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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old male patient is undergoing an open appendicectomy. The surgeons extend the...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male patient is undergoing an open appendicectomy. The surgeons extend the incision medially and suddenly encounter troublesome bleeding. What should be the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Ligate the bleeding vessel

      Explanation:

      Medial extension of an appendicectomy incision carries a risk of injury to the inferior epigastric artery which can bleed briskly. It is best managed by ligation.

      Bleeding is a complication encountered in all branches of surgery. The decision as to how best to manage the bleed, depends upon its site, vessel, and circumstances.

      1. Superficial dermal bleeding:
      This will usually cease spontaneously. If not, then direct use of a monopolar or a bipolar cautery device will usually control the situation. Scalp wounds are a notable exception and bleeding from them may be brisk. In this situation, use of a mattress suture as a wound closure method will usually address the problem.

      2. Superficial arterial bleeding:
      If the vessel can be safely identified in superficial arterial bleeding, then the easiest method is to apply a haemostatic clip and ligate the vessel.

      3. Major arterial bleeding:
      If the vessel can be clearly identified and is accessible, then it may be possible to apply a clip and ligate the vessel. If the vessel is located in a pool of blood, then blind application of haemostatic clips is highly dangerous and may result in collateral injury. In this situation, evacuating the clot and packing the area is often safer. The pack can then be carefully removed when the required instruments are available. Some vessels may retract and bleeding may then be controlled by dissection of surrounding structures or underrunning the bleeding point.

      4. Major venous bleeding:
      The safest initial course of action is to apply digital pressure to the bleeding point. To control the bleeding, thereafter, the surgeon will need a working suction device. Divided veins may require ligation.

      5. Bleeding from raw surfaces:
      This may be mixed bleeding and can be troublesome. Spray diathermy and argon plasma coagulation are both useful agents. Certain topical haemostatic agents, such as surgicel, are useful in encouraging clot formation and may be used in conjunction with, or instead of, the above agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old man has a tissue defect measuring 3 x 1 cm, following...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man has a tissue defect measuring 3 x 1 cm, following the excision of a lipoma from the scapula. What should be the best option for managing the wound?

      Your Answer: Direct primary closure

      Explanation:

      This wound should be managed by primary closure as there is minimal associated tissue loss and the surgery is minor and uncontaminated.

      Primary wound closure is the fastest type of closures, and is also known as healing by primary intention. Wounds that heal by primary closure have a small, clean defect that minimizes the risk of infection and requires new blood vessels and keratinocytes to migrate only a small distance. Standard methods of suturing are usually sufficient for primary wound closure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      57.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 53-year-old male undergoes an elective right hemicolectomy. A stapled ileocolic anastomosis is...

    Correct

    • A 53-year-old male undergoes an elective right hemicolectomy. A stapled ileocolic anastomosis is constructed. Eight hours later he becomes tachycardic and passes approximately 600ml of dark red blood per rectum. Which of the following processes is the most likely explanation for what happened?

      Your Answer: Anastomotic staple line bleeding

      Explanation:

      Complications related to stapled anastomoses include bleeding, device failure, and anastomotic failure, which include stricture or leak.
      Stricture: Patient discomfort, need for additional procedures
      Bleeding: Hemodynamic implications, difficult intraoperative visualization
      Anastomotic leak: Increase in local recurrence, decreased overall survival, sepsis, need for diverting ostomy, increased hospital cost, increased use of hospital resources, decreased quality of life.
      Anastomotic bleeding is a common complication of stapled anastomoses, and it can lead to hemodynamic instability and anaemia, sometimes requiring transfusion or additional procedures. To this end, there are efforts aimed at reducing staple line haemorrhage by using buttressing techniques.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 68 year old woman has undergone surgical repair of her femoral hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old woman has undergone surgical repair of her femoral hernia. The surgeon used bipolar diathermy for haemostasis. Which of the following options would be regarded as the greatest risk with the usage of bipolar diathermy?

      Your Answer: Capacitance injuries

      Correct Answer: Fires when used near alcoholic skin preparations that have pooled

      Explanation:

      An operating room fire is rare but a well-known hazard that can result in significant patient morbidity. When it comes to the disposal of surgical spirits, the SPC for chlorhexidine states: ‘The solution is flammable. The risk of surgical fires due to spirit-based skin preparation fluid should be actively reduced. Data from the US show that up to 650 surgical fires occur each year, with up to 5% causing death or serious harm.

      Diathermy use electric currents to produce local heat and thereby facilitate haemostasis or surgical dissection. There are two major types of diathermy:
      1. Monopolar – current flows through a handheld device, from the tip of the device into the patient. The earth electrode is located some distance away.
      2. Bipolar – current flows from one electrode to another however, both electrodes are usually contained within the same device e.g. a pair of forceps. The result is that heating is localised to the area between the two electrodes and surrounding tissue damage is minimised. However this may create a spark and ignite flammable solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 22-year-old man undergoes incision and drainage of an axillary abscess. How should...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man undergoes incision and drainage of an axillary abscess. How should the wound be managed?

      Your Answer: Packing with gauze

      Correct Answer: Packing with alginate dressing

      Explanation:

      The wound of this patient should be packed with alginate dressing. Abscess wounds should not undergo primary closure. Moreover, use of gauze is inappropriate and would be difficult to redress.

      Alginate dressings are absorbent wound care products that contain sodium and calcium fibres derived from seaweed. An individual dressing is able to absorb up to 20 times its own weight. These dressings, which are easy to use, mold themselves to the shape of the wound, which helps ensure that they absorb wound drainage properly. In abscesses requiring incision and drainage, alginate dressings are well-tolerated and their removal causes minimal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      56.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45-year-old male has symptoms of carcinoid syndrome. Which of the following is...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male has symptoms of carcinoid syndrome. Which of the following is the most effective therapeutic agent in controlling the symptoms?

      Your Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid syndrome occurs in ∼20% of cases of well-differentiated endocrine tumours of the jejunum or ileum (midgut neuroendocrine tumours (NET) and consists of (usually) dry flushing (without sweating; 70% of cases) with or without palpitations, diarrhoea (50% of cases) and intermittent abdominal pain (40% of cases); in some patients, there is also lacrimation and rhinorrhoea.
      Carcinoid syndrome occurs less often with NETs of other origins and is very rare in association with rectal NETs. It is usually due to metastasis to the liver, with the release of vasoactive compounds, including biogenic amines (e.g., serotonin and tachykinins), into the systemic circulation. However, it may also occur in the absence of liver metastases if there is direct retroperitoneal involvement, with venous drainage bypassing the liver. Pain due to hepatic enlargement may also be a presenting feature, as may upper right abdominal pain (similar to that of pulmonary infarction) secondary to either haemorrhage into, or necrosis of, a hepatic secondary tumour. Wheezing and pellagra are less common presenting features. CHD is present in ∼20% of patients at presentation and usually indicates that the syndrome has been present for several years.

      The aim of treatment should be curative where possible but it is palliative in the majority of cases.
      Surgery is the only curative treatment.
      Administration of specific medications to treat symptoms should, therefore, start as soon as clinical and biochemical signs indicate the presence of hypersecretory NETs, even before the precise localisation of primary and metastatic lesions is confirmed.

      The only proven hormonal management of NETs is by the administration of somatostatin analogues.
      Somatostatin analogues bind principally to SSTR subtypes 2 (with high affinity) and 5 (with lower affinity), thus inhibiting the release of various peptide hormones in the gut, pancreas and pituitary; they also antagonise growth factor effects on tumour cells, and, at very high dosage, may induce apoptosis. The effects of somatostatin analogues are demonstrable as biochemical response rates (inhibition of hormone production) in 30–70% of patients and as symptomatic control in the majority of patients.
      There are two commercially available somatostatin analogues: octreotide and lanreotide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      23.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 45-year-old female underwent an acute cholecystectomy for cholecystitis. A drain is left...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female underwent an acute cholecystectomy for cholecystitis. A drain is left during the procedure. Over the next 5 days, the drain has been accumulating between 100-200ml of bile per 24 hour period. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Undertake a laparotomy

      Correct Answer: Arrange an ERCP

      Explanation:

      Bile leak may be classified into a minor leak with low output drainage (<300 ml of bile/24 hours) or leaks due to major bile duct injury with high output drainage (>300 ml/24 hours).

      The majority of minor bile leak results from Strasberg type A injuries with intact biliary-enteric continuity and includes leaks from cystic duct (CD) stump (55%-71%) or small (less than 3 mm) subsegmental duct in gall bladder (GB) bed (16%) and minor ducts like cholecystohepatic duct or supravesicular duct of Luschka (6%). An injury to the supravesicular duct occurs if the surgeon dissects into the liver bed while separating the gall bladder. This duct does not drain the liver parenchyma.
      A leak from the cystic duct stump may occur from clip failure due to necrosis of the stump secondary to thermal injury/pressure necrosis or when clips are used in situations where ties are appropriate (acute cholecystitis) and in a significant majority from distal bile duct obstruction caused by a retained stone and resultant blow out of the cystic stump.
      Strasberg type C and type D injuries usually present with a minor leak as well. The former results when an aberrant right hepatic duct (RHD) or right posterior sectoral duct (RPSD) is misidentified as the CD and divided because of the anomalous insertion of CD into either of these ducts.
      Type D injuries are lateral injuries to the extrahepatic ducts (EHD) caused by cautery, scissors or clips.

      High output biliary fistulas are the result of major transactional injury of EHD (Strasberg type E). Here the common bile duct (CBD) is misidentified as the CD and is clipped, divided and excised. This not only results in a segmental loss of the EHD but often associated with injury or ligation of right hepatic artery as well. Such devastating injuries are peculiar to LC and have been described by Davidoff as “classic laparoscopic biliary injury”.

      Early recognition is the most important part of the management of bile leak due to iatrogenic injuries.
      Unfortunately, most of the bile duct injuries are not recognized preoperatively. Optimal management of BDI detected postoperatively requires good coordination between the radiologist, endoscopists and an experienced hepatobiliary surgeon.

      There is a scope of re-laparoscopy, within 24 hours of surgery, in situations where a low output fistula (<300 ml/day) is confirmed (by reviewing the operative video), to be because of a slipped CD clip. Through lavage, clipping or tying the CD stump with an endoloop may be a simple solution. Such an approach is not useful after 24 hours as inflammatory adhesions and oedema will make the job difficult. If low output controlled biliary fistula is detected after 24 hours, a wait and watch policy should be followed as many of the minor leaks will close within 5 to 7 days. If the leak fails to resolve or if the drainage amount is >300 ml/day (high output), an ERCP should be performed both to delineate the biliary tree and some therapeutic interventions if indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      116
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65 year old man with a longstanding history of severe osteoarthritis of...

    Correct

    • A 65 year old man with a longstanding history of severe osteoarthritis of the hip is scheduled to undergo a total hip replacement. The skin has been prepared and antibiotics administered. Which of the following would be the most important precaution in reducing the risk of infection?

      Your Answer: Laminar flow theatre

      Explanation:

      Laminar flow theatres aim to reduce the number of infective organisms in the theatre air by generating a continuous flow of bacteria free air. In laminar flow theatres air may be ‘changed’ in theatre more than 300 times per hour compared to standard positive pressure theatre rates of 15-25 air changes per hour.
      Shaving skin on the ward increases infection rates and extended chemoprophylaxis increases the risk of antibiotic associated diarrhoea

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      68.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old woman is due to undergo a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman is due to undergo a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which of the following intra-abdominal pressures should typically be set on the gas insufflation system?

      Your Answer: 10 mmHg

      Explanation:

      A pressure of 10 mmHg should be set on the gas insufflation system.

      Laparoscopic surgery may be performed in a number of body cavities. In some areas, irrigation solutions are preferred. In the abdomen, however, insufflation with carbon dioxide gas is commonly used. The amount of gas delivered is adjusted to maintain a constant intra-abdominal pressure of 12–15 mmHg. Excessive intra-abdominal pressure may reduce venous return and lead to hypotension. Too little insufflation will risk obscuring the surgical view.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 4-year-old boy suffers 20% burns to the torso. On examination, there is...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy suffers 20% burns to the torso. On examination, there is fixed pigmentation and the affected area has a white and dry appearance. Which of the following options represents the best management plan?

      Your Answer: Full thickness skin graft

      Correct Answer: Split thickness skin graft

      Explanation:

      Burn depth is classified as first, second, third, or fourth degree, as follows:
      First-degree burns are usually red, dry, and painful. Burns initially termed first-degree are often actually superficial second-degree burns, with sloughing occurring the next day.
      Second-degree burns are often red, wet, and very painful. Their depth, ability to heal, and propensity to form hypertrophic scars vary enormously.
      Third-degree burns are generally leathery in consistency, dry, insensate, and waxy. These wounds will not heal, except by contraction and limited epithelial migration, with resulting hypertrophic and unstable cover. Burn blisters can overlie both second- and third-degree burns. The management of burn blisters remains controversial, yet intact blisters help greatly with pain control. Debride blisters if infection occurs.
      Fourth-degree burns involve underlying subcutaneous tissue, tendon, or bone. Usually, even an experienced examiner has difficulty accurately determining burn depth during an early examination. As a general rule, burn depth is underestimated upon initial examination.

      The management plan for patients with large burns that require inpatient care is usually determined by the physiology of the burn injury.
      Hospitalization is divided into 4 general phases, including (1) initial evaluation and resuscitation, (2) initial wound excision and biologic closure, (3) definitive wound closure, and (4) rehabilitation and reconstruction.

      Early excision and closure of full-thickness wounds change the natural history of burn injury, avoiding the otherwise common occurrence of wound sepsis. Wound size is the most important factor in determining the need for early operation

      Medications
      See the list below:
      – Silver sulfadiazine – Broad antibacterial spectrum; painless application
      – Aqueous 0.5% silver nitrate – Broad-spectrum coverage, including fungi; leeches electrolytes
      – Mafenide acetate – Broad antibacterial spectrum; penetrates eschar best
      – Petrolatum – Bland and nontoxic
      – Various debriding enzymes – Useful in selected partial-thickness wounds
      – Various antibiotic ointments – Useful in many superficial partial-thickness wounds
      Membranes
      See the list below:
      – Porcine xenograft – Adheres to wound coagulum and provides excellent pain control
      – Split-thickness allograft – Vascularizes and provides durable temporary closure of wounds
      – Various hydrocolloid dressings – Provide vapour and bacteria barrier while absorbing wound exudate
      – Various impregnated gauzes – Provide vapour and bacteria barrier while allowing drainage
      – Various semipermeable membranes – Provide vapour and bacteria barrier
      – Acticoat (Westhaim Biomedical, Saskatchewan, Canada) – Nonadherent wound dressing that delivers a low concentration of silver for antisepsis
      – Biobrane (Dow-Hickman, Sugarland, Tex) – Synthetic bilaminate that facilitates fibrovascular tissue growth into the inner layer and provides temporary vapour and bacteria barrier
      – Transcyte (Smith and Nephew, Largo, Fla) – Synthetic bilaminate that facilitates fibrovascular tissue growth into the inner layer populated with allogenic fibroblasts and overlying layer that provides temporary vapour and bacteria barrier
      – AlloDerm R – Consists of cell-free allogenic human dermis; requires an immediate thin overlying autograft
      – Integra R – Provides scaffold for neodermis; requires delayed thin autograft

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      35.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Principles Of Surgery-in-General (6/10) 60%
Surgical Technique And Technology (6/10) 60%
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