementary and alternative medicines such as acupuncture or reflexology are not recommended. General dietary advice includes having regular meals, drinking at least 8 cups of fluid per day, limiting tea and coffee to 3 cups per day, reducing alcohol and fizzy drink intake, limiting high-fiber and resistant starch foods, and increasing intake of oats and linseeds for wind and bloating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man who you have treated for obesity comes for review. Despite ongoing lifestyle interventions and trials of orlistat and sibutramine he has failed to lose a significant amount of weight. He is currently taking lisinopril for hypertension but a recent fasting glucose was normal. For this patient, what is the cut-off body mass index (BMI) that would trigger a referral for consideration of bariatric surgery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: BMI > 35 kg/m^2
Explanation:Bariatric Surgery for Obesity Management
Bariatric surgery has become a significant option in managing obesity over the past decade. For obese patients who fail to lose weight with lifestyle and drug interventions, the risks and expenses of long-term obesity outweigh those of surgery. The NICE guidelines recommend that very obese patients with a BMI of 40-50 kg/m^2 or higher, particularly those with other conditions such as type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, should be referred early for bariatric surgery rather than it being a last resort.
There are three types of bariatric surgery: primarily restrictive operations, primarily malabsorptive operations, and mixed operations. Laparoscopic-adjustable gastric banding (LAGB) is the first-line intervention for patients with a BMI of 30-39 kg/m^2. It produces less weight loss than malabsorptive or mixed procedures but has fewer complications. Sleeve gastrectomy reduces the stomach to about 15% of its original size, while the intragastric balloon can be left in the stomach for a maximum of six months. Biliopancreatic diversion with duodenal switch is usually reserved for very obese patients with a BMI of over 60 kg/m^2. Roux-en-Y gastric bypass surgery is both restrictive and malabsorptive in action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 30-year old with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis is initiated on mesalazine following a recent weaning off of high dose steroids. After two weeks, he experiences intense discomfort in his epigastrium and upper right quadrant. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis
Explanation:When it comes to the risk of pancreatitis, mesalazine is more likely to cause it than sulfasalazine. Although oral aminosalicylates can cause gastric side-effects such as diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, and colitis exacerbation, acute pancreatitis is a rare but possible complication.
Aminosalicylate Drugs for Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Aminosalicylate drugs are commonly used to treat inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). These drugs work by releasing 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA) in the colon, which acts as an anti-inflammatory agent. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.
Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA. However, many of the side effects associated with this drug are due to the sulphapyridine component, such as rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Mesalazine is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, it is still associated with side effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis.
Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken down by colonic bacteria. It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with a variety of haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis. Therefore, a full blood count is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking these drugs. Pancreatitis is also more common in patients taking mesalazine compared to sulfasalazine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a long history of intermittent abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea. He has noticed that his symptoms are particularly linked to gluten-containing foods and brings a food diary to support this theory. On examination, he has a body mass index of 19 kg/m2 and is clinically anaemic. Coeliac disease is suspected.
Which of the following investigations will most reliably diagnose this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Microscopic examination of a small bowel biopsy specimen
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder of the small bowel induced by gluten. The gold standard for diagnosis is the detection of subtotal villous atrophy on a small-bowel biopsy. However, the detection of tissue transglutaminase IgA antibodies is a widely used screening test with high specificity and sensitivity. Total immunoglobulin A (IgA) should also be measured in case of IgA deficiency. Antibodies become undetectable after 6-12 months of a gluten-free diet, making them useful for monitoring the disease. The xylose absorption test is not appropriate for this patient, while the detection of anti-gliadin antibodies and anti-endomysial antibodies can aid diagnosis but are not preferred methods. Serology for anti-tissue transglutaminase antibodies is the first-line screening test and aids referral to gastroenterology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has a bilirubin concentration of 55 μmol/l (normal value <21 μmol/l). He has suffered from episodic jaundice in the past but is otherwise fit and well. His diagnosis is Gilbert syndrome.
Which of the following is associated with Gilbert syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: γ-glutamyltransferase in the normal range
Explanation:Understanding Gilbert Syndrome: Symptoms, Risks, and Diagnosis
Gilbert syndrome is a common, benign condition that causes mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. It is familial and occurs in 5-10% of adults in Western Europe. While some patients may experience symptoms such as fatigue, nausea, and abdominal pain, many are asymptomatic. Jaundice is usually mild and can worsen with physical exertion, fasting, or dehydration. However, liver function tests, including γ-glutamyltransferase, should be normal.
Unlike other liver conditions, Gilbert syndrome doesn’t cause abnormal liver histology or conjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. It is also not a risk factor for kernicterus at birth.
Diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome is based on clinical presentation and elevated unconjugated bilirubin levels. Fasting can actually increase bilirubin levels in this condition. Therefore, it is important to rule out other liver disorders if abnormal liver function tests or histology are present.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, risks, and diagnosis of Gilbert syndrome can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and management for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old lady presents to you with complaints of progressive bloating and feeling full for the past two months. She requests a prescription for Colpermin, as her sister found it helpful for her IBS. Additionally, she reports experiencing urinary frequency for several weeks and suspects a UTI. On examination, her abdomen appears non-specifically bloated, and a urine dip reveals trace protein but no blood, glucose, or leukocytes. She went through menopause at 54, is nulliparous, and has a family history of psoriasis. There are no known allergies. What would be the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange abdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:Consideration of Ovarian Cancer in New Onset IBS after 50
This patient presenting with new onset IBS after the age of 50 should prompt consideration of ovarian cancer. According to NICE guidelines, symptoms such as bloating, early satiety, pelvic/abdominal pain, and urinary frequency/urgency should raise suspicion of ovarian cancer. CA 125 is the test of choice if ovarian cancer is being considered.
Risk factors for ovarian cancer include nulliparity and late menopause. Symptoms that should raise suspicion of ovarian cancer include progressive bloating, early satiety, and urinary frequency. A vaginal examination should be performed if ovarian cancer is suspected since abdominal examination alone can miss an ovarian mass. The family history of psoriasis is not relevant in this case.
Prescribing Colpermin is not necessarily incorrect, but IBS is a diagnosis of exclusion that should be given once serious and common alternatives have been ruled out. Prescribing an antibiotic is inappropriate because there is no evidence of infection here.
An abdominopelvic scan would be an alternative to arranging CA 125, but an abdominal scan by itself is usually not sufficient to fully examine the ovaries. If a CA 125 was high, an ultrasound scan would be arranged to assess the ovaries in more detail, and the results of the two would be combined in an RMI score to assess the risk of malignancy.
In summary, it is important to consider ovarian cancer in cases of new onset IBS after 50, especially if symptoms such as bloating, early satiety, pelvic/abdominal pain, and urinary frequency/urgency are present. A thorough examination and appropriate tests should be performed to rule out this serious condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man has abnormal liver function tests. He tests positive for anti-HCV and HCV RNA.
Select from the list the single correct statement about hepatitis C.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Co-infection with HIV results in more rapid progression of liver disease
Explanation:Hepatitis C: A Silent Threat to Liver Health
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that often goes unnoticed in its acute phase, with only a minority of patients presenting with symptoms such as jaundice or abnormal liver enzymes. Unfortunately, the majority of patients do not clear the infection and go on to develop chronic disease, which can remain undetected for decades. The primary mode of transmission is through intravenous drug use and sharing needles, although sexual transmission is possible, especially in those co-infected with HIV. Needle-stick injuries and exposure to infected blood also pose a risk of transmission. Unfortunately, there is no post-exposure vaccine or effective preventative treatment. Factors that increase the risk of rapid progression of liver disease include male sex, age over 40, alcohol consumption, and co-infection with HIV or hepatitis B. With the increased survival of HIV patients, end-stage liver disease due to HCV infection has become a significant problem.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Oliver is a 25-year-old man, who was diagnosed with coeliac disease when he was aged five having been referred to the paediatricians with failure to thrive and anaemia.
He is very aware of foods that may cause problems, but wants to know if there are any drinks that should be avoided when he goes out clubbing with friends.
Which one of the following drinks can he safely ingest?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Whiskey
Explanation:Coeliac Disease and Gluten-Free Alcohol
Patients with coeliac disease must avoid consuming foodstuffs that contain gluten. This means that anything made with wheat, barley, and oats (in some cases) should be avoided. When it comes to alcohol, beers, lagers, stouts, and real ales, whether alcoholic or not, must be avoided due to their gluten content. However, there are now several gluten-free beers and lagers available in the market.
On the other hand, wine, champagne, port, sherry, ciders, liqueurs, and spirits, including whiskey, are all gluten-free. Although whiskey is initially made from barley, the distilling process involved in its production removes the gluten, making it safe for coeliacs to consume. It is essential for individuals with coeliac disease to be mindful of their alcohol intake and to choose gluten-free options to avoid any adverse reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man with a history of chronic constipation presents with acute perianal pain. The pain has been present for a week and is exacerbated during defecation. He also notes a small amount of bright red blood on the paper when he wipes himself.
Abdominal examination is unremarkable but rectal examination is not possible due to pain.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fissure
Explanation:Understanding Fissures: Symptoms and Treatment
Perianal pain that worsens during defecation and is accompanied by fresh bleeding is a common symptom of fissures. However, due to the pain associated with rectal examination, visualizing the fissure is often not possible. Most fissures are located in the midline posteriorly and can be treated with GTN cream during the acute phase, providing relief in two-thirds of cases. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options for fissures can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and manage their condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 66-year-old man presents with a change in bowel habit. He has noticed that over the last three to four weeks he is passing looser, more frequent stools on a daily basis. Prior to the last three to four weeks he has not had any persistent problems with his bowels. He denies any rectal bleeding. He has no significant past history of any bowel problems.
On examination his abdomen feels normal and his rectal examination is normal. You weigh him and his weight is the same as six months ago.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer him urgently to a lower gastrointestinal specialist
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Urgent Referral and Faecal Occult Blood Testing in Patients with Change in Bowel Habit
In accordance with NICE guidelines, patients aged 60 years and older with a change in bowel habit towards looser and more frequent stools (without rectal bleeding) should be urgently referred. This applies to our 68-year-old male patient. While faecal occult blood testing is not necessary in this case, NICE offers guidance on whom to test for colorectal cancer using this method.
According to the guidelines, faecal occult blood testing should be offered to adults without rectal bleeding who are aged 50 and over with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss. Additionally, those aged under 60 with changes in bowel habit or iron-deficiency anaemia should also be tested. For patients aged 60 and over, testing should be offered if they have anaemia even in the absence of iron deficiency.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure timely and appropriate management of patients with potential colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the General Practice Surgery with jaundice.
On examination, he has an enlarged, nodular liver. He is referred to hospital where a computed tomography (CT) scan of his abdomen reveals a cirrhotic liver with a large mass. A CT-guided biopsy of the mass demonstrates a malignant tumour derived from hepatic parenchymal cells.
What is the most likely causative agent in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B virus
Explanation:Viral Causes of Cancer: A Comparison
There are several viruses that have been linked to the development of cancer in humans. Among these, hepatitis B virus is one of the most significant causes of cancer in many parts of the world, particularly in China where liver cancer accounts for about 20% of all cancer deaths. Infant vaccination against the virus is now being introduced to protect the new generation, but it doesn’t provide retrospective protection. On the other hand, hepatitis C is a more common cause of liver cancer in Europe and the United States.
Human T-lymphocyte virus, Epstein–Barr virus, and human herpesvirus type 8 are also known to cause cancer in humans, but not liver cancer. Human T-lymphocyte viruses can cause adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma, while Epstein–Barr virus has been linked with Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Burkitt’s lymphoma, nasopharyngeal cancer, and gastric cancer. Human herpesvirus type 8 is associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is most often found in men who have sex with men but can also occur in heterosexuals.
Human papillomavirus (HPV) is another virus that has been linked to cancer, but not liver cancer. HPV types 6 and 11 cause anogenital warts, while HPV16 and HPV18 are responsible for more than two thirds of all cervical cancers globally. HPV infection is also associated with anogenital cancer and some nasopharyngeal cancers.
In summary, while several viruses have been linked to the development of cancer in humans, their specific associations vary. It is important to understand these associations in order to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about a slight yellowing of his sclera. During the examination, he displays mild jaundice and reports experiencing occasional jaundice in the past. Blood tests are conducted, revealing an elevated total bilirubin level of 48 µmol/l (normal <21 µmol/l) and no other irregularities. Which of the following supplementary discoveries would strongly suggest that Gilbert syndrome is the underlying cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia
Explanation:Understanding Gilbert Syndrome: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Gilbert syndrome is a genetic condition that affects 5-10% of the population. It is usually asymptomatic, but can cause mild jaundice during physical stressors such as fasting, infection, or lack of sleep. This is due to an abnormality in the liver enzyme responsible for conjugating bilirubin, resulting in unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia. However, symptoms such as fatigue, loss of appetite, nausea, and abdominal pain are rare and may reflect the underlying stressor rather than the condition itself. Diagnosis is often made through routine liver function tests or the appearance of jaundice without other signs. Clay-coloured stools would suggest an alternative diagnosis such as biliary obstruction, while concomitant diabetes mellitus is not linked to Gilbert syndrome. Fasting can trigger an episode of jaundice, so resolution of symptoms during fasting would go against the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman is discharged from hospital following a haematemesis with a diagnosis of NSAID-induced gastric ulcer. She has taken ibuprofen regularly for pain relief and has found it effective, while finding paracetamol has been ineffective. She is taking 10 mg esomeprazole a day. She has a history of osteoarthritis and hypertension.
What is the most appropriate analgesia to prescribe this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Choosing the Right Pain Medication for a Patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis and a History of Myocardial Infarction
When selecting a pain medication for a patient with rheumatoid arthritis and a history of myocardial infarction, it is important to consider the potential cardiovascular and gastrointestinal risks associated with each option. Tramadol is often the drug of choice due to its lower risk of cardiovascular and gastrointestinal problems, but it may still cause toxicity in some patients. Celecoxib, a cyclo-oxygenase-2 selective inhibitor, carries a lower risk of gastrointestinal side-effects but should be avoided in patients with a history of thrombotic events. Diclofenac and misoprostol carry an intermediate risk of gastrointestinal side-effects and increase the risk of thrombotic events. Ibuprofen and naproxen have lower gastrointestinal risks, but their use may be problematic in patients taking antiplatelet medication. Ultimately, the choice of pain medication should be made on a case-by-case basis, taking into account the patient’s individual medical history and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner with complaints of haemorrhoids that she has been experiencing for several years. She frequently experiences itchiness and pain. She has a daily bowel movement with soft stool. Upon examination, there is no indication of a rash or fissure. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cinchocaine (dibucaine) hydrochloride 0.5%, hydrocortisone 0.5% ointment
Explanation:Topical Treatments for Haemorrhoids: Options and Considerations
Haemorrhoids are a common condition that can cause discomfort and itching. Topical treatments are often used to alleviate symptoms, and there are several options available. However, it is important to choose the appropriate treatment based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Here are some considerations for different topical treatments:
– Cinchocaine (dibucaine) hydrochloride 0.5%, hydrocortisone 0.5% ointment: This preparation contains a local anaesthetic and corticosteroid, which can provide short-term relief. It is suitable for occasional use.
– Hydrocortisone 1%, miconazole nitrate 2% cream: This cream contains an anti-candida agent and is appropriate for intertrigo. However, if the patient doesn’t have a rash or signs of fungal infection, this may not be the best option.
– Clobetasol propionate cream: This potent topical steroid is used for vulval and anal lichen sclerosus. It is not recommended if the patient doesn’t have a rash.
– Glyceryl trinitrate ointment: This unlicensed preparation is used for anal fissure, which is characterized by painful bowel movements and rectal bleeding. If the patient doesn’t have these symptoms, this treatment is not appropriate.
– Lactulose solution: Constipation can contribute to haemorrhoids, and lactulose can help manage this. However, if the patient doesn’t have constipation, this treatment may not be necessary.In summary, choosing the right topical treatment for haemorrhoids requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Consultation with a healthcare professional is recommended to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 1 diabetes mellitus
Explanation:Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease may be considered as a potential cause of abnormal liver function tests in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It is a spectrum of disease that ranges from simple steatosis (fat in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. NAFLD is believed to be the hepatic manifestation of the metabolic syndrome, with insulin resistance as the key mechanism leading to steatosis. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a term used to describe liver changes similar to those seen in alcoholic hepatitis but without a history of alcohol abuse.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but patients may present with hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental findings of NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score may be used in combination with a FibroScan to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of treatment for NAFLD is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. There is ongoing research into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone in the management of NAFLD. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, it is essential to identify and manage incidental findings of NAFLD to prevent disease progression and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with anaemia on a routine blood test. Her haemoglobin is 96 g/L (115-165) and her MCV is 72 fL (80-96). Further blood tests reveal a ferritin of 8 µg/L (15-300) and negative coeliac serology. Haemoglobin electrophoresis is normal.
She denies any gastrointestinal symptoms, rectal bleeding, weight loss, haematuria or haemoptysis. Her menstrual cycle is regular with periods every 28 days. She reports heavy bleeding for five days followed by lighter bleeding for three days, which has been the case for several years. She doesn't consider her periods to be problematic.
Physical examination, including urine dipstick testing, is unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start oral iron replacement
Explanation:Investigating Anaemia: Identifying and Treating Iron Deficiency
A new diagnosis of anaemia should prompt further investigation. A low mean corpuscular volume (MCV) suggests iron deficiency anaemia, which can be confirmed with a ferritin level test. However, it is important to note that ferritin levels may be falsely normal in the presence of an acute phase response. In such cases, iron studies may be useful. Once iron deficiency is confirmed, the underlying cause should be identified.
Patients with upper gastrointestinal symptoms or unexplained low haemoglobin levels require urgent referral for endoscopic gastrointestinal assessment. Coeliac serology and haemoglobin electrophoresis should also be considered to rule out coeliac disease and hereditary causes of microcytic anaemia, respectively.
In patients who do not require urgent referral, non-gastrointestinal blood loss and poor diet should be considered. Menstrual blood loss is a common cause of iron deficiency anaemia in menstruating women. In such cases, iron replacement therapy should be initiated, and haemoglobin levels should be monitored for improvement. If heavy menstrual bleeding is the cause, it should be treated, and if the patient doesn’t respond to iron supplementation, gastroenterology referral is appropriate.
In summary, identifying and treating iron deficiency anaemia requires a thorough investigation of the underlying cause. Prompt referral is necessary in certain cases, while others may require iron replacement therapy and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old gentleman has come to discuss his recent blood test results.
A few months previously he had a private health screening that showed an abnormality on his liver function tests. He was subsequently told to see his GP for further advice. You can see that a liver function test done at that time showed a bilirubin level of 41 µmol/L (normal 3-20) with the remainder of the liver function profile being within normal limits.
Prior to seeing you today a colleague has repeated the liver function with a few other tests. The results show a normal full blood count, renal function and thyroid function.
Repeat LFTs reveal:
Bilirubin 40 µmol/L
ALT 35 U/L
ALP 104 U/L
Conjugated bilirubin 7 μmol/L
He is well in himself and has no significant past medical history. General systems examination is normal.
What is the likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemolysis
Explanation:Elevated Bilirubin Levels in Asymptomatic Patients
This patient has an isolated slightly raised bilirubin level and is not experiencing any symptoms. The bilirubin level is twice the upper limit of normal, which has been confirmed on interval testing. The next step is to determine the proportion of unconjugated bilirubin to guide further investigation. If greater than 70% is unconjugated, as is the case here, the patient probably has Gilbert’s syndrome.
If the bilirubin level remains stable on repeat testing, then no further action is needed unless there is clinical suspicion of haemolysis. However, if the bilirubin level rises on retesting, haemolysis must be considered and should be investigated with a blood film, reticulocyte count, lactate dehydrogenase, and haptoglobin. It is important to monitor bilirubin levels in asymptomatic patients to detect any potential underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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