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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old woman presents with microcytic anaemia on routine blood tests. She reports...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents with microcytic anaemia on routine blood tests. She reports feeling fatigued and experiencing occasional episodes of fresh red blood in her stool. Despite passing stool less frequently, she expresses no concern to her physician. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rectal cancer

      Explanation:

      Rectal cancer is characterized by symptoms such as passing fresh blood, which distinguishes it from duodenal cancer that presents with upper gastrointestinal bleeding. Inflammatory bowel disease typically includes abdominal pain, fever, and passing bloody stools, and may have more severe presentations, but microcytic anemia is not a common feature. Irritable bowel syndrome does not involve passing bloody stools and is associated with vague symptoms like bloating, backache, and urinary problems. Gastroenteritis is unlikely as it is accompanied by vomiting, diarrhea, and fever, which the patient has not reported.

      Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of cancer-related deaths. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      22.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which one of the following is not true of gastric cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not true of gastric cancer?

      Your Answer: There is an association with blood group A

      Correct Answer: Individuals with histological evidence of signet ring cells have a lower incidence of lymph node metastasis

      Explanation:

      Poorly differentiated gastric cancer is characterized by the presence of signet ring cells, which is linked to a higher likelihood of metastasis.

      Gastric cancer is a relatively uncommon type of cancer, accounting for only 2% of all cancer diagnoses in developed countries. It is more prevalent in older individuals, with half of patients being over the age of 75, and is more common in males than females. Several risk factors have been identified, including Helicobacter pylori infection, atrophic gastritis, certain dietary habits, smoking, and blood group. Symptoms of gastric cancer can include abdominal pain, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, and dysphagia. In some cases, lymphatic spread may result in the appearance of nodules in the left supraclavicular lymph node or periumbilical area. Diagnosis is typically made through oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy with biopsy, and staging is done using CT. Treatment options depend on the extent and location of the cancer and may include endoscopic mucosal resection, partial or total gastrectomy, and chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 33-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of occasional rectal bleeding, diarrhea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of occasional rectal bleeding, diarrhea, and fatigue. He reports that his symptoms have been progressively worsening for the past year, and he is worried because his father was diagnosed with colorectal cancer at the age of 56.

      Upon referral for a colonoscopy, the patient is found to have numerous benign polyps in his large colon.

      Which gene mutation is linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: UGT1A1

      Correct Answer: APC

      Explanation:

      Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is caused by a mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli gene (APC), which is a tumour suppressor gene. This hereditary condition is characterised by the presence of numerous benign polyps in the colon, which increases the risk of developing colon cancer. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene, which is not related to the symptoms of FAP. Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) is associated with mutations in DNA mismatch repair genes such as MLH1, but it does not involve the development of numerous benign polyps. Li-Fraumeni syndrome is a rare disease caused by a mutation in the TP53 tumour suppressor gene, which is associated with the development of various cancers. Gilbert’s syndrome is caused by a mutation in a different gene and is not related to FAP.

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      9.8
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old male presents with massive haematemesis and is diagnosed with splenomegaly. What...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male presents with massive haematemesis and is diagnosed with splenomegaly. What is the probable origin of the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Portal Hypertension and its Manifestations

      Portal hypertension is a condition that often leads to splenomegaly and upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. The primary cause of bleeding is oesophageal varices, which are dilated veins in the oesophagus. In addition to these symptoms, portal hypertension can also cause ascites, a buildup of fluid in the abdomen, and acute or chronic hepatic encephalopathy, a neurological disorder that affects the brain. Another common manifestation of portal hypertension is splenomegaly with hypersplenism, which occurs when the spleen becomes enlarged and overactive, leading to a decrease in the number of blood cells in circulation. the various symptoms of portal hypertension is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of intense upper abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of intense upper abdominal pain, fever, and vomiting. After diagnosis, he is found to have acute pancreatitis. Among the liver function tests, which one is significantly elevated in cases of pancreatitis?

      Your Answer: Amylase

      Explanation:

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man is having a distal pancreatectomy due to trauma. What vessel...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is having a distal pancreatectomy due to trauma. What vessel is responsible for supplying the tail of the pancreas with arterial blood?

      Your Answer: Hepatic artery

      Correct Answer: Splenic artery

      Explanation:

      The pancreaticoduodenal artery supplies the pancreatic head, while branches of the splenic artery supply the pancreatic tail. There is an arterial watershed between the two regions.

      Anatomy of the Pancreas

      The pancreas is located behind the stomach and is a retroperitoneal organ. It can be accessed surgically by dividing the peritoneal reflection that connects the greater omentum to the transverse colon. The pancreatic head is situated in the curvature of the duodenum, while its tail is close to the hilum of the spleen. The pancreas has various relations with other organs, such as the inferior vena cava, common bile duct, renal veins, superior mesenteric vein and artery, crus of diaphragm, psoas muscle, adrenal gland, kidney, aorta, pylorus, gastroduodenal artery, and splenic hilum.

      The arterial supply of the pancreas is through the pancreaticoduodenal artery for the head and the splenic artery for the rest of the organ. The venous drainage for the head is through the superior mesenteric vein, while the body and tail are drained by the splenic vein. The ampulla of Vater is an important landmark that marks the transition from foregut to midgut and is located halfway along the second part of the duodenum. Overall, understanding the anatomy of the pancreas is crucial for surgical procedures and diagnosing pancreatic diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old patient is scheduled for a right hemicolectomy to treat a caecum...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient is scheduled for a right hemicolectomy to treat a caecum carcinoma. Which of the following vessels will need to be high ligated for optimal oncological control?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Correct Answer: Ileo-colic artery

      Explanation:

      During a right hemicolectomy, the caecum is supplied by the ileo-colic artery which requires high ligation. It is generally recommended to preserve the middle colic artery when resecting a caecal lesion. It should be noted that the SMA does not directly supply the caecum.

      The Caecum: Location, Relations, and Functions

      The caecum is a part of the colon located in the proximal right colon below the ileocaecal valve. It is an intraperitoneal structure that has posterior relations with the psoas, iliacus, femoral nerve, genitofemoral nerve, and gonadal vessels. Its anterior relations include the greater omentum. The caecum is supplied by the ileocolic artery and its lymphatic drainage is through the mesenteric nodes that accompany the venous drainage.

      The caecum is known for its distensibility, making it the most distensible part of the colon. However, in cases of complete large bowel obstruction with a competent ileocaecal valve, the caecum is the most likely site of eventual perforation. Despite this potential complication, the caecum plays an important role in the digestive system. It is responsible for the absorption of fluids and electrolytes, as well as the fermentation of indigestible carbohydrates. Additionally, the caecum is a site for the growth and proliferation of beneficial bacteria that aid in digestion and immune function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      23.1
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  • Question 8 - Sophie, a 5-year-old girl, visits her doctor with her mother, complaining of a...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 5-year-old girl, visits her doctor with her mother, complaining of a lump in her groin that appears and disappears. The lump is easily reducible.

      The doctor suspects an indirect inguinal hernia, although it is difficult to differentiate between femoral, direct inguinal, and indirect inguinal hernias in such a young patient.

      Sophie's mother is curious about the cause of her daughter's hernia. What is the pathology of an indirect inguinal hernia?

      Your Answer: Protrusion through a through a previous surgical incision

      Correct Answer: Protrusion through the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress

      Explanation:

      Indirect inguinal hernias are caused by the failure of the processus vaginalis to regress, resulting in a protrusion through the deep inguinal ring and into the inguinal canal. In males, it may progress into the scrotum, while in females, it may enter the labia. This type of hernia is located lateral to the epigastric vessels.

      On the other hand, direct inguinal hernias are usually caused by weakening in the abdominal musculature, which occurs with age. The protrusion enters the inguinal canal through the posterior wall, which is medial to the epigastric vessels. It may exit through the superficial inguinal ring.

      The tunica vaginalis is a layer that surrounds the testes and contains a small amount of serous fluid, reducing friction between the scrotum and the testes. Meanwhile, the tunica albuginea is a layer of connective tissue that covers the ovaries, testicles, and corpora cavernosa of the penis.

      Understanding Inguinal Hernias

      Inguinal hernias are the most common type of abdominal wall hernias, with 75% of cases falling under this category. They are more prevalent in men, with a 25% lifetime risk of developing one. The main symptom is a lump in the groin area, which disappears when pressure is applied or when the patient lies down. Discomfort and aching are also common, especially during physical activity. However, severe pain is rare, and strangulation is even rarer.

      The traditional classification of inguinal hernias into indirect and direct types is no longer relevant in clinical management. Instead, the current consensus is to treat medically fit patients, even if they are asymptomatic. A hernia truss may be an option for those who are not fit for surgery, but it has limited use in other patients. Mesh repair is the preferred method, as it has the lowest recurrence rate. Unilateral hernias are usually repaired through an open approach, while bilateral and recurrent hernias are repaired laparoscopically.

      After surgery, patients are advised to return to non-manual work after 2-3 weeks for open repair and 1-2 weeks for laparoscopic repair. Complications may include early bruising and wound infection, as well as late chronic pain and recurrence. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which layer lies above the outer muscular layer of the intrathoracic oesophagus? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which layer lies above the outer muscular layer of the intrathoracic oesophagus?

      Your Answer: Serosa

      Correct Answer: Loose connective tissue

      Explanation:

      Sutures do not hold well on the oesophagus due to the absence of a serosal covering. The Auerbach’s and Meissner’s nerve plexuses are situated between the longitudinal and circular muscle layers, as well as submucosally. The Meissner’s nerve plexus is located in the submucosa, which aids in its sensory function.

      Anatomy of the Oesophagus

      The oesophagus is a muscular tube that is approximately 25 cm long and starts at the C6 vertebrae, pierces the diaphragm at T10, and ends at T11. It is lined with non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium and has constrictions at various distances from the incisors, including the cricoid cartilage at 15cm, the arch of the aorta at 22.5cm, the left principal bronchus at 27cm, and the diaphragmatic hiatus at 40cm.

      The oesophagus is surrounded by various structures, including the trachea to T4, the recurrent laryngeal nerve, the left bronchus and left atrium, and the diaphragm anteriorly. Posteriorly, it is related to the thoracic duct to the left at T5, the hemiazygos to the left at T8, the descending aorta, and the first two intercostal branches of the aorta. The arterial, venous, and lymphatic drainage of the oesophagus varies depending on the location, with the upper third being supplied by the inferior thyroid artery and drained by the deep cervical lymphatics, the mid-third being supplied by aortic branches and drained by azygos branches and mediastinal lymphatics, and the lower third being supplied by the left gastric artery and drained by posterior mediastinal and coeliac veins and gastric lymphatics.

      The nerve supply of the oesophagus also varies, with the upper half being supplied by the recurrent laryngeal nerve and the lower half being supplied by the oesophageal plexus of the vagus nerve. The muscularis externa of the oesophagus is composed of both smooth and striated muscle, with the composition varying depending on the location.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 61-year-old man is having surgery for a cancerous tumor in the splenic...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man is having surgery for a cancerous tumor in the splenic flexure of his colon. During the procedure, the surgeons cut the middle colic vein near its source. What is the primary drainage location for this vessel?

      Your Answer: Ileocolic vein

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric vein

      Explanation:

      If the middle colonic vein is torn during mobilization, it can lead to severe bleeding that may be challenging to manage as it drains into the SMV.

      The Transverse Colon: Anatomy and Relations

      The transverse colon is a part of the large intestine that begins at the hepatic flexure, where the right colon makes a sharp turn. At this point, it becomes intraperitoneal and is connected to the inferior border of the pancreas by the transverse mesocolon. The middle colic artery and vein are contained within the mesentery. The greater omentum is attached to the superior aspect of the transverse colon, which can be easily separated. The colon undergoes another sharp turn at the splenic flexure, where the greater omentum remains attached up to this point. The distal 1/3 of the transverse colon is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      The transverse colon is related to various structures. Superiorly, it is in contact with the liver, gallbladder, the greater curvature of the stomach, and the lower end of the spleen. Inferiorly, it is related to the small intestine. Anteriorly, it is in contact with the greater omentum, while posteriorly, it is in contact with the descending portion of the duodenum, the head of the pancreas, convolutions of the jejunum and ileum, and the spleen. Understanding the anatomy and relations of the transverse colon is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (3/10) 30%
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