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  • Question 1 - A 53-year-old woman is diagnosed with cellulitis surrounding her leg ulcer. A swab...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old woman is diagnosed with cellulitis surrounding her leg ulcer. A swab is taken and oral flucloxacillin is started. The following result is obtained:

      Your Answer: No change

      Correct Answer: Add penicillin

      Explanation:

      Streptococci may be divided into alpha and beta haemolytic types

      Alpha haemolytic streptococci

      The most important alpha haemolytic streptococcus is Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus). Pneumococcus is a common cause of pneumonia, meningitis and otitis media. Another clinical example is Streptococcus viridans

      Beta haemolytic streptococci

      These can be subdivided into group A and B

      Group A

      most important organism is Streptococcus pyogenes
      responsible for erysipelas, impetigo, cellulitis, type 2 necrotizing fasciitis and pharyngitis/tonsillitis
      immunological reactions can cause rheumatic fever or post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
      erythrogenic toxins cause scarlet fever

      Group B

      Streptococcus agalactiae may lead to neonatal meningitis and septicaemia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 39-year-old homosexual is admitted with diarrhoea of three-month duration. He is found...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old homosexual is admitted with diarrhoea of three-month duration. He is found to be HIV positive with a CD4 cell count <50/μL. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Cryptosporidium

      Explanation:

      Based on the history and findings, the most likely causative organism is cryptosporidium. It can cause severe, chronic, and possibly fatal diarrhoea in immunocompromised patients.

      In patients with HIV/AIDS, clinical manifestations of cryptosporidiosis vary with the degree of immune compromise. Those with CD4 cell counts above 180–200/μL may be asymptomatic or develop self-limiting diarrhoeal illness. However, patients with advanced AIDS (CD4 cell counts <50/μL) can have severe diarrhoea that can persist for several months, resulting in severe dehydration, weight loss and malnutrition, extended hospitalizations, and mortality. In addition, patients with advanced AIDS are at greater risk of developing extraintestinal infection, particularly of the biliary, pancreatic, and respiratory tracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 39 year old woman returns from a holiday trip in Nepal and...

    Correct

    • A 39 year old woman returns from a holiday trip in Nepal and presents to her doctor with painless jaundice. On examination there is no organomegaly and she is not deeply jaundiced. What is most likely cause of her illness?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis A infection

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A is a viral liver disease that can cause mild to severe illness. The hepatitis A virus (HAV) is transmitted through ingestion of contaminated food and water or through direct contact with an infectious person.
      The risk of hepatitis A infection is associated with a lack of safe water, and poor sanitation and hygiene (such as dirty hands). Unlike hepatitis B and C, hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease and is rarely fatal, but it can cause debilitating symptoms and fulminant hepatitis (acute liver failure), which is often fatal.
      Prodrome
      In the prodrome, patients may have mild flulike symptoms of anorexia, nausea and vomiting, fatigue, malaise, low-grade fever (usually < 39.5°C), myalgia, and mild headache. Smokers often lose their taste for tobacco, like persons presenting with appendicitis. Icteric phase
      In the icteric phase, dark urine appears first (bilirubinuria). Pale stool soon follows, although this is not universal. Jaundice occurs in most (70%-85%) adults with acute HAV infection; it is less likely in children and is uncommon in infants. The degree of icterus also increases with age. Abdominal pain occurs in approximately 40% of patients. Itching (pruritus), although less common than jaundice, is generally accompanied by jaundice.

      Arthralgias and skin rash, although also associated with acute HAV infection, are less frequent than the above symptoms. Rash more often occurs on the lower limbs and may have a vasculitic appearance.

      Relapsing hepatitis A
      Relapsing hepatitis A is an uncommon sequela of acute infection, is more common in elderly persons, and is characterized by a protracted course of symptoms of the disease and a relapse of symptoms and signs following apparent resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old female is admitted one week following a cholecystectomy with profuse diarrhoea....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old female is admitted one week following a cholecystectomy with profuse diarrhoea. Apart from a minor intra-operative bile spillage incurred during removal of the gallbladder, the procedure was uncomplicated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile infection

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile is an anaerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming bacillus that is responsible for the majority of cases of antibiotic-associated diarrhoea in surgical patients. While the spectrum of disease may range from asymptomatic carrier state to life-threatening toxic megacolon, the typical presentation in surgical patients is diarrhoea developing in the first few days after initiation of antibiotic therapy, including single-dose prophylactic perioperative antibiotics.
      In routine cases with bile spillage, surgeons generally do use antibiotic prophylaxis; 80% give one dose only while 88% give one or more prophylactic doses of an antibiotic. Co-amoxiclav is the most commonly used antibiotic in all settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 26 year old female student presents with diarrhoea, bloating and crampy abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 26 year old female student presents with diarrhoea, bloating and crampy abdominal pain after returning from a student exchange trip in Nigeria. She states that she had been swimming in a public pool in the afternoons after class and she has had bowel movements four to five times per day. She notices that her stools float on top of the toilet water but there is no presence of blood. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Giardia lamblia

      Explanation:

      Giardia is a microscopic parasite that causes the diarrheal illness known as giardiasis. Giardia (also known as Giardia intestinalis, Giardia lamblia, or Giardia duodenalis) is found on surfaces or in soil, food, or water that has been contaminated with faeces from infected humans or animals.

      Giardia is protected by an outer shell that allows it to survive outside the body for long periods of time and makes it tolerant to chlorine disinfection. While the parasite can be spread in different ways, water (drinking water and recreational water) is the most common mode of transmission.

      Signs and symptoms may vary and can last for 1 to 2 weeks or longer. In some cases, people infected with Giardia have no symptoms.

      Acute symptoms include:

      Diarrhoea
      Gas
      Greasy stools that tend to float
      Stomach or abdominal cramps
      Upset stomach or nausea/vomiting
      Dehydration (loss of fluids)
      Other, less common symptoms include itchy skin, hives, and swelling of the eye and joints. Sometimes, the symptoms of giardiasis might seem to resolve, only to come back again after several days or weeks. Giardiasis can cause weight loss and failure to absorb fat, lactose, vitamin A and vitamin B12.

      In children, severe giardiasis might delay physical and mental growth, slow development, and cause malnutrition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30 year old female chef is taken to the hospital after complaining...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old female chef is taken to the hospital after complaining of abdominal pain in the right iliac fossa with fever and diarrhoea. She is taken to the theatre for an appendicectomy but her appendix appears normal. However, her terminal ileum appears thickened and engorged. Which of the following has most likely caused her infection?

      Your Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica

      Explanation:

      Answer: Yersinia enterocolitica

      Yersinia enterocolitica (see the image below) is a bacterial species in the family Enterobacteriaceae that most often causes enterocolitis, acute diarrhoea, terminal ileitis, mesenteric lymphadenitis, and pseudo appendicitis but, if it spreads systemically, can also result in fatal sepsis. Symptoms of Y enterocolitica infection typically include the following:

      Diarrhoea – The most common clinical manifestation of this infection; diarrhoea may be bloody in severe cases

      Low-grade fever

      Abdominal pain – May localize to the right lower quadrant

      Vomiting – Present in approximately 15-40% of cases

      Mesenteric adenitis, mesenteric ileitis, and acute pseudo appendicitis
      These manifestations are characterized by the following symptoms (although nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, and aphthous ulcers of the mouth can also occur):

      Fever

      Abdominal pain

      Tenderness of the right lower quadrant

      Leucocytosis

      Pseudo appendicitis syndrome is more common in older children and young adults. Patients with Y enterocolitica infection often undergo appendectomy; several Scandinavian studies suggested a prevalence rate of 3.8-5.6% for infection with Y enterocolitica in patients with suspected appendicitis.

      Analysis of several common-source outbreaks in the United States found that 10% of 444 patients with symptomatic, undiagnosed Y enterocolitica infection underwent laparotomy for suspected appendicitis.

      Human clinical Y enterocolitica infections ensue after ingestion of the microorganisms in contaminated food or water or by direct inoculation through blood transfusion.

      Y enterocolitica is potentially transmitted by contaminated unpasteurized milk and milk products, raw pork, tofu, meats, oysters, and fish. Outbreaks have been associated with raw vegetables; the surface of vegetables can become contaminated with pathogenic microorganisms through contact with soil, irrigation water, fertilizers, equipment, humans, and animals.

      Pasteurized milk and dairy products can also cause outbreaks because Yersinia can proliferate at refrigerated temperatures.

      Animal reservoirs of Y enterocolitica include swine (principle reservoir), dogs, cats, cows, sheep, goats, rodents, foxes, porcupines, and birds.

      Reports of person-to-person spread are conflicting and are generally not observed in large outbreaks. Transmission via blood products has occurred, however, and infection can be transmitted from mother to new-born infant. Faecal-oral transmission among humans has not been proven.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 47-year-old male is recovering in hospital following a total hip replacement. He...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old male is recovering in hospital following a total hip replacement. He develops profuse and watery diarrhoea. Several other patients have been suffering from similar symptoms. Infection with which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      Clostridioides difficile (formerly Clostridium difficile) colitis results from a disturbance of the normal bacterial flora of the colon, colonization by C difficile, and the release of toxins that cause mucosal inflammation and damage. Antibiotic therapy is the key factor that alters the colonic flora. C difficile infection (CDI) occurs primarily in hospitalized patients.
      The diagnosis of C difficile colitis should be suspected in any patient with diarrhoea who has received antibiotics within the previous 3 months, has been recently hospitalized, and/or has an occurrence of diarrhoea within 48 hours or more after hospitalization. In addition, C difficile can be a cause of diarrhoea in community dwellers without previous hospitalization or antibiotic exposure

      The following recommendations on Clostridium difficile infection (CDI) were released on February 2018 by the Infectious Diseases Society of America (ISDA) and Society for Healthcare Epidemiology of America (SHEA).
      Diagnosis (adults)
      Patients with unexplained and new-onset ≥3 unformed stools in 24 hours are the preferred target population for testing for CDI.
      Use a stool toxin test as part of a multistep algorithm (i.e., glutamate dehydrogenase [GDH] plus toxin; GDH plus toxin, arbitrated by nucleic acid amplification test [NAAT]; or NAAT plus toxin) rather than NAAT alone for all specimens when there are no pre-agreed institutional criteria for patient stool submission.
      Use NAAT alone or a multistep algorithm for testing (i.e., GDH plus toxin; GDH plus toxin, arbitrated by NAAT; or NAAT plus toxin) rather than a toxin test alone when there are pre-agreed institutional criteria for patient stool submission.
      Do not perform repeat testing (within 7 days) during the same episode of diarrhoea and do not test stool from asymptomatic patients, except for epidemiologic studies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old chef presents to the hospital with profuse bloody diarrhoea. He also...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old chef presents to the hospital with profuse bloody diarrhoea. He also complains of frequent urge to defecate and pain before and during defecation. A sigmoidoscopy is arranged which reveals necrosis and ulceration of the descending colon mucosa. What is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic colitis

      Correct Answer: Infection with enteroinvasive E. coli

      Explanation:

      Necrosis and ulcers of the colon are a feature of infection with enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC). It presents with a dysentery-type illness similar to shigellosis.

      E. coli have different strains that cause a wide range of conditions. The four main types are:

      1. Enteropathogenic E. coli—cause watery diarrhoea, vomiting, and low-grade fever

      2. Enteroinvasive E. coli—cause dysentery, large bowel necrosis, and ulcers

      3. Enterotoxigenic E. coli—cause traveller’s diarrhoea

      4. Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli 0157:H7—cause haemorrhagic colitis, haemolytic uremic syndrome, and thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30 year old man presents with a surgical wound that is erythematous,...

    Correct

    • A 30 year old man presents with a surgical wound that is erythematous, tender and discharging pus. He states that he had undergone an inguinal hernia repair eight days earlier. What is the cause of this?

      Your Answer: Infection with Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Answer: Infection with Staphylococcus aureus

      Surgical site infections (SSIs) are among the most common healthcare-associated infections, and contribute significantly to patient morbidity and healthcare costs. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common microbial cause. The epidemiology of S. aureus is changing with the dissemination of newer clones and the emergence of mupirocin resistance. Pre-operative screening, using culture- or molecular-based methods, and subsequent decolonization of patients who are positive for methicillin-susceptible S. aureus and methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) reduces SSIs and hospital stay. This applies especially to major clean surgery, such as cardiothoracic and orthopaedic, involving the insertion of implanted devices. However, it requires a multi-disciplinary approach coupled with patient education. Universal decolonization pre-operatively without screening for S. aureus may compromise the capacity to monitor for the emergence of new clones of S. aureus, contribute to mupirocin resistance, and prevent the adjustment of surgical prophylaxis for MRSA (i.e. replacement of a beta-lactam agent with a glycopeptide or alternative).

      A surgical site infection is an infection that occurs after surgery in the part of the body where the surgery took place. Surgical site infections can sometimes be superficial infections involving the skin only. Other surgical site infections are more serious and can involve tissues under the skin, organs, or implanted material.

      Symptoms include:
      Redness and pain around the area where you had surgery
      Drainage of cloudy fluid from your surgical wound
      Fever

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      26.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A middle aged woman presents with a 4 day history of sore throat,...

    Incorrect

    • A middle aged woman presents with a 4 day history of sore throat, malaise and fatigue and she is seen to have a large peritonsillar abscess on examination. Which of the following would most likely be the causative agent?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus viridans

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Tonsillitis is inflammation of the pharyngeal tonsils. The inflammation usually extends to the adenoid and the lingual tonsils; therefore, the term pharyngitis may also be used. Most cases of bacterial tonsillitis are caused by group A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus pyogenes (GABHS).

      Signs and symptoms
      Tonsillitis

      Individuals with acute tonsillitis present with the following:
      Fever
      Sore throat
      Foul breath
      Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
      Odynophagia (painful swallowing)
      Tender cervical lymph nodes

      Airway obstruction may manifest as mouth breathing, snoring, sleep-disordered breathing, nocturnal breathing pauses, or sleep apnoea.

      Peritonsillar abscess

      Individuals with peritonsillar abscess (PTA) present with the following:
      Severe throat pain
      Fever
      Drooling
      Foul breath
      Trismus (difficulty opening the mouth)
      Altered voice quality (the hot-potato voice)

      Treatment of acute tonsillitis is largely supportive and focuses on maintaining adequate hydration and caloric intake and controlling pain and fever.

      Corticosteroids may shorten the duration of fever and pharyngitis in cases of infectious mononucleosis (MN). In severe cases of MN, corticosteroids or gamma globulin may be helpful. GABHS infection obligates antibiotic coverage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 7 year old boy arrives at the clinic complaining of recurrent anal...

    Correct

    • A 7 year old boy arrives at the clinic complaining of recurrent anal pruritis. Examination reveals a small worm like structure protruding from the anal orifice. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Enterobius vermicularis

      Explanation:

      Pinworm infection is caused by a small, thin, white roundworm called Enterobius vermicularis. Although pinworm infection can affect all people, it most commonly occurs among children, institutionalized persons, and close-contacts. Pruritus is the main symptom, as there is a lack of tissue invasion. It is rare for individuals to have any signs of systemic sepsis. Pinworm infection is treatable with over-the-counter or prescription medication, but reinfection, which occurs easily, should be prevented

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 28 year old teacher is readmitted following a difficult appendicectomy. On examination,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old teacher is readmitted following a difficult appendicectomy. On examination, her wound is erythematous and, on incision, foul smelling pus is drained. Which of the following organisms is responsible?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Bacteroides fragilis

      Explanation:

      Bacteroides species are anaerobic bacteria that are predominant components of the bacterial florae of mucous membranes and are therefore a common cause of endogenous infections. Bacteroides infections can develop in all body sites, including the CNS, the head, the neck, the chest, the abdomen, the pelvis, the skin, and the soft tissues. Inadequate therapy against these anaerobic bacteria may lead to clinical failure.

      These bacteria are resistant to penicillins, mostly through the production of beta-lactamase. Anaerobic bacteria can infect deep wounds, deep tissues, and internal organs where there is little oxygen. These infections are characterized by abscess formation, foul-smelling pus, and tissue destruction. Anaerobes outnumber aerobes by 1000:1 in the large intestine; thus, they play an important role in almost all intra-abdominal infections.

      Secondary peritonitis and abdominal abscesses generally occur after entry of enteric organisms into the peritoneal cavity through perforation of the intestine or other viscus as a result of obstruction, infarction, or trauma.

      Most visceral abscesses (e.g., hepatic), chronic cholecystitis, perforated and gangrenous appendicitis, postoperative wound infections and abscesses, diverticulitis, and any infection associated with faecal contamination of the abdominal cavity involve both aerobes and anaerobes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 40-year-old woman undergoes a mastectomy and latissimus dorsi flap reconstruction for breast...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman undergoes a mastectomy and latissimus dorsi flap reconstruction for breast cancer. For optimal cosmetic results, a McGhan breast implant is placed under the myocutaneous flap. Three weeks postoperatively, the patient continues to suffer from recurrent wound infections resistant to multiple courses of antibiotics. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus epidermidis tends to colonise plastic devices (such as the breast implant in this scenario) and forms a biofilm which allows colonisation with other bacterial agents. It is extremely difficult to eradicate the infection once established, and the usual treatment is removal of the device.

      Staphylococcus epidermidis is a gram-positive facultative anaerobic bacterium. It is part of the normal human flora, typically the skin flora, and less commonly the mucosal flora. It is also one of the most frequently detected pathogens in infections following implant surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 38-year-old woman undergoes a subtotal thyroidectomy. Five days postoperatively, the wound becomes...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old woman undergoes a subtotal thyroidectomy. Five days postoperatively, the wound becomes erythematous and purulent.Which of the following is most likely to be the causative agent?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Surgical site infection (SSI) by Staphylococcus aureus is the most likely cause in this scenario. In the UK from 2010–2011, 23% of wound infections were due to S. aureus. Infection with the other organisms, including Streptococcus pyogenes, are much rarer.

      Surgical site infections (SSI) comprise up to 20% of all healthcare-associated infections and at least 5% of patients undergoing surgery will develop an SSI as a result. SSIs may occur following a breach in tissue surfaces and allow normal commensals and other pathogens to initiate infection. The organisms are mostly derived from the patient’s own body.

      SSIs are a major cause of morbidity and mortality.
      Some preoperative measures that may increase the risk of SSI include:
      1. Shaving the wound using a razor (disposable clipper preferred)
      2. Tissue hypoxia
      3. Delayed administration of prophylactic antibiotics in tourniquet surgery

      SSIs can be prevented by taking certain precautionary steps pre-, intra-, and postoperatively.

      1. Preoperatively:
      a. Do not remove body hair routinely
      b. If hair needs removal, use electrical clippers (razors increase the risk of infection)
      c. Antibiotic prophylaxis if:
      – placement of prosthesis or valve
      – clean-contaminated surgery
      – contaminated surgery

      2. Intraoperatively:
      a. Prepare the skin with alcoholic chlorhexidine (Lowest incidence of SSI)
      b. Cover surgical site with dressing

      3. Postoperatively:
      a. Prevention of incisional infection by appropriate cleansing, skin care, and moisture management
      b.Tissue viability advice for management of surgical wound healing by secondary intention

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 63 year old woman reports colicky abdominal pain and foul smelling diarrhoea...

    Correct

    • A 63 year old woman reports colicky abdominal pain and foul smelling diarrhoea on the 4th day following a cholecystectomy for acute cholecystitis. Her surgery was complicated as the gallbladder spilled stones intraoperatively. She has been on ciprofloxacin therapy ever since her surgery. Which of the following organisms is most likely responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      Clostridioides difficile (C. difficile; formerly known as Clostridium difficile) is a gram-positive rod-shaped bacillus that is commonly involved in antibiotic-associated diarrhoea. As the bacterial spores are difficult to eradicate and easily transmitted (via faecal-oral transmission), the C. difficile infection rate is particularly high among hospitalized patients and residents in long-term care facilities.
      Colonization with C. difficile occurs following antibiotic treatment of other diseases, as the bacteria is particularly resistant to antibiotics. The resulting damage to the intestinal flora promotes infection, which may be accompanied by high fever, abdominal pain, and characteristically foul-smelling diarrhoea. The most severe form of C. difficile infection is pseudomembranous colitis, which may lead to ileus, sepsis, and toxic megacolon. In most cases, however, colonization results in asymptomatic carriage rather than symptomatic infection.
      Diagnosis is usually made via detection of the C. difficile toxin and/or corresponding genes in stool samples. C. difficile infections are treated with oral vancomycin or oral fidaxomicin. Following diagnosis, strict adherence to hygiene measures and patient isolation is essential, especially in hospitals and other healthcare settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 58 year old man presents with complaints of recurrent episodes of diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 58 year old man presents with complaints of recurrent episodes of diarrhoea over the past week that has resulted in marked exhaustion and fatigue. He underwent a successful cadaveric renal transplant last year and was able to return to his job as a swimming instructor. Stool microscopy is carried out and it shows evidence of cysts. Which of the following is the most likely source of infection?

      Your Answer: Giardia

      Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium

      Explanation:

      Cryptosporidium infection occurs through the faecal-oral route of transmission. It usually lasts for 5–7 days. In immunocompetent patients it is self-limiting (nitazoxanide may be used to shorten the duration). In immunocompromised patients: Antiretroviral therapy to elevate the CD4 cell count/restore the immune system is essential prior to eradication with antiparasitic drugs. Diarrhoea is the main disease. The cysts are typically identified on stool microscopy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old male presents to the urology department for investigation of pyelonephritis. He...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male presents to the urology department for investigation of pyelonephritis. He reports malaise, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a maculopapular rash. The monospot test is negative. Due to a given history of recent high-risk sexual behaviour, you are asked to exclude HIV seroconversion illness in this patient. Which of the following should be the most appropriate investigation?

      Your Answer: p24 antigen test

      Explanation:

      P24 antigen test is used as one of the main investigations in diagnosing HIV seroconversion illness.

      Some people experience a short illness soon after they contract HIV. This is known as seroconversion illness, or primary or acute HIV infection. It is the period when someone with HIV is at their most infectious.

      HIV seroconversion is symptomatic in 60%–80% of the patients and typically presents as a glandular fever-type illness. Increased symptomatic severity is associated with poorer long-term prognosis. It typically occurs 2–3 weeks after contracting the virus.

      Signs and symptoms include:
      1. Sore throat
      2. Malaise, myalgia, and arthralgia
      3. Diarrhoea
      4. Maculopapular rash
      5. Oral ulcers
      6. Lymphadenopathy
      7. Meningoencephalitis (rarely)

      HIV PCR and p24 antigen test can confirm the diagnosis. The former is the most common and accurate test and consists of both a screening ELISA and a confirmatory western blot assay. P24 antigen test is also used as the mainstay of diagnosis and is usually positive from about 1 week to 3–4 weeks after an infection with HIV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 59 year old man presents with septicaemia 48 hours after undergoing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 59 year old man presents with septicaemia 48 hours after undergoing a difficult colonoscopy to assess the extent of a caecal carcinoma. His abdomen is soft and non tender. Blood cultures grow gram positive cocci. Which of the following organisms is likely responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus bovis

      Explanation:

      Streptococcus bovis (S. bovis) bacteria are associated with colorectal cancer and adenoma. S. bovis is currently named S. gallolyticus. 25-80% of patients with S. bovis/gallolyticus bacteraemia have concomitant colorectal tumours. Colonic neoplasia may arise years after the presentation of bacteraemia or infectious endocarditis of S. bovis/gallolyticus. The presence of S. bovis/gallolyticus bacteraemia and/or endocarditis is also related to the presence of villous or tubular-villous adenomas in the large intestine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25 year old man is admitted with a splenic rupture despite not...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old man is admitted with a splenic rupture despite not being involved in any trauma. Which of the following infections can cause spontaneous splenic rupture?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Correct Answer: Epstein-Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Answer: Epstein-Barr virus

      The Epstein–Barr virus is one of eight known human herpesvirus types in the herpes family, and is one of the most common viruses in humans. Infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is common and usually occurs in childhood or early adulthood.
      EBV is the cause of infectious mononucleosis, an illness associated with symptoms and signs like:
      fever,
      fatigue,
      swollen tonsils,
      headache, and
      sweats,
      sore throat,
      swollen lymph nodes in the neck, and
      sometimes an enlarged spleen.

      Although EBV can cause mononucleosis, not everyone infected with the virus will get mononucleosis. White blood cells called B cells are the primary targets of EBV infection.
      Petechiae on the palate are characteristic of streptococcal pharyngitis but also can be seen in Epstein–Barr virus infection, Arcanobacterium haemolyticum pharyngitis, rubella, roseola, viral haemorrhagic fevers, thrombocytopenia, and palatal trauma.
      Despite the fact that infectious mononucleosis is a self-limiting disease, it may cause serious and lethal complications. The mechanism of splenic rupture secondary to infectious mononucleosis has been controversial. It is commonly believed that it is caused by an increase in intra-abdominal pressure or contraction of the diaphragm with vigorous cough, vomiting and defecation, leading to a compression of the spleen. However, Patel et al. argue that it is primarily the result of an expanding subcapsular haematoma which subsequently tears the capsule and leads to hemoperitoneum. Traditionally, rupture of spleen is treated by splenectomy. The rationale is to prevent the chance of sudden death as an early complication of splenic rupture and the risk from blood transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 20 - A young lady is taken to the doctor with diarrhoea and crampy abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A young lady is taken to the doctor with diarrhoea and crampy abdominal pain after attending a large wedding in the morning. Other individuals who attended the wedding are also affected with the same illness. Which organism would be most likely accountable for this illness?

      Your Answer: Salmonella

      Correct Answer: Clostridium perfringens

      Explanation:

      Answer: Clostridium perfringens

      Clostridium perfringens (C. perfringens) is a spore-forming gram-positive bacterium that is found in many environmental sources as well as in the intestines of humans and animals. C. perfringens is commonly found on raw meat and poultry. It prefers to grow in conditions with very little or no oxygen, and under ideal conditions can multiply very rapidly. Some strains of C. perfringens produce a toxin in the intestine that causes illness.
      Beef, poultry, gravies, and dried or pre-cooked foods are common sources of C. perfringens infections. C. perfringens infection often occurs when foods are prepared in large quantities and kept warm for a long time before serving. Outbreaks often happen in institutions, such as hospitals, school cafeterias, prisons, and nursing homes, or at events with catered food.
      People infected with C. perfringens develop diarrhoea and abdominal cramps within 6 to 24 hours (typically 8 to 12 hours). The illness usually begins suddenly and lasts for less than 24 hours. People infected with C. perfringens usually do not have fever or vomiting. The illness is not passed from one person to another.
      Although C. perfringens may live normally in the human intestine, illness is caused by eating food contaminated with large numbers of C. perfringens bacteria that produce enough toxin in the intestines to cause illness.

      C. perfringens can survive high temperatures. During cooling and holding of food at temperatures from 54°F–140°F (12°C–60°C), the bacteria grows. It can grow very rapidly between 109°F–117°F (43°C–47°C). If the food is served without reheating to kill the bacteria, live bacteria may be eaten. The bacteria produce a toxin inside the intestine that causes illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Microbiology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Microbiology (12/20) 60%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (12/20) 60%
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