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  • Question 1 - What is correct regarding the obturator artery? ...

    Correct

    • What is correct regarding the obturator artery?

      Your Answer: It is found in the medial compartment of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The obturator artery is a branch of the internal iliac artery, which passes antero-inferiorly on the lateral wall of the pelvis, to the upper part of the obturator foramen. The posterior branch follows the posterior margin of the foramen and turns forward on the inferior ramus of the ischium. It also supplies an articular branch, which enters the hip joint through the acetabular notch, sending a branch along the ligamentum teres to the head of the femur. It is the main source of arterial supply to the medial compartment of the thigh

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      53.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 31-year-old woman is diagnosed with adrenal hyperplasia, and laboratory samples are taken...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman is diagnosed with adrenal hyperplasia, and laboratory samples are taken to measure serum aldosterone and another substance. Which is most likely to be the other test that was prescribed to this patient?

      Your Answer: Plasma renin

      Explanation:

      The evaluation of a patient in whom hyperaldosteronism is first to determine that hyperaldosteronism is present (serum aldosterone) and, if it is present, to differentiate primary from secondary causes of hyperaldosteronism. The aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR) is the most sensitive means of differentiating primary from secondary causes of hyperaldosteronism as it is abnormally increased in primary hyperaldosteronism, and decreased or normal but with high renin levels in secondary hyperaldosteronism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      • Physiology
      86.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 41 year old paediatrician presents with right upper quadrant pain and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old paediatrician presents with right upper quadrant pain and a sensation of abdominal fullness. A 6.7 cm hyperechoic lesion in the right lobe of the liver is detected when an ultrasound scan is done. Tests show that the serum AFP is normal. What is the most likely underlying lesion?

      Your Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Haemangioma

      Explanation:

      A cavernous liver haemangioma or hepatic haemangioma is a benign tumour of the liver composed of hepatic endothelial cells. It is the most common liver tumour, and is usually asymptomatic and diagnosed incidentally on radiological imaging. Liver haemangiomas are thought to be congenital in origin. Several subtypes exist, including the giant hepatic haemangioma, which can cause significant complications. This large, atypical haemangioma of the liver may present with abdominal pain or fullness due to haemorrhage, thrombosis or mass effect. It may also lead to left ventricular volume overload and heart failure due to the increase in cardiac output which it causes. Further complications are Kasabach-Merritt syndrome, a form of consumptive coagulopathy due to thrombocytopaenia, and rupture.

      As one of the benign neoplasms, the AFP level of hepatic cavernous haemangioma patients is not usually outside the normal range.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
      66
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 11 month old baby develops periumbilical abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea after having...

    Incorrect

    • A 11 month old baby develops periumbilical abdominal discomfort and diarrhoea after having a sore throat and fever for a few days. He presents to the A&E department and an ultrasound is done which shows a 'target sign' on the right side of the abdomen. What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Undertake urgent hydrostatic reduction

      Correct Answer: Obtain intravenous access, administer fluids and antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Answer: Obtain intravenous access, administer fluids and antibiotics.

      Intussusception is a condition in which one segment of intestine telescopes inside of another, causing an intestinal obstruction (blockage). Although intussusception can occur anywhere in the gastrointestinal tract, it usually occurs at the junction of the small and large intestines. The obstruction can cause swelling and inflammation that can lead to intestinal injury. The patient with intussusception is usually an infant, often one who has had an upper respiratory infection, who presents with the following symptoms:

      Vomiting: Initially, vomiting is nonbilious and reflexive, but when the intestinal obstruction occurs, vomiting becomes bilious

      Abdominal pain: Pain in intussusception is colicky, severe, and intermittent

      Passage of blood and mucus: Parents report the passage of stools, by affected children, that look like currant jelly; this is a mixture of mucus, sloughed mucosa, and shed blood; diarrhoea can also be an early sign of intussusception

      Lethargy: This can be the sole presenting symptom of intussusception, which makes the condition’s diagnosis challenging

      Palpable abdominal mass

      Diagnosis:
      Ultrasonography: Hallmarks of ultrasonography include the target and pseudo kidney signs.

      For all children, start intravenous fluid resuscitation and nasogastric decompression as soon as possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Paediatric Surgery
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 12 year old girl is admitted with severe (35%) burns following a fire at home. She was transferred to the critical care unit after the wound was cleaned and dressed. She became tachycardic and hypotensive one day after skin grafts were done. She has vomited three times and blood was seen in it. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cushing's ulcers

      Correct Answer: Curling's ulcers

      Explanation:

      Answer: Curling’s ulcers

      Curling’s ulcer is an acute gastric erosion resulting as a complication from severe burns when reduced plasma volume leads to ischemia and cell necrosis (sloughing) of the gastric mucosa. The most common mode of presentation of stress ulcer is the onset of acute upper GI bleed like hematemesis or melena in a patient with the acute critical illness.

      A similar condition involving elevated intracranial pressure is known as Cushing’s ulcer. Cushing’s ulcer is a gastro-duodenal ulcer produced by elevated intracranial pressure caused by an intracranial tumour, head injury or other space-occupying lesions. The ulcer, usually single and deep, may involve the oesophagus, stomach, and duodenum. Increased intracranial pressure may affect different areas of the hypothalamic nuclei or brainstem leading to overstimulation of the vagus nerve or paralysis of the sympathetic system. Both of these circumstances increase secretion of gastric acid and the likelihood of ulceration of gastro-duodenal mucosa.

      Mallory-Weiss syndrome is characterized by upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to longitudinal mucosal lacerations (known as Mallory-Weiss tears) at the gastroesophageal junction or gastric cardia. However, Mallory-Weiss syndrome may occur after any event that provokes a sudden rise in the intragastric pressure or gastric prolapse into the oesophagus, including antecedent transoesophageal echocardiography. Precipitating factors include retching, vomiting, straining, hiccupping, coughing, primal scream therapy, blunt abdominal trauma, and cardiopulmonary resuscitation. In a few cases, no apparent precipitating factor can be identified. One study reported that 25% of patients had no identifiable risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      15.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65 year old man develops persistent pyrexia on his 2nd postoperative day....

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man develops persistent pyrexia on his 2nd postoperative day. He has undergone an open extended right hemicolectomy for carcinoma of the colonic-splenic flexure. What is the least likely cause?

      Your Answer: Atelectasis

      Correct Answer: Ileus

      Explanation:

      Pyrexia is a very common post operative finding and can most likely result from an infection. However, it is highly unlikely to occur as a result of ileus. Anastomotic leaks are uncommon after right sided colonic surgery. In this scenario atelectasis would be the most likely underlying cause, as open extended right hemicolectomies will necessitate a long midline incision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Peri-operative Care
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      32.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old male cuts the corner of his lip whilst shaving. Over the...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old male cuts the corner of his lip whilst shaving. Over the next few days, a large purplish lesion appears at the site which bleeds on contact. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pyogenic granuloma

      Explanation:

      Pyogenic granuloma (lobular capillary haemangioma) is a relatively common benign vascular lesion of the skin and mucosa whose exact cause is unknown
      The name pyogenic granuloma is a misnomer since the condition is not associated with pus and does not represent a granuloma histologically. Pyogenic granuloma of the oral cavity is known to involve the gingiva commonly. Extragingivally, it can occur on the lips, tongue, buccal mucosa, palate, and the like. A history of trauma is common in such sites. The aetiology of the lesion is not known, though it was originally believed to be a botryomycotic infection. It is theorized that pyogenic granuloma possibly originates as a response of tissues to minor trauma and/or chronic irritation, thus opening a pathway for the invasion of nonspecific microorganisms, although microorganisms are seldom demonstrated within the lesion. Pathogenesis of pyogenic granuloma is still debatable.
      Patients with pyogenic granuloma may report a painless glistening red lesion that bleeds spontaneously or after irritation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Skin Lesions
      98.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 62 year old man presents with sudden onset of palpitations. ECG shows...

    Correct

    • A 62 year old man presents with sudden onset of palpitations. ECG shows broad complex tachycardia at a rate of 150 beats per minute. The blood pressure is 120/82 mmHg and there is no evidence of heart failure. The doctor wants to prescribe a rate controlling medication. Which of the following should be avoided in this case?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      The use of intravenous diltiazem or verapamil is contraindicated in patients with ventricular tachycardia. The IV administration of a calcium channel blocker can precipitate cardiac arrest in such patients.
      Marked hemodynamic deterioration and ventricular fibrillation have occurred in patients with wide-complex ventricular tachycardia (QRS >= 0.12 seconds) treated with IV verapamil.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
      • Principles Of Surgery-in-General
      84.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old man sustains a Holstein-Lewis fracture of the left arm. Which of...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man sustains a Holstein-Lewis fracture of the left arm. Which of the following nerves is at risk of damage?

      Your Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      Holstein-Lewis fracture is a fracture of the distal third of the humerus resulting in entrapment of the radial nerve. The radial nerve is one of the major peripheral nerves of the upper limb. It innervates all the muscles in the extensor compartments of the arm.

      Conservative treatment for this fracture includes reduction and use of a functional brace. However, vascular injury may require open surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Generic Surgical Topics
      • Orthopaedics
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp...

    Correct

    • A 16 year-old boy was stabbed in the right supraclavicular fossa. The sharp object punctured the portion of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib. What is the name of this portion of the parietal pleura?

      Your Answer: Cupola

      Explanation:

      Endothoracic fascia: the connective tissue (fascia) that is between the costal parietal pleura and the inner wall of the chest wall.
      Costomediastinal recess: the point where the costal pleura becomes mediastinal pleura.
      Costodiaphragmatic recess: is the lowest point of the pleural sac where the costal pleura becomes diaphragmatic pleura.
      Cupola: the part of the parietal pleura that extends above the first rib level into the root of the neck.
      Costocervical recess: this is a made-up term.
      Peritracheal fascia: a layer of connective tissue that invests the trachea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Basic Sciences
      48.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (2/2) 100%
Basic Sciences (3/3) 100%
Physiology (1/1) 100%
Generic Surgical Topics (2/4) 50%
Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery (0/1) 0%
Paediatric Surgery (0/1) 0%
Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma (1/2) 50%
Principles Of Surgery-in-General (1/3) 33%
Peri-operative Care (0/1) 0%
Skin Lesions (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
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