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  • Question 1 - A 45-year-old male has symptoms of carcinoid syndrome. Which of the following is...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old male has symptoms of carcinoid syndrome. Which of the following is the most effective therapeutic agent in controlling the symptoms?

      Your Answer: Octreotide

      Explanation:

      Carcinoid syndrome occurs in ∼20% of cases of well-differentiated endocrine tumours of the jejunum or ileum (midgut neuroendocrine tumours (NET) and consists of (usually) dry flushing (without sweating; 70% of cases) with or without palpitations, diarrhoea (50% of cases) and intermittent abdominal pain (40% of cases); in some patients, there is also lacrimation and rhinorrhoea.
      Carcinoid syndrome occurs less often with NETs of other origins and is very rare in association with rectal NETs. It is usually due to metastasis to the liver, with the release of vasoactive compounds, including biogenic amines (e.g., serotonin and tachykinins), into the systemic circulation. However, it may also occur in the absence of liver metastases if there is direct retroperitoneal involvement, with venous drainage bypassing the liver. Pain due to hepatic enlargement may also be a presenting feature, as may upper right abdominal pain (similar to that of pulmonary infarction) secondary to either haemorrhage into, or necrosis of, a hepatic secondary tumour. Wheezing and pellagra are less common presenting features. CHD is present in ∼20% of patients at presentation and usually indicates that the syndrome has been present for several years.

      The aim of treatment should be curative where possible but it is palliative in the majority of cases.
      Surgery is the only curative treatment.
      Administration of specific medications to treat symptoms should, therefore, start as soon as clinical and biochemical signs indicate the presence of hypersecretory NETs, even before the precise localisation of primary and metastatic lesions is confirmed.

      The only proven hormonal management of NETs is by the administration of somatostatin analogues.
      Somatostatin analogues bind principally to SSTR subtypes 2 (with high affinity) and 5 (with lower affinity), thus inhibiting the release of various peptide hormones in the gut, pancreas and pituitary; they also antagonise growth factor effects on tumour cells, and, at very high dosage, may induce apoptosis. The effects of somatostatin analogues are demonstrable as biochemical response rates (inhibition of hormone production) in 30–70% of patients and as symptomatic control in the majority of patients.
      There are two commercially available somatostatin analogues: octreotide and lanreotide.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      38.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 33-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old man is brought to the A&E department following a road traffic accident. He complains of lower abdominal pain. On examination, a fracture of the pelvis along with distended, tender bladder is observed. What should be the best step of management for distended bladder?

      Your Answer: Suprapubic catheter

      Explanation:

      This patient has possible urethral injury based on the history. Urethral catheterisation is contraindicated in this situation.

      Up to 10% of male pelvic fractures are associated with urethral or bladder injuries. Urethral injury occurs mainly in males. It has two types.

      1.Bulbar rupture:
      a. most common
      b. mostly associated with straddle-type injury, e.g. from bicycles
      c. presentation with a triad of urinary retention, perineal haematoma, and blood at the meatus

      2. Membranous rupture:
      a. can be extra- or intraperitoneal
      b. occurs commonly due to pelvic fracture
      c. symptomology may include penile or perineal oedema/haematoma
      d. prostate displaced upwards (high-riding prostate)

      Ascending urethrogram is carried out in patients of suspected urethral injury. Suprapubic catheter is surgically placed and is indicated in:
      1. External genitalia injuries (i.e. the penis and the scrotum)
      2. Injury to the urethra caused by penetration, blunt trauma, continence- or sexual pleasure–enhancing devices, and mutilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 4 year old boy is rushed to the A&E department and admitted...

    Incorrect

    • A 4 year old boy is rushed to the A&E department and admitted with lethargy and abdominal pain. On examination, he is febrile, temperature 38.2oC, pulse rate is 121 and blood pressure is 101/62. His abdomen is soft but there is some right sided peritonism. His WCC is 14 and urinalysis is positive for leucocytes but is otherwise normal. Which of the following is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Admit for serial clinical examination

      Correct Answer: Take to theatre for appendicectomy within 6 hours

      Explanation:

      The definitive treatment for appendicitis is appendectomy. An appendectomy, also spelled appendicectomy, is a surgical operation in which the vermiform appendix is removed. Appendectomy is normally performed as an urgent or emergency procedure to treat acute appendicitis.

      Appendectomy may be performed laparoscopically (as minimally invasive surgery) or as an open operation. Laparoscopy is often used if the diagnosis is in doubt, or in order to leave a less visible surgical scar.
      The classic history of anorexia and vague periumbilical pain, followed by migration of pain to the right lower quadrant (RLQ) and onset of fever and vomiting, is observed in fewer than 60% of patients. Children with appendicitis do not localize in the same way as adults and often the diagnosis is difficult and all too often made late. If the appendix perforates, an interval of pain relief is followed by development of generalized abdominal pain and peritonitis.

      Laboratory findings may increase suspicion of appendicitis but are not diagnostic. The minimum laboratory workup for a patient with possible appendicitis includes a white blood cell (WBC) count with differential and urinalysis. Liver function tests and amylase and lipase assessments are helpful when the aetiology is unclear. Baseline blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are needed prior to intravenous contrast CT scanning. The WBC count becomes elevated in approximately 70-90% of patients with acute appendicitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
      58.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 31-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with sudden onset of chest pain associated with loss of consciousness. On examination, she is afebrile and her heart rate is 120 bpm, blood pressure is 170/90 mmHg, and saturation is 93% on 15L oxygen. Furthermore, an early diastolic murmur and occasional bibasilar crepitations are auscultated and mild pedal oedema is observed. Her ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Aortic dissection

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis is aortic dissection.

      Aortic dissection occurs following a tear in the aortic intima with subsequent separation of the tissue within the weakened media by the propagation of blood. There are four different classifications of aortic dissection and the commonest one used is the Stanford classification dividing them into type A and type B. A type A dissection involves the ascending aorta and/or the arch whilst type B dissection involves only the descending aorta and occurs distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery.

      Aortic dissection in pregnancy occurs most commonly in the third trimester due to the hyperdynamic state and hormonal effect on vasculature. Other common predisposing factors for aortic dissection include Marfans syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and bicuspid aortic valve. Aortic dissection often presents with sudden severe, tearing chest pain, vomiting, and syncope, most often from acute pericardial tamponade. The patient may be hypertensive, clinically. The right coronary artery may become involved in the dissection, causing myocardial infarct in up to 2% of the cases (hence ST-segment elevation in the inferior leads). An aortic regurgitant murmur may be auscultated.

      The management options during pregnancy include:
      1. <28 weeks of gestation: aortic repair with the foetus kept in utero
      2. 28–32 weeks of gestation: dependent on foetal condition
      3. >32 weeks of gestation: caesarean section followed by aortic repair in the same operation

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      59.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 40 year old woman has a full thickness burn on her foot...

    Correct

    • A 40 year old woman has a full thickness burn on her foot after being trapped in a burning building. The limb has no fractures but the burn is well circumscribed. She starts complaining of tingling of her foot which has a dusky look after 3 hours. Which of the following is the best management step?

      Your Answer: Escharotomy

      Explanation:

      Answer: Escharotomy

      Escharotomy is the surgical division of the nonviable eschar, which allows the cutaneous envelope to become more compliant. Hence, the underlying tissues have an increased available volume to expand into, preventing further tissue injury or functional compromise.

      Full-thickness circumferential and near-circumferential skin burns result in the formation of a tough, inelastic mass of burnt tissue (eschar). The eschar, by virtue of this inelasticity, results in the burn-induced compartment syndrome. This is caused by the accumulation of extracellular and extravascular fluid within confined anatomic spaces of the extremities or digits. The excessive fluid causes the intracompartmental pressures to increase, resulting in collapse of the contained vascular and lymphatic structures and, hence, loss of tissue viability. The capillary closure pressure of 30 mm Hg, also measured as the compartment pressure, is accepted as that which requires intervention to prevent tissue death.

      The circumferential eschar over the torso can lead to significant compromise of chest wall excursions and can hinder ventilation. Abdominal compartment syndrome with visceral hypoperfusion is associated with severe burns of the abdomen and torso. (A literature review by Strang et al found the prevalence of abdominal compartment syndrome in severely burned patients to be 4.1-16.6%, with the mean mortality rate for this condition in these patients to be 74.8%). Similarly, airway patency and venous return may be compromised by circumferential burns involving the neck.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old woman with portal hypertension has impaired venous drainage of the anal canal above the pectinate line. Thus, there might be an increase in blood flow downward to the systemic venous system via anastomoses with the inferior rectal vein. This is a tributary of?

      Your Answer: Internal pudendal vein

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectal vein drains into the internal pudendal vein. In addition the external iliac vein is one of the two branches of the common iliac vein however the internal iliac vein and it’s tributaries (including the pudendal vein) are much more important in draining the pelvic structures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the result of maltase deficiency in the brush border of the...

    Correct

    • What is the result of maltase deficiency in the brush border of the small intestine?

      Your Answer: Results in increased passage of maltose in stool

      Explanation:

      Maltase is an enzyme produced from the surface cells of the villi, lining the small intestine and aids in hydrolysing the disaccharide maltose, which splits into two molecules of α-glucose. It is done by breaking the glycosidic bond between the ‘first’ carbon of one glucose and the ‘fourth’ carbon of the other (a 1–4 bond). Hence, a deficiency of enzyme maltase will result in the increased passage of maltose in the stool.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      50.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year old gentleman underwent a computed tomographic scan for the abdomen to...

    Correct

    • A 40-year old gentleman underwent a computed tomographic scan for the abdomen to rule out blunt abdominal trauma, after a vehicular accident. The scan revealed no abnormal finding except for a 1 cm-sized cortical mass in the left adrenal gland. The doctor-on-call decided to not intervene for this mass because it was likely to be a:

      Your Answer: Non-functioning adrenal adenoma

      Explanation:

      Adrenal adenomas are common, benign lesions which are asymptomatic and seen in 10% of population. Usually detected incidentally on Computed tomography (‘incidentaloma’), only around 1 in 10,000 are malignant (adenocarcinoma). Adrenal adenomas rarely need to be investigated, especially if they are homogenous and less than 3 cm in diameter. Follow-up imaging can be done after an interval of 3-6 months to assess any change in size. Some adenomas can secrete cortisol (leading to Cushing syndrome), or aldosterone (leads to Conn syndrome) or androgens (leading to hyperandrogenism).
      Haematomas and simple cysts are not usually seen in adrenal gland. Infection due to Histoplasma capsulatum is usually bilateral and leads to multiple granulomas. Adrenal metastasis will usually demonstrate a lung primary and the adrenal lesions will be often multiple and larger than 1 cm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      140.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 62 year old alcoholic man presents with worsening confusion over the last...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old alcoholic man presents with worsening confusion over the last two weeks. He has felt weakness of the left side of the body. Which of the following explanations would be the least likely?

      Your Answer: Extra dural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Extradural haematoma (EDH) is defined as an acute bleed between the dura mater and the inner surface of the skull. This then causes increased intracranial pressure, which puts vital brain structures at risk. The question asks for the least likely cause, and extradural hematoma would be acute in onset.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      78.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which statement is correct regarding coagulation? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement is correct regarding coagulation?

      Your Answer: Thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin

      Explanation:

      Coagulation of blood is a complex process and an important part of haemostasis. There are two main pathways related to coagulation: the contact activation pathway/intrinsic pathway and tissue factor/extrinsic pathway. The extrinsic pathway is activated by external trauma that causes blood to escape from the vascular system. This pathway is quicker than the intrinsic pathway and involves factor VII. The intrinsic pathway is activated by trauma inside the vascular system, and initiated by platelets, exposed endothelium, chemicals, or collagen. This pathway is slower than the extrinsic pathway, but more important. It involves factors XII, XI, IX, VIII. Both pathways meet to finish the formation of a clot in what is known as the common pathway. The common pathway involves factors I, II, V, and X. They converge on the common pathway in which activation of prothrombin to thrombin leads to conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and clot formation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Injury of the ventral rami at this cervical spinal level will result in...

    Correct

    • Injury of the ventral rami at this cervical spinal level will result in paralysis of the rectus capitis anterior muscle:

      Your Answer: C1, C2

      Explanation:

      The rectus capitis anterior is a short, flat muscle, situated immediately behind the upper part of the longus capitis. It is also known as the obliquus capitis superior. It aids in flexion of the head and the neck. Nerve supple is from C1 and C2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      314.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining...

    Correct

    • A 14 year old boy is taken to the emergency room after complaining of sudden onset of pain in the left hemiscrotum despite not having any other urinary symptoms. The superior pole of the testis is tender on examination and the cremasteric reflex is particularly marked. What would be the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid

      Explanation:

      Answer: Torsion of a testicular hydatid

      The appendix testis (or hydatid of Morgagni) is a vestigial remnant of the Müllerian duct, present on the upper pole of the testis and attached to the tunica vaginalis. It is present about 90% of the time. The appendix of testis can, occasionally, undergo torsion (i.e. become twisted), causing acute one-sided testicular pain and may require surgical excision to achieve relief. One third of patients present with a palpable blue dot discoloration on the scrotum. This is nearly diagnostic of this condition. If clinical suspicion is high for the serious differential diagnosis of testicular torsion, a surgical exploration of the scrotum is warranted. Torsion of the appendix of testis occurs at ages 0-15 years, with a mean at 10 years, which is similar to that of testicular torsion.

      Occasionally a torsion of the hydatid of Morgagni can produce symptoms mimicking those created by a testicular torsion; a torsion of the hydatid, however, does not lead to any impairment of testicular function.
      Absence of the cremasteric reflex is a sign of testicular torsion. This therefore confirms that the diagnosis is Torsion of a testicular hydatid.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      51.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It...

    Correct

    • During a street fight a boy sustained a laceration below the elbow. It was a deep cut that led to profuse bleeding from an artery situated on the supinator muscle immediately below the elbow. The vessel most likely to have been injured is?

      Your Answer: Radial recurrent artery

      Explanation:

      The radial recurrent artery is situated on the supinator muscle then passing between the brachialis and the brachioradialis muscles. It originates from the radial artery and ends by anastomosing with the terminal part of the Profunda brachii.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in: ...

    Correct

    • Destruction of the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus will result in:

      Your Answer: Loss of satiety

      Explanation:

      The ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus is divided into an anterior and a superior part. The anterior part controls the female sexual drive, whereas the superior part is responsible for satiety. Destruction of the superior part of the nucleus will result in overeating, as no signal tells the body that it is satisfied.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 33-year old lady presented to the gynaecology clinic with amenorrhoea for 6...

    Correct

    • A 33-year old lady presented to the gynaecology clinic with amenorrhoea for 6 months and a recent-onset of milk discharge from her breasts. She was not pregnant or on any medication. On enquiry, she admitted to having frequent headaches the last 4 months. Which of the following findings would you expect to see in her condition?

      Your Answer: Hyperprolactinaemia

      Explanation:

      Excessively high levels of prolactin in the blood is called hyperprolactinaemia. Normally, prolactin levels are less than 580 mIU/l in females and less than 450 mIU/l in men. The biologically inactive macroprolactin can lead to a false high reading. However, the patient remains asymptomatic. Dopamine down-regulates prolactin whereas oestrogen upregulates it. Hyperprolactinaemia can be caused due to lack of inhibition (compression of pituitary stalk or low dopamine levels), or increased production due to a pituitary adenoma (prolactinoma). Either of these causes can lead to a prolactin level of 1000-5000 mIU/l. However, levels more than 5000mIU/l are usually associated due to an adenoma and >100,000 mIU/l are seen in macroadenomas (tumours < 1cm in diameter). Increased prolactin causes increased dopamine release from the arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus. This increased dopamine in turn, inhibits the GnRH (Gonadotrophin Releasing Hormone) thus blocking gonadal steroidogenesis resulting in the symptoms of hyperprolactinaemia. In women, it includes hypoestrogenism, anovulatory infertility, decreased or irregular menstruation or complete amenorrhoea. It can even cause production of breast milk, loss of libido, vaginal dryness and osteoporosis. In men, the symptoms include impotence, decreased libido, erectile dysfunction and infertility. In men, treatment can be delayed due to late diagnosis as they have no reliable indicator such as menstruation that might indicate a problem. Most of the male patients seek help only when headaches and visual defects start to surface.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      79.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - What is the name of the cutaneous branch of the posterior primary ramus...

    Correct

    • What is the name of the cutaneous branch of the posterior primary ramus of C2?

      Your Answer: Greater occipital nerve

      Explanation:

      The dorsal primary ramus of the spinal nerve C2 is the greater occipital nerve which provides cutaneous innervation to the skin of the back of the head. The ventral primary ramus gives off the great auricular nerve, the lesser occipital nerve and the ansa cervicalis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      49
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?...

    Incorrect

    • Out of the following options, which malignancy has the highest potential for multicentricity?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma of prostate

      Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Transitional cell carcinomas can arise anywhere in the urothelium lining the urinary tract; and hence are known to be multicentric and recur commonly. Prostatic adenocarcinoma most commonly involves the posterior lobe of the prostate gland. Although renal cell carcinomas occasionally show multicentricity, it is not common. Penile carcinomas are usually locally infiltrative lesions. Wilm’s tumours are usually solitary, but can be bilateral or multicentric in 10% cases. Small cell carcinoma of lung and teratomas are usually solitary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      59.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 65-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria, urinary frequency and urgency. He is...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old smoker presents with painless haematuria, urinary frequency and urgency. He is diagnosed with bladder cancer. Which is the most likely type?

      Your Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      90% of bladder cancers are transitional cell carcinomas derived from the bladder urothelium. Risk factors include industrial chemicals, smoking and infection. Schistosomiasis and bladder stones predispose to the squamous cell variety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      28.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - The orbicularis oculi us a muscle that closes the eyelids. What is the...

    Correct

    • The orbicularis oculi us a muscle that closes the eyelids. What is the motor innervation of this muscle?

      Your Answer: A branch of a nerve that exits through the stylomastoid foramen

      Explanation:

      The orbicularis oculi is a muscle in the face that closes the eyelids. It is supplied by zygomatic branch of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), which exits through the stylomastoid foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      109
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An 11 year old girl who is small for her age presents to...

    Correct

    • An 11 year old girl who is small for her age presents to the clinic with hypermobile fingers and poor muscular development. Multiple fractures of the long bones and irregular patches of ossification are seen on the x-rays. What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta

      Explanation:

      Answer: Osteogenesis imperfecta

      Osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a disorder of bone fragility chiefly caused by mutations in the COL1A1 and COL1A2 genes that encode type I procollagen.

      Type II – Perinatal lethal
      Some providers who treat large numbers of patients with osteogenesis imperfecta suggest that the diagnosis of Type II OI be made in retrospect for patients who do not survive the perinatal period, and that even patients with very severe forms of OI who nonetheless are long term survivors be classified as Type III. Blue sclera may be present. Patients may have a small nose, micrognathia, or both. All patients have in utero fractures, which may involve the skull, long bones, and/or vertebrae. The ribs are beaded, and the long bones are severely deformed.
      Causes of death include extreme fragility of the ribs, pulmonary hypoplasia, and malformations or haemorrhages of the CNS.

      Type III – Severe, progressively deforming

      Patients may have joint hyperlaxity, muscle weakness, chronic unremitting bone pain, and skull deformities (e.g., posterior flattening) due to bone fragility during infancy.

      Deformities of upper limbs may compromise function and mobility. The presence of dentinogenesis imperfecta is independent of the severity of the osteogenesis imperfecta. The sclera have variable hues. In utero fractures are common. Limb shortening and progressive deformities can occur. Patients have a triangular face with frontal and temporal bossing. Malocclusion is common. Basilar invagination is an uncommon but potentially fatal occurrence in osteogenesis imperfecta.
      Vertigo is common in patients with severe osteogenesis imperfecta. Hypercalciuria may be present in about 36% of patients with osteogenesis imperfecta, and adults may be at higher risk of renal calculi. Respiratory complications secondary to kyphoscoliosis are common in individuals with severe osteogenesis imperfecta.
      Constipation and hernias are also common in people with osteogenesis imperfecta.

      Obtain a radiographic skeletal survey after birth.

      In mild (type I) osteogenesis imperfecta, images may reveal thinning of the long bones with thin cortices. Several wormian bones may be present. No deformity of long bones is observed.

      In extremely severe (type II) osteogenesis imperfecta, the survey may reveal beaded ribs, broad bones, and numerous fractures with deformities of the long bones. Platyspondylia may also be revealed.

      In moderate and severe (types III and IV) osteogenesis imperfecta, imaging may reveal cystic metaphysis, or a popcorn appearance of the growth cartilage. Normal or broad bones are revealed early, with thin bones revealed later. Fractures may cause deformities of the long bones. Old rib fractures may be present. Vertebral fractures are common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      228.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle. ...

    Correct

    • Choose the most correct answer regarding the obturator internus muscle.

      Your Answer: It emerges from the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen

      Explanation:

      The obturator internus arises from the inner surface of the anterolateral wall of the pelvis and the pelvic surface of the obturator membrane. The fibres converge rapidly towards the lesser sciatic foramen and end in four or five tendinous bands and leave the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      146.3
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 62 year old retired teacher is diagnosed as having a malignant lesion...

    Incorrect

    • A 62 year old retired teacher is diagnosed as having a malignant lesion in the inferior aspect of her left breast. On examination, there is palpable axillary lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Wide local excision and sentinel lymph node biopsy

      Correct Answer: Image guided fine needle aspiration of the axillary nodes

      Explanation:

      Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) cytology of axillary lymph nodes is a simple, minimally invasive technique that can be used to improve preoperative determination of the status of the axillary lymph nodes in patients with breast cancer, thereby serving as a tool with which to triage patients for sentinel versus full lymph node dissection procedures. FNA of axillary lymph nodes is a sensitive and very specific method with which to detect metastasis in breast cancer patients. Because of its excellent positive predictive value, full axillary lymph node dissection can be planned safely instead of a sentinel lymph node dissection when a preoperative positive FNA result is rendered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      383.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect: ...

    Correct

    • Injury to the supraspinatus muscle will affect:

      Your Answer: Initiation of abduction of the humerus

      Explanation:

      This muscle arises from the medial two-thirds of the supraspinatus fossa and from the supraspinatus fascia. It is inserted into the highest impression on the greater tubercle of the humerus after passing over the upper part of the shoulder joint. It works with the deltoid to raise the arm from the side of the trunk and initiate abduction. It also assists in fixation of the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      155
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Skin infiltration by neoplastic T lymphocytes is seen in: ...

    Correct

    • Skin infiltration by neoplastic T lymphocytes is seen in:

      Your Answer: Mycosis fungoides

      Explanation:

      Mycosis fungoides is a chronic T-cell lymphoma that involves the skin and less commonly, the internal organs such as nodes, liver, spleen and lungs. It is usually diagnosed in patients above 50 years and the average life expectancy is 7-10 years. It is insidious in onset and presents as a chronic, itchy rash, eventually spreading to involve most of the skin. Lesions are commonly plaque-like, but can be nodular or ulcerated. Symptoms include fever, night sweats and weight loss. Skin biopsy is diagnostic. However, early cases may pose a challenge due to fewer lymphoma cells. The malignant cells are mature T cells (T4+, T11+, T12+). The epidermis shows presence of characteristic Pautrier’s micro abscesses are present in the epidermis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 62-year-old male smoker, presented with shortness of breath, chronic cough and haemoptysis...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male smoker, presented with shortness of breath, chronic cough and haemoptysis over the last three months. He has developed a fat pad in the base of his neck, rounded face, acne and osteoporosis. Which of the following is the most likely pulmonary disease that is causing these symptoms and findings?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Small-cell anaplastic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Small cell lung cancer is a highly aggressive form of lung cancer. It is thought to originate from neuroendocrine cells in the bronchus called Feyrter cells and is often associated to ectopic production of hormones like ADH and ACTH that result in paraneoplastic syndromes and Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      88.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 41-year-old man presents with a newly pigmented lesion on his right shin,...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old man presents with a newly pigmented lesion on his right shin, which has been increasing in size. On examination, the lesion has regular borders and normal-appearing skin appendages.What should be the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Excision biopsy

      Explanation:

      Lesions bearing normal dermal appendages and regular borders are likely to be benign pigmented naevi. Therefore diagnostic and not radical excision is indicated. Incision biopsy should not be done.

      Melanocytic naevi are pigmented moles. Some moles are present at birth or appear within the first two years of life. These are known as congenital melanocytic naevi. Most develop during childhood and early adult life and are, consequently, called acquired melanocytic naevi. The number of moles increase up to the age of 30–40. Thereafter, the number of naevi tend to decrease. New moles appearing in adulthood need to be monitored and checked if growing or changing. Moles can be found anywhere on the skin, including on the hands and feet, genitals, eyes, and scalp.

      There are three main types of acquired melanocytic naevi:
      1. Junctional melanocytic naevi: flat and usually circular.
      2. Compound melanocytic naevi: raised brown bumps most of which are hairy, some have a slightly warty surface.
      3. Intradermal melanocytic naevi: raised and often hairy bumps, similar to compound naevi but more pale coloured (often skin-coloured).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Skin Lesions
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A young man is hit in the head with a bar stool and...

    Incorrect

    • A young man is hit in the head with a bar stool and is rushed to the A&E department. On arrival, he opens his eyes in response to pain, his only verbal responses are in the form of groans and grunts. He flexes his forearms away from the painful stimuli when it is applied. Calculate his Glasgow coma score.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 8

      Explanation:

      Answer: 8

      Eye Opening Response
      Spontaneous–open with blinking at baseline – 4 points
      Opens to verbal command, speech, or shout – 3 points
      Opens to pain, not applied to face – 2 point
      None – 1 point

      Verbal Response
      Oriented – 5 points
      Confused conversation, but able to answer questions – 4 points
      Inappropriate responses, words discernible – 3 points
      Incomprehensible speech – 2 points
      None – 1 point

      Motor Response
      Obeys commands for movement – 6 points
      Purposeful movement to painful stimulus – 5 points
      Withdraws from pain – 4 points
      Abnormal (spastic) flexion, decorticate posture – 3 points
      Extensor (rigid) response, decerebrate posture – 2 points
      None – 1 point

      He opens his eyes to pain and groans or grunts. He flexes his forearms away from the painful stimuli This gives him a Glasgow score of 8: eye opening response of 2, verbal response 2 and motor response 4.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A retroperitoneal structure is: ...

    Incorrect

    • A retroperitoneal structure is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      Retroperitoneal structures are those that are found behind the peritoneum. They include: kidneys, suprarenal glands, bladder, ureter, inferior vena cava, rectum, oesophagus (part of it), part of the pancreas, 2nd, 3rd and 4th parts of the duodenum and ascending and descending parts of the colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 37 year old firefighter notices a swelling in his left hemiscrotum and...

    Incorrect

    • A 37 year old firefighter notices a swelling in his left hemiscrotum and visits his family doctor. A left sided varicocele was noticed when he was examined. The ipsilateral testis is normal on palpation. Which of the following would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Abdominal Ultrasound is the imaging method of choice for varicocele.
      A varicocele is abnormal dilation and enlargement of the scrotal venous pampiniform plexus which drains blood from each testicle. While usually painless, varicoceles are clinically significant because they are the most commonly identified cause of abnormal semen analysis, low sperm count, decreased sperm motility, and abnormal sperm morphology. Varicoceles are far more common (80% to 90%) in the left testicle. If a left varicocele is identified, there is a 30% to 40% probability it is a bilateral condition.

      There are three theories as to the anatomical cause:

      – The Nutcracker effect which occurs when the left internal spermatic vein gets caught between the superior mesenteric artery and the aorta. This entrapment causes venous compression and spermatic vein obstruction.
      – Failure of the anti-reflux valve where the internal spermatic vein joins the left renal vein. This failure causes reflux and retrograde flow in the testicular vein.
      – Angulation at the juncture of the left internal spermatic vein and the left renal vein.

      Varicoceles are usually asymptomatic. The patient may describe a bag of worms if the varicocele is large enough. Varicoceles present as soft lumps above the testicle, usually on the left side of the scrotum. Patients may sometimes complain of pain or heaviness in the scrotum.
      A sudden onset of varicocele in a man over the age of 30 years requires the exclusion of renal tumours, particularly in elderly patients. In such cases it is necessary to extend diagnostic ultrasonography with abdominal examination. The diagnosis of varicocele is based on medical history and physical examination, which involves palpation and observation of the scrotum at rest and during the Valsalva manoeuvre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Urology
      0
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  • Question 30 - Urine specific gravity allows the assessment of which of the following renal functions?...

    Incorrect

    • Urine specific gravity allows the assessment of which of the following renal functions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Concentration

      Explanation:

      Concentrating ability of kidneys is assessed by measuring the urine specific gravity. Normal values of urine specific gravity fall between 1.002 and 1.030 g/ml.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 40-year old gentleman, who is a known with ulcerative colitis, complains of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old gentleman, who is a known with ulcerative colitis, complains of recent-onset of itching and fatigue. On examination, his serum alkaline phosphatase level was found to be high. Barium radiography of the biliary tract showed a 'beaded' appearance. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      Primary sclerosing cholangitis is characterised by patchy inflammation, fibrosis and strictures in intra- and extra-hepatic bile ducts. It is a chronic cholestatic condition with 80% patients having associated inflammatory bowel disease (likely to be ulcerative colitis). Symptoms include pruritus and fatigue. ERCP (endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography) or MRCP (magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography) are diagnostic. Disease can lead to complete obliteration of ducts, which can result in liver failure. Cholangiocarcinoma is also a recognised complication..

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 29-year-old woman is brought to the A&E department with chest pain after...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman is brought to the A&E department with chest pain after being involved in a road traffic accident. Clinical examination is essentially unremarkable and she is discharged. However, she is subsequently found dead at home. What could have been the most likely underlying injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Traumatic aortic disruption

      Explanation:

      Aortic injuries not resulting in immediate death may be due to a contained haematoma. Clinical signs are subtle, and diagnosis may not be apparent on clinical examination. Without prompt treatment, the haematoma usually bursts and the patient dies.

      Traumatic aortic disruption, or aortic transection, is typically the result of a blunt aortic injury in the context of rapid deceleration. This condition is commonly fatal as blood in the aorta is under great pressure and can quickly escape the vessel through a tear, resulting in rapid haemorrhagic shock and death. A temporary haematoma may prevent the immediate death. Injury to the aorta during a sudden deceleration commonly originates near the terminal section of the aortic arch, also known as the isthmus. This portion lies just distal to the take-off of the left subclavian artery at the intersection of the mobile and fixed portions of the aorta. As many as 80% of the patients with aortic transection die at the scene before reaching a trauma centre for treatment.

      A widened mediastinum may be seen on the X-ray of a person with aortic rupture. Other findings on CXR may include:
      1. Deviation of trachea/oesophagus to the right
      2. Depression of left main stem bronchus
      3. Widened paratracheal stripe/paraspinal interfaces
      4. Obliteration of space between aorta and pulmonary artery
      5. Rib fracture/left haemothorax

      Diagnosis can be made by angiography, usually CT aortogram.

      Treatment options include repair or replacement. The patient should, ideally, undergo endovascular repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 33 - A 53-year-old male undergoes an elective right hemicolectomy. A stapled ileocolic anastomosis is...

    Incorrect

    • A 53-year-old male undergoes an elective right hemicolectomy. A stapled ileocolic anastomosis is constructed. Eight hours later he becomes tachycardic and passes approximately 600ml of dark red blood per rectum. Which of the following processes is the most likely explanation for what happened?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anastomotic staple line bleeding

      Explanation:

      Complications related to stapled anastomoses include bleeding, device failure, and anastomotic failure, which include stricture or leak.
      Stricture: Patient discomfort, need for additional procedures
      Bleeding: Hemodynamic implications, difficult intraoperative visualization
      Anastomotic leak: Increase in local recurrence, decreased overall survival, sepsis, need for diverting ostomy, increased hospital cost, increased use of hospital resources, decreased quality of life.
      Anastomotic bleeding is a common complication of stapled anastomoses, and it can lead to hemodynamic instability and anaemia, sometimes requiring transfusion or additional procedures. To this end, there are efforts aimed at reducing staple line haemorrhage by using buttressing techniques.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
      0
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  • Question 34 - A 29 year old female bus driver presents to her family doctor with...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old female bus driver presents to her family doctor with severe retrosternal chest pain and recurrent episodes of dysphagia. She states that these occur at irregular intervals and often resolve spontaneously. There are no physical abnormalities on examination and she seems well. What is her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      Answer: Achalasia

      Achalasia is a primary oesophageal motility disorder characterized by the absence of oesophageal peristalsis and impaired relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LES) in response to swallowing. The LES is hypertensive in about 50% of patients. These abnormalities cause a functional obstruction at the gastroesophageal junction (GEJ).
      Symptoms of achalasia include the following:

      Dysphagia (most common)

      Regurgitation

      Chest pain (behind the sternum)

      Heartburn

      Weight loss

      Physical examination is non-contributory.

      Treatment recommendations are as follows:

      Initial therapy should be either graded pneumatic dilation (PD) or laparoscopic surgical myotomy with a partial fundoplication in patients fit to undergo surgery

      Procedures should be performed in high-volume centres of excellence

      Initial therapy choice should be based on patient age, sex, preference, and local institutional expertise

      Botulinum toxin therapy is recommended for patients not suited to PD or surgery

      Pharmacologic therapy can be used for patients not undergoing PD or myotomy and who have failed botulinum toxin therapy (nitrates and calcium channel blockers most common).

      The invasion of the oesophageal neural plexus by the tumour can cause nonrelaxation of the LES, thus mimicking achalasia. This condition is known as malignant pseudo achalasia. Since contrast radiography and endoscopy frequently fail to differentiate these 2 entities, patients with a presumed diagnosis of achalasia but who have a shorter duration of symptoms, greater weight loss, and a more advanced age and who are referred for minimally invasive surgery should undergo additional imaging studies, including endoscopic ultrasound and computed tomography with fine cuts of the gastroesophageal junction, to rule out cancer.

      Effort rupture of the oesophagus, or Boerhaave syndrome, is a spontaneous perforation of the oesophagus that results from a sudden increase in intraoesophageally pressure combined with negative intrathoracic pressure (e.g., severe straining or vomiting). The classic clinical presentation of Boerhaave syndrome usually consists of repeated episodes of retching and vomiting, typically in a middle-aged man with recent excessive dietary and alcohol intake.

      These repeated episodes of retching and vomiting are followed by a sudden onset of severe chest pain in the lower thorax and the upper abdomen. The pain may radiate to the back or to the left shoulder. Swallowing often aggravates the pain.

      Typically, hematemesis is not seen after oesophageal rupture, which helps to distinguish it from the more common Mallory-Weiss tear.

      Swallowing may precipitate coughing because of the communication between the oesophagus and the pleural cavity. Shortness of breath is a common complaint and is due to pleuritic pain or pleural effusion.

      A pulmonary embolism is a blood clot that occurs in the lungs.

      It can damage part of the lung due to restricted blood flow, decrease oxygen levels in the blood, and affect other organs as well. Large or multiple blood clots can be fatal.
      The most common symptom of a pulmonary embolism is shortness of breath. This may be gradual or sudden.

      Other symptoms of a pulmonary embolism include:
      anxiety
      clammy or bluish skin
      chest pain that may extend into your arm, jaw, neck, and shoulder
      fainting
      irregular heartbeat
      light-headedness
      rapid breathing
      rapid heartbeat
      restlessness
      spitting up blood
      weak pulse

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      0
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  • Question 35 - A 40-year-old man is brought to the A&E department in an unconscious state,...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man is brought to the A&E department in an unconscious state, following a car collision. He was driving at a high speed of 140 km/hr, wearing a seat belt, when his car collided with a brick wall. CT scan of the brain appears to be normal. However, he remains in a persistent vegetative state. What is the most likely underlying cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diffuse axonal injury

      Explanation:

      This is a case of diffuse axonal injury (DAI) which occurs when the head is rapidly accelerated or decelerated.

      DAI is a form of traumatic brain injury which occurs when the brain rapidly shifts inside the skull as an injury is occurring. The long connecting fibres in the brain called axons are sheared as the brain rapidly accelerates and decelerates inside the hard bone of the skull. There are two components of DAI:
      1. Multiple haemorrhages
      2. Diffuse axonal damage in the white matter

      Up to two-thirds of the changes occurs at the junction of the grey and white matter due to the different densities of the tissue. These are mainly histological and axonal damage is secondary to biochemical cascades. Often, there are no signs of a fracture or contusion. DAI typically causes widespread injury to the brain leading to loss of consciousness. The changes in the brain are often very tiny and can be difficult to detect using CT or MRI scans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Regarding the extensor retinaculum of the wrist, which of these is CORRECT? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the extensor retinaculum of the wrist, which of these is CORRECT?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It prevents the tendons of the posterior compartment of the forearm from ‘bowstringing’ when the hand is extended at the wrist

      Explanation:

      This extensor retinaculum, as the name indicates, holds the tendons of the extensors against the dorsal surface of the distal radius and ulna. Therefore, the correct answer is that it prevents bowstringing of the extensor tendons with wrist extension. It forms compartments between it and its bony attachment, and these compartments guide and hold the tendons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a true statement regarding the pupil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phentolamine causes pupil constriction

      Explanation:

      A balance between the sympathetic tone to the radial fibres of the iris and parasympathetic tone to the pupillary sphincter muscle determines the pupil size. Phentolamine (α-adrenergic receptor blocker) causes pupillary constriction. Dilatation of the pupil occurs with increased sympathetic activity, decreased parasympathetic activity during darkness or block of muscarinic receptors by atropine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 26-year-old male falls and hits his head against a wall. There is...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male falls and hits his head against a wall. There is a brief loss of consciousness. When assessed in accident and emergency he is alert and orientated with a GCS of 15. Imaging shows no fracture of the skull. What is his risk of having an intracranial haematoma that requires removal?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 in 6000

      Explanation:

      Risk of haematoma (requiring removal) in adults attending accident and emergency units following head injury.

      Risk Factor Risk of haematoma
      Oriented, no skull fracture 1 in 5983
      Not oriented, no skull fracture 1 in 121
      Skull fracture, Orientated 1 in 32
      Skull fracture, Not orientated 1 in 4

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - In multiple myeloma, which of these cell types confirms the diagnosis when found...

    Incorrect

    • In multiple myeloma, which of these cell types confirms the diagnosis when found in a smear of bone marrow aspirate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plasma cells

      Explanation:

      A bone marrow aspiration is the diagnostic test for multiple myeloma, which is a malignant bone tumour that usually affects older adults. The smear reveals clusters of plasma cells, while X-rays tend to show circumscribed lytic lesions or diffuse demineralisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 47-year-old male smoker, who had been self-medicating with oral steroids for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old male smoker, who had been self-medicating with oral steroids for the last two years due to persistent breathlessness presented to the doctor complaining of a productive cough, fever and chest pain. A chest X-ray revealed bilateral patchy opacities. He was diagnosed with bilateral bronchopneumonia. Which of these organisms is most probably causing these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nocardia asteroides

      Explanation:

      Nocardia is a Gram-positive aerobic actinomycete. Several species have been identified but the most common human pathogen is Nocardia asteroides. The predominant clinical finding in the majority of patients affected by nocardiosis is pulmonary disease. Predisposing factors for pulmonary nocardiosis include leukaemia, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, organ transplantation, diabetes and receiving prolonged corticosteroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - An 18 year old military recruit complains of sudden onset of severe pain...

    Incorrect

    • An 18 year old military recruit complains of sudden onset of severe pain in the forefoot after several weeks of training exercises. Examination shows tenderness along the second metatarsal and an x-ray done indicates the presence of callus surrounding the shaft of the second metatarsal. What is his diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stress fracture

      Explanation:

      Answer: Stress fracture

      A stress fracture is caused by repetitive and submaximal loading of the bone, which eventually becomes fatigued and leads to a true fracture. The typical presentation is a complaint of increasing pain in the lower extremity during exercise or activity. The patient’s history usually reveals a recent increase in either training volume or intensity. Stress fractures result from recurrent and repetitive loading of bone. The stress fracture differs from other types of fractures in that in most cases, no acute traumatic event precedes the symptoms.

      Normal bone remodelling occurs secondary to increased compressive or tensile loads or increased load frequency. In the normal physiologic response, minor microdamage of the bone occurs. This is repaired through remodelling. Stress fractures develop when extensive microdamage occurs before the bone can be adequately remodelled.
      Common findings on physical examination may include tenderness or pain on palpation or percussion of the bone. Erythema or oedema may be present at the site of the stress fracture. Loading or stress of the affected bone may also produce symptoms.

      A stress fracture can be difficult to see on an X-ray, because the bone often appears normal in the X-ray, and the small cracks can’t be seen. X-rays may not help diagnose a stress fracture unless it has started to heal. When the bone starts to heal, it creates a callus, or lump, that can be seen on X-rays. The doctors may recommend a bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), which is more sensitive than an X-ray and can spot stress fractures early.

      Freiberg disease is a degenerative process involving the epiphyses resulting in osteonecrosis of subchondral cancellous bone. If the process is altered in such a way as to restore normal physiology, this may be followed by regeneration or recalcification. If not, the process continues to subchondral collapse and eventual fragmentation of the joint surface.
      Patients who have Freiberg disease typically present with complaints of activity-related forefoot pain. Walking alone is often sufficient to cause pain. Some patients describe an extended (months to years) history of chronic forefoot pain with episodic exacerbation, whereas others present with pain of recent onset that is related to a specific injury or event. A history of trauma may not be noted. Patients may present with stiffness and a limp. The pain is often vague and poorly localized to the forefoot. Some patients describe the sensation of a small, hard object under the foot.

      Physical examination typically reveals a limited range of motion (ROM), swelling, and tenderness with direct palpation of the metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint. In early stages of the disease, MTP tenderness may be the only finding. In later stages, crepitus or deformity may be present. A skin callus may be seen on the plantar surface of the affected metatarsal head.

      Radiography
      Depending on the stage of the disease, radiographs may show only sclerosis and widening of the joint space (early), with complete collapse of the metatarsal head and fragmentation later. Osteochondral loose bodies may be seen late in the disease as well. Oblique views may be especially useful for achieving a full appreciation of subtle changes early in the disease. One study advocated the use of radiographs to assess musculoskeletal foot conditions in women related to poorly fitting shoes.
      Occasionally, patients are completely asymptomatic, with changes noted on radiographs taken for other reasons. Whether these patients later develop symptomatic Freiberg disease is not known.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      0
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  • Question 42 - A 3 year old boy is awaiting surgery for a ruptured appendix and...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 year old boy is awaiting surgery for a ruptured appendix and the nurse wants to give him an infusion of intravenous fluid whilst waiting for theatre. Given that his electrolytes are normal, which of the following infusion fluid would be appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 0.9% Saline solution

      Explanation:

      Indications for IV fluids include:
      – Resuscitation and circulatory support
      – Replacing on-going fluid losses
      – Maintenance fluids for children for whom oral fluids are not appropriate
      – Correction of electrolyte disturbances

      According to the NICE guidelines, if children and young people need IV fluid resuscitation, use glucose‑free crystalloids that contain sodium in the range 131–154 mmol/litre, with a bolus of 20 ml/kg over less than 10 minutes. Take into account pre‑existing conditions (for example, cardiac disease or kidney disease), as smaller fluid volumes may be needed.

      All the others are contraindicated according to the guidelines as they are either made of glucose or are colloids.
      Gelofusine is a 4% w/v solution of succinylated gelatine (also known as modified fluid gelatine) used as an intravenous colloid, and behaves much like blood filled with albumins.
      Dextrose solution is a mixture of dextrose (glucose) and water. It is used to treat low blood sugar or water loss without electrolyte loss. Intravenous sugar solutions are in the crystalloid family of medications. They come in a number of strengths including 5%, 10%, and 50% dextrose.
      0.45% saline/ 5% glucose solution also contains glucose hence it is contraindicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Postcentral gyrus

      Explanation:

      The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the postcentral gyrus and is the largest cortical receiving area for information from somatosensory receptors. Through corticocortical fibres, it then sends the information to other areas of the neocortex and further analysis takes place in the posterior parietal association cortex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 26-year-old female sought consultation due to excessive vaginal discharge. Vaginal smear showed...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female sought consultation due to excessive vaginal discharge. Vaginal smear showed numerous bacilli under the microscope. The organism was non-pathogenic. What is the most likely organism:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lactobacillus species

      Explanation:

      Lactobacillus is a Gram-positive facultative bacteria. It is commonly present in the vagina and the gastrointestinal tract. Colonization of Lactobacillus is usually benign and it makes up a small portion of the gastrointestinal flora.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 26 year old lady slips in her house and lands on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old lady slips in her house and lands on her right arm. She has anatomical snuffbox tenderness but no x-rays either at the time or subsequently have shown evidence of a scaphoid fracture. She has been immobilised in a futura splint for two weeks and is now asymptomatic. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discharge with reassurance

      Explanation:

      The College of Emergency Medicine states that the patient should be discharged with no follow-up required if the patient presents with anatomical snuffbox tenderness and plain radiographs show no fracture when done initially and after when wrist splint has been used.

      A scaphoid fracture is a break of the scaphoid bone in the wrist. Symptoms generally includes pain at the base of the thumb which is worse with use of the hand. The anatomic snuffbox is generally tender and swelling may occur. Complications may include non-union of the fracture, avascular necrosis, and arthritis.

      Scaphoid fractures are most commonly caused by a fall on an outstretched hand. Diagnosis is generally based on examination and medical imaging. Some fractures may not be visible on plain X-rays. In such cases a person may be casted with repeat X-rays in two weeks or an MRI or bone scan may be done.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of...

    Incorrect

    • A blood sample from a patient with polycythaemia vera will show which of the following abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High platelet count

      Explanation:

      Polycythaemia is a condition that results in an increase in the total number of red blood cells (RBCs) in the blood. It can be due to a myeloproliferative syndrome, chronically low oxygen levels or rarely malignancy. In primary polycythaemia/ polycythaemia vera the increase is due to an abnormality in the bone marrow, resulting in increased RBCs, white blood cells (WBCs) and platelets. In secondary polycythaemia the increase occurs due to high levels of erythropoietin either artificially or naturally. The increase is about 6-8 million/cm3 of blood. A type of secondary polycythaemia is physiological polycythaemia where people living in high altitudes who are exposed to hypoxic conditions produce more erythropoietin as a compensatory mechanism for thin oxygen and low oxygen partial pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man undergoes tests to determine his renal function. His results over a period of 24 hours were: Urine flow rate: 2. 0 ml/min, Urine inulin: 1.0 mg/ml, Plasma inulin: 0.01 mg/ml, Urine urea: 260 mmol/l, Plasma urea: 7 mmol/l. What is the glomerular filtration rate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 200 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the volume of fluid filtered from the renal (kidney) glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time. GFR is equal to the inulin clearance because inulin is freely filtered into Bowman’s capsule but is not reabsorbed or secreted. The clearance (C) of any substance can be calculated as follows: C = (U × V)/P, where U and P are the urine and plasma concentrations of the substance, respectively and V is the urine flow rate. Thus, glomerular filtration rate = (1.0 × 2. 0)/0.01 = 200 ml/min.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - Which of the following tumours has the best prognosis following surgery? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following tumours has the best prognosis following surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schwannoma

      Explanation:

      Schwannomas are histologically benign neoplasms that arise from nerve sheaths, most commonly from sensory nerve roots. They are generally contained within a capsule, and so can be surgically removed without injuring the associated nerve root. They are histologically benign and less than 1% become malignant.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 70-year old man had had a large indirect inguinal hernia for 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year old man had had a large indirect inguinal hernia for 3 years. He presents at the out patient clinic complaining of pain in the scrotum. There is, however, no evidence of obstruction or inflammation. You conclude that the hernial sac is most probably compressing the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Explanation:

      The ilioinguinal nerve arises together with the iliohypogastric nerve from the first lumbar nerve to emerge from the lateral border of the psoas major muscle just below the iliohypogastric and passing obliquely across the quadratus lumborum and iliacus muscles. It perforates the transversus abdominis, near the anterior part of the iliac crest and communicates with the iliohypogastric nerve between the internal oblique and the transversus. It then pierces the internal oblique to distribute filaments to it and accompanying the spermatic cord through the subcutaneous inguinal ring, is distributed to the skin of the upper and medial parts of the thigh, the skin over the root of the penis and the upper part of the scrotum in man and to the skin covering the mons pubis and labium majus in the woman. As the ilioinguinal nerve runs through the inguinal canal, it could easily be compressed by a hernial sac.
      The femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve provides sensory innervation of the upper medial thigh.
      The femoral nerve innervates the compartment of the thigh and also has some cutaneous sensory branches to the thigh.
      The iliohypogastric nerve innervates the skin of the lower abdominal wall, upper hip and upper thigh. The subcostal nerve innervates the skin of the anterolateral abdominal wall and the anterior scrotal nerve is a terminal branch of the ilioinguinal nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 50 - A 55-year-old woman died 3 years after a cardiac transplant due to worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman died 3 years after a cardiac transplant due to worsening congestive heart failure. Autopsy revealed diffuse hyperplasia of the vascular intima involving the entire length of the coronary arteries. The most probable cause of deterioration of the cardiac function is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Allograft coronary artery disease (CAD) can begin right after the transplant and is the major cause of later death in cardiac transplant recipients. This form of atherosclerosis progresses quickly resulting in allograft failure. Due to lack of premonitory symptoms CAD may lead to sudden death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 51 - A sexually active 21 year old man presents with the history of dysuria...

    Incorrect

    • A sexually active 21 year old man presents with the history of dysuria for the past 3 days. Urine culture confirmed Neisseria gonorrhoeae and smear showed abundant neutrophils. Which of the following mediators is responsible for causing diapedesis of the neutrophils to reach the site of infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complement C5a

      Explanation:

      C5a is part of the complement cascade and is released frim the complement C5. It acts as a chemotactic factor for neutrophils. Other chemotactic mediators are TNF, leukotrienes and bacterial products.
      Bradykinin is associated with the production of pain and vasodilation.
      Hageman factor is a clotting factor.
      Histamine causes vasodilation.
      C3B causes opsonisation.
      IL-6 and IL-12 are inflammatory mediators causing B cell maturation and mediating inflammation and prostaglandins are involved with pain, increasing cell permeability and vasodilation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 52 - A 55-year-old male with a history of Type I diabetes mellitus and hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male with a history of Type I diabetes mellitus and hypertension undergoes an uncomplicated anterior resection for rectal malignancy. Three days after his operation, he describes faintness while walking to the toilet in the morning. His vital signs include a blood pressure of 78/55 mmHg, heart rate of 130/min and respiratory rate of 27/min. His oxygen saturation is normal. A finger-prick glucose check shows a value of 18 mmol/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      Postoperative hypertension, arrhythmias, and heart failure commonly occur in the first 2 days after surgery, but the risk of myocardial infarction persists for at least 5 or 6 days after surgery.
      ECG should be done to exclude it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 53 - What is the basic chemical reaction that takes place in the breakdown of...

    Incorrect

    • What is the basic chemical reaction that takes place in the breakdown of complex foodstuffs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrolysis

      Explanation:

      Breakdown of complex food into simpler compounds is achieved by hydrolysis, with the help of different enzymes specific for different compounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 54 - Which of the following is responsible for the activation of pepsinogen released in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is responsible for the activation of pepsinogen released in the stomach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acid pH and pepsin

      Explanation:

      Pepsinogen is the inactive precursor of pepsin. Once secreted, it comes in contact with hydrochloric acid and pepsin, previously formed, and undergoes cleavage to form active pepsin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 55 - Which of the following statements is true of Colles’ fracture? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true of Colles’ fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is a cause of carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Colles’ fracture is a distal fracture of the radius that is a known cause of carpal tunnel syndrome (compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel). It rarely results in ulnar nerve compression. A Colles’ fracture is extra-articular and does not extend into the wrist joint, otherwise this would make it an intra-articular fracture (Barton’s fracture). The distal fragment in a Colles’ fracture is displaced dorsally, unlike in a Smith’s fracture where the distal fragment is displaced volarly (ventrally). Associated fracture of the ulnar styloid process may occur and is a common associated injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 56 - A 30 year old man suffered severe blood loss, approx. 20-30% of his...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old man suffered severe blood loss, approx. 20-30% of his blood volume. What changes are most likely seen in the pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) and pulmonary artery pressure (PAP) respectively following this decrease in cardiac output?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase Decrease

      Explanation:

      Hypovolemia will result in the activation of the sympathetic adrenal discharge resulting is a decrease pulmonary artery pressure and an elevated pulmonary vascular resistance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 57 - A 6 year old boy is brought to the ER after being hit...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 year old boy is brought to the ER after being hit by a car. He is hemodynamically unstable with bilateral femoral shaft fractures and a suspicion of splenic rupture. Despite having thoroughly explained the risks, the parents have refused blood transfusions and any invasive measures on account of religious beliefs. What would be the most appropriate response by the physician?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proceed with treatment

      Explanation:

      In an emergency, where consent cannot be obtained, doctors should provide medical treatment that is in the patient’s best interests and is immediately necessary to save a life or avoid significant deterioration in the patient’s health. There is clearly insufficient time here to apply to a court. The GMC and common law advises that emergency life saving treatment can be given to a child irrespective of the parents views.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Management And Legal Issues In Surgery
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 58 - A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy...

    Incorrect

    • A patient had sudden complete loss of vision of the right eye. Fundoscopy showed the distinct cherry red spot on the retina. Which of the following arteries was occluded?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Central artery of the retina

      Explanation:

      The central retinal artery supplies all the nerve fibres that form the optic nerve, which carries the visual information to the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus. Thus if the central retinal artery gets occluded, there is complete loss of vision in that eye and the entire retina (with the exception of the fovea) becomes pale, swollen and opaque while the central fovea still appears reddish (this is because the choroid colour shows through). This is the basis of the famous Cherry red spot seen on examination of the retina on fundoscopy of a central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 59 - A ‘claw hand’ is usually associated with injury to which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A ‘claw hand’ is usually associated with injury to which of the following nerves?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      A ‘claw hand’ is associated with injury to the ulnar nerve at the wrist affecting the interossei, lumbricals and hypothenar muscles of the hand. It is characterized by hypothenar eminence wasting, hyperextended metacarpophalangeal joints and flexed interphalangeal joints.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 60 - Which of the following foramina will the ophthalmic artery pass through in order...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following foramina will the ophthalmic artery pass through in order to reach the eye?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Optic canal

      Explanation:

      The optic foramen is the opening to the optic canal. The canal is located in the sphenoid bone; it is bounded medially by the body of the sphenoid and laterally by the lesser wing of the sphenoid. The superior surface of the sphenoid bone is bounded behind by a ridge, which forms the anterior border of a narrow, transverse groove, the chiasmatic groove (optic groove). The groove ends on either side in the optic foramen, which transmits the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery into the orbital cavity. Compared to the optic nerve, the ophthalmic artery is located inferolaterally within the canal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 61 - Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal...

    Incorrect

    • Following a fracture in the fibula, an artery contained in a fibrous canal between tibialis posterior and flexor hallucis longus was lacerated. Which of the following arteries was injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peroneal

      Explanation:

      The peroneal artery is deeply seated at the back of the fibular side of the leg, contained in a fibrous canal between the tibialis posterior and the flexor hallucis longus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 62 - A 56 year old female is placed on Tamoxifen for the treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • A 56 year old female is placed on Tamoxifen for the treatment of ER-positive breast cancer. Which malignancy is associated with Tamoxifen use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      A meta-analysis found that there was a twofold increase in the risk of endometrial cancer following extended versus standard adjuvant tamoxifen therapy in patients with breast cancer.
      The systematic review of four randomized controlled trials showed that the absolute risk of endometrial cancer in patients receiving adjuvant tamoxifen for 10 years was 3.2% compared with 1.5% in patients receiving 5-year standard therapy (cumulative risk ratio [RR] 2.29, 1.60 to 3.28, P<0.001).
      The breast cancer treatment tamoxifen (sometimes called by its brand name, Nolvadex) increases the risk of developing endometrial cancer, but not nearly enough to outweigh its benefits against breast cancer in most women. This risk occurs because of the way tamoxifen works: Even as it acts against the growth-promoting effects of the female hormone oestrogen in breast tissue, it acts like an oestrogen in other tissues, such as the bones and the uterus. This can be good news for the bones because oestrogen helps preserve bone density, but it may slightly increase the risk of cancer in the uterus. According to the American Cancer Society, the risk of developing endometrial cancer from tamoxifen is about 1 in 500 — a small risk, but higher than that for women in the general population. Tamoxifen also slightly increases the risk of uterine sarcoma, a cancer that begins in the muscle of the uterine wall.

      Tamoxifen belongs to a class of medications known as selective oestrogen response modifiers (SERMs). Another SERM called Fareston (chemical name: toremifene) has been found to increase the risk of endometrial hyperplasia, or the overgrowth of cells lining the uterus. Hyperplasia itself is not cancer but can sometimes develop into cancer. Evista (chemical name: raloxifene), another SERM used to lower the risk of breast cancer in high-risk women, does not have oestrogen-like effects on the uterus and does not increase endometrial cancer risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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  • Question 63 - A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that...

    Incorrect

    • A 60 year old female patient who has suffered an embolic stroke that affected her middle cerebral artery as revealed by a CT scan is likely to exhibit which of the following neurologic conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral hemiplegia

      Explanation:

      The middle cerebral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the cerebrum. It continues from the internal carotid artery up into the lateral sulcus. The middle cerebral artery mainly supplies the lateral aspect of the cerebral cortex, anterior aspect of the temporal lobes and the insular cortices.
      Functional areas supplied by this vein are as follows:
      The motor and pre-motor areas
      The somato-sensory
      Auditory areas
      Motor speech
      Sensory speech
      Pre-frontal area
      Occlusion of the middle cerebral artery results in:
      i) A severe contralateral hemiplegia, most marked in the upper extremity and face
      ii) A contralateral sensory impairment worse in the upper part of the body

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 64 - During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to...

    Incorrect

    • During an operation to repair an indirect inguinal hernia, you are asked to indicate the position of the deep inguinal ring. You indicate this as being:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring is near the midpoint of the inguinal ligament, below the anterior superior iliac spine. It is lateral to the inferior epigastric artery. The superficial ring, however, is found above the pubic tubercle. The supravesical fossa is the space between the median and medial umbilical folds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 65 - Routine evaluation of a 38 year old gentleman showed a slightly lower arterial...

    Incorrect

    • Routine evaluation of a 38 year old gentleman showed a slightly lower arterial oxygen [pa(O2)] than the alveolar oxygen [pA(O2)]. This difference is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is normal and due to shunted blood

      Explanation:

      Blood that bypasses the ventilated parts of lung and enters the arterial circulation directly is known as shunted blood. It happens in normal people due to mixing of arterial blood with bronchial and some myocardial venous blood (which drains into the left heart). Diffusion limitation and reaction velocity with haemoglobin are immeasurably small. CO2 unloading will not affect the difference between alveolar and arterial p(O2). A large VSD will result in much lower arterial O2 as compared to alveolar O2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 66 - A patient with testicular seminoma has the following tumour markers: LDH 1.3 times...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with testicular seminoma has the following tumour markers: LDH 1.3 times the reference levels, β-hCG 4500 mIU/ml and AFP 875 ng/ml. What's the serum tumour marker stage in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S1

      Explanation:

      According to AJCC guidelines, the serum tumour marker staging is the following:
      S0: marker studies within normal limits
      S1: lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) less than 1.5 times the reference range, beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) <5000 mIU/ml, and alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) <1000 ng/ml
      S2: LDH 1.5–10 times the reference range, β-hCG 5000–50,000 mIU/ml or AFP 1000–10,000 ng/ml
      S3: LDH greater than 10 times the reference range, β-hCG >50,000 mIU/ml or AFP >10,000 ng/ml.
      According to this, the patient’s tumour belongs to the S1 stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 67 - A 26-year-old rugby player falls directly on his right shoulder. He presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old rugby player falls directly on his right shoulder. He presents to the emergency department with pain and swelling of the shoulder joint. The right clavicle is prominent and there appears to be a step deformity. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acromioclavicular joint dislocation

      Explanation:

      Acromioclavicular joint (ACJ) dislocation normally occurs secondary to direct injury to the superior aspect of the acromion. Loss of shoulder contour and prominent clavicle are the key features.

      An ACJ dislocation, or AC separation, is a very frequent injury among physically active people. It is commonly caused by a fall directly on the shoulder or a direct blow received in a contact sport. Disruption of the ACJ results in pain and instability in the entire shoulder and arm. The pain is most severe when the patient attempts overhead movements or tries to sleep on the affected side.

      In general, most AC injuries do not require surgery. There are certain situations, however, in which surgery may be necessary. Most patients recover with full function of the shoulder. The period of disability and discomfort ranges from a few days to 12 weeks depending on the severity of the separation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 68 - A 56-year old male with history of previous abdominal surgery presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year old male with history of previous abdominal surgery presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain that is increasing in intensity. This pain is associated with abdominal distension and faint, high-pitched bowel sounds. An old scar is also noted on the abdomen. An erect abdominal X-ray shows multiple air-fluid levels in dilated bowel loops. No occult blood was found in stool sample. What is the most likely predisposing factor for his present condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adhesions from previous surgery

      Explanation:

      The described features suggest acute bowel obstruction. The scar described points toward previous surgery, which suggests development of peritoneal adhesions that could lead to obstruction. Hepatitis does not lead to dilated bowel loops. Amoebiasis could lead to inflammatory bowel disease, however, occult blood in stool is usually positive. Ileal adenocarcinoma is rare. Meckel’s diverticulum can possibly lea to obstruction but the findings described here are more consistent with obstruction due to peritoneal adhesions from a past surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 69 - A 55- year old male patient with cancer of the head of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 55- year old male patient with cancer of the head of the pancreas was to undergo whipple's operation to have the tumour removed. During the surgery, the surgeon had to ligate the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery to stop blood supply to the head of the pancreas. Which of the following arteries does the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery branch from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery or from the first intestinal branch of the superior mesenteric artery. Once given off, it runs to the right between the pancreatic head and the duodenum and then ascends to form an anastomosis with the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 70 - The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts....

    Incorrect

    • The stomach is an organ that is divided into several important anatomical parts. These parts of the stomach have varied arterial blood supply that ensure that the whole organ receive oxygenated blood. Which of the following arteries if ligated, will not render any portion of the stomach ischaemic?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior mesenteric

      Explanation:

      The blood supply to the stomach is through the following arteries:
      – The superior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the lower part of the duodenum, pancreas and two-thirds of the transverse colon. Thus ligation of the superior mesenteric artery would not affect the stomach.
      – The right and the left gastroepiploic arteries supply the greater curvature of the stomach – along its edges.
      – The short gastric artery supplies blood to the upper portion of the of the greater curvature and the fundus of the stomach.
      – The gastroduodenal artery supplies blood to the distal part of the stomach (the pyloric sphincter) and the proximal end of the duodenum.
      – The left gastroepiploic and the short gastric are branches of the splenic artery and therefore ligation of the splenic artery would directly affect the stomach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 71 - A 45-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department due to fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman was brought to the emergency department due to fever and chills. She has a history of recurrent UTI and complains of dysuria and urinary frequency. Urinary white blood cell count is >200 cell/high power field. If urine culture is performed, what is the most likely organism that will grow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      The pathogen that most likely causes recurrent urinary tract infection in young women are E. coli, Enterococcus and Staphylococcus saprophyticus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 72 - A 17 year old girl is taken to the hospital with a 10...

    Incorrect

    • A 17 year old girl is taken to the hospital with a 10 hour history of pelvic pain. Her last normal menstrual cycle was 14 days ago and she is otherwise well. Her abdomen was soft with mild suprapubic pain on examination. What is the underlying cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mittelschmerz

      Explanation:

      Answer: Mittelschmerz

      Mittelschmerz is midcycle abdominal pain due to leakage of prostaglandin-containing follicular fluid at the time of ovulation. It is self-limited, and a theoretical concern is treatment of pain with prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors, which could prevent ovulation. The pain of mittelschmerz usually occurs in the lower abdomen and pelvis, either in the middle or to one side. The pain can range from a mild twinge to severe discomfort and usually lasts from minutes to hours. In some cases, a small amount of vaginal bleeding or discharge might occur. Some women have nausea, especially if the pain is very strong.
      Diagnosis of pelvic pain in women can be challenging because many symptoms and signs are insensitive and nonspecific. As the first priority, urgent life-threatening conditions (e.g., ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, ruptured ovarian cyst) and fertility-threatening conditions (e.g., pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian torsion) must be considered.
      Many women never have pain at ovulation. Some women, however, have mid-cycle pain every month, and can tell by the pain that they are ovulating.
      As an egg develops in the ovary, it is surrounded by follicular fluid. During ovulation, the egg and the fluid, as well as some blood, are released from the ovary. While the exact cause of mittelschmerz is not known, it is believed to be caused by the normal enlargement of the egg in the ovary just before ovulation. Also, the pain could be caused by the normal bleeding that comes with ovulation.
      Pelvic inflammatory disease can be ruled out if the patient is not sexually active.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
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  • Question 73 - A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph...

    Incorrect

    • A CT-scan report of a patient with gastric carcinoma shows that the lymph nodes around the coeliac trunk are enlarged. The coeliac trunk:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gives rise to the splenic, left gastric and common hepatic arteries

      Explanation:

      The coeliac trunk is a branch of the aorta arising just below the aortic hiatus of the diaphragm to pass nearly horizontally forward to divide into 3 large branches i.e. the left gastric, the hepatic and the splenic arteries. Occasionally it may give off one of the inferior phrenic arteries. It is covered by the lesser omentum and on the right side bordered by the right coeliac ganglion and the cardiac end of the stomach. Inferiorly it is bordered by the upper border of the pancreas and splenic vein. The embryonic midgut is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 74 - A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp...

    Incorrect

    • A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
      Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
      Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
      Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
      Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 75 - A medical intern wanting to perform her first thoracentesis (remove fluid from the...

    Incorrect

    • A medical intern wanting to perform her first thoracentesis (remove fluid from the pleural cavity) wishes to be reminded where to insert the needle to aspirate in order to avoid injuring the lung or neurovascular elements. Where is this place?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The bottom of interspace 9 in the midaxillary line

      Explanation:

      Thoracentesis is performed in the costodiaphragmatic recess. The needle needs to be inserted below the level of the lungs to avoid injury to the lungs. At the paravertebral line, is between ribs 10 and 12, at the midaxillary line between ribs 8 and 10 and at the midclavicular line between interspaces 6 and 8. The needle should be inserted at the top of the rib (or the bottom of the interspace) to avoid damage to the neurovascular structures found below the rib running in the costal groove.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 76 - A 47-year-old male is referred to a clinic for consideration of resection of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old male is referred to a clinic for consideration of resection of lung malignancy. He reports shortness of breath and haemoptysis. Investigations reveal corrected calcium of 2.84 mmol/l, FEV 1 of 1.9L and histology of squamous cell carcinoma. The patient is noted to have hoarseness of voice. Which one of the following is a contraindication to surgical resection in lung cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vocal cord paralysis

      Explanation:

      The hoarseness of voice implies vocal cord paralysis denoting the spread of malignancy which is a contraindication to surgery.

      Summary of Guidelines on the selection of patients with lung cancer for surgery (Related to this case)

      PART I: FITNESS FOR SURGERY
      Age:
      1. Perioperative morbidity increases with advancing age. Elderly patients undergoing lung resection are more likely to require intensive perioperative support. Preoperatively, a careful assessment of co-morbidity needs to be made.
      2. Surgery for clinically stage I and II disease can be as effective in patients over 70 years as in younger patients. Such patients should be considered for surgical treatment regardless of age.
      3. Age over 80 alone is not a contraindication to lobectomy or wedge resection for clinical stage I disease.
      4. Pneumonectomy is associated with higher mortality risk in the elderly. Age should be a factor in deciding suitability for pneumonectomy.

      Pulmonary function:
      There should be a formal liaison in borderline cases between the referring chest physician and the thoracic surgical team.
      2.No further respiratory function tests are required for a lobectomy if the post-bronchodilator FEV1 is >1.5 litres and for a pneumonectomy, if the post-bronchodilator FEV1 is >2.0 litres, provided that there is no evidence of interstitial lung disease or unexpected disability due to shortness of breath.
      STEP 1
      3.All patients not clearly operable on the basis of spirometry should have: (a) full pulmonary function tests including estimation of transfer factor (TLCO); (b) measurement of oxygen saturation on air at rest; and (c) a quantitative isotope perfusion scan if a pneumonectomy is being considered.
      4.These data should be used to calculate estimated postoperative FEV1 expressed as % predicted and the estimated postoperative TLCO expressed as % predicted, using either the lung scan for pneumonectomy or an anatomical equation for lobectomy, taking account of whether the segments to be removed are ventilated or obstructed.
      STEP 2
      5.(a) Estimated postoperative FEV1 >40% predicted and estimated postoperative TLCO >40% predicted and oxygen saturation (SaO 2) >90% on air: average risk.
      (b)Estimated postoperative FEV1 <40% predicted and estimated postoperative TLCO <40% predicted: high risk.
      (c)All other combinations: consider exercise testing.
      6.Patients for whom the risk of resection is still unclear after step 2 tests should be referred for exercise testing.
      STEP 3
      7.(a) The best distance on two shuttle walk tests of <25 shuttles (250 m) or desaturation during the test of more than 4% SaO 2 indicates a patient is a high risk for surgery.
      (b)Other patients should be referred for a formal cardiopulmonary exercise test. For cardiopulmonary exercise testing peak oxygen consumption (V˙O 2peak) of more than 15 ml/kg/min indicates that a patient is an average risk for surgery.
      (c)A V˙O 2peak of <15 ml/kg/min indicates that a patient is a high risk for surgery. PART II: OPERABILITY
      Diagnosis and staging
      1.All patients being considered for surgery should have a plain chest radiograph and a computed tomographic (CT) scan of the thorax including the liver and adrenal glands.
      2.Confirmatory diagnostic percutaneous needle biopsy in patients presenting with peripheral lesions is not mandatory in patients who are otherwise fit, particularly if there are previous chest radiographs showing no evidence of a lesion.
      3.Patients with mediastinal nodes greater than 1 cm in short-axis diameter on the CT scan should undergo biopsy by staging mediastinoscopy, anterior mediastinotomy, or needle biopsy as appropriate.
      Operability and adjuvant therapy
      1.The proportion of patients found to be inoperable at operation should be 5–10%.
      2.Patients with stage I (cT1N0 and cT2N0) and stage II (cT1N1, cT2N1 and cT3N0) tumours should be considered operable.
      3.Patients with stage I tumours have a high chance and those with stage II tumours a reasonable chance of being cured by surgery alone.
      4.Patients who are known preoperatively to have stage IIIA (cT3N1 and cT1–3N2) tumours have a low chance of being cured by surgery alone but might be considered operable in the context of a trial of surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy.
      5.Participation in prospective trials of multimodality treatment for locally advanced disease is strongly recommended.
      6.Some small individual studies indicate a place for surgery in T4N0 and T4N1 tumours within stage IIIB, few long term data are available. Generally, stage IIIB tumours with node involvement and stage IV tumours should be considered inoperable.
      7.There is no place for postoperative radiotherapy following complete primary tumour resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 77 - A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year-old male patient sustained a sharp blow to the right side of the head, over the temporal region during a vehicular accident. This resulted to the rupture of the principal artery that supplies the meninges. Which artery is affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The middle meningeal artery is typically the third branch of the first part of the maxillary artery, one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. After branching off the maxillary artery in the infratemporal fossa, it runs through the foramen spinosum to supply the dura mater and the calvaria. The middle meningeal artery is the largest of the three (paired) arteries that supply the meninges, the others being the anterior meningeal artery and the posterior meningeal artery. The anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery runs beneath the pterion. It is vulnerable to injury at this point, where the skull is thin. Rupture of the artery may give rise to an epidural hematoma .An injured middle meningeal artery is the most common cause of an epidural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 78 - A 55 year-old construction worker is diagnosed with malignant melanoma. He was exposed...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year-old construction worker is diagnosed with malignant melanoma. He was exposed to what substance which increased his risk in developing mesothelioma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Asbestos

      Explanation:

      Mesothelioma is a rare, aggressive form of cancer that develops in the lining of the lungs, abdomen or heart. It is linked to inhalation of asbestos commonly used in ship building and the insulation industry. It has no known cure and has a very poor prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 79 - A 23-year-old woman decides to donate a kidney through a kidney chain. Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman decides to donate a kidney through a kidney chain. Which of the following indices would be expected to be decreased in the donor after full recovery from the operation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Creatinine clearance

      Explanation:

      Since medication to prevent rejection is so effective, donors do not need to be similar to their recipient. Most donated kidneys come from deceased donors; however, the utilisation of living donors is on the rise. Most problems encountered with live donation are associated with the donor. Firstly, there are the potentially harmful investigative procedures carried out in the assessment phase, the most hazardous being renal angiography, where there is cannulation of the artery and injection of a radio-opaque dye to determine the blood supply to the kidney. Secondly, there are the short-term risks of nephrectomy surgery. According to the literature, there is a mortality rate of between 1 in 1600 and 1 in 3000, but this is no more than is associated with any anaesthetic. In the initial postoperative period creatinine clearance may be decreased but this recovers fully over a few weeks to months. Long-term complications include prolonged wound pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 80 - Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle would be affected most following injury to the transverse cervical artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trapezius

      Explanation:

      The latissimus dorsi receives blood from the thoracodorsal artery, the supraspinatus receives its blood from the suprascapular artery, the levator scapulae and the rhomboids are supplied by the dorsal scapular artery and the transverse cervical artery supplies blood to the trapezius.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 81 - A 20-year-old female presents with a nodule on the posterior aspect of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female presents with a nodule on the posterior aspect of her right calf. It has been present for the past six months and was initially formed at the site of an insect bite. On examination, the overlying skin is faintly pigmented, and the nodule appears small in size. However, on palpation, it appears to be nearly twice the size. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dermatofibroma

      Explanation:

      Dermatofibromas may be pigmented and are often larger than they appear. They frequently occur at the sites of previous trauma.

      Dermatofibromas are small, noncancerous (benign) skin growths that can develop anywhere on the body but most often appear on the lower legs, upper arms, or upper back. These nodules are common in adults but are rare in children. They can be pink, grey, red, or brown in colour and may change colour over the years. They are firm and often feel like a stone under the skin. When pinched from the sides, the top of the growth may dimple inward. These lesions feel larger than they appear visually.

      Dermatofibromas are usually painless, but some people experience tenderness or itching. Most often, a single nodule develops, but some can develop numerous dermatofibromas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Skin Lesions
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  • Question 82 - A 26 year old policewoman is admitted with bloody diarrhoea. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 26 year old policewoman is admitted with bloody diarrhoea. She has been passing 10 stools per day, Hb-8.1, albumin-21. Her stool culture is negative and there is evidence of colitis on endoscopy. She has been on intravenous steroids for 5 days and has now developed megacolon. Her haemoglobin is falling and inflammatory markers are static. Which of the following is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Undertake a sub total colectomy and end ileostomy

      Explanation:

      The operation aims to remove most of your large bowel including the blood supply and associated lymph glands and leave the rectum behind. It is most commonly recommended for inflammatory bowel disease like ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease.

      It is also recommended for other bowel conditions like familial adenomatous polyposis, and when there is more than one bowel cancer.

      In inflammatory bowel disease such as ulcerative colitis the small bowel is brought out to the skin of the tummy as an ileostomy and the remaining bowel (rectum) is closed off and left inside. In other conditions where possible, the two ends of the remaining healthy bowel (small bowel to rectum) are re-joined (an anastomosis). Most
      people therefore do not require a stoma. However some people benefit from having a stoma made depending on circumstances regarding:
      1) Their general state of health (heart disease, lung disease, diabetes, vascular disease, smoking, steroid medications, being undernourished);
      2) Factors which cannot be seen until the surgeon can see inside your tummy (more extensive disease than originally thought, extensive pelvic scarring from previous surgery or other treatment, excessive bleeding).
      Temporary stomas are made to divert faeces away from the join (de-functioning) to give the best chance to heal if there is concern it may be slow to heal.

      Emergency indications for surgical intervention in severe UC include free perforation, haemorrhage or systemic instability. An urgent indication for colectomy is a severe attack that is unresponsive to medical therapy.

      In the setting of severe UC, the procedure of choice is subtotal colectomy and ileostomy. The residual rectal disease is controllable in most patients. In general, there are advantages to the subtotal colectomy approach, including a lower morbidity if pelvic dissection is not performed, preservation of the rectum so that reconstructive procedures can be performed later, and allowing the definitive procedure to be deferred to an optimal situation when the patient is off immunosuppressive medications and has improved nutritional status. Usually, the staged reconstruction with IPAA or definitive total proctocolectomy is performed several months later.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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  • Question 83 - A 65 year old man has colorectal cancer Duke C. What is his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man has colorectal cancer Duke C. What is his 5 year prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Dukes staging and 5 year survival:
      Dukes A – Tumour confined to the bowel but not extending beyond it, without nodal metastasis (95%)
      Dukes B – Tumour invading bowel wall, but without nodal metastasis (75%)
      Dukes C – Lymph node metastases (50%)
      Dukes D – Distant metastases (6%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 84 - What class of drugs does buspirone belong to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What class of drugs does buspirone belong to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anxiolytic

      Explanation:

      Buspirone is an anxiolytic agent and a serotonin-receptor agonist that belongs to the azaspirodecanedione class of compounds. It shows no potential for addiction compared with other drugs commonly prescribed for anxiety, especially the benzodiazepines. The development of tolerance has not been noted. It is primarily used to treat generalized anxiety disorders. It is also commonly used to augment antidepressants in the treatment of major depressive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 85 - A 47-year old-woman diagnosed with pancreatitis presented to the emergency department complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year old-woman diagnosed with pancreatitis presented to the emergency department complaining of a worsening shortness of breath, fever, agitation and cough. Oxygen saturation was 67% in room air. Her respiratory status continued to deteriorate therefore she was intubated. She was admitted to the intensive care unit for management. Chest X-ray demonstrated bilateral perihilar opacities. The patient failed conventional treatment and died several days later. At autopsy, the lung shows growth of type 2 pneumocytes and thickened alveolar walls. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adult respiratory distress syndrome

      Explanation:

      Acute (or adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a life-threatening lung condition characterised by a non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema that leads to acute respiratory failure. The most common risk factors for ARDS include trauma with direct lung injury, sepsis, pneumonia, pancreatitis, burns, drug overdose, massive blood transfusion and shock. Acute onset of dyspnoea with hypoxemia, anxiety and agitation is typical. Chest X ray most commonly demonstrates bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Histological changes include the exudative, proliferative and fibrotic phase. ARDS is mainly a clinical diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 86 - A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 1 day old premature baby boy is observed to be hypotonic and unresponsive. He was born by emergency caesarean section. Which of the following is most likely the cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH) is a complication of premature delivery that can result in life-long medical and developmental consequences. Although GM/IVH can occur in term infants, haemorrhage in this group of infants remains distinct from periventricular haemorrhage (PVH)/IVH of the preterm infant. Several acquired lesions of the central nervous system (CNS) specifically affect infants born prematurely and result in long-term disability, including GM/IVH, periventricular white matter injury (e.g., cystic periventricular leukomalacia [CPVL], periventricular haemorrhagic infarction [PVHI]), haemorrhage, and diffuse injury to the developing brain.
      The physical examination is usually negative in germinal matrix/intraventricular haemorrhage (GM/IVH). Occasionally, severe GM/IVH may present with nonspecific systemic findings suggestive of cardiovascular collapse.

      One subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with the following:
      – A sudden unexplained drop in haematocrit levels
      – Possible physical findings related to anaemia (e.g., pallor, poor perfusion) or haemorrhagic shock

      Another subgroup of infants with GM/IVH presents with extreme signs, including the following:
      – A sudden and significant clinical deterioration associated with anaemia, metabolic acidosis, glucose instability, respiratory acidosis, apnoea, hypotonia, and stupor is present.

      Physical findings related to these signs include poor perfusion, pallor or an ashen colour, irregularities of respiratory pattern, signs of respiratory distress including retractions and tachypnoea, hypotonia, and altered mental status (e.g., decreased responsiveness, coma).

      Additional neurologic signs, such as fullness of the fontanelles, seizures, and posturing, may also be observed. Progression can be rapid and may result in shock and death.

      Extradural haemorrhage also known as an epidural hematoma, is a collection of blood that forms between the inner surface of the skull and outer layer of the dura, which is called the endosteal layer. They are usually associated with a history of head trauma and frequently associated skull fracture. The source of bleeding is usually arterial, most commonly from a torn middle meningeal artery.

      A subdural haemorrhage (or hematoma) is a type of bleeding that often occurs outside the brain as a result of a severe head injury. It takes place when blood vessels burst between the brain and the leather-like membrane that wraps around the brain (the dura mater). The pooling blood creates pressure on the surface of the brain, causing a variety of problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
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  • Question 87 - What is the most likely cause of bilateral gynaecomastia in a 55-year old...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most likely cause of bilateral gynaecomastia in a 55-year old male?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatic failure

      Explanation:

      Hypertrophy of breast tissue in males is known as gynaecomastia. It is normally due to proliferation of stroma and not of mammary ducts. Physiological gynaecomastia can occur during puberty and is often transient, bilateral, symmetrical and possibly tender. Gynaecomastia can occur during old age too, but is usually unilateral. Other causes include hepatic or renal failure, endocrinological disorders, drugs (anabolic steroids, antineoplastic drugs, calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, digitalis, oestrogens, isoniazid, ketoconazole, methadone, metronidazole, reserpine, spironolactone, theophylline), and marijuana. It should not be confused with malignancy which is often hard, asymmetric and fixed to the dermis or fascia. Treatment if indicated, includes withdrawal of the causative factor or treatment of the underlying disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 88 - A 9 year old boy is admitted with right iliac fossa pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 9 year old boy is admitted with right iliac fossa pain and an appendicectomy is to be performed.Which of the following incision is the best for this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lanz

      Explanation:

      Answer: Lanz

      The Lanz and Gridiron incisions are two incisions that can be used to access the appendix, predominantly for appendectomy.

      Both incisions are made at McBurney’s point (two-thirds from the umbilicus to the anterior superior iliac spine). They involve passing through all of the abdominal muscles, transversalis fascia, and then the peritoneum, before entering the abdominal cavity.

      The Lanz incision is a transverse incision, whilst the Gridiron incision is oblique (superolateral to inferomedial). Due to its continuation with Langer’s lines, the Lanz incision produces much more aesthetically pleasing results with reduced scarring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • The Abdomen
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  • Question 89 - The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the: ...

    Incorrect

    • The superior rectal artery is a continuation of the:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The superior rectal artery or superior haemorrhoidal artery is the continuation of the inferior mesenteric artery. It descends into the pelvis between the layers of the mesentery of the sigmoid colon, crossing the left common iliac artery and vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 90 - What is the chief ligament preventing posterior sliding of the tibia on the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the chief ligament preventing posterior sliding of the tibia on the femur ?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior cruciate

      Explanation:

      The posterior cruciate ligament is attached to the posterior intercondyloid fossa of the tibia and the lateral and front part of the medial condyle of the femur. It resists sliding of the tibia posteriorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 91 - An 80 year old woman is undergoing excision of a basal cell carcinoma...

    Incorrect

    • An 80 year old woman is undergoing excision of a basal cell carcinoma from her periorbital region under local anaesthesia. Medical history reveals multiple medical comorbities. Which medication should be stopped prior to surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Answer: Aspirin

      Aspirin increases bleeding time when taken orally. Aspirin causes several different effects in the body, mainly the reduction of inflammation, analgesia (relief of pain), the prevention of clotting, and the reduction of fever. Much of this is believed to be due to decreased production of prostaglandins and TXA2. Aspirin’s ability to suppress the production of prostaglandins and thromboxanes is due to its irreversible inactivation of the cyclooxygenase (COX) enzyme. Cyclooxygenase is required for prostaglandin and thromboxane synthesis. Prostaglandins are local chemical messengers that exert multiple effects including but not limited to the transmission of pain information to the brain, modulation of the hypothalamic thermostat, and inflammation. They are produced in response to the stimulation of phospholipids within the plasma membrane of cells resulting in the release of arachidonic acid (prostaglandin precursor). Thromboxanes are responsible for the aggregation of platelets that form blood clots.
      Low-dose, long-term aspirin use irreversibly blocks the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, producing an inhibitory effect on platelet aggregation.

      Antihypertensive and antidiabetic medications do not need to be stopped when a patient is undergoing local anaesthesia. Steroid (Prednisolone) use cannot be stopped abruptly; tapering the drug gives the adrenal glands time to return to their normal patterns of secretion. Withdrawal symptoms and signs (weakness, fatigue, decreased appetite, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal pain) can mimic many other medical problems. Some may be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 92 - A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year old, lactating mother presents to the clinic with a tender, 1.5cm mass just below the right nipple, which shows multiple fissures. What finding is likely associated with her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus infection

      Explanation:

      Breast abscess occur commonly in lactating mothers in the postpartum period due to cracking of the nipple. It is commonly caused due to Staphylococcus aureus infection. Fat necrosis usually results from trauma wherein an ill-defined mass is formed. Ductal carcinomas are malignant masses which are not tender usually, and rare in the young age group. Plasma cell mastitis affect women in an older age group. Sclerosing adenosis is a type of fibrocystic disease which can lead to a tender, cystic mass but no fissuring or cracks are seen in the nipple. Fibroadenoma and lipomas are non-tender, well-defined masses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 93 - A 38 year old man is to undergo excision of the base of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38 year old man is to undergo excision of the base of the prostate for malignant growth, which of the following structures is directly related to the base of the prostate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urinary bladder

      Explanation:

      The prostate is situated in the pelvic cavity and is also located immediately below the internal urethral orifice at the commencement of the urethra. It is held in position by the puboprostatic ligaments, the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm and the anterior portions of the levatores ani. The base of the prostate is directed upward and is attached to the inferior surface of the urinary bladder while the apex is directed downward and is in contact with the superior fascia of the urogenital diaphragm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 94 - Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • Hormones of the anterior pituitary include which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The anterior pituitary gland (adenohypophysis or pars distalis) synthesizes and secretes:
      1. FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)
      2. LH (luteinizing hormone)
      3. Growth hormone
      4. Prolactin
      5. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
      6. TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone).
      The posterior pituitary gland (neurohypophysis) stores and secretes 2 hormones produced by the hypothalamus:
      1. ADH (antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin)
      2. Oxytocin

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 95 - A 48-year-old woman has a mass in her right breast and has right...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman has a mass in her right breast and has right axillary node involvement. She underwent radical mastectomy of her right breast. The histopathology report described the tumour to be 4 cm in its maximum diameter with four axillary lymph nodes with evidence of tumour. The most likely stage of cancer in this patient is:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IIB

      Explanation:

      Stage IIB describes invasive breast cancer in which: the tumour is larger than 2 centimetres but no larger than 5 centimetres; small groups of breast cancer cells — larger than 0.2 millimetre but not larger than 2 millimetres — are found in the lymph nodes OR the tumour is larger than 2 centimetres but no larger than 5 centimetres; cancer has spread to 1 to 3 axillary lymph nodes or to lymph nodes near the breastbone (found during a sentinel node biopsy) OR the tumour is larger than 5 centimetres but has not spread to the axillary lymph nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 96 - A 78-year-old man who has been bedridden for a month is prescribed griseofulvin....

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man who has been bedridden for a month is prescribed griseofulvin. What class of drugs does griseofulvin belong to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antifungal

      Explanation:

      Griseofulvin is an antifungal drug. It is administered orally, and it is used to treat ringworm infections of the skin and nails. It binds to keratin in keratin precursor cells and makes them resistant to fungal infections. Griseofulvin works by interfering with fungal mitosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 97 - The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm,...

    Incorrect

    • The specialist registrar, while performing the repair of an infrarenal abdominal aortic aneurysm, decides not to re-implant the inferior mesenteric artery into the repaired abdominal aorta. She says that an anastomotic artery running along the border of the large intestine is good enough to supply blood to the territory of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which vessel is she referring to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marginal

      Explanation:

      The marginal artery is a key anastomosis for the large intestine that runs around the border of the large intestine and is formed by the anastomosis of the branches of the ileocolic artery, right colic artery, middle colic artery, left colic artery and sigmoid artery. If a small artery is occluded, these branches allow blood to reach all segments of the colon.
      The arcades are anastomotic loops between the arteries that provide alternative pathways for blood flow. They are more prominent in the small intestine than the large intestine.
      Arteriae rectae are small branches that run from the marginal artery to reach the colon.
      The ileocolic artery is the branch of the superior mesenteric artery that supplies the caecum, appendix and terminal part of the ileum.
      The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 98 - The uterine artery arises from the? ...

    Incorrect

    • The uterine artery arises from the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The uterine artery arises from the anterior division of the internal iliac artery and runs medially on the levator ani towards the uterine cervix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 99 - Lack of findings in the bladder but presence of atypical epithelial cells in...

    Incorrect

    • Lack of findings in the bladder but presence of atypical epithelial cells in urinalysis is most often associated with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma of renal pelvis

      Explanation:

      The presence of atypical cells in urinalysis without findings in the bladder suggests a lesion located higher up, most probably in ureters or renal pelvis. Transitional cell cancer of the renal pelvis is a disease in which malignant cells form in the renal pelvis and is characterised by the presence of abnormal cells in urine cytology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 100 - Which of these conditions is mithramycin used for? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these conditions is mithramycin used for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia of malignancy

      Explanation:

      Mithramycin or Plicamycin is a tricyclic pentaglycosidic antibiotic derived from Streptomyces strains. It inhibits RNA and protein synthesis by adhering to DNA. It is used as a fluorescent dye and as an antineoplastic agent. It is also used to reduce hypercalcaemia, especially caused by malignancy. Plicamycin is currently used in multiple areas of research, including cancer cell apoptosis and as a metastasis inhibitor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 101 - A 5 year-old-child with fever complains of sore throat . She was brought...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year-old-child with fever complains of sore throat . She was brought to her paediatrician for consult because she has also developed a rash and has swollen lymph nodes. Upon physical examination she cried when her liver was palpated and the tip of her spleen is slightly palpable. Full blood count shows haemoglobin 13 g/dL, Haematocrit 40%, white blood cell count 13x109/L with a WBC differential count of 45 neutrophils, 4 bands, 26 lymphocytes, 15 atypical lymphocytesm, 10 monocytes and 1 eosinophil. Whick is the most likely infectious agent that is responsible for the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein–Barr virus

      Explanation:

      Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), also known as human herpes virus 4,is a member of the herpes virus family. EBV spreads most commonly through bodily fluids, primarily saliva. EBV can cause infectious mononucleosis. Symptoms of EBV can include fatigue, fever, inflamed throat, swollen lymph nodes in the neck, enlarged spleen, swollen liver and rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 102 - Difficulty in retracting the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male is...

    Incorrect

    • Difficulty in retracting the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male is known as:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phimosis

      Explanation:

      Phimosis is the inability to fully retract the foreskin of the penis in an uncircumcised male. It can be physiological in infancy, in which it could be referred to as ‘developmental non-retractility of the foreskin. However, it is almost always pathological in older children and men. Causes include chronic inflammation (e.g. balanoposthitis), multiple catheterisations, or forceful foreskin retraction. One of the causes is chronic balanitis xerotica obliterans. It leads to development of a ring of indurated tissue near the tip of the prepuce, which prevents retraction. Contributory factors include infections, hormonal and inflammatory factors. The recommended treatment includes circumcision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 103 - Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structure contains the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Edinger–Westphal nucleus

      Explanation:

      The Edinger–Westphal nucleus (accessory oculomotor nucleus) is the parasympathetic pre-ganglionic nucleus that innervates the iris sphincter muscle and the ciliary muscle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 104 - What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin? ...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of cardiac output is delivered to the skin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2%

      Explanation:

      Making up 4-5% of total body weight, the skin receives approximately 2% of cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 105 - A 27-year-old male presents with altered bowel habit. He is known to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male presents with altered bowel habit. He is known to have familial polyposis coli. A colonoscopy shows widespread polyps, with high-grade dysplasia in a polyp removed from the rectum. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Undertake a pan proctocolectomy

      Explanation:

      Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is an autosomal dominant, hereditary colon cancer syndrome that is characterized by the presence of innumerable adenomatous polyps in the colon and rectum. Gardner’s syndrome is a variant of FAP, which in addition to the colonic polyps, also presents extracolonic manifestations, including desmoid tumours, osteomas, epidermoid cysts, various soft tissue tumours, and a predisposition to the thyroid and periampullary cancers.
      Of patients with FAP, 75%-80% have a family history of polyps and/or colorectal cancer at age 40 years or younger.
      Mutations of the APC gene are thought to be responsible for the development of FAP, and the location of the mutation on the gene is thought to influence the nature of the extracolonic manifestations that a given patient might develop.
      Though patients are often asymptomatic, bleeding, diarrhoea, abdominal pain and mucous discharge frequently occur. Diagnostic tools include genetic testing, endoscopy, and monitoring for extra-intestinal manifestations.
      If left untreated, all patients with this syndrome will develop colon cancer by age 35-40 years. Besides, an increased risk exists for the development of other malignancies.
      Currently, surgery is the only effective means of preventing progression to colorectal carcinoma. Restorative proctocolectomy with ileal pouch-anal anastomosis (RPC/IPAA) with mucosectomy is the preferred surgical procedure since it attempts to eliminate all colorectal mucosa without the need for an ostomy. Periampullary carcinoma and intra-abdominal desmoid tumours are a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in these patients after colectomy. Frequent endoscopy is needed to prevent the former, while there is no definitive treatment available yet for the latter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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  • Question 106 - A 57-year-old male smoker noted a lump on his inner lip. Upon physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old male smoker noted a lump on his inner lip. Upon physical examination the lump measured more than 2 cm but less than 4 cm in its greatest dimension. He is diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma of the lip. What is the stage of the patient's cancer according to the TNM staging for head and neck cancers?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T2

      Explanation:

      Head and neck cancer is a group of cancers that starts within the mouth, nose, throat, larynx, sinuses, or salivary glands. The TNM staging system used for head and neck cancers is a clinical staging system that allows physicians to compare results across patients, assess prognosis, and design appropriate treatment regimens. The staging is as follows; Primary tumour (T): Tis: pre-invasive cancer (carcinoma in situ), T0: no evidence of primary tumour, T1: tumour 2 cm or less in its greatest dimension, T2: tumour more than 2 cm but not more than 4 cm, T3: tumour larger than 4 cm, T4: tumour with extension to bone, muscle, skin, antrum, neck, etc and TX: minimum requirements to assess primary tumour cannot be met. Regional lymph node involvement (N): N0: no evidence of regional lymph node involvement, N1: evidence of involvement of movable homolateral regional lymph nodes, N2: evidence of involvement of movable contralateral or bilateral regional lymph nodes, N3: evidence of involvement of fixed regional lymph nodes and NX: Minimum requirements to assess the regional nodes cannot be met. Distant metastases (M): M0: no evidence of distant metastases, M1: evidence of distant metastases and MX: minimum requirements to assess the presence of distant metastases cannot be met. Staging: Stage I: T1 N0 M0, Stage II: T2 N0 M0, Stage III: T2NOMO and T3N1MO, Stage IV: T4N1M0, any TN2M0, any TN3M0, any T and any NM1. The depth of infiltration is predictive of the prognosis. With increasing depth of invasion of the primary tumour, the risk of nodal metastasis increases and survival decreases. The patient in this scenario therefore has a T2 tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 107 - A 31 year old woman presents to the clinic for assessment of varicose...

    Incorrect

    • A 31 year old woman presents to the clinic for assessment of varicose veins that she developed several years ago. Examination reveals marked truncal varicosities with a long tortuous saphenous vein. Which of the following would be the next most appropriate step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange a venous duplex scan

      Explanation:

      Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is the formation of a blood clot in a deep vein of the legs, thigh, or pelvis. Thrombosis is most often seen in individuals with a history of immobilization, obesity, malignancy, or hereditary thrombophilia. Vascular endothelial damage, venous stasis, and hypercoagulability, collectively referred to as the Virchow triad, are the main factors contributing to the development of DVT.
      Symptoms usually occur unilaterally and include swelling, tenderness, and redness or discoloration. Pulmonary embolism (PE), a severe complication of DVT, should be suspected in patients with dizziness, dyspnoea, and fever. The diagnostic test of choice for DVT is compression ultrasound. In most cases, a negative D-dimer test allows thrombosis or PE to be ruled out, but a positive test is nonspecific.
      Initial acute treatment of DVT consists of anticoagulation with heparin and, if the thrombus is large or unresponsive to anticoagulation, may also include thrombolysis or thrombectomy. Secondary prophylaxis is achieved with oral warfarin or direct factor Xa inhibitors and supportive measures such as regular exercise and compression stockings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
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  • Question 108 - Which of the following conditions is characterized by generalised oedema due to effusion...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions is characterized by generalised oedema due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anasarca

      Explanation:

      Anasarca (or ‘generalised oedema’) is a condition characterised by widespread swelling of the skin due to effusion of fluid into the extracellular space. It is usually caused by liver failure (cirrhosis of the liver), renal failure/disease, right-sided heart failure, as well as severe malnutrition/protein deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 109 - A 32-year-old female is found to have a thyroglossal cyst that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female is found to have a thyroglossal cyst that has been recently infected and the patient requests treatment. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Surgical treatment with resection of cyst, associated track, central portion of the hyoid and wedge of tongue muscle behind the hyoid

      Explanation:

      A thyroglossal duct cyst (TGDC) is the most common mass found in the midline of the neck. The mass is usually located at or below the level of the hyoid bone, although a TGDC can be located anywhere from the foramen cecum to the level of the thyroid gland.
      Most patients with a TGDC present with asymptomatic masses in the midline of the neck.
      Recurrent inflammation associated with infection of a TGDC is not uncommon. When an infection is present, the cyst often enlarges and an abscess may form. Spontaneous rupture with secondary sinus tract formation can also occur.

      The surgical treatment of choice for thyroglossal cysts is the Sistrunk operation, in which an en block resection of the sinus tract and above (including the midportion of the hyoid bone) is performed. Recurrence is approximately 3-5% and is increased by incomplete excision and a history of recurrent infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
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  • Question 110 - The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on...

    Incorrect

    • The pterion is clinically significant as it marks an area of weakness on the skull. What structure lies beneath it?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior branches of the middle meningeal artery

      Explanation:

      The pterion is the area where four bones, the parietal, frontal, greater wing of sphenoid and the squamous part of the temporal bone meet. It overlies the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery on the internal aspect of the skull. The pterion is the weakest part of the skull. Slight trauma to this region can cause extradural hematoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 111 - A 40-year old Caucasian male came to the hospital with complaints of fatigue...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year old Caucasian male came to the hospital with complaints of fatigue and lethargy. On examination, he was found to have raised blood pressure. Urine examination showed >300 mg/dl proteinuria (4+) and 24-hour urine protein 3.5g. No glucose, blood, nitrites, urobilinogen or casts were present in urine. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Membranous glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      Membranous glomerulonephritis or nephropathy, is a renal disorder with insidious course and usually affects people aged 30-50 years. 85% cases are primary (or idiopathic). The other 15% are secondary to autoimmune conditions like SLE, infections like malaria or hepatitis B, drugs like captopril and NSAIDs, or malignancies (particularly lung or colonic carcinoma). This disease is caused due to circulating immune complexes which are said to form by binding of antibodies to antigens in glomerular basement membrane. This antigens could be endogenous or derived from systemic circulation. This immune complex triggers the complement system, resulting in formation of membrane attack complex (MAC) on glomerular epithelial cells. This further results in release of proteases and oxidants which damage the capillaries making them ‘leaky’. Moreover, the epithelial cells also secrete a mediator to reduce nephron synthesis and distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 112 - Which organ is responsible for the secretion of enzymes that aid in digestion...

    Incorrect

    • Which organ is responsible for the secretion of enzymes that aid in digestion of complex starches?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreas

      Explanation:

      α-amylase is secreted by the pancreas, which is responsible for hydrolysis of starch, glycogen and other carbohydrates into simpler compounds.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 113 - The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the...

    Incorrect

    • The cranial nerves of the brain provide motor and sensory innervation to the structures of the head and neck. Which of the following cranial nerves provide only motor innervation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abducens

      Explanation:

      The cranial nerves emerge directly from the brain and the brain stem. They provide sensory, motor or both motor and sensory innervation. Here is a summary of the cranial nerves and their function:
      Olfactory – Purely sensory
      Optic – Sensory
      Oculomotor – Mainly motor
      Trochlear – Motor
      Trigeminal – Both sensory and motor
      Abducens – Mainly motor
      Facial – Both sensory and motor
      vestibulocochlear – Mostly sensory
      Glossopharyngeal – Both sensory and motor
      Vagus – Both sensory and motor
      Accessory – Mainly motor
      Hypoglossal – Mainly motor

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 114 - A 29-year-old lady who is a known case of Graves' disease presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old lady who is a known case of Graves' disease presents with a relapse on stopping the antithyroid drugs. Radioiodine is offered as the next treatment by the endocrinologists. Which of the following statements regarding such treatment is false?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It increases the risk of parathyroid carcinoma

      Explanation:

      All of the listed options are true regarding radioiodine therapy, except for the first option. Treatment with radioiodine does not increase the risk of parathyroid carcinoma.

      Recurrence of Graves’ disease is treated similar to normal Graves’ disease. However, some patients may need definitive treatment with radioiodine or thyroidectomy. These patients are usually hypothyroid post treatment and are treated with L-thyroxine until their TSH values are within normal parameters.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
      0
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  • Question 115 - Which of the following features is indicative of poor prognosis in a case...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following features is indicative of poor prognosis in a case of breast carcinoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary lymph node metastases

      Explanation:

      Lymphatic spread indicates poor prognosis. Presence of family history is not a prognostic factor despite being linked to higher incidence. Aneuploidy is a poor prognostic factor. A breast tumour positive for oestrogen receptors is a good prognostic factor as it increases the responsiveness of the tumour to certain therapies. In-situ tumours carry the best prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 116 - A 30-year-old male falls on the back of his hand. On x-ray, he...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male falls on the back of his hand. On x-ray, he has a fractured distal radius demonstrating volar displacement of the fracture. What eponymous term is used to describe this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smith's

      Explanation:

      The Frykman classification of distal radial fractures is based on the AP appearance and encompasses the eponymous entities of Colles fracture, Smith fracture, Barton fracture, chauffeur fracture.

      Colles fractures are very common extra-articular fractures of the distal radius that occur as the result of a fall onto an outstretched hand. They consist of a fracture of the distal radial metaphyseal region with dorsal angulation and impaction, but without the involvement of the articular surface.
      Colles fractures are the most common type of distal radial fracture and are seen in all adult age groups and demographics. They are particularly common in patients with osteoporosis, and as such, they are most frequently seen in elderly women.

      Smith fractures, also known as Goyrand fractures in the French literature 3, are fractures of the distal radius with associated volar angulation of the distal fracture fragment(s). Classically, these fractures are extra-articular transverse fractures and can be thought of like a reverse Colles fracture.
      The term is sometimes used to describe intra-articular fractures with volar displacement (reverse Barton fracture) or juxta-articular fractures

      Barton fractures are fractures of the distal radius. It is also sometimes termed the dorsal type Barton fracture to distinguish it from the volar type or reverse Barton fracture.
      Barton fractures extend through the dorsal aspect to the articular surface but not to the volar aspect. Therefore, it is similar to a Colles fracture. There is usually associated with dorsal subluxation/dislocation of the radiocarpal joint.

      Chauffeur fractures (also known as Hutchinson fractures or backfire fractures) are intra-articular fractures of the radial styloid process. The radial styloid is within the fracture fragment, although the fragment can vary markedly in size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 117 - A mechanic sustained a deep laceration to his right cubital fossa which resulted...

    Incorrect

    • A mechanic sustained a deep laceration to his right cubital fossa which resulted in him unable to move the proximal radioulnar joint of his right arm. Which muscles was affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pronator teres

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the pronator teres muscle. This muscle arises from 2 heads of origin: the humerus and ulnar. Between the 2 heads is the site of entrance of median nerve to the forearm. This muscle acts on the proximal radio-ulnar joint to rotate the radius on the ulna, otherwise known as pronation. It also assists in forearm flexion if the radius is fixed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 118 - Which of the following brings about a reduction in gastric blood flow? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following brings about a reduction in gastric blood flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vasopressin

      Explanation:

      Gastric blood flow is increased by vagal stimulation, gastrin, histamine and acetylcholine as they stimulate gastric section and the production of vasodilator metabolites. Acetylcholine and histamine also have a direct action on the gastric arterioles. Similarly, gastric blood flow is reduced by inhibitors of secretion – catecholamines, secretin and vasopressin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 119 - A 45-year-old male undergoes a distal gastrectomy for cancer. He is slightly anaemic...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male undergoes a distal gastrectomy for cancer. He is slightly anaemic and therefore receives a transfusion of 4 units of packed red cells to cover both the existing anaemia and associated perioperative blood loss. He is noted to develop ECG changes that are not consistent with ischaemia. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      The patient suffers from hyperkalaemia as an adverse effect of RBCs transfusion, which causes his ECG changes.
      The potassium concentration of blood increases during storage, by as much as 5–10 mmol u−1. After the transfusion, the RBC membrane Na+–K+ ATPase pumping mechanism is re-established and cellular potassium reuptake occurs rapidly. Hyperkalaemia rarely occurs during massive transfusions unless the patient is also hypothermic and acidotic.
      The total extracellular potassium load, which is <0.5 mmol for fresh RBC units and only 5-7 mmol for units at expiration, rarely causes problems in the recipient because of rapid dilution, redistribution into cells, and excretion. An abnormally high potassium level (>5 mmol/l or ≥1.5 mmol/l net increase) within an hour of transfusion is classified as transfusion-associated hyperkalaemia.
      Irradiation enhances potassium leakage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 120 - What is the linea aspera: ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the linea aspera:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serves as an attachment for adductors of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The linea aspera is a prominent longitudinal ridge or crest on the middle third of the femur. It has a medial and a lateral lip and a narrow, rough, intermediate line. The vastus medialis arises from the medial lip of the linea aspera and has superior and inferior prolongations. The vastus lateralis takes origin from the lateral lip . The adductor magnus is inserted into the linea aspera. Two muscles are attached between the vastus lateralis and the adductor magnus: the gluteus maximus is inserted above and the short head of the biceps femoris arises below. Four muscles are inserted between the adductor magnus and the vastus medialis: the iliacus and pectineus superiorly, and the adductor brevis and adductor longus inferiorly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 121 -  A 45-year-old man presented to the doctor complaining of a flank pain and...

    Incorrect

    •  A 45-year-old man presented to the doctor complaining of a flank pain and episodes of haematuria. Abdominal ultrasound revealed a left renal mass and the patient underwent a nephrectomy. Histopathological pattern was triphasic with blastemal, epithelial, and stromal components. The pathologist suggested the tumour resulted from the lack of a tumour suppressor gene on chromosome 11. Which of the following tumours is the pathologist most likely suggesting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wilms’ tumour

      Explanation:

      Wilms’ tumour is one of the most common malignant tumours of childhood but it can also rarely be found in adults. In biopsy, classical histopathological findings include the triphasic pattern composed by blastemal, epithelial, and stromal elements. First symptoms in children include an abdominal palpable mass, while in adults pain and haematuria are the most common complaints. Deletions of tumours’ suppressor genes on chromosome 11 are usually associated with Wilms’ tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 122 - What will the destruction of endoplasmic reticulum stop? ...

    Incorrect

    • What will the destruction of endoplasmic reticulum stop?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synthesis of proteins

      Explanation:

      The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the factory for the manufacturing of proteins. It contains ribosomes attached to it and transports proteins that are destined for membranes and secretions. The rough ER is connected to the nuclear envelope and to the cisternae of the Golgi apparatus by vesicles that shuttle between the two compartments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 123 - Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle extends to form the cremasteric muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal abdominal oblique muscle

      Explanation:

      The cremasteric muscle is a thin layer of muscle composed of several fasciculi that originate from the middle of the inguinal ligament. At its point of origin the fibres are continuous with the fibres of internal oblique and sometimes with the transversus abdominis. It then passes along the lateral side of the spermatic cord and descends with it through the superficial inguinal ring on the front and sides of the cord.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      0
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  • Question 124 - A 33 year old woman presents with a history of recurrent infections and...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old woman presents with a history of recurrent infections and abscesses in the neck. Examination reveals a midline defect with an overlying scab which moves upwards on tongue protrusion. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroglossal cyst

      Explanation:

      Congenital neck masses are developmental anomalies typically seen in infants or children. Common conditions include thyroglossal duct cysts, branchial cleft cysts, and cystic hygromas. These malformations present as painless neck masses, which can cause dysphagia, respiratory distress, and neck pain due to compression of surrounding structures. The location of the mass depends on the embryological structure the cysts arise from. Diagnosis is made based on clinical findings and imaging results (ultrasound, CT, MRI), which also help in surgical planning. Treatment consists of complete surgical resection to prevent recurrence and complications such as infection or abscess formation.
      The thyroglossal cyst is present from birth and usually detected during early childhood. It presents as a painless, firm midline neck mass, usually near the hyoid bone, which elevates with swallowing and tongue protrusion. May cause dysphagia or neck/throat pain if the cyst enlarges.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Head And Neck Surgery
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  • Question 125 - After surgery, a patient developed a stitch granuloma . Which leukocyte in the...

    Incorrect

    • After surgery, a patient developed a stitch granuloma . Which leukocyte in the peripheral blood will become an activated macrophage in this granuloma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monocyte

      Explanation:

      Monocytes are leukocytes that protect the body against infections and move to the site of infection within 8-12 hours to deal with it. They are produced in the bone marrow and shortly after being produced are released into the blood stream where they circulate until an infection is detected. When called upon they leave the circulation and transform into macrophages within the tissue fluid and thus gain the capability to phagocytose the offending substance. Monocyte count is part of a complete blood picture. Monocytosis is the state of excess monocytes in the peripheral blood and may be indicative of various disease states. Examples of processes that can increase a monocyte count include: • chronic inflammation • stress response • hyperadrenocorticism • immune-mediated disease • pyogranulomatous disease • necrosis • red cell regeneration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 126 - Which statement is true regarding the diaphragmatic openings: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement is true regarding the diaphragmatic openings:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The thoracic duct passes through the opening at T12

      Explanation:

      The diaphragmatic openings are:
      T8 – opening for the inferior vena cavaand the right phrenic nerve
      T10 – opening for the oesophagusand the left gastric artery and vein
      T12 – opening for the aorta, the thoracic duct and azygos vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 127 - Which of these structures is most likely to be damaged if a patient...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these structures is most likely to be damaged if a patient loses consciousness days or weeks after an otherwise insignificant head trauma, especially in elderly patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dural bridging vein

      Explanation:

      A subdural haematoma is a type of hematoma, usually associated with traumatic brain injury, in which blood collects between the dura mater and the pia-arachnoid mater. Symptoms of subdural haemorrhage have a slower onset than those of epidural haemorrhages because the lower pressure veins bleed more slowly than arteries. These injuries are more common in elderly patients, especially those taking antiplatelet or anticoagulant drugs. Oedema and increased intracranial pressure are unusual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 128 - Regarding the venous drainage of the heart which of these is correct? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding the venous drainage of the heart which of these is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus and this vein starts at the apex of the heart and ascends with the anterior ventricular branch of the left coronary artery

      Explanation:

      Most of the veins of the heart open into the coronary sinus. This is a wide venous channel, about 2.25 cm in length, situated in the posterior part of the coronary sulcus and covered by muscular fibres from the left atrium. Its tributaries are the great, small and middle cardiac veins, the posterior vein of the left ventricle and the oblique vein of the left atrium. The great cardiac vein is the largest tributary of the coronary sinus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 129 - A 57 year old woman arrives at the clinic due to a pathological...

    Incorrect

    • A 57 year old woman arrives at the clinic due to a pathological fracture of the proximal femur. Which of the following primary sites is the most likely source of her disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer frequently metastasizes to the skeleton, interrupting the normal bone remodelling process and causing bone degradation. Breast cancer is the commonest cause of lytic bone metastasis in women of this age, especially from amongst those options given.

      Osteolytic lesions are the end result of osteoclast activity; however, osteoclast differentiation and activation are mediated by osteoblast production of RANKL (receptor activator for NFκB ligand) and several osteoclastogenic cytokines. Osteoblasts themselves are negatively affected by cancer cells as evidenced by an increase in apoptosis and a decrease in proteins required for new bone formation. Thus, bone loss is due to both increased activation of osteoclasts and suppression of osteoblasts. The clinical outcomes of bone pain, pathologic fractures, nerve compression syndrome, and metabolic disturbances leading to hypercalcemia and acid/base imbalance severely reduce the quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 130 - Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?...

    Incorrect

    • Under normal conditions, what is the major source of energy of cardiac muscles?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fatty acids

      Explanation:

      Under basal conditions, most of the energy needed by cardiac muscle for metabolism is derived from fats (60%), 35% by carbohydrates, and 5% by ketones and amino acids. However, after intake of large amounts of glucose, lactate and pyruvate are mainly used. During prolonged starvation, fat acts as the primary source. 50% of the used lipids are sourced from circulating fatty acids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 131 - The chest X-ray of a 72 year old patient reveals the presence of...

    Incorrect

    • The chest X-ray of a 72 year old patient reveals the presence of a round lesion containing an air-fluid level in the left lung. These findings are most probably suggestive of:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lung abscess

      Explanation:

      Lung abscesses are collections of pus within the lung that arise most commonly as a complication of aspiration pneumonia caused by oral anaerobes. Older patients are more at risk due to poor oral hygiene, gingivitis an inability to handle their oral secretions due to other diseases. Chest X-ray most commonly reveals the appearance of an irregularly shaped cavity with an air-fluid level.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 132 - A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrophage

      Explanation:

      The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
      Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
      Basophils are not present.
      The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 133 - An elderly, diabetic man has firm, tender nodules at the base of his...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly, diabetic man has firm, tender nodules at the base of his left middle and ring fingers, which he can't extend fully. What's the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibromatosis

      Explanation:

      This case is suggestive of Dupuytren’s contracture due to palmar fibromatosis. Its incidence is higher in men over the age of 45 years, and it increases in patients with diabetes, alcoholism, or epilepsy. These nodules are benign, usually appearing as a tender nodule in the palm which becomes painless. The disease has an aggressive clinical behaviour and recurs frequently.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 134 - During an operation for a sigmoid colectomy the surgeon ligates the sigmoid arteries....

    Incorrect

    • During an operation for a sigmoid colectomy the surgeon ligates the sigmoid arteries. From which artery do the sigmoid arteries branch?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Sigmoid arteries are branches of the inferior mesenteric artery (IMA). Sigmoid artery gives off branches that supply the lower descending colon, the iliac colon and the sigmoid colon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 135 - A 39 year old lady presents with a mass in the upper outer...

    Incorrect

    • A 39 year old lady presents with a mass in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast. Imaging, histology and clinical examination confirm a 1.4cm malignant mass lesion with no clinical evidence of axillary nodal disease. Which treatment would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wide local excision and sentinel node biopsy

      Explanation:

      Sentinel lymph node biopsy has become the gold standard for axillary staging for patients with clinically and radiologically node negative axilla. The recommended technique is the dual technique of blue dye/radioisotope and this is associated with high sentinel node identification rates (> 95 %). However, in centres where radioisotope is not available, blue dye guided four node sampling appears to be a reasonable alternative. Sentinel node biopsy was shown to be an accurate technique for axillary node staging in the ALMANAC Trial with less associated morbidity and strong health economic arguments for its use.

      The tumour in this patient is small so a wide local excision should be done.
      Lumpectomy or breast wide local excision is a surgical removal of a discrete portion or lump of breast tissue, usually in the treatment of a malignant tumour or breast cancer. It is considered a viable breast conservation therapy, as the amount of tissue removed is limited compared to a full-breast mastectomy, and thus may have physical and emotional advantages over more disfiguring treatment. Sometimes a lumpectomy may be used to either confirm or rule out that cancer has actually been detected. A lumpectomy is usually recommended to patients whose cancer has been detected early and who do not have enlarged tumours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Breast And Endocrine Surgery
      • Generic Surgical Topics
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  • Question 136 - The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves: ...

    Incorrect

    • The mechanism of action of streptokinase involves:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Direct conversion of plasminogen to plasmin

      Explanation:

      Streptokinase is an enzyme that is produced by group A beta haemolytic streptococcus and is an effective and cost efficient method for the dissolution of a clot used in cases of MI and pulmonary embolism. It works by directly converting plasminogen to plasmin which breaks down the blood components in the clot and fibrin, dissolving the clot. Streptokinase is a bacterial product and thus the body will develop immunity against it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 137 - In order to arrest sudden bleeding during pericardiectomy that started after accidental injury...

    Incorrect

    • In order to arrest sudden bleeding during pericardiectomy that started after accidental injury to a major vasculature in the pericardium; the surgeon inserted his left index finger through the transverse pericardial sinus, pulled forward on the two large vessels lying ventral to his finger, and compressed these vessels with his thumb to control the bleeding. Which vessels were these?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary trunk and aorta

      Explanation:

      Transverse pericardial sinus: located behind two great vessels (aorta and pulmonary trunk) and in front of the superior vena cava and is accessed from above as in this case. The brachiocephalic trunk is located above the pericardium and the right pulmonary artery is above the pericardial reflections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 138 - A 29-year-old man who plays social rugby presents with recurrent anterior dislocation of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man who plays social rugby presents with recurrent anterior dislocation of the right shoulder. Which of the following abnormalities is most likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bankart lesion

      Explanation:

      This patient has a Bankart lesion which is the most common underlying abnormality in recurrent anterior dislocation of the shoulder.

      Bankart lesion is an injury of the anterior (inferior) glenoid labrum of the shoulder due to anterior shoulder dislocation. When this happens, a pocket at the front of the glenoid forms that allows the humeral head to dislocate into it. It is usually visualised by CT and MRI scanning and is often repaired arthroscopically.

      Shoulder fractures and dislocations usually result from low-energy falls in predominantly elderly females or from high-energy trauma in young males. They can be associated with nerve injury (commonly axillary), and fracture-dislocation of the humeral head. Anterior shoulder dislocation (glenohumeral dislocation) is the most common type of shoulder dislocation (>90%) and is usually traumatic in nature.

      Early assessment of shoulder dislocation:
      Careful history, examination, and documentation of neurovascular status of the upper limb, in particular the axillary nerve, is important. This should be re-assessed after manipulation. Early radiographs should also be done to confirm the direction of the dislocation.

      Initial management of anterior dislocation:
      It consists of emergent closed reduction (to prevent lasting chondral damage) under Entonox and analgesia, but often requires conscious sedation. The affected arm should then be immobilised in a polysling. Initial management requires emergent reduction to prevent lasting chondral damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 139 - During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the...

    Incorrect

    • During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the surgeon finds an artery in the extraperitoneal connective tissue (preperitoneal fat) that courses vertically and just medial to the bowel as the bowel passes through the abdominal wall. Which artery is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior epigastric

      Explanation:

      The inferior epigastric artery comes from the external iliac artery just above the inguinal ligament to curve forward in the subperitoneal tissue and then ascend obliquely along the medial margin of the deep inguinal ring. It continues to ascend between the rectus abdominis and the posterior lamella of its sheath after piercing the fascia transversalis and passing anterior to the linea semicircularis. Finally it gives off numerous branches that anastomose above the umbilicus with the superior epigastric branch of the internal mammary artery and with the lower intercostal arteries. As this artery ascends obliquely upwards from its origin it lies along the lower medial margins of the deep inguinal ring and posterior to the start of the spermatic cord. It is found in the preperitoneal fat of the abdomen lying just superficial to the peritoneum and forms the lateral umbilical fold. Hernias that pass lateral to this are indirect and medial to this, direct hernias.
      The deep circumflex artery travels along the iliac crest on the inner surface of the abdominal wall. It is very lateral to the abdominal wall and hernias would pass medial to it.
      The superficial circumflex iliac, superficial epigastric, superficial external pudendal arteries are all superficial arteries found in the superficial fascia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 140 - A gymnast was admitted to hospital for investigation of a weakness in the...

    Incorrect

    • A gymnast was admitted to hospital for investigation of a weakness in the extension and adduction of his arm. He had a previous penetrating wound in the area of the posterior axillary fold. Which of these muscles is the likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Latissimus dorsi

      Explanation:

      All the criteria of this case points towards the latissimus dorsi. This muscle is greatly involved in extension, adduction and medial rotation of the arm and forms the posterior axillary fold which in this case was injured.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 141 - Calculate the pulmonary vascular resistance in an adult male with the following parameters:...

    Incorrect

    • Calculate the pulmonary vascular resistance in an adult male with the following parameters: Heart rate 70 beats/min, Arterial [O2] 0.24 ml O2/min, Venous [O2] 0.16 ml O2/min, Whole body O2 consumption 500 ml/min, Pulmonary diastolic pressure 15 mmHg, Pulmonary systolic pressure 25 mmHg, Wedge pressure 5 mmHg.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min)

      Explanation:

      Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) = (Mean pulmonary artery pressure – Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure) divided by Cardiac output. To get cardiac output, Fick’s principle needs to be applied which states that VO2 = (CO × CAO2) – (CO × CVO2) where VO2 = oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CA = oxygen concentration of arterial blood and CVO2 = oxygen concentration of venous blood. Thus, CO = VO2/CAO2– CVO2, CO = 500/0.24–0.16, CO = 500/0.8, CO = 6.25 l/min. To calculate mean pulmonary artery pressure, we use the formula: Mean pulmonary artery pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3(Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure). Thus, Mean pulmonary artery pressure = 15 + 1/3(25 – 15) = 15 + 3. 33 = 18.33. Substituting these values in the first formula, PVR = 18.3–5/6.25 = 13.5/5.25 = 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min) approximately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 142 - A 24-year-old woman sustains a simple rib fracture resulting from a fall. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman sustains a simple rib fracture resulting from a fall. On examination, a small pneumothorax is found. What should be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insertion of chest drain

      Explanation:

      For a rib fracture to cause pneumothorax, there must also be laceration to the underlying lung parenchyma. This has the risk of developing into a tension pneumothorax. Therefore, a chest drain should be inserted and the patient admitted.

      Pneumothorax is a collection of free air in the chest cavity that causes the lung to collapse. The most common cause of pneumothorax is lung laceration with air leakage. In some instances, the lung continues to leak air into the chest cavity and results in compression of the chest structures, including vessels that return blood to the heart. This is known as a tension pneumothorax and can be fatal if not treated immediately. Blunt or penetrating chest trauma that creates a flap-type defect on the surface of the lung can result in this life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 143 - A 65-year old man, known with Type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year old man, known with Type 2 diabetes and chronic renal failure, is likely to eventually present with which of the following conditions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      When the parathyroid glands secrete excess parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to hypocalcaemia, it is known as Secondary hyperparathyroidism and is often seen in patients with renal failure. In chronic renal failure, the kidneys fail to excrete adequate phosphorus and also fail to convert enough vitamin D to its active form. This leads to formation of insoluble calcium phosphate in the body which ultimately causes hypocalcaemia. The glands then undergo hyperplasia and hypertrophy leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism. Symptoms include bone and joint pains, along with limb deformities. The raised PTH also results in pleiotropic effects on blood, the immune system and nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 144 - A 39-year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman is involved in a road traffic accident and sustains a significant laceration to the lateral aspect of the nose, associated with tissue loss. What should be the best management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rotational skin flap

      Explanation:

      Nasal injuries can be challenging to manage and where there is tissue loss, it can be difficult to primarily close them and obtain a satisfactory aesthetic result. Debridement together with a rotational skin flap would produce the best results.

      A rotation flap is a semi-circular skin flap that is rotated into the defect on a fulcrum point. It provides the ability to mobilize large areas of tissue with a wide vascular base for reconstruction. Rotation flaps may be pedicled or free. Pedicled flaps are more reliable but are limited in the range of movement. Free flaps have increased range but carry greater risk of breakdown as they require vascular anastomosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 145 - Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is likely to induce secretion of glucagon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low serum concentration of glucose

      Explanation:

      The most potent stimulus for secretion of glucagon is hypoglycaemia whereas hyperglycaemia is a stimulus for insulin release. Glucagon secretion also occurs in response to high levels of amino acids. Somatostatin inhibits glucagon secretion. Parasympathetic stimulation increases pancreatic acinar secretion, but not of α-cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 146 - An abdominal aortogram shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • An abdominal aortogram shows occlusion of the inferior mesenteric artery. Which of the following segments of bowel is most likely to have preserved arterial supply?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caecum

      Explanation:

      The inferior mesenteric artery supplies blood to the end of the transverse colon and all distal structures in the gastrointestinal tract i.e. splenic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum would all be deprived of blood if it were occluded. The caecum receives blood from the superior mesenteric artery so it would not be affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 147 - Regarding innervation to the peroneus brevis muscle: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding innervation to the peroneus brevis muscle:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Could be damaged by a fracture of the neck of the fibula

      Explanation:

      The peroneus brevis is supplied by the fourth and fifth lumbar and first sacral nerves through the superficial peroneal nerve which is one of the two terminal branches of the common peroneal nerve. The common peroneal nerve winds around the neck of the fibula and can be injured in cases of fractured neck of fibula.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 148 - A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old male patient who had sustained a stab wound in the middle of the posterior aspect of the left thigh, was discharged from hospital after dressing and antibiotic prophylaxis. Later on the patient developed bleeding through the wound and upon review, the source was discovered to be an artery that is the direct source of the medial and lateral circumflex arteries. Which is this artery that was injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Profunda femoris artery

      Explanation:

      The medial and lateral circumflex arteries are direct branches of the Profunda femoris artery otherwise also known as the deep artery of the thigh. The Profunda femoris artery arises from the femoral artery just below the inguinal ligament (approximately 2-5cm below it).
      The following are the branches of the deep artery of the thigh:
      Lateral circumflex femoral artery
      Medial circumflex femoral artery
      Perforating arteries

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 149 - Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT a Gram-negative rod?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clostridium tetani

      Explanation:

      Gram-positive rods include Clostridia, Listeria and diphtheroids.
      Gram-negative rods include Escherichia coli, Klebsiella, Yersinia, Haemohilus, Pseudomonas, Shigella, Legionella, proteus and Salmonella

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 150 - A 30-year-old male is playing tennis when he suddenly collapses and has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male is playing tennis when he suddenly collapses and has a GCS of 4 when examined. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      The term subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) refers to extravasation of blood into the subarachnoid space between the pial and arachnoid membranes. SAH constitutes half of all spontaneous atraumatic intracranial haemorrhages; the other half consists of bleeding that occurs within the brain parenchyma.
      Intracranial saccular aneurysms (“berry aneurysms”) represent the most common aetiology of nontraumatic SAH; about 80% of cases of SAH result from ruptured aneurysms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
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  • Question 151 - A patient under went repair of a lingual artery aneurysm in the floor...

    Incorrect

    • A patient under went repair of a lingual artery aneurysm in the floor of the mouth. During surgical dissection from the inside of the mouth which muscle would you have to pass through to reach the main portion of the lingual artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyoglossus

      Explanation:

      The lingual artery first runs obliquely upward and medialward to the greater horns of the hyoid bone. It then curves downward and forward, forming a loop which is crossed by the hypoglossal nerve, and passing beneath the digastric muscle and stylohyoid muscle it runs horizontally forward, beneath the hyoglossus, and finally, ascending almost perpendicularly to the tongue, turns forward on its lower surface as far as the tip, to become the deep lingual artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 152 - A 20 year old male presents to the clinic with progressive pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 20 year old male presents to the clinic with progressive pain in his neck and back which has gotten worse over the past 7 months. Past medical history shows that he was an inpatient with a disease flare of ulcerative colitis. He is seen on examination with a stiff back and limited spinal extension on bending forward. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Ankylosing spondylitis (AS), a spondyloarthropathy, is a chronic, multisystem inflammatory disorder involving primarily the sacroiliac (SI) joints and the axial skeleton. Key components of the patient history that suggest AS include the following:
      Insidious onset of low back pain – The most common symptom
      Onset of symptoms before age 40 years
      Presence of symptoms for more than 3 months
      Symptoms worse in the morning or with inactivity
      Improvement of symptoms with exercise

      General symptoms of AS include the following:

      Those related to inflammatory back pain – Stiffness of the spine and kyphosis resulting in a stooped posture are characteristic of advanced-stage AS.
      Peripheral enthesitis and arthritis
      Constitutional and organ-specific extra-articular manifestations
      Fatigue is another common complaint, occurring in approximately 65% of patients with AS. Increased levels of fatigue are associated with increased pain and stiffness and decreased functional capacity.
      Pharmacologic therapy

      Agents used in the treatment of AS include the following:

      Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
      Sulfasalazine
      Tumour necrosis factor-α (TNF-α) antagonists
      Corticosteroids

      AS is the prototype of the spondyloarthropathies, a family of related disorders that also includes reactive arthritis (ReA), psoriatic arthritis (PsA), spondyloarthropathy associated with inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), undifferentiated spondyloarthropathy (USpA), and, possibly, Whipple disease and Behçet disease (see the image below). The spondyloarthropathies are linked by common genetics (the human leukocyte antigen [HLA] class-I gene HLA-B27) and a common pathology (enthesitis). The aetiology of AS is not understood completely; however, a strong genetic predisposition exists. A direct relationship between AS and the HLA-B27 gene has been determined. The precise role of HLA-B27 in precipitating AS remains unknown; however, it is believed that HLA-B27 may resemble or act as a receptor for an inciting antigen (e.g., a bacterial antigen).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 153 - A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department suffering from extreme dehydration,...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought to the emergency department suffering from extreme dehydration, and subsequent hypotension and tachycardia. Which part of the kidney will compensate for this loss?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collecting ducts

      Explanation:

      The collecting duct system of the kidney consists of a series of tubules and ducts that physically connect nephrons to a minor calyx or directly to the renal pelvis. The collecting duct system is the last component of the kidney to influence the body’s electrolyte and fluid balance. In humans, the system accounts for 4–5% of the kidney’s reabsorption of sodium and 5% of the kidney’s reabsorption of water. At times of extreme dehydration, over 24% of the filtered water may be reabsorbed in the collecting duct system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 154 - A 50 year old female patient with an history of chronic headache was...

    Incorrect

    • A 50 year old female patient with an history of chronic headache was scheduled for CT scan. If the CT scan revealed a tumour at the horn of the lateral ventricle, which of the following structures is most likely to be compressed by this tumour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibres of the corpus callosum

      Explanation:

      The ventricular system of the brain is made up of four ventricles namely; two lateral and a third and forth ventricle. The ventricles are the site of the development of the cerebrospinal fluid. The left and right lateral ventricles are located in each of the brain’s hemispheres. The roof of the lateral ventricles are made up of the fibres of the corpus callosum. This is the structure that would be compressed by the a tumour on the roof of the lateral ventricles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 155 - The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery: ...

    Incorrect

    • The superior ulnar collateral artery is a direct branch of this artery:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brachial

      Explanation:

      The brachial artery gives rise to a small branch at the middle of the arm, which is the superior collateral artery. It descends accompanied by the ulnar nerve and anastomoses with the posterior ulnar recurrent and inferior ulnar collateral.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 156 - Where do the seminal vesicles lie? ...

    Incorrect

    • Where do the seminal vesicles lie?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Base of the bladder and rectum

      Explanation:

      The seminal vesicles are two lobulated membranous pouches situated between the fundus of the bladder and rectum and act as a reservoir for the semen and secrete a fluid that is added to the seminal fluid. Each sac is pyramidal in shape but they all vary in size not only in different individuals but also in the same individuals. The anterior surface is in contact with the fundus of the bladder, extending from near the termination of the ureter to the base of the prostate. Each vesicle consist of single tube, which gives off several irregular caecal diverticula. These separate coils and the diverticula are connected by fibrous tissue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 157 - A 32-year-old female is injured in a skiing accident. She suffers a blow...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female is injured in a skiing accident. She suffers a blow to the occiput and is concussed for 5 minutes. On arrival in the ED, she is confused with a GCS 10/15. A CT scan shows no evidence of acute bleed or fracture but some evidence of oedema with the beginnings of mass effect. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Administration of intravenous mannitol

      Explanation:

      Effective management of intracranial hypertension involves meticulous avoidance of factors that precipitate or aggravate increased intracranial pressure. When intracranial pressure becomes elevated, it is important to rule out new mass lesions that should be surgically evacuated. Medical management of increased intracranial pressure should include sedation, drainage of cerebrospinal fluid, and osmotherapy with either mannitol or hypertonic saline. For intracranial hypertension refractory to initial medical management, barbiturate coma, hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy should be considered. Steroids are not indicated and may be harmful in the treatment of intracranial hypertension resulting from traumatic brain injury.
      Mannitol is the most commonly used hyperosmolar agent for the treatment of intracranial hypertension.
      Intravenous bolus administration of mannitol lowers the ICP in 1 to 5 minutes with a peak effect at 20 to 60 minutes. The effect of mannitol on ICP lasts 1.5 to 6 hours, depending on the clinical condition. Mannitol usually is given as a bolus of 0.25 g/kg to 1 g/kg body weight; when an urgent reduction of ICP is needed, an initial dose of 1 g/kg body weight should be given. Arterial hypotension (systolic blood pressure < 90 mm Hg ) should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Surgical Disorders Of The Brain
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  • Question 158 - Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is the CORRECT statement regarding the small intestine:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The superior mesenteric artery courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before the artery supplies the jejunum and ileum

      Explanation:

      The small intestine extends from the pylorus to the ileocecal valve where It ends in the large intestine. It is surrounded on the sides and above by the large intestine. It is related anteriorly with the greater omentum and abdominal wall. Is connected to the vertebral column by a fold of peritoneum or otherwise known as the mesentery. Is divided into three portions: the duodenum, jejunum and ileum. The jejunum and ileum are supplied by the superior mesenteric artery that courses between the body and uncinate process of the pancreas before it gives off intestinal branches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 159 - The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior...

    Incorrect

    • The pattern of drainage of the lymphatic and venous systems of the anterior abdominal wall is arranged around a horizontal plane above which drainage is in a cranial direction and below which drainage is in a caudal direction. Which horizontal plane is being referred to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Level of the umbilicus

      Explanation:

      The umbilicus is a key landmark for the lymphatic and venous drainage of the abdominal wall. Above it, lymphatics drain into the axillary lymph nodes and the venous blood drains into the superior epigastric vein, into the internal thoracic vein. Below it, lymphatics drain into the superficial inguinal lymph nodes while venous blood drains into the inferior epigastric vein and the external iliac vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 160 - A 68 year old woman has undergone surgical repair of her femoral hernia....

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old woman has undergone surgical repair of her femoral hernia. The surgeon used bipolar diathermy for haemostasis. Which of the following options would be regarded as the greatest risk with the usage of bipolar diathermy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fires when used near alcoholic skin preparations that have pooled

      Explanation:

      An operating room fire is rare but a well-known hazard that can result in significant patient morbidity. When it comes to the disposal of surgical spirits, the SPC for chlorhexidine states: ‘The solution is flammable. The risk of surgical fires due to spirit-based skin preparation fluid should be actively reduced. Data from the US show that up to 650 surgical fires occur each year, with up to 5% causing death or serious harm.

      Diathermy use electric currents to produce local heat and thereby facilitate haemostasis or surgical dissection. There are two major types of diathermy:
      1. Monopolar – current flows through a handheld device, from the tip of the device into the patient. The earth electrode is located some distance away.
      2. Bipolar – current flows from one electrode to another however, both electrodes are usually contained within the same device e.g. a pair of forceps. The result is that heating is localised to the area between the two electrodes and surrounding tissue damage is minimised. However this may create a spark and ignite flammable solutions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      • Surgical Technique And Technology
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  • Question 161 - A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in...

    Incorrect

    • A patient presents with loss of fine touch and sense of proprioception in the lower part of the body (below T6). He is likely to have a lesion involving:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gracile nucleus

      Explanation:

      The gracile nucleus is located in the medulla oblongata and is one of the dorsal column nuclei involved in the sensation of fine touch and proprioception. It contains second-order neurons of the dorsal column–medial lemniscus system, that receive inputs from sensory neurones of the dorsal root ganglia and send axons that synapse in the thalamus.
      The gracile nucleus and fasciculus carry epicritic, kinaesthetic and conscious proprioceptive information from the lower part of the body (below the level of T6 in the spinal cord). Similar information from the upper part of body (above T6, except for face and ear) is carried by the cuneate nucleus and fasciculus. The information from face and ear is carried by the primary sensory trigeminal nucleus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 162 - The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?...

    Incorrect

    • The line which divides the perineum into two triangles is connected to the?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischial tuberosities

      Explanation:

      The perineum has it’s deep boundaries in front of the pubic arch and the arcuate ligament of the pubis, behind the tip of the coccyx and on either side of the inferior rami of the pubis and ischium and the sacrotuberous ligament. It also corresponds to the outlet of the pelvis. A line drawn transversely across, in front of the ischial tuberosities divides the space into two portions, the posterior contains the termination of the anal canal and the anterior, contains the external urogenital organs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 163 - Which of the following conditions causes an elevation of the pH in the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following conditions causes an elevation of the pH in the tissues with elevated arterial CO2 content?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Metabolic alkalosis is a metabolic condition in which the pH of tissue is elevated beyond the normal range (7.35-7.45). This is the result of decreased hydrogen ion concentration, leading to increased bicarbonate, or alternatively a direct result of increased bicarbonate concentrations. Normally, arterial pa(CO2) increases by 0.5–0.7 mmHg for every 1 mEq/l increase in plasma bicarbonate concentration, a compensatory response that is very quick. If the change in pa(CO2) is not within this range, then a mixed acid–base disturbance occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      0
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  • Question 164 - A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop...

    Incorrect

    • A surgeon performing a laparoscopic repair of an inguinal hernia visualizes a loop of bowel protruding through the abdominal wall to form a direct inguinal hernia. When this is viewed from the side of the abdomen with a laparoscope, in which region would the hernial sac be?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial inguinal fossa

      Explanation:

      In a direct inguinal hernia, visceral contents exit the abdomen through a weak point in the fascia in the medial inguinal fossa i.e. the area between the medial and lateral umbilical folds. Such a hernia doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring or the lateral inguinal fossa. Note that direct hernias can go through the superficial inguinal ring, although rarely. The supravesical fossa, between the median and medial umbilical folds, is formed by a peritoneal reflection from the anterior abdominal wall onto the bladder and the retrovesical fossa is the region behind the urinary bladder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 165 - A young man is brought to the doctor and a lesion is seen...

    Incorrect

    • A young man is brought to the doctor and a lesion is seen on the dorsal surface of his right hand. It is examined and it is found to be a soft fluctuant swelling which is more pronounced when he is making a fist. What is the possible nature of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ganglion

      Explanation:

      Answer: Ganglion

      A ganglion cyst is a fluid-filled swelling that usually develops near a joint or tendon. The cyst can range from the size of a pea to the size of a golf ball. Ganglion cysts look and feel like a smooth lump under the skin.

      They’re made up of a thick, jelly-like fluid called synovial fluid, which surrounds joints and tendons to lubricate and cushion them during movement.

      Ganglions can occur alongside any joint in the body, but are most common on the wrists (particularly the back of the wrist), hands and fingers.

      Ganglions are harmless, but can sometimes be painful. If they do not cause any pain or discomfort, they can be left alone and may disappear without treatment, although this can take a number of years.

      It’s not clear why ganglions form. They seem to happen when the synovial fluid that surrounds a joint or tendon leaks out and collects in a sac.
      They are most common in younger people between the ages of 15 and 40 years, and women are more likely to be affected than men. These cysts are also common among gymnasts, who repeatedly apply stress to the wrist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 166 - A 30-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with an embolus in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with an embolus in the brachial artery. A cervical rib is suspected as being the underlying cause. From which of the following vertebral levels does the cervical rib arise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C7

      Explanation:

      A cervical rib in humans is an extra rib which arises from the C7 vertebra. Its presence is a congenital abnormality located above the normal first rib, and it consists of an anomalous fibrous band that often originates from C7 and may arc towards but rarely reaches the sternum. It is estimated to occur in 0.2% to 0.5% of the population. People may have a cervical rib on the right, left, or both sides.

      Most cases of cervical ribs are not clinically relevant and do not have symptoms; cervical ribs are generally discovered incidentally. However, they vary widely in size and shape, and in rare cases, they may cause problems such as contributing to thoracic outlet syndrome due to compression of the lower trunk of the brachial plexus or subclavian artery.

      Compression of the brachial plexus may be identified by weakness of the muscles near the base of the thumb. Compression of the subclavian artery is often diagnosed by finding a positive Adson’s sign on examination, where the radial pulse in the arm is lost during abduction and external rotation of the shoulder.

      Treatment is most commonly undertaken when there is evidence of neurovascular compromise. A transaxillary approach is the traditional operative method for excision of the cervical rib.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Vascular
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  • Question 167 - Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these foramen is located at the base of the skull and transmits the accessory meningeal artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen ovale

      Explanation:

      At the base of the skull the foramen ovale is one of the larger of the several holes that transmit nerves through the skull. The following structures pass through foramen ovale: mandibular nerve, motor root of the trigeminal nerve, accessory meningeal artery, lesser petrosal nerve, a branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve, emissary vein connecting the cavernous sinus with the pterygoid plexus of veins and occasionally the anterior trunk of the middle meningeal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 168 - A 26-year-old Indian woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented with increasing shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old Indian woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented with increasing shortness of breath, chest pain, and was coughing clear sputum. On examination, she was afebrile with a blood pressure of 140/80 mmHg, heart rate of 130 bpm and saturation of 94% on 15L oxygen. Furthermore, there was a mid-diastolic murmur, bibasilar crepitations, and mild pedal oedema. Her urgent CXR was requested. Suddenly, she deteriorated and had a respiratory arrest. Her CXR showed bilateral complete whiteout of her lungs. What could be the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mitral valve stenosis

      Explanation:

      Mitral valve stenosis is the most common cause of cardiac abnormality occurring in pregnant women. It is becoming less common in the UK population; however, it should be considered in women from countries where there is a higher incidence of rheumatic heart disease. Physiological changes in pregnancy may cause an otherwise asymptomatic patient to suddenly deteriorate.

      Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur which may be difficult to auscultate unless the patient is placed in the left lateral position. These patients are at risk of atrial fibrillation (up to 40%) which can also contribute to rapid decompensation such as pulmonary oedema (hence, whiteout of lungs seen on CXR). Balloon valvuloplasty is the treatment of choice in patients with mitral valve stenosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 169 - During cardiac catheterisation in a 20-year old man, the following data is obtained:...

    Incorrect

    • During cardiac catheterisation in a 20-year old man, the following data is obtained: Pressure (mmHg), O2 saturation (%) Right atrium 7 (N = 5) 90 (N = 75), Right ventricle 35/7 (N = 25/5) 90 (N = 75), Pulmonary artery 35/8 (N = 25/15), 90 (N = 75), Left atrium 7 (N = 9) 95 (N = 95), Left ventricle 110/7 (N = 110/9) 95 (N = 95), Aorta 110/75 (N = 110/75) 95 (N = 95) where N = Normal value. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect

      Explanation:

      A congenital heart disease, ASD or atrial septal defect leads to a communication between the right and left atria due to a defect in the interatrial septum. This leads to mixing of arterial and venous blood from the right and left side of the heart. The hemodynamic significance of this defect depends on the presence of shunting of blood. Normally, the left side of the heart has higher pressure than the right as the left side has to pump blood throughout the body. A large ASD (> 9 mm) will result in a clinically significant left-to-right shunt, causing volume overload of the right atrium and ventricle, eventually leading to heart failure. Cardiac catheterization would reveal very high oxygen saturation in the right atrium, right ventricle and pulmonary artery. Eventually, the left-to-right shunt will lead to pulmonary hypertension and increased afterload in the right ventricle, along with the increased preload due to the shunted blood. This will either cause right ventricular failure, or raise the pressure in the right side of the heart to equal or more than that in the left. Elevation of right atrial pressure to that of left atrial pressure would thus lead to diminishing or complete cessation of the shunt. If left uncorrected, there will be reversal of the shunt, known as Eisenmenger syndrome, resulting in clinical signs of cyanosis as the oxygen-poor blood form right side of the heart will mix with the blood in left side and reach the peripheral vascular system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
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  • Question 170 - The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the...

    Incorrect

    • The occipital artery is accompanied by which nerve as it arises from the external carotid artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)

      Explanation:

      Three main types of variations in the relations of the occipital artery and the hypoglossal nerve are found according to the level at which the nerve crosses the external carotid artery and the point of origin of the occipital artery. In Type I, the hypoglossal nerve crosses the external carotid artery inferior to the origin of the occipital artery; in Type II, the nerve crosses the external carotid artery at the level of origin of the occipital artery; and in Type III, it crosses superior to that level. In Type III the occipital artery makes a loop around the hypoglossal nerve and is in a position to pull and exert pressure on the nerve. This possibility should be taken into consideration in the diagnosis of peripheral paresis or paralysis of the tongue and during surgery in this area.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 171 - The normal location of the major duodenal papilla: ...

    Incorrect

    • The normal location of the major duodenal papilla:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Descending part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      The major duodenal papilla is on the descending portion of the duodenum on the medial side, about 7-10cm from the pylorus. The pancreatic ducts and the common bile ducts unite and open by a common orifice on the summit of the duodenal papilla.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 172 - A 34 year old man is undergoing an inguinal hernia repair as a...

    Incorrect

    • A 34 year old man is undergoing an inguinal hernia repair as a day case procedure and is being given sevoflurane. Which of the following is the best option for maintaining his airway during the procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Insertion of laryngeal mask

      Explanation:

      The laryngeal airway mask (LAM) is a device for anaesthetic air way management. The primary advantage of the laryngeal airway mask (LAM) over the face mask during general anaesthesia includes the ability to obtain, secure, and maintain a patent airway. The laryngeal mask airway is passed beyond the tongue, forming a seal with the laryngeal inlet and eliminating the most common cause of upper airway obstruction in the non-intubated patient.

      Maintenance of a patent airway with fewer episodes of oxygen desaturation has been demonstrated for the LAM as compared with the face mask. Environmental inhalational gas exposure values associated with the use of a LAM have been shown to be less than those achieved with a face mask and comparable to those with the use of an endotracheal tube. Ocular and facial nerve injuries associated with prolonged face mask use are also avoided. The advantages of the laryngeal mask airway include anaesthetic management, induction, maintenance, and emergence.

      The placement of the LMA can be accomplished without muscle relaxants and laryngoscopy. The avoidance of succinylcholine may decrease the incidence of post-operative myalgias. Significant and potentially detrimental hemodynamic changes associated with both laryngoscopy and tracheal intubation are also attenuated and are of shorter duration with the use of the laryngeal mask airway. Compared with an endotracheal tube, the anaesthetic requirement for tolerance of the LAM has also been reported to be less. Differences in the response to the LAM are also seen during emergence from anaesthesia. The LAM is well tolerated, with a lower reported incidence of hyperactive respiratory occurrences (e.g., coughing, laryngospasm, breath holding) than with an endotracheal tube. The anatomic placement of the LAM, with its lack of impingement on the trachea and vocal cords, minimizes complications that are potentially associated with intubation. According to Swann et al. incidence of postoperative sore throat as well as hoarseness is less with the LAM compared with the endotracheal tube.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Post-operative Management And Critical Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 173 - A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant...

    Incorrect

    • A 66-year-old man complains of constant headaches. On physical examination, the only relevant sign is a dark brown mole located on left his arm which has grown in size over the years and is itchy and painful. A MRI of the brain revealed a solitary lesion at the grey-white junction in the right frontal lobe, without ring enhancement. This lesion is most likely to be:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metastatic carcinoma

      Explanation:

      The location of the mass at the grey–white junction is typical of a metastasis. The most frequent types of metastatic brain tumours originate in the lung, skin, kidney, breast and colon. These tumour cells reach the brain via the bloodstream. This patient is likely to have skin cancer, which caused the metastatic brain tumour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
      0
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  • Question 174 - Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases can cause paraesthesia along the distribution of the median nerve of the hand, especially after activities which require flexion and extension of the wrist?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Carpal tunnel syndrome tends to occur in women between the ages of 30-50. There are many risk factors, including diabetes, hypothyroidism, obesity, pregnancy, and repetitive wrist work. Symptoms include pain in the hand and wrist, tingling, and numbness distributed along the median nerve (the palmar side of the thumb, the index and middle fingers, and the radial half of the ring finger), which worsens at night.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 175 - Which of the following changes in the histology of the cell is most...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following changes in the histology of the cell is most likely to be accompanied by disruption of the cell membrane following an injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coagulative necrosis

      Explanation:

      The process of necrosis ends with the rupture of the cell membrane and the consequent release of the cellular components into the surrounding tissue. Apoptosis, pyknosis and karyorrhexis are not reversible events but the cell membrane remains intact. Cloudy swelling and hydropic changes are also reversible but again the cell membrane remains intact and they are therefore different and distinct from necrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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  • Question 176 - A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through...

    Incorrect

    • A patient sustained an iatrogenic injury to one of the structures passing through the deep inguinal ring. This was during an operation to repair an inguinal hernia. Which structure is most likely to be injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Round ligament of the uterus

      Explanation:

      The deep inguinal ring transmits the spermatic cord in the man and the round ligament of the uterus in the female. It is bound below and medially by the inferior epigastric vessels (so these don’t go through it).
      The ilioinguinal nerve, although it courses through the inguinal canal, does not pass through it.
      The iliohypogastric nerves run between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis in the abdominal wall, piercing the internal oblique at the anterior superior iliac spine to travel just deep to the external oblique.
      The inferior epigastric artery runs between the transversus abdominis and the peritoneum forming the lateral umbilical fold.
      The medial umbilical ligament is the obliterated umbilical artery that it lies within the medial umbilical fold of peritoneum.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 177 - Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is a fact worth noting about the development of the spleen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It develops in the dorsal mesogastrium

      Explanation:

      The spleen in the human embryo arises in week 5 of intrauterine life. It appears as a proliferating mesenchyme above the pancreas. The spleen is one the organs that develops in the dorsal mesogastrium. When the stomach changes its position during development, the spleen is made to move behind the stomach and stays in contact with the left kidney. The spleen is found within the peritoneum of the abdominal cavity thus it is an intraperitoneal organ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 178 - A 48-year-old male is admitted after his clothing caught fire. He suffers a...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male is admitted after his clothing caught fire. He suffers a full-thickness circumferential burn to his lower thigh. He complains of increasing pain in the lower leg and on examination, there is paraesthesia and severe pain in the lower leg. Foot pulses are normal. What is the most likely explanation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compartment syndrome

      Explanation:

      Full-thickness circumferential and near-circumferential skin burns result in the formation of a tough, inelastic mass of burnt tissue (eschar). The eschar, by virtue of this inelasticity, results in the burn-induced compartment syndrome. This is caused by the accumulation of extracellular and extravascular fluid within confined anatomic spaces of the extremities or digits. The excessive fluid causes the intracompartmental pressures to increase, resulting in the collapse of the contained vascular and lymphatic structures and, hence, loss of tissue viability.
      Most compartment syndromes associated with a burn injury do not present in the immediate postburn period unless there is associated with traumatic injury or the patient presents in a delayed fashion. As such, compartment syndromes after burns are not commonly observed in the emergency department. Instead, they develop during the first 6–12 h of the initial volume resuscitation period as the administered intravascular volume goes into the interstitial and intracellular spaces resulting in tissue oedema in or under the burned tissue.

      Patients with compartment syndrome typically present with pain whose severity appears out of proportion to the injury. The pain is often described as burning. The pain is also deep and aching in nature and is worsened by passive stretching of the involved muscles. The patient may describe a tense feeling in the extremity. Pain, however, should not be a sine qua non of the diagnosis. In severe trauma, such as an open fracture, it is difficult to differentiate between pain from the fracture and pain resulting from increased compartment pressure.
      Paraesthesia or numbness is an unreliable early complaint; however, decreased 2-point discrimination is a more reliable early test and can be helpful to make the diagnosis.
      The traditional 5 P’s of acute ischemia in a limb (i.e., pain, paraesthesia, pallor, pulselessness, poikilothermia) are not clinically reliable; they may manifest only in the late stages of compartment syndrome, by which time extensive and irreversible soft tissue damage may have taken place.

      Escharotomy is the surgical division of the nonviable eschar, which allows the cutaneous envelope to become more compliant. Hence, the underlying tissues have an increased available volume to expand into, preventing further tissue injury or functional compromise

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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  • Question 179 - The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old...

    Incorrect

    • The surgical registrar is doing an exploratory laparotomy on a 35 year old lady of African descent with tuberculous of the abdomen and suspected perforation. The small bowel is matted due to adhesions and it is difficult to differentiate the ileum from the jejunum. Which of the following features is typical of the jejunum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It has sparse aggregated lymph nodules

      Explanation:

      The jejunum has a wider diameter, is thicker and more vascularized, hence of a deeper colour compared to the ileum. The valvulae conniventes (circular folds) of its mucous membranes are large and thick and its villi are larger than those in the ileum. The jejunum also has sparse aggregates of lymph nodules and most of its part occupies the umbilical and left iliac regions whilst the ileum is mostly in the umbilical, hypogastric, right iliac and pelvic regions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
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  • Question 180 - Vincristine is a chemotherapy agent used to treat a number of types of...

    Incorrect

    • Vincristine is a chemotherapy agent used to treat a number of types of cancer. Which of the following is a recognised major side-effect of vincristine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Vincristine is an alkaloid chemotherapeutic agent. It is used to treat a number of types of cancer including acute lymphocytic leukaemia, acute myeloid leukaemia, Hodgkin’s disease, neuroblastoma, and small cell lung cancer among others. The main side-effects of vincristine are peripheral neuropathy and constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Pathology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Principles Of Surgery-in-General (4/4) 100%
Surgical Technique And Technology (1/1) 100%
Generic Surgical Topics (3/5) 60%
Urology (2/2) 100%
The Abdomen (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (3/3) 100%
Anatomy (7/7) 100%
Basic Sciences (14/16) 88%
Physiology (3/3) 100%
Pathology (4/6) 67%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Breast And Endocrine Surgery (0/1) 0%
Passmed