00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old man who is a known case of hepatitis C presents with...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man who is a known case of hepatitis C presents with pain and swelling in the right groin. On examination, a large, pulsatile swelling is noted in the right groin. There is no cough impulse. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: False aneurysm of the femoral artery

      Explanation:

      Based on the history and examination findings, the correct diagnosis is false aneurysm of the femoral artery. It may occur following arterial trauma in intravenous drug users.

      A false aneurysm, or pseudoaneurysm of the vessels, occurs when a blood vessel wall is injured and the leaking blood collects in the surrounding tissue. It is not an enlargement of any of the layers of the vessel wall. Pseudoaneurysms usually present as a painful, tender, pulsatile mass. Diagnostic options include duplex scan, and CT angiogram or a conventional angiogram.

      In a true aneurysm, the artery or vessel weakens and bulges, usually forming a blood-filled sac.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32 year old woman who works as a teacher presents with a...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman who works as a teacher presents with a swollen, oedematous leg. She hails from Africa, from an area that is poorly sanitized and prevalent with mosquitoes. She travelled to England two weeks back. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Filariasis

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic filariasis, commonly known as elephantiasis, is a painful and profoundly disfiguring disease. In communities where filariasis is transmitted, all ages are affected. While the infection may be acquired during childhood its visible manifestations may occur later in life, causing temporary or permanent disability. The disease is caused by three species of thread-like nematode worms, known as filariae – Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi and Brugia timori. Male worms are about 3–4 centimetres in length, and female worms 8–10 centimetres. The male and female worms together form “nests” in the human lymphatic system.

      Filarial infection can cause a variety of clinical manifestations, including lymphoedema of the limbs, genital disease (hydrocele, chylocele, and swelling of the scrotum and penis) and recurrent acute attacks, which are extremely painful and are accompanied by fever. The vast majority of infected people are asymptomatic, but virtually all of them have subclinical lymphatic damage and as many as 40% have kidney damage, with proteinuria and haematuria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 26-year-old right-handed tennis player presents to the A&E department with a painful,...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old right-handed tennis player presents to the A&E department with a painful, swollen right arm. On examination, his upper limb pulses are present, but he has dusky fingers. A diagnosis of axillary vein thrombosis is made and confirmed. He is immediately started on low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH).What should be the next best step of management to achieve venous patency?

      Your Answer: Catheter-directed tPA

      Explanation:

      Catheter-directed thrombolysis (CDT) is recommended as the next step of management for patients with proximal upper-extremity deep vein thrombosis (UEDVT) of recent onset or severe symptoms.

      Primary UEDVT is less common than secondary forms. The most common primary form is effort-related thrombosis, also called Paget-Schroetter syndrome. It usually occurs in otherwise healthy young men who report, before the onset of thrombosis, vigorous arm exercise such as lifting weights, playing badminton, pitching a baseball, or performing repetitive overhead activities, such as painting or car repair. Most patients with effort-related UEDVT have an underlying venous thoracic outlet syndrome (VTOS). Secondary causes of UEDVT include central line insertion, malignancy, or pacemakers.

      Patients with UEDVT typically present with heaviness, discomfort, pain, paraesthesia, and swelling of the affected arm. Physical examination may reveal pitting oedema, redness, or cyanosis of the involved extremity; visible collateral veins at the shoulder or upper arm; and fever.

      Diagnosis is made by:
      1. FBC: platelet function
      2. Coagulation profile
      3. Liver function tests
      4. Duplex scan: investigation of choice
      5. D-dimer testing
      6. CT scan: for VTOS

      Treatment options for primary UEDVT are as follows:
      1. Anticoagulation therapy should be undertaken with a once-daily regimen of LMWH or fondaparinux for at least five days, followed by vitamin K antagonists for at least three months. Unfractionated heparin instead of LMWH is recommended for patients with renal failure or for those treated with CDT.

      2. Early thrombus removal and restoration of venous patency should be done immediately after starting the patient on heparin. Catheter-based therapy is recommended for patients with proximal UEDVT of recent onset and severe symptoms, low risk for bleeding complications, and good functional status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 27-year-old professional tennis player presents to the A&E department with a swollen,...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old professional tennis player presents to the A&E department with a swollen, painful right arm. On examination, his fingers are dusky. Out of the following, which is the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: Venous duplex scan

      Explanation:

      This patient has an axillary vein thrombosis. It classically presents with pain and swelling of the affected limb. Venous duplex scan is needed to exclude a thrombus.

      Primary proximal upper-extremity deep vein thrombosis (UEDVT) is less common than its secondary forms. The most common primary form is effort-related thrombosis, also called Paget-Schroetter syndrome. It usually occurs in, otherwise, healthy young men who report, before the onset of thrombosis, vigorous arm exercise such as lifting weights, playing badminton/tennis, pitching a baseball, or performing repetitive overhead activities, such as painting or car repair. Most patients with effort-related UEDVT have an underlying venous thoracic outlet syndrome (VTOS). Secondary causes of UEDVT include central line insertion, malignancy, or pacemakers.

      Patients with UEDVT typically present with heaviness, discomfort, pain, paraesthesia, and swelling of the affected arm. Physical examination may reveal pitting oedema, redness, or cyanosis of the involved extremity; visible collateral veins at the shoulder or upper arm; and fever.

      Diagnosis is made by:
      1. FBC: platelet function
      2. Coagulation profile
      3. Liver function tests
      4. Venous duplex scan: investigation of choice, provides information relating to flow and characteristics of the vessels.
      5. D-dimer testing
      6. CT scan: for VTOS

      Treatment options for primary UEDVT are as follows:
      1. Anticoagulation therapy should be undertaken with a once-daily regimen of LMWH or fondaparinux for at least five days, followed by vitamin K antagonists for at least three months. Unfractionated heparin instead of LMWH is recommended for patients with renal failure or for those treated with CDT.

      2. Early thrombus removal and restoration of venous patency aim should be done immediately after starting the patient on heparin. Catheter-based therapy is recommended for patients with proximal UEDVT of recent onset and severe symptoms, low risk for bleeding complications, and good functional status.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      2.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old intravenous drug user is found to have a femoral abscess. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old intravenous drug user is found to have a femoral abscess. He is also febrile with a temperature of 39°C and has a pansystolic murmur loudest at the left sternal edge in the 4th intercostal space. Which of the following is the most likely underlying lesion?

      Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation

      Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation

      Explanation:

      Intravenous drug users are at a high risk of right-sided cardiac valvular endocarditis. The character of the murmur described in the scenario fits with the diagnosis of tricuspid valve endocarditis.

      Other listed options are ruled out because:
      1. Aortic regurgitation—Early diastolic murmur
      2. Mitral regurgitation—Pansystolic murmur
      3. Aortic valve stenosis—Ejection systolic murmur
      4. Tricuspid valve stenosis—Mid-diastolic murmur

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 37 year old woman presents to the clinic with signs of lymphoedema...

    Correct

    • A 37 year old woman presents to the clinic with signs of lymphoedema that has occurred after a block dissection of the groin for malignant melanoma several years ago. She has persistent lower limb swelling despite having used pressure stockings. This has impaired her daily life activities. Currently there is no evidence of a recurrent malignancy. Lymphoscintigraphy shows significant occlusion of the groin lymphatics. However, examination reveals the distal lymphatic system to be healthy. Which of the following options would be most helpful in this case?

      Your Answer: Lymphovenous anastomosis

      Explanation:

      Lymphovenous anastomosis – Identifiable lymphatics are anastomosed to sub dermal venules. Usually indicated in 2% of patients with proximal lymphatic obstruction and normal distal lymphatics.

      Causes of lymphoedema:
      Primary:
      Sporadic, Milroy’s disease, Meige’s disease
      Secondary:
      Bacterial/fungal/parasitic infection (filariasis)
      Lymphatic malignancy
      Radiotherapy to lymph nodes
      Surgical resection of lymph nodes
      DVT
      Thrombophlebitis

      Other options given:
      Homans operation – Reduction procedure with preservation of overlying skin (which must be in good condition). Skin flaps are raised and the underlying tissue excised. Limb circumference typically reduced by a third.

      Charles operation – All skin and subcutaneous tissue around the calf are excised down to the deep fascia. Split skin grafts are placed over the site. May be performed if overlying skin is not in good condition. Larger reduction in size than with Homans procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 33 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a tender...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old man presents to the clinic complaining of a tender mass in the right groin area. Red streaks are also noted on the thigh that are extending from a small abrasion. Which of the following would be the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer: Lymphadenitis

      Explanation:

      Lymphadenitis is the inflammation or enlargement of a lymph node. Lymph nodes are small, ovoid nodules normally ranging in size from a few millimetres to 2 cm. They are distributed in clusters along the course of lymphatic vessels located throughout the body. The primary function of lymph nodes is to filter out microorganisms and abnormal cells that have collected in lymph fluid. Lymph node enlargement is a common feature in a variety of diseases and may serve as a focal point for subsequent clinical investigation of diseases of the reticuloendothelial system or regional infection. The majority of cases represent a benign response to localized or systemic infection. The red streaks that are noted along the line of lymphatics are indicative of lymphadenitis.

      Groin masses are common and include:
      Herniae
      Lipomas
      Lymph nodes
      Undescended testis
      Femoral aneurysm
      Saphena varix

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35 year old man presents with venous varicosities which are suspected to...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old man presents with venous varicosities which are suspected to have resulted due to Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome. Which of the following would not be associated with this condition?

      Your Answer: Long saphenous vein involvement

      Explanation:

      Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome is a condition that affects the development of blood vessels, soft tissues (such as skin and muscles), and bones. The disorder has three characteristic features: a red birthmark called a port-wine stain, abnormal overgrowth of soft tissues and bones, and vein malformations.

      Most people with Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome are born with a port-wine stain. This type of birthmark is caused by swelling of small blood vessels near the surface of the skin. Port-wine stains are typically flat and can vary from pale pink to deep maroon in colour.

      Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome is also associated with overgrowth of bones and soft tissues beginning in infancy. Usually this abnormal growth is limited to one limb, most often one leg. However, overgrowth can also affect the arms or, rarely, the torso.

      Malformations of veins are the third major feature of Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome. These abnormalities include varicose veins and deep veins in the limbs. Malformations of deep veins increase the risk of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT).

      Other complications of Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome can include cellulitis, lymphedema, and internal bleeding from abnormal blood vessels. Less commonly, this condition is also associated with fusion of certain fingers or toes (syndactyly) or the presence of extra digits (polydactyly).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 46 year old policeman was admitted with peritonitis secondary to a perforated...

    Correct

    • A 46 year old policeman was admitted with peritonitis secondary to a perforated appendix. A laparoscopic appendicectomy was done but he had a stormy post operative course. He has now started to develop increasing abdominal pain and has been vomiting. A laparotomy is performed and at operation a large amount of small bowel shows evidence of patchy areas of infarction. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Mesenteric venous thrombosis

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric venous thrombosis (MVT) is a blood clot in one or more of the major veins that drain blood from the intestine. The superior mesenteric vein is most commonly involved. The exact cause of MVT is unknown. However, there are many diseases that can lead to MVT. Many of the diseases cause swelling (inflammation) of the tissues surrounding the veins, and include:
      Appendicitis
      Cancer of the abdomen
      Diverticulitis
      Liver disease with cirrhosis
      High blood pressure in the blood vessels of the liver
      Abdominal surgery or trauma
      Pancreatitis
      Inflammatory bowel disorders
      Heart failure
      Protein C or S deficiencies
      Polycythaemia vera
      Essential thrombocythemia
      People who have disorders that make the blood more likely to stick together (clot) have a higher risk for MVT. Birth control pills and oestrogen medicines also increase risk.

      MVT is more common in men than women. It mainly affects middle aged or older adults. Symptoms may include any of the following:
      Abdominal pain, which may get worse after eating and over time; Bloating; Constipation; Bloody diarrhoea; Fever; Septic shock; Lower gastrointestinal bleeding; Vomiting and nausea.
      Blood thinners (most commonly heparin or related medicines) are used to treat MVT when there is no associated bleeding. In some cases, medicine can be delivered directly into the clot to dissolve it. This procedure is called thrombolysis. Less often, the clot is removed by thrombectomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      4.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 31 year old woman presents to the clinic for assessment of varicose...

    Correct

    • A 31 year old woman presents to the clinic for assessment of varicose veins that she developed several years ago. Examination reveals marked truncal varicosities with a long tortuous saphenous vein. Which of the following would be the next most appropriate step in her management?

      Your Answer: Arrange a venous duplex scan

      Explanation:

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein of the legs, thigh, or pelvis. Thrombosis is most often seen in individuals with a history of immobilization, obesity, malignancy, or hereditary thrombophilia. Vascular endothelial damage, venous stasis, and hypercoagulability, collectively referred to as the Virchow triad, are the main factors contributing to the development of DVT.
      Symptoms usually occur unilaterally and include swelling, tenderness, and redness or discoloration. Pulmonary embolism (PE), a severe complication of DVT, should be suspected in patients with dizziness, dyspnoea, and fever. The diagnostic test of choice for DVT is compression ultrasound. In most cases, a negative D-dimer test allows thrombosis or PE to be ruled out, but a positive test is nonspecific.
      Initial acute treatment of DVT consists of anticoagulation with heparin and, if the thrombus is large or unresponsive to anticoagulation, may also include thrombolysis or thrombectomy. Secondary prophylaxis is achieved with oral warfarin or direct factor Xa inhibitors and supportive measures such as regular exercise and compression stockings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
      10.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Generic Surgical Topics (9/10) 90%
Vascular (9/10) 90%
Passmed