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  • Question 1 - A 10-year-old girl presents to her physician with complaints of polydipsia and fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to her physician with complaints of polydipsia and fatigue for the past month. She had a mild upper respiratory tract infection a few weeks ago. Her medical history is significant for asthma. Upon urine dip testing, she is found to have ++++ glucose and ketones. The physician suspects diabetic ketoacidosis and initiates fluid resuscitation and insulin therapy.

      Which type of receptor does insulin bind to?

      Your Answer: Nuclear receptor

      Correct Answer: Tyrosine kinase receptor

      Explanation:

      The receptor tyrosine kinase in the cell membrane is bound by insulin.

      Membrane receptors are proteins located on the surface of cells that receive signals from outside the cell and transmit them inside. There are four main types of membrane receptors: ligand-gated ion channel receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, guanylate cyclase receptors, and G protein-coupled receptors. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors mediate fast responses and include nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, and glutamate receptors. Tyrosine kinase receptors include receptor tyrosine kinase such as insulin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF), and epidermal growth factor (EGF), and non-receptor tyrosine kinase such as PIGG(L)ET, which stands for Prolactin, Immunomodulators (cytokines IL-2, Il-6, IFN), GH, G-CSF, Erythropoietin, and Thrombopoietin.

      Guanylate cyclase receptors contain intrinsic enzyme activity and include atrial natriuretic factor and brain natriuretic peptide. G protein-coupled receptors generally mediate slow transmission and affect metabolic processes. They are activated by a wide variety of extracellular signals such as peptide hormones, biogenic amines (e.g. adrenaline), lipophilic hormones, and light. These receptors have 7-helix membrane-spanning domains and consist of 3 main subunits: alpha, beta, and gamma. The alpha subunit is linked to GDP. Ligand binding causes conformational changes to the receptor, GDP is phosphorylated to GTP, and the alpha subunit is activated. G proteins are named according to the alpha subunit (Gs, Gi, Gq).

      The mechanism of G protein-coupled receptors varies depending on the type of G protein involved. Gs stimulates adenylate cyclase, which increases cAMP and activates protein kinase A. Gi inhibits adenylate cyclase, which decreases cAMP and inhibits protein kinase A. Gq activates phospholipase C, which splits PIP2 to IP3 and DAG and activates protein kinase C. Examples of G protein-coupled receptors include beta-1 receptors (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dobutamine), beta-2 receptors (epinephrine, salbuterol), H2 receptors (histamine), D1 receptors (dopamine), V2 receptors (vas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 2 - A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother after...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his mother after she found him having seizures. She reports that he has not eaten anything all day. The child is hyperventilating.

      Blood results reveal:
      - Low fasting glucose
      - High urea
      - Normal sodium
      - Normal potassium
      - High triglycerides
      - pH of 7.29

      Upon palpation of his abdomen, hepatomegaly is noted.

      An ultrasound scan of the abdomen shows enlarged kidneys.

      Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis and underlying cause of this child's presentation?

      Your Answer: Alpha-L iduronidase deficiency

      Correct Answer: A defect in glucose-6-phosphatase

      Explanation:

      Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency is the cause of Von Gierke’s disease. This condition is characterized by an inability to maintain adequate blood glucose levels during the post-absorptive hours of each day, which can lead to seizures due to hypoglycemia. Excessive lactate and urate generation also occur, resulting in hyperuricemia and organ damage. Children are typically diagnosed at 2 years of age and may present with hepatomegaly, hyperventilation, respiratory distress, vomiting, and other manifestations of hypoglycemia. Other enzyme deficiencies and their associated conditions include galactocerebrosidase deficiency in Krabbe’s disease, alpha-L iduronidase deficiency in Hurler’s disease, N-acetylglucosamine-1-phosphate transferase deficiency in Inclusion cell disease, lysosomal acid alpha-glucosidase deficiency in Pompe disease, Hexosaminidase A deficiency in Tay-Sachs disease, and alpha-galactosidase deficiency in Fabry’s disease.

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies

      Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.

      Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.

      Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.

      Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old patient visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, weight gain, feeling cold...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient visits her doctor complaining of fatigue, weight gain, feeling cold and low mood for the past few months. Upon conducting blood tests, the results show:

      Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 10.2 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
      Free thyroxine (T4) 3.6 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)

      The doctor diagnoses the patient with hypothyroidism and prescribes levothyroxine. What is the target that this medication binds to?

      Your Answer: G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs)

      Correct Answer: Nuclear receptors

      Explanation:

      Levothyroxine exerts its effects by binding to nuclear receptors located within the nucleus of the cell. As a result, the molecule must be lipid-soluble to penetrate the cell membrane and affect gene transcription. Other drugs that work via nuclear receptors include hormone replacements like levothyroxine and steroids such as prednisolone.

      Enzymatic binding is an incorrect answer because levothyroxine does not bind to an enzyme in the cytoplasm. Instead, it diffuses into the nucleus of the cell and binds to a receptor there.

      GPCR, ion channel, and tyrosine kinase receptor are also incorrect answers. GPCRs are cell membrane-spanning receptors, ion channels are simple, membrane-spanning receptors, and tyrosine kinase receptors lead to phosphorylation of end-targets within the cell. These mechanisms are different from the nuclear receptor mechanism used by levothyroxine.

      Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.

      It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.

      The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 4 - A 15-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing, facial...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing, facial swelling, and a rash that appeared after consuming a curry. An anaphylactic reaction is suspected, and IM adrenaline is administered.

      On which class of receptors does this medication act?

      Your Answer: Ligand-gated ion channel receptors

      Correct Answer: G-protein coupled receptors

      Explanation:

      Adrenaline exerts its effects through G protein-coupled receptors, which are responsible for slow transmission and metabolic processes. The adrenergic (sympathetic) receptors that are activated by G proteins include alpha, beta-1, and beta-2 receptors. Alpha-receptors, found in arteries, cause arterial constriction when stimulated by adrenaline, leading to an increase in blood pressure. Beta-1 receptors, located in the heart, increase heart rate and contractility when stimulated. Beta-2 receptors, found in the bronchioles of the lungs, promote bronchodilation when stimulated.

      In the case of anaphylaxis treatment, adrenaline acts on alpha, beta-1, and beta-2 receptors, which helps to reverse the peripheral vasodilation and angioedema seen in anaphylaxis by increasing blood pressure, heart rate, and contractility. Additionally, it reverses bronchoconstriction.

      On the other hand, ligand-gated ion channel receptors are associated with fast responses and include nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, and glutamate receptors.

      Membrane receptors are proteins located on the surface of cells that receive signals from outside the cell and transmit them inside. There are four main types of membrane receptors: ligand-gated ion channel receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, guanylate cyclase receptors, and G protein-coupled receptors. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors mediate fast responses and include nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, and glutamate receptors. Tyrosine kinase receptors include receptor tyrosine kinase such as insulin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF), and epidermal growth factor (EGF), and non-receptor tyrosine kinase such as PIGG(L)ET, which stands for Prolactin, Immunomodulators (cytokines IL-2, Il-6, IFN), GH, G-CSF, Erythropoietin, and Thrombopoietin.

      Guanylate cyclase receptors contain intrinsic enzyme activity and include atrial natriuretic factor and brain natriuretic peptide. G protein-coupled receptors generally mediate slow transmission and affect metabolic processes. They are activated by a wide variety of extracellular signals such as peptide hormones, biogenic amines (e.g. adrenaline), lipophilic hormones, and light. These receptors have 7-helix membrane-spanning domains and consist of 3 main subunits: alpha, beta, and gamma. The alpha subunit is linked to GDP. Ligand binding causes conformational changes to the receptor, GDP is phosphorylated to GTP, and the alpha subunit is activated. G proteins are named according to the alpha subunit (Gs, Gi, Gq).

      The mechanism of G protein-coupled receptors varies depending on the type of G protein involved. Gs stimulates adenylate cyclase, which increases cAMP and activates protein kinase A. Gi inhibits adenylate cyclase, which decreases cAMP and inhibits protein kinase A. Gq activates phospholipase C, which splits PIP2 to IP3 and DAG and activates protein kinase C. Examples of G protein-coupled receptors include beta-1 receptors (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dobutamine), beta-2 receptors (epinephrine, salbuterol), H2 receptors (histamine), D1 receptors (dopamine), V2 receptors (vas

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 5 - An anaesthetist trainee administers neostigmine to a 60-year-old patient at the end of...

    Incorrect

    • An anaesthetist trainee administers neostigmine to a 60-year-old patient at the end of a brief surgical procedure to reverse the effect of a muscle relaxant. However, no effect is observed. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants may have been used during induction of anaesthesia?

      Your Answer: Pancuronium

      Correct Answer: Suxamethonium

      Explanation:

      Suxamethonium is a type of skeletal muscle relaxant that causes depolarization. Unlike non-depolarizing agents such as tubocurarine, pancuronium, vecuronium, and rocuronium, it cannot be reversed by anticholinesterases because it is broken down by butyrylcholinesterase. Neostigmine, an anticholinesterase, prolongs the effects of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft, but it cannot reverse the effects of suxamethonium since it is not metabolized by acetylcholinesterase.

      Cholinergic receptors are proteins found in the body that are activated by the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. They are present in both the central and peripheral nervous systems and can be divided into two groups: nicotinic and muscarinic receptors. Nicotinic receptors are ligand-gated ion channels that allow the movement of sodium into the cell and potassium out, resulting in an inward flow of positive ions. Muscarinic receptors, on the other hand, are G-protein coupled receptors that exert their downstream effect by linking with different G-proteins.

      Nicotinic receptors are named after their binding capacity for nicotine, but they respond to acetylcholine. They are found in preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system and at neuromuscular junctions. At preganglionic neurons, they create a local membrane depolarization through the movement of sodium into the cell, while at neuromuscular junctions, they initiate a wave of depolarization across the muscle cell. Muscarinic receptors are found in effector organs of the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system and are divided into five classes. They mediate various effects through different G-protein systems.

      Cholinergic receptors can be targeted pharmacologically using agonists and antagonists. For example, muscarinic antagonist ipratropium can be used to induce bronchodilation in asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. In myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease, antibodies are directed against the nicotinic receptor on the neuromuscular junction, resulting in skeletal muscle weakness. Understanding the effects associated with each type of cholinergic receptor is important in understanding physiological responses to drugs and disease.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 6 - A medical research team is analyzing the expression levels of numerous genes concurrently...

    Incorrect

    • A medical research team is analyzing the expression levels of numerous genes concurrently to identify Single Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs) in breast cancer.

      Which molecular method would be the most suitable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Microarray

      Explanation:

      Microarrays are utilized for the simultaneous profiling of gene expression levels of numerous genes to investigate different diseases and treatments. These arrays consist of grids of thousands of DNA sequences arranged on glass or silicon. The chip is then hybridized with DNA or RNA probes, and a scanner is used to detect the relative amounts of complementary binding.

      Overview of Molecular Biology Techniques

      Molecular biology techniques are essential tools used in the study of biological molecules such as DNA, RNA, and proteins. These techniques are used to detect and analyze these molecules in various biological samples. The most commonly used techniques include Southern blotting, Northern blotting, Western blotting, and enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA).

      Southern blotting is a technique used to detect DNA, while Northern blotting is used to detect RNA. Western blotting, on the other hand, is used to detect proteins. This technique involves the use of gel electrophoresis to separate native proteins based on their 3-D structure. It is commonly used in the confirmatory HIV test.

      ELISA is a biochemical assay used to detect antigens and antibodies. This technique involves attaching a colour-changing enzyme to the antibody or antigen being detected. If the antigen or antibody is present in the sample, the sample changes colour, indicating a positive result. ELISA is commonly used in the initial HIV test.

      In summary, molecular biology techniques are essential tools used in the study of biological molecules. These techniques include Southern blotting, Northern blotting, Western blotting, and ELISA. Each technique is used to detect specific molecules in biological samples and is commonly used in various diagnostic tests.

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  • Question 7 - A 25-year-old female presents at the renal outpatient clinic with drug-resistant hypertension and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents at the renal outpatient clinic with drug-resistant hypertension and longstanding hypokalaemia. After extensive investigation, she is diagnosed with Liddle's syndrome, a rare genetic condition. Along with other medications, amiloride is prescribed. What specific part of the nephron does this medication target?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Distal convoluted tubule

      Explanation:

      Amiloride is a medication that targets the epithelial sodium transport channels in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting duct. It is used to treat Liddle’s syndrome, an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a gain of function mutation that prevents the degradation of these channels, leading to increased activity. This condition is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and metabolic alkalosis. Amiloride works by selectively blocking these channels, helping to counteract the symptoms of the disease.

      Potassium-sparing diuretics are classified into two types: epithelial sodium channel blockers (such as amiloride and triamterene) and aldosterone antagonists (such as spironolactone and eplerenone). However, caution should be exercised when using these drugs in patients taking ACE inhibitors as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation since these drugs often cause hypokalaemia. On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct and are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, relatively large doses of spironolactone (100 or 200 mg) are often used to manage secondary hyperaldosteronism.

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      • General Principles
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man presents to your clinic with numerous raised tumour-like growths on...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to your clinic with numerous raised tumour-like growths on his body and hyperpigmented patches on his back and trunk. He reports experiencing frequent headaches, flushing, and palpitations. Upon genetic analysis, a mutation in the NF1 tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 17 is identified.

      If this man were to have a child with his asymptomatic wife, what is the likelihood that the child would inherit the same condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Characteristics and Complicating Factors

      Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This means that both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and there is no carrier state. Both males and females can be affected, and only affected individuals can pass on the disease. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.

      However, there are complicating factors that can affect the inheritance of autosomal dominant diseases. One of these factors is non-penetrance, which refers to the lack of clinical signs and symptoms despite having an abnormal gene. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis may not show any symptoms. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, which occurs when there is a new mutation in one of the gametes. This means that 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.

      In summary, autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by certain patterns of inheritance, but there are also complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Understanding these factors is important for genetic counseling and for predicting the risk of passing on the disease to future generations.

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  • Question 9 - Which of the following would be a common hypersensitivity response that results in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following would be a common hypersensitivity response that results in tissue damage due to the accumulation of immune complexes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Type 3 reactions involve immune complexes and can result in post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis. An example of a type 1 IgE-mediated anaphylactic reaction is tongue and lip swelling shortly after consuming shellfish. Goodpasture syndrome is an instance of a type 2 reaction that is mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies. Type 4 (delayed) reactions are caused by T lymphocytes and can lead to contact dermatitis and a positive Mantoux test. Contact dermatitis is frequently caused by nickel, which is commonly found in inexpensive jewelry like Christmas cracker rings.

      Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions

      Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.

      In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

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  • Question 10 - Which one of the following drugs exhibits saturation pharmacokinetics? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following drugs exhibits saturation pharmacokinetics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Phenytoin exhibits zero-order kinetics.

      Understanding Drug Metabolism: Phase I and Phase II Reactions

      Drug metabolism involves two types of biochemical reactions, namely phase I and phase II reactions. Phase I reactions include oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis, which are mainly performed by P450 enzymes. However, some drugs are metabolized by specific enzymes such as alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase. The products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic. On the other hand, phase II reactions involve conjugation, where glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate, and other groups are typically involved. The products of phase II reactions are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile. The majority of phase I and phase II reactions take place in the liver.

      First-Pass Metabolism and Drugs Affected by Zero-Order Kinetics and Acetylator Status

      First-pass metabolism is a phenomenon where the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation due to hepatic metabolism. This effect is seen in many drugs, including aspirin, isosorbide dinitrate, glyceryl trinitrate, lignocaine, propranolol, verapamil, isoprenaline, testosterone, and hydrocortisone.

      Zero-order kinetics describe metabolism that is independent of the concentration of the reactant. This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated, resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time. Drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics include phenytoin, salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin), heparin, and ethanol.

      Acetylator status is also an important consideration in drug metabolism. Approximately 50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase. Drugs affected by acetylator status include isoniazid, procainamide, hydralazine, dapsone, and sulfasalazine. Understanding these concepts is important in predicting drug efficacy and toxicity, as well as in optimizing drug dosing.

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  • Question 11 - A 23-year-old mother brings in her 6-week-old child worried about a 'growth' in...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old mother brings in her 6-week-old child worried about a 'growth' in the child's abdomen. The mother is a carrier for Cori's disease.

      During the clinical examination, the healthcare provider observes hepatomegaly and a characteristic sign of Cori's disease.

      What is the distinctive sign observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypotonia

      Explanation:

      Cori’s disease is characterized by muscle hypotonia as a prominent feature. However, the Finkelstein sign, which is present in De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, is not observed in Cori’s disease. Additionally, hyperventilation due to lactic acidosis is a distinguishing feature of von Gierke disease rather than Cori’s disease.

      Inherited Metabolic Disorders: Types and Deficiencies

      Inherited metabolic disorders are a group of genetic disorders that affect the body’s ability to process certain substances. These disorders can be categorized into different types based on the specific substance that is affected. One type is glycogen storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in glycogen metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of glycogen in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, and hepatomegaly.

      Another type is lysosomal storage disease, which is caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in lysosomal metabolism. This can lead to the accumulation of various substances within lysosomes, resulting in symptoms such as hepatosplenomegaly, developmental delay, and optic atrophy. Examples of lysosomal storage diseases include Gaucher’s disease, Tay-Sachs disease, and Fabry disease.

      Finally, mucopolysaccharidoses are a group of disorders caused by deficiencies in enzymes involved in the breakdown of glycosaminoglycans. This can lead to the accumulation of these substances in various organs, resulting in symptoms such as coarse facial features, short stature, and corneal clouding. Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses include Hurler syndrome and Hunter syndrome.

      Overall, inherited metabolic disorders can have a wide range of symptoms and can affect various organs and systems in the body. Early diagnosis and treatment are important in managing these disorders and preventing complications.

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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman is 16 weeks pregnant and is considering prenatal testing. Due...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is 16 weeks pregnant and is considering prenatal testing. Due to her age, she is concerned about the possibility of her child having Down syndrome. She undergoes chorionic villus sampling and the sample of chorionic villi is sent to the lab. They use PCR to aid analysis.

      Which of these techniques would be used?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Denaturation, annealing and elongation of DNA

      Explanation:

      To amplify desired fragments of DNA, Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) utilizes denaturation, annealing, and elongation. The process involves heating to denature the double helix, primer hybridization, and elongation by polymerase enzymes for analysis. Reverse transcriptase PCR is a technique used to amplify RNA segments, which involves converting RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase enzymes before analysis. Gene probe creation is a technique used for tests like fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) to view changes within chromosomes by causing gene segments to fluoresce when bound to a special probe. However, it is not typically used for Down syndrome testing, which is better suited for PCR. Foetal cell culture is another technique used for prenatal diagnosis in some cases.

      Reverse Transcriptase PCR

      Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) is a molecular genetic technique used to amplify RNA. This technique is useful for analyzing gene expression in the form of mRNA. The process involves converting RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase. The resulting DNA can then be amplified using PCR.

      To begin the process, a sample of RNA is added to a test tube along with two DNA primers and a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq). The mixture is then heated to almost boiling point, causing denaturing or uncoiling of the RNA. The mixture is then allowed to cool, and the complimentary strands of DNA pair up. As there is an excess of the primer sequences, they preferentially pair with the DNA.

      The above cycle is then repeated, with the amount of DNA doubling each time. This process allows for the amplification of the RNA, making it easier to analyze gene expression. RT-PCR is a valuable tool in molecular biology and has many applications in research, including the study of diseases and the development of new treatments.

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  • Question 13 - A 50-year-old man comes to the physician complaining of non-productive cough and difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the physician complaining of non-productive cough and difficulty breathing during physical activity. During the examination, he has a fever and low oxygen saturation at rest. He has scattered crackles in his lungs, but no signs of focal consolidation. He has also experienced some weight loss. When questioned, he informs the doctor that he had unprotected sexual intercourse with multiple partners while on vacation in Thailand six months ago. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jirovecii

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP pneumonia), a fungal pneumonia caused by Pneumocystis jirovecii that typically affects those with weakened immune systems. The patient’s history of engaging in unprotected sexual activity has resulted in HIV infection, which has compromised their immune system and made them susceptible to opportunistic infections like PCP pneumonia. The presence of scattered crackles and absence of focal consolidation is a common characteristic of PCP pneumonia.

      Haemophilus influenzae is a bacterial pathogen that can cause respiratory tract infections. Symptoms may initially resemble those of a viral infection, with low-grade fevers often present.

      Streptococcus pneumoniae is a bacteria that commonly resides in the respiratory tract of healthy individuals but can cause pneumonia in young children and the elderly.

      Listeria monocytogenes is a pathogenic bacteria that can cause listeriosis, a condition that often results in central nervous system infections. Pregnant women may experience mild flu-like symptoms, but the infection can lead to complications such as miscarriage, preterm labor, or discharge.

      Pneumocystis jiroveci Pneumonia in HIV Patients

      Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia) is a common opportunistic infection in individuals with HIV. The organism responsible for this infection is an unicellular eukaryote, which is classified as a fungus by some and a protozoa by others. Symptoms of PCP include dyspnea, dry cough, fever, and few chest signs. Pneumothorax is a common complication of PCP, and extrapulmonary manifestations are rare.

      To diagnose PCP, a chest x-ray is typically performed, which may show bilateral interstitial pulmonary infiltrates or other findings such as lobar consolidation. Sputum tests often fail to show PCP, so a bronchoalveolar lavage (BAL) may be necessary to demonstrate the presence of the organism. Treatment for PCP involves co-trimoxazole or IV pentamidine in severe cases. Aerosolized pentamidine is an alternative treatment, but it is less effective and carries a risk of pneumothorax. Steroids may be prescribed if the patient is hypoxic, as they can reduce the risk of respiratory failure and death.

      It is recommended that all HIV patients with a CD4 count below 200/mm³ receive PCP prophylaxis. This infection can be serious and potentially life-threatening, so prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial.

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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old male is admitted with cellulitis of his left lower limbs. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male is admitted with cellulitis of his left lower limbs. A swab culture grows MRSA sensitive to vancomycin, teicoplanin and linezolid. You opt to treat him with teicoplanin.

      What is the mode of action of teicoplanin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits bacterial cell wall formation

      Explanation:

      Teicoplanin, a glycopeptide antibiotic similar to vancomycin, has a longer duration of action, allowing for once daily administration after the initial dose. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting bacterial cell wall formation. Other antibiotics that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis include macrolides, aminoglycosides, and tetracyclines, while those that inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis include quinolones like ciprofloxacin. Rifampicin inhibits bacterial RNA synthesis, while trimethoprim and co-trimoxazole inhibit bacterial folic acid formation.

      Antibiotics work in different ways to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria. The commonly used antibiotics can be classified based on their gross mechanism of action. The first group inhibits cell wall formation by either preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking (penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems) or peptidoglycan synthesis (glycopeptides like vancomycin). The second group inhibits protein synthesis by acting on either the 50S subunit (macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins) or the 30S subunit (aminoglycosides, tetracyclines) of the bacterial ribosome. The third group inhibits DNA synthesis (quinolones like ciprofloxacin) or damages DNA (metronidazole). The fourth group inhibits folic acid formation (sulphonamides and trimethoprim), while the fifth group inhibits RNA synthesis (rifampicin). Understanding the mechanism of action of antibiotics is important in selecting the appropriate drug for a particular bacterial infection.

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  • Question 15 - A 28-year-old female is prescribed a medication by her physician. Upon reviewing the...

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    • A 28-year-old female is prescribed a medication by her physician. Upon reviewing the drug's properties, you observe that the rate of excretion remains constant despite an increase in its concentration.

      Which medication exhibits this unique pharmacokinetic characteristic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      When drugs are excreted by zero-order kinetics, the rate at which they are eliminated from the body remains constant regardless of their concentration in the body. This is different from first-order kinetics, where the elimination rate is proportional to the drug’s plasma concentration. Some examples of drugs that follow zero-order kinetics include aspirin, phenytoin, ethanol, and fluoxetine, while drugs like amitriptyline, ampicillin, apixaban, and atenolol follow first-order kinetics.

      Pharmacokinetics of Excretion

      Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body. One important aspect of pharmacokinetics is excretion, which is the process by which drugs are removed from the body. The rate of drug elimination is typically proportional to drug concentration, a phenomenon known as first-order elimination kinetics. However, some drugs exhibit zero-order kinetics, where the rate of excretion remains constant regardless of changes in plasma concentration. This occurs when the metabolic process responsible for drug elimination becomes saturated. Examples of drugs that exhibit zero-order kinetics include phenytoin and salicylates. Understanding the pharmacokinetics of excretion is important for determining appropriate dosing regimens and avoiding toxicity.

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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old has recently been diagnosed with a sarcoma. Due to their young...

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    • A 28-year-old has recently been diagnosed with a sarcoma. Due to their young age, further genetic investigations were ordered which showed a p53 mutation. Their family history was assessed and they have been diagnosed with Li-Fraumeni syndrome.

      What other condition is this person most susceptible to developing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Li-Fraumeni syndrome, which is caused by a mutation in the p53 gene, is a rare autosomal dominant disorder that increases the risk of early-onset breast cancer, sarcoma, and leukaemia. While basal cell carcinomas are not linked to p53 mutations and are instead associated with UV exposure, bladder cancer is more strongly associated with smoking than with p53 mutations. Additionally, while the risk of lymphoma increases with age, individuals with a p53 mutation are more likely to develop leukaemia.

      Understanding p53 and its Role in Cancer

      p53 is a gene that helps suppress tumours and is located on chromosome 17p. It is frequently mutated in breast, colon, and lung cancer. The gene is believed to be essential in regulating the cell cycle, preventing cells from entering the S phase until DNA has been checked and repaired. Additionally, p53 may play a crucial role in apoptosis, the process of programmed cell death.

      Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. It is characterised by the early onset of various cancers, including sarcoma, breast cancer, and leukaemia. The condition is caused by mutations in the p53 gene, which can lead to a loss of its tumour-suppressing function. Understanding the role of p53 in cancer can help researchers develop new treatments and therapies for those affected by the disease.

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  • Question 17 - You are working in the palliative care unit. A 67-year-old male has severe...

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    • You are working in the palliative care unit. A 67-year-old male has severe neuropathic pain secondary to spinal cord metastasis. It has been unresponsive to titration of opioid and neuropathic agents. Your consultant decides to use ketamine.

      What is the mechanism of action of ketamine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NMDA receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Ketamine works by blocking NMDA receptors. It can be used to treat neuropathic pain that does not respond well to opioids and other oral pain medications, especially when there is abnormal pain sensitivity such as allodynia, hyperalgesia, or hyperpathia.

      Gabapentin works by changing the way voltage-gated calcium channels function.

      Pregabalin is similar to the neurotransmitter GABA.

      Benzodiazepines activate GABA receptors.

      Local anesthetics like lidocaine block sodium channels.

      Overview of Commonly Used IV Induction Agents

      Propofol, sodium thiopentone, ketamine, and etomidate are some of the commonly used IV induction agents in anesthesia. Propofol is a GABA receptor agonist that has a rapid onset of anesthesia but may cause pain on IV injection. It is widely used for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anesthesia, and day case surgery. Sodium thiopentone has an extremely rapid onset of action, making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence induction. However, it may cause marked myocardial depression and metabolites build up quickly, making it unsuitable for maintenance infusion. Ketamine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, has moderate to strong analgesic properties and produces little myocardial depression, making it a suitable agent for anesthesia in those who are hemodynamically unstable. However, it may induce a state of dissociative anesthesia resulting in nightmares. Etomidate has a favorable cardiac safety profile with very little hemodynamic instability but has no analgesic properties and is unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged use may result in adrenal suppression. Postoperative vomiting is common with etomidate.

      Overall, each of these IV induction agents has specific features that make them suitable for different situations. Anesthesiologists must carefully consider the patient’s medical history, current condition, and the type of surgery being performed when selecting an appropriate induction agent.

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  • Question 18 - While on clinical placement, you attend a presentation by a pharmaceutical company representative...

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    • While on clinical placement, you attend a presentation by a pharmaceutical company representative who is promoting a new anticoagulant. They claim that a meta-analysis shows it to be superior to the current option at your hospital. However, you have reservations about publication bias and decide to review the paper cited by the representative.

      What method of data presentation can reveal the presence of this bias in the study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      Funnel plots are a type of graph that can reveal publication bias in meta-analyses. They plot trial size against reported effect size, and smaller trials may be more likely to show bias due to the pressure to publish significant results. If publication bias is present, the smaller trials may show a larger effect size than the larger trials. Flow diagrams show relationships between ideas, while forest plots combine data from multiple reports to give an overall value. Kaplan-Meier curves estimate survival over time, and pie charts show the relative proportions of different categories in a data set.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

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  • Question 19 - A clinical trial was conducted to evaluate the impact of aspirin on mortality...

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    • A clinical trial was conducted to evaluate the impact of aspirin on mortality in patients who underwent coronary bypass surgery. The study was double-blinded and randomized. The results showed that administering aspirin within 48 hours of the surgery led to a 70% decrease in overall mortality. The p-value of the study was found to be very low (0.01).

      What conclusions can be drawn from the information provided about the study?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chances of type I error are low

      Explanation:

      In hypothesis testing, a type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected even though it is true. This error is denoted by alpha (α) and is typically set at 0.05. By setting a low alpha level, researchers can minimize the chance of accepting a false alternative hypothesis.

      On the other hand, a type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted even though it is false. This error is denoted by beta (β) and is determined by both sample size and alpha. In the given scenario, the null hypothesis was not accepted, so a type II error did not occur.

      The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false. It is inversely proportional to the probability of type II error (Power = 1 – β) and is dependent on sample size. However, the information provided in the vignette is insufficient to accurately determine the power of the study.

      Significance tests are used to determine the likelihood of a null hypothesis being true. The null hypothesis states that two treatments are equally effective, while the alternative hypothesis suggests that there is a difference between the two treatments. The p value is the probability of obtaining a result by chance that is at least as extreme as the observed result, assuming the null hypothesis is true. Two types of errors can occur during significance testing: type I, where the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, and type II, where the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

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  • Question 20 - A new antibody test is being researched to aid in the early diagnosis...

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    • A new antibody test is being researched to aid in the early diagnosis of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis. It has a specificity of 97%.

      Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 97% of patients without the condition will have a negative test

      Explanation:

      Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.

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