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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old patient is admitted for surgery after fracturing their tibia in a...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old patient is admitted for surgery after fracturing their tibia in a car accident. 24 hours after the operation, the patient reports experiencing severe pain and tingling sensations. Upon examination, the anterior leg appears red, swollen, and feels cooler than the rest of the limb. Dorsiflexion of the foot is impaired, and there is a loss of sensation over the first and second toes. The intracompartmental pressure of the anterior compartment measures 40mmHg. A weak pulse is palpated just lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon. Which artery's pulse is felt at this anatomical site?

      Your Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery

      Explanation:

      The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      415.5
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is inaccurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements regarding psoriasis is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: Nail signs include pitting and onycholysis

      Correct Answer: Mediated by type 2 helper T cells

      Explanation:

      Psoriasis is caused by type 1 helper T cells that participate in the cellular immune response, as opposed to type 2 helper T cells.

      Psoriasis: A Chronic Skin Disorder with Various Subtypes and Complications

      Psoriasis is a prevalent chronic skin disorder that affects around 2% of the population. It is characterized by red, scaly patches on the skin, but it is now known that patients with psoriasis are at an increased risk of arthritis and cardiovascular disease. The pathophysiology of psoriasis is multifactorial and not yet fully understood. It is associated with genetic factors such as HLA-B13, -B17, and -Cw6, and abnormal T cell activity that stimulates keratinocyte proliferation. Environmental factors such as skin trauma, stress, streptococcal infection, and sunlight exposure can worsen, trigger, or improve psoriasis.

      There are several recognized subtypes of psoriasis, including plaque psoriasis, flexural psoriasis, guttate psoriasis, and pustular psoriasis. Each subtype has its own unique characteristics and affects different areas of the body. Psoriasis can also cause nail signs such as pitting and onycholysis, as well as arthritis.

      Complications of psoriasis include psoriatic arthropathy, metabolic syndrome, cardiovascular disease, venous thromboembolism, and psychological distress. It is important for patients with psoriasis to receive proper management and treatment to prevent these complications and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      735.1
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  • Question 3 - As a junior doctor in orthopaedic surgery, you are tasked with evaluating a...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor in orthopaedic surgery, you are tasked with evaluating a 42-year-old woman who is scheduled for surgery tomorrow to repair an open radial fracture resulting from a bike accident. The patient has a medical history of severe psoriasis, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, polycystic ovary syndrome, and depression. Routine blood tests were ordered before the surgery, and the results are surprising:

      - Bilirubin: 17 µmol/L (normal range: 3 - 17)
      - ALP: 89 u/L (normal range: 30 - 100)
      - ALT: 354 u/L (normal range: 3 - 40)
      - γGT: 61 u/L (normal range: 8 - 60)
      - Albumin: 34 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)

      Which medication is most likely responsible for this abnormality?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      Hepatotoxicity is a potential side effect of using Methotrexate to treat severe psoriasis. The use of combined oral contraceptive pills may increase the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast cancer. Fluoxetine may cause serotonin syndrome, while morphine can lead to respiratory depression and overdose, both of which are serious risks.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 4 - A 26-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of anterior hip...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of anterior hip pain that exacerbates when he lifts his thigh towards his chest. Upon further inquiry, the physician discovers that the patient is an avid runner and runs more than 60 km per week. The physician suspects that the pain may be a result of the patient overusing his hip flexor muscles.

      Based on the physician's suspicion, which muscle is the most probable to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Iliopsoas

      Explanation:

      Although Pectineus is a hip flexor, it is not as significant as iliopsoas in this function. Its origin is the pubic bone, and it inserts into the femur. Additionally, it assists in adducting and internally rotating the thigh.

      The Psoas Muscle: Origin, Insertion, Innervation, and Action

      The psoas muscle is a deep-seated muscle that originates from the transverse processes of the five lumbar vertebrae and the superficial part originates from T12 and the first four lumbar vertebrae. It inserts into the lesser trochanter of the femur and is innervated by the anterior rami of L1 to L3.

      The main action of the psoas muscle is flexion and external rotation of the hip. When both sides of the muscle contract, it can raise the trunk from the supine position. The psoas muscle is an important muscle for maintaining proper posture and movement, and it is often targeted in exercises such as lunges and leg lifts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 5 - A 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension, obesity, and chronic kidney disease...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male with a history of hypertension, obesity, and chronic kidney disease complains of acute pain and redness in his right ankle, making it difficult for him to bear weight. He denies any recent injury and reports feeling generally well. Laboratory results reveal:

      - Hemoglobin: 134 g/L
      - Platelets: 312 * 10^9/L
      - White blood cells: 9.1 * 10^9/L
      - C-reactive protein: 49 mg/L
      - Serum urate: 0.3 mmol/L

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gout

      Explanation:

      Once the inflammation has subsided, it is recommended to test the serum urate in suspected cases of gout, as its levels may vary from high to low or normal during an acute attack. Additionally, the patient’s overall good health and moderately elevated CRP levels suggest that septic arthritis is less probable.

      Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and can affect various joints, with the first metatarsophalangeal joint being the most commonly affected. Swelling and redness are also common symptoms of gout.

      If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to joint damage and chronic joint problems. To diagnose gout, doctors may perform synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarised light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack.

      Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, gout does not cause periarticular osteopenia. Soft tissue tophi may also be visible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with profuse bleeding from her...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with profuse bleeding from her arm due to an injury. Upon examination, a 6 cm transverse laceration is observed across the anterior aspect of her elbow. When exploring the cubital fossa, where would you expect to find the brachial artery?

      Your Answer: Lateral to the median nerve

      Explanation:

      The median nerve is usually located medial to the brachial artery.

      The Antecubital Fossa: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The antecubital fossa is a depression located on the anterior aspect of the arm, between the arm and forearm. It is an important area for medical professionals as it is where venous blood samples are typically taken from. The borders of the antecubital fossa are the brachioradialis muscle laterally, the pronator teres medially, and a line between the medial and lateral epicondyles superiorly.

      There are both deep and superficial structures found in the antecubital fossa. Deep structures include the radial nerve, tendon of the biceps muscle, brachial artery, and medial nerve. Superficial structures consist of a network of veins, including the cephalic vein and basilic vein, which come together as the median cubital vein.

      The main clinical relevance of the antecubital fossa is its use for blood sampling and cannulation. However, it is also important to have a working knowledge of the anatomy as structures can become damaged. Excessive straining of the biceps tendon can cause it to rupture, leading to a ‘Popeye sign’. Damage to the medial nerve can also occur, resulting in muscle paralysis in the forearm and hand. Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the antecubital fossa is crucial for medical professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 7 - Which one of the following is a content of the adductor canal? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a content of the adductor canal?

      Your Answer: Femoral nerve

      Correct Answer: Saphenous nerve

      Explanation:

      The saphenous nerve and the superficial branch of the femoral artery are both present in this area.

      The Adductor Canal: Anatomy and Contents

      The adductor canal, also known as Hunter’s or the subsartorial canal, is a structure located in the middle third of the thigh, immediately distal to the apex of the femoral triangle. It is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis muscle and posteriorly by the adductor longus and adductor magnus muscles. The roof of the canal is formed by the sartorius muscle. The canal terminates at the adductor hiatus.

      The adductor canal contains three important structures: the saphenous nerve, the superficial femoral artery, and the superficial femoral vein. The saphenous nerve is a sensory nerve that supplies the skin of the medial leg and foot. The superficial femoral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the lower limb. The superficial femoral vein is a large vein that drains blood from the lower limb.

      In order to expose the contents of the adductor canal, the sartorius muscle must be removed. Understanding the anatomy and contents of the adductor canal is important for medical professionals who perform procedures in this area, such as nerve blocks or vascular surgeries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      161.1
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old male is requested to hold a pen between his thumb and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is requested to hold a pen between his thumb and index finger. He finds it difficult to accomplish this task.

      What other activity is the patient likely to have difficulty with?

      Your Answer: Abduction of the thumb

      Correct Answer: Adduction of his fingers

      Explanation:

      If a patient exhibits a positive Froment’s sign, it suggests that they may have ulnar nerve palsy. The ulnar nerve is responsible for controlling finger adduction and abduction. Meanwhile, the median nerve is responsible for thumb abduction and wrist pronation, while the radial nerve controls wrist extension.

      Nerve signs are used to assess the function of specific nerves in the body. One such sign is Froment’s sign, which is used to assess for ulnar nerve palsy. During this test, the adductor pollicis muscle function is tested by having the patient hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger. The object is then pulled away, and if the patient is unable to hold the paper and flexes the flexor pollicis longus to compensate, it may indicate ulnar nerve palsy.

      Another nerve sign used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome is Phalen’s test. This test is more sensitive than Tinel’s sign and involves holding the wrist in maximum flexion. If there is numbness in the median nerve distribution, the test is considered positive.

      Tinel’s sign is also used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. During this test, the median nerve at the wrist is tapped, and if the patient experiences tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve, the test is considered positive. These nerve signs are important tools in diagnosing and assessing nerve function in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 9 - A 14-year-old girl is referred to a geneticist with a diagnosis of Marfan's...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is referred to a geneticist with a diagnosis of Marfan's syndrome. She is also hypermobile and taller than 99% of her peers. Her mother passed away recently due to an aortic dissection.

      What is the protein that is impacted in Marfan's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibrillin-1

      Explanation:

      Marfan’s syndrome is the result of a genetic mutation affecting fibrillin-1, a crucial protein for the formation of extracellular matrix. This condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and leads to abnormal connective tissue, resulting in various symptoms such as tall stature, high arched palate, and aortic aneurysms.

      Epidermolysis bullosa, a condition characterized by severe blistering of the skin and mucous membranes, is linked to mutations in laminin V.

      Alport syndrome, which presents with glomerulonephritis and hearing loss, is caused by mutations in type IV collagen.

      Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, a connective tissue disorder that often involves hypermobility and skin fragility, is associated with mutations in type V collagen.

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      Individuals with Marfan syndrome often have a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05. They may also have a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, they may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm, which can lead to aortic dissection and aortic regurgitation. Other symptoms may include repeated pneumothoraces (collapsed lung), upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, myopia, and ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and medication such as beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, the life expectancy has significantly improved. Despite this, cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of memory loss. According...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of memory loss. According to his wife, he has been acting out of character, forgetting things like leaving the stove on and misplacing the house keys. The patient reports experiencing diarrhoea and feeling weak. He has a history of being diagnosed with a carcinoid tumour recently.

      During the examination, the patient appears dishevelled and has a red rash on his neck. What vitamin deficiency is the patient likely experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Niacin (B3)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pellagra: Symptoms and Causes

      Pellagra is a condition that results from a deficiency of nicotinic acid, also known as niacin. The classic symptoms of pellagra are commonly referred to as the 3 D’s: dermatitis, diarrhoea, and dementia. Dermatitis is characterized by a scaly, brown rash that appears on sun-exposed areas of the skin, often forming a necklace-like pattern around the neck known as Casal’s necklace. Diarrhoea and dementia are also common symptoms of pellagra, with patients experiencing chronic diarrhoea and cognitive impairment, including depression and confusion.

      Pellagra can occur as a result of isoniazid therapy, which inhibits the conversion of tryptophan to niacin. This condition is also more common in individuals who consume excessive amounts of alcohol. If left untreated, pellagra can be fatal. Therefore, it is important to recognize the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly. With proper treatment, including niacin supplementation and dietary changes, individuals with pellagra can recover and avoid further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 11 - Which of the muscles below does not cause lateral rotation of the hip?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the muscles below does not cause lateral rotation of the hip?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pectineus

      Explanation:

      P-GO-GO-Q is a mnemonic for remembering the lateral hip rotators in order from top to bottom: Piriformis, Gemellus superior, Obturator internus, Gemellus inferior, Obturator externus, and Quadratus femoris.

      Anatomy of the Hip Joint

      The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.

      There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.

      The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 12 - A 30-year-old man has been referred to a dermatology clinic due to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man has been referred to a dermatology clinic due to the presence of widespread flaccid superficial blisters and oral mucosal ulceration. He has no known history of coeliac disease. Upon biopsy, it was discovered that he has antibodies against the desmosomes that connect epithelial cells.

      What is the underlying skin condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pemphigus

      Explanation:

      Pemphigus is a skin disorder caused by autoimmune reactions where IgG antibodies attack the desmosomes that connect the skin cells. This results in acantholysis, where the keratinocytes detach from each other. In contrast, pemphigoid is another autoimmune blistering skin disorder, but it is caused by IgG autoantibodies targeting the basement membrane instead of the desmosomes.

      Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.

      The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 13 - A patient with a history of multiple deep vein thromboses presents with pain...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a history of multiple deep vein thromboses presents with pain around the medial side of their leg. On examination, venous eczema, lipodermatosclerosis, and overlying erythema are noted around the medial malleolus.

      What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this condition in a slightly older patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Four-layer compression bandaging

      Explanation:

      Venous ulcers typically develop in the gaiter region, specifically around the medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index and venous duplex ultrasound are diagnostic tools used to investigate ulcers, not treat them. The primary conservative treatment for venous ulcers is four-layer compression bandaging. If conservative measures fail, surgical debridgement may be considered. There is limited evidence supporting the use of intermittent pneumatic compression devices for venous ulcers.

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly found above the medial malleolus. To determine the cause of non-healing ulcers, it is important to conduct an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) test. A normal ABPI value is between 0.9 to 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. However, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease due to arterial calcification, especially in diabetic patients.

      The most effective treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, specifically four-layer bandaging. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate of venous ulcers. While there is some evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, there is little evidence to suggest the benefit of hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old retired firefighter visits the clinic complaining of recurring burning chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old retired firefighter visits the clinic complaining of recurring burning chest pain. He reports that the pain worsens after consuming take-away food and alcohol, and he experiences increased belching. The patient has a medical history of high cholesterol, type two diabetes, and osteoarthritis. He is currently taking atorvastatin, metformin, gliclazide, naproxen, and omeprazole, which he frequently forgets to take. Which medication is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naproxen

      Explanation:

      Peptic ulcers can be caused by the use of NSAIDs as a medication. Symptoms of peptic ulcer disease include a burning pain in the chest, which may be accompanied by belching, alcohol consumption, and high-fat foods. However, it is important to rule out any cardiac causes of the pain, especially in patients with a medical history of high cholesterol and type two diabetes.

      Other medications that can cause peptic ulcer disease include aspirin and corticosteroids. Each medication has its own specific side effects, such as myalgia with atorvastatin, hypoglycemia with gliclazide, abdominal pain with metformin, and bradycardia with propranolol.

      Understanding Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 Selective NSAIDs

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that work by inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase enzymes, which are responsible for producing key mediators involved in inflammation such as prostaglandins. By reducing the production of these mediators, NSAIDs can help alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. Examples of NSAIDs include ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen, and aspirin.

      However, NSAIDs can also have important and common side-effects, such as peptic ulceration and exacerbation of asthma. To address these concerns, COX-2 selective NSAIDs were developed. These medications were designed to reduce the incidence of side-effects seen with traditional NSAIDs, particularly peptic ulceration. Examples of COX-2 selective NSAIDs include celecoxib and etoricoxib.

      Despite their potential benefits, COX-2 selective NSAIDs are not widely used due to ongoing concerns about cardiovascular safety. This led to the withdrawal of rofecoxib (‘Vioxx’) in 2004. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential risks and benefits of NSAIDs and COX-2 selective NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 15 - A 47-year-old man is undergoing a block dissection of the groin for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is undergoing a block dissection of the groin for a malignant melanoma. During the surgery, the femoral triangle is being explored to control intraoperative bleeding. What structure forms the medial border of the femoral triangle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adductor longus

      Explanation:

      The adductor canal is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis and its roof is formed by the sartorius muscle. The adductor longus muscle forms the medial boundary of the femoral triangle.

      The Adductor Canal: Anatomy and Contents

      The adductor canal, also known as Hunter’s or the subsartorial canal, is a structure located in the middle third of the thigh, immediately distal to the apex of the femoral triangle. It is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis muscle and posteriorly by the adductor longus and adductor magnus muscles. The roof of the canal is formed by the sartorius muscle. The canal terminates at the adductor hiatus.

      The adductor canal contains three important structures: the saphenous nerve, the superficial femoral artery, and the superficial femoral vein. The saphenous nerve is a sensory nerve that supplies the skin of the medial leg and foot. The superficial femoral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the lower limb. The superficial femoral vein is a large vein that drains blood from the lower limb.

      In order to expose the contents of the adductor canal, the sartorius muscle must be removed. Understanding the anatomy and contents of the adductor canal is important for medical professionals who perform procedures in this area, such as nerve blocks or vascular surgeries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 16 - Which of the following is true regarding rheumatoid factor? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true regarding rheumatoid factor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is usually an IgM molecule reacting against patient's own IgG

      Explanation:

      IgM antibody against IgG is known as rheumatoid factor.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that requires initial investigations to determine the presence of antibodies. One such antibody is rheumatoid factor (RF), which is usually an IgM antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. The Rose-Waaler test or latex agglutination test can detect RF, with the former being more specific. RF is positive in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody is another antibody that may be detectable up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis. It has a sensitivity similar to RF but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends testing for anti-CCP antibodies in patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative. Additionally, x-rays of the hands and feet are recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis.

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      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 17 - Which ligament contains the artery supplying the head of femur in infants? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which ligament contains the artery supplying the head of femur in infants?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ligamentum teres

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Hip Joint

      The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.

      There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.

      The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been bothering him for the past four days. He reports feeling a sudden 'pop' while lifting a heavy box. The pain is now severe and radiates down his left leg. During the examination, he experiences tingling sensations on the front of his left knee and the inner part of his calf. Muscle strength is normal, but the left knee reflex is reduced. The femoral stretch test is positive on the left side. Which nerve or nerve root is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L3

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.

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  • Question 19 - A 78-year-old man complains of heartburn and indigestion for the past 3 weeks,...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man complains of heartburn and indigestion for the past 3 weeks, which he attributes to a new medication he started taking a few days ago. He has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus, osteoarthritis, right hip replacement, and recurrent falls. Which of the following medications could be causing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alendronic acid

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal problems can be caused by bisphosphonates, which are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis. These drugs can lead to gastrointestinal issues, including oesophagitis, which should prompt discontinuation of the medication. Long-term use of bisphosphonates can also result in atypical femoral fractures and osteonecrosis of the jaw. Therefore, patients should be periodically re-evaluated to assess the benefits and risks of continuing treatment, especially after five or more years of use. Before starting bisphosphonate treatment, patients should have a dental check-up and any necessary dental work should be performed.

      Gliclazide, a sulfonylurea drug, can cause hypoglycemia symptoms such as dizziness, lack of energy, drowsiness, headache, and sweating.

      Metformin is associated with lactic acidosis and gastrointestinal problems.

      Bisoprolol can cause erectile dysfunction, cold hands and feet, bradycardia, and hypotension.

      Paracetamol, unlike NSAIDs, is not known to cause indigestion.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

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  • Question 20 - A 58-year-old male presents to the urgent care centre with complaints of back...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old male presents to the urgent care centre with complaints of back pain after spending the day replanting hedges. During the examination, he exhibits weakness in hip abduction and great toe dorsiflexion, foot drop, and some sensory loss on the dorsum of his foot. There is no apparent change in his reflexes.

      What could be the probable reason behind these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L5 radiculopathy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.

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  • Question 21 - The Trendelenburg test evaluates the integrity of which muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • The Trendelenburg test evaluates the integrity of which muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gluteus medius

      Explanation:

      The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function

      The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.

      When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.

      To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.

      It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.

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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left thigh pain, tingling, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of left thigh pain, tingling, and numbness that have been gradually worsening for the past 2 months. She points to the lateral and posterior aspects of her left thigh when asked to indicate the affected area. There is no history of leg or hip injury. During the examination, she demonstrates full range of motion in both hips, and her power is 5/5.

      What nerve is the most probable cause of her injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh. The patient’s symptoms suggest meralgia paraesthetica, which is caused by compression of the nerve near the ASIS. The location of the tingling and numbness, as well as the absence of motor symptoms, point towards this diagnosis.

      The femoral nerve, obturator nerve, and sciatic nerve are not the correct answers. Each of these nerves would cause different symptoms and are typically injured in different ways.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

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  • Question 23 - Which of the structures listed below articulates with the head of the radius...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the structures listed below articulates with the head of the radius superiorly?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Capitulum

      Explanation:

      The capitulum of the humerus forms a joint with the head of the radius.

      Anatomy of the Radius Bone

      The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.

      The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.

      The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.

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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old woman has been referred to the osteoporosis clinic by her GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman has been referred to the osteoporosis clinic by her GP for alternate bone-sparing treatment. She recently had a bone density scan after experiencing a low impact distal radial fracture. Her T-score for her hip and spine were -2.6 and -2.2 respectively. Despite trying different bisphosphate preparations such as alendronate and risedronate, she experienced significant gastrointestinal side effects. The clinic has decided to start her on a RANKL inhibitor. What treatment is being referred to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Denosumab

      Explanation:

      Denosumab is the correct answer as it inhibits RANKL and prevents the development of osteoclasts, which are responsible for bone resorption. Strontium ranelate promotes bone formation and reduces bone resorption, while teriparatide promotes bone formation and zoledronic acid slows down the rate of bone change and is used in the treatment of osteoporosis and fracture prevention in cancer patients.

      Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns

      Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.

      The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.

      Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.

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  • Question 25 - What is a true statement about slipped capital femoral epiphysis? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A chronic slip, with symptoms over weeks to months is the most common presentation

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hip Problems in Children

      Hip problems in children can be caused by various conditions. Development dysplasia of the hip is often detected during newborn examination and can be identified through positive Barlow and Ortolani tests, as well as unequal skin folds or leg length. Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is the most common cause of hip pain in children aged 2-10 years and is associated with acute hip pain following a viral infection.

      Perthes disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is more common in boys and can be identified through symptoms such as hip pain, limp, stiffness, and reduced range of hip movement. X-rays may show early changes such as widening of joint space, followed by decreased femoral head size or flattening.

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is more common in obese children and boys aged 10-15 years. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms such as knee or distal thigh pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion.

      Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a type of arthritis that occurs in children under 16 years old and lasts for more than three months. Pauciarticular JIA, which accounts for around 60% of JIA cases, affects four or fewer joints and is characterized by joint pain and swelling, usually in medium-sized joints such as knees, ankles, and elbows. ANA may be positive in JIA and is associated with anterior uveitis.

      The image gallery shows examples of Perthes disease and slipped upper femoral epiphysis. It is important to identify and treat hip problems in children early to prevent long-term complications.

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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a complaint of right...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a complaint of right arm pain. He reports that the pain started abruptly while lifting weights at the gym and that his arm feels weaker than usual.

      Upon performing an ultrasound of the upper arm, a distal biceps tendon tear is identified.

      Which specific movement is expected to be impacted by this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supination and elbow flexion

      Explanation:

      The biceps brachii is mainly responsible for supination and elbow flexion. If the tendon associated with this muscle is torn, it can affect these movements.

      External rotation is primarily performed by the infraspinatus and teres minor muscles, not the biceps brachii.

      The teres major muscle, not the biceps brachii, is responsible for internal rotation.

      Pronation is performed by the pronator quadratus and pronator teres muscles, while elbow flexion is performed by the triceps muscle. Therefore, these actions are not associated with the biceps brachii.

      Shoulder abduction involves muscles such as the supraspinatus and deltoid, but it does not involve the biceps brachii.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling off her bike...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department after falling off her bike and landing on her outstretched hand. She experiences tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox and is treated conservatively before being discharged. However, when she returns for outpatient follow-up several weeks later, she reports ongoing wrist pain. What is the probable complication that has arisen from her initial injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis

      Explanation:

      A scaphoid fracture can result in avascular necrosis due to the bone’s limited blood supply through the tubercle. This complication is often seen in patients who have fallen on an outstretched hand and may not be immediately visible on X-ray. Carpal tunnel syndrome, compartment syndrome, and Guyon canal syndrome are not typically associated with a scaphoid fracture and present with different symptoms and causes.

      The scaphoid bone has various articular surfaces for different bones in the wrist. It has a concave surface for the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface for the lunate. The proximal end has a wide convex surface for the radius, while the distal end has a tubercle that can be felt. The remaining articular surface faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones. The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum and is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis.

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  • Question 28 - A 16-year-old male presents to the physician with severe right dorsoradial wrist pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents to the physician with severe right dorsoradial wrist pain, which had a gradual onset over the past week. He had tripped over the pavement one month ago, breaking his fall with his outstretched right hand. However, he did not seek medical attention for it as the pain was not severe then.

      Clinical examination reveals tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, and the range of motion of the wrist is limited by pain. There is no overlying skin changes. His sensation over the median, radial and ulnar distributions of the hand was intact.

      Radiographs of the wrist show collapse and fragmentation. The patient was diagnosed with a scaphoid fracture and informed that he has a complication due to delaying medical attention. He is then promptly scheduled for surgery.

      What is the reason for the development of this complication in a 16-year-old male with a scaphoid fracture who delayed seeking medical attention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood supply from the dorsal carpal branch is disrupted, resulting in avascular necrosis of the scaphoid.

      Explanation:

      The radial vein is not involved in avascular necrosis of the scaphoid. The abductor pollicis brevis muscle, which is responsible for thumb movement and located near the scaphoid bone, is supplied by the superficial palmar arch and is not typically affected by avascular necrosis in scaphoid fractures. Nonunion refers to the failure of bony union beyond a certain period of time, but as it has only been one month since the injury and only one radiograph has been taken, it is premature to diagnose non-union in this patient.

      A scaphoid fracture is a type of wrist fracture that usually occurs when a person falls onto an outstretched hand or during contact sports. It is important to identify scaphoid fractures as they can lead to avascular necrosis due to the unusual blood supply of the scaphoid bone. Patients with scaphoid fractures typically experience pain along the radial aspect of the wrist and loss of grip or pinch strength. Clinical examination involves checking for tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox, wrist joint effusion, pain on telescoping of the thumb, tenderness of the scaphoid tubercle, and pain on ulnar deviation of the wrist. Plain film radiographs and scaphoid views are used to diagnose scaphoid fractures, but MRI is considered the definitive investigation. Initial management involves immobilization with a splint or backslab and referral to orthopaedics. Orthopaedic management depends on the type of fracture, with undisplaced fractures typically treated with a cast and displaced fractures requiring surgical fixation. Complications of scaphoid fractures include non-union and avascular necrosis.

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  • Question 29 - A woman suffers a cut between the base of her ring finger and...

    Incorrect

    • A woman suffers a cut between the base of her ring finger and wrist. A few weeks later, she experiences a decrease in her ability to adduct her thumb. Which nerve is the most probable one to have been damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ulnar Nerve Injury at the Wrist

      The ulnar nerve is a major nerve that runs from the neck down to the hand. At the wrist, it divides into two branches: the superficial and deep branches. The superficial branch provides sensation to the skin of the medial third of the palm and one and a half fingers. Meanwhile, the deep branch supplies the abductor and short flexor of the little finger, as well as the opponens digiti minimi. It also passes over the Hook of the Hamate bone and ends in the first dorsal interosseous muscle. In the palm, the deep branch innervates the lumbricals and interosseous muscles.

      Ulnar nerve injury at the wrist can occur due to various reasons, such as trauma, compression, or repetitive strain. Symptoms may include numbness, tingling, weakness, and pain in the affected area. Treatment options depend on the severity of the injury and may include rest, physical therapy, medication, or surgery.

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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old male is admitted to the renal ward after presenting with lethargy,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male is admitted to the renal ward after presenting with lethargy, swelling and two episodes of haematuria. Bloods revealed the following:

      Hb 150 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 200 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 11.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Neuts 4.5 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Lymphs 3.0 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)
      Mono 0.8 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)
      Eosin 4.0 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)

      ESR 130 mm/hr Men: < (age / 2)
      Women: < ((age + 10) / 2)

      He was found to have high circulating levels for perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (pANCA).

      What is the main target of this antibody within the cell?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myeloperoxidase (MPO)

      Explanation:

      The primary focus of pANCA is on myeloperoxidase (MPO), although it also targets lysosome, cathepsin G, and elastase to a lesser extent. Meanwhile, cANCA primarily targets PR3. All of these targets are located within the azurophilic granules of neutrophils.

      ANCA testing can be done through ELISA or immunofluorescence, which can detect anti-MPO or anti-PR3 antibodies in the blood. The pattern of immunostaining would vary depending on the specific condition.

      ANCA testing is useful in diagnosing and monitoring the disease activity of certain conditions, such as granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegner’s granulomatosis), eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (EGPA), and microscopic polyangiitis. MPO antibodies are more sensitive in detecting microscopic polyangiitis compared to EGPA.

      ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Types, Symptoms, and Management

      ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA). These include granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome), and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with symptoms such as renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, vasculitic rash, and ear, nose, and throat symptoms.

      To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis for haematuria and proteinuria, blood tests for renal impairment, full blood count, CRP, and ANCA testing. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with cANCA being associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis and pANCA being associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis and other conditions.

      Once suspected, ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams to allow an exact diagnosis to be made. The mainstay of management is immunosuppressive therapy. Kidney or lung biopsies may be taken to aid the diagnosis.

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  • Question 31 - A 26-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of low back pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of low back pain. She is in good health otherwise. She reports several finger and wrist fractures during her childhood. Her father and sister have also experienced multiple fractures throughout their lives. On examination, she displays paralumbar tenderness and scoliosis. Her sclera is blue-grey. What type of collagen mutation is likely responsible for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 1

      Explanation:

      Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by an abnormality in type 1 collagen, which is the primary component of bone, skin, and tendons. The diagnosis is based on a combination of factors, including a history of fractures, scoliosis, family history, and physical examination findings. In contrast, mutations in type 2 collagen can lead to chondrodysplasias, while mutations in type 3 collagen may cause a type of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Additionally, mutations in type 4 collagen can result in Alport’s syndrome and Goodpasture’s syndrome, as this type of collagen forms the basal lamina.

      Understanding Osteogenesis Imperfecta

      Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides.

      This condition typically presents in childhood, with individuals experiencing fractures following minor trauma. Other common features include blue sclera, deafness secondary to otosclerosis, and dental imperfections. Despite these symptoms, adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal in individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of osteogenesis imperfecta is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

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  • Question 32 - A 43-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of pain in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of pain in her left hand. She reports experiencing occasional pins and needles in her left thumb and index fingers on the palm of her hand for the past two months. The pain is more severe at night and sometimes prevents her from sleeping.

      Which nerve is responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing paraesthesia (pins and needles) and pain in the thumb and index finger, which worsens at night. This is likely due to nerve compression, specifically the median nerve, which supplies sensation to the palmar aspect of the lateral 3½ fingers.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 33 - Which one of the following cells secretes the majority of tumour necrosis factor?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following cells secretes the majority of tumour necrosis factor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Macrophages

      Explanation:

      Understanding Tumour Necrosis Factor and its Inhibitors

      Tumour necrosis factor (TNF) is a cytokine that plays a crucial role in the immune system. It is mainly secreted by macrophages and has various effects on the immune system, such as activating macrophages and neutrophils, acting as a costimulator for T cell activation, and mediating the body’s response to Gram-negative septicaemia. TNF also has anti-tumour effects and binds to both the p55 and p75 receptor, inducing apoptosis and activating NFkB.

      TNF has endothelial effects, including increased expression of selectins and production of platelet activating factor, IL-1, and prostaglandins. It also promotes the proliferation of fibroblasts and their production of protease and collagenase. TNF inhibitors are used to treat inflammatory conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s disease. Examples of TNF inhibitors include infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab, and golimumab.

      Infliximab is also used to treat active Crohn’s disease unresponsive to steroids. However, TNF blockers can have adverse effects such as reactivation of latent tuberculosis and demyelination. Understanding TNF and its inhibitors is crucial in the treatment of various inflammatory conditions.

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  • Question 34 - A 25-year-old woman is distressed about the acne on her face and arms...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is distressed about the acne on her face and arms and seeks the advice of a dermatologist. She expresses interest in trying accutane (isotretinoin) after reading positive reviews online. The dermatologist informs her of the potential adverse effects of the medication.

      What is a recognized side effect of accutane?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Photosensitivity

      Explanation:

      Isotretinoin use can cause photosensitivity, which is a known adverse effect. The statement that it is associated with low HDL and raised triglycerides is incorrect. Additionally, patients taking Isotretinoin are at risk of benign intracranial hypertension, not hypotension, and this risk is further increased by taking tetracyclines. Therefore, tetracyclines such as doxycycline should not be prescribed to patients on Isotretinoin.

      Understanding Isotretinoin and its Adverse Effects

      Isotretinoin is a type of oral retinoid that is commonly used to treat severe acne. It has been found to be effective in providing long-term remission or cure for two-thirds of patients who undergo a course of treatment. However, it is important to note that isotretinoin also comes with several adverse effects that patients should be aware of.

      One of the most significant adverse effects of isotretinoin is its teratogenicity, which means that it can cause birth defects in fetuses if taken during pregnancy. For this reason, females who are taking isotretinoin should ideally be using two forms of contraception to prevent pregnancy. Other common adverse effects of isotretinoin include dry skin, eyes, and lips/mouth, low mood, raised triglycerides, hair thinning, nose bleeds, and photosensitivity.

      It is also worth noting that there is some controversy surrounding the potential link between isotretinoin and depression or other psychiatric problems. While these adverse effects are listed in the British National Formulary (BNF), further research is needed to fully understand the relationship between isotretinoin and mental health.

      Overall, while isotretinoin can be an effective treatment for severe acne, patients should be aware of its potential adverse effects and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

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  • Question 35 - A 40-year-old male presents to the GP with fatigue and shortness of breath....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male presents to the GP with fatigue and shortness of breath. He states that he is taking methotrexate for psoriasis. The GP takes some bloods, and finds the following results in his full blood count (FBC):

      Hb 90 g/L
      MCV 90 fL
      Platelets 70 * 109/L
      WBC 2.5 * 109/L
      Neuts 1.5 * 109/L)
      Lymphs 0.7 * 109/L
      Mono 0.2 * 109/L
      Eosin 0.1 * 109/L

      The GP suspects this to be an adverse effect of methotrexate.

      What adverse effect is indicated by these results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancytopaenia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s blood test indicates a decrease in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which is known as pancytopenia. This condition is caused by severe bone marrow suppression, which is a common side effect of methotrexate. Anemia, on the other hand, would only result in a low hemoglobin level and cannot account for the low platelet and white blood cell counts.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

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  • Question 36 - A 31-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a skateboard accident. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a skateboard accident. He reports experiencing intense pain in his left lower leg. The patient has no significant medical history and is typically self-sufficient and healthy.

      During the examination, the physician notes palpable tenderness and significant bruising on the lateral side of the left leg, just below the knee. The patient is unable to dorsiflex his left foot.

      Which anatomical structure is most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing foot drop, which is characterized by the inability to dorsiflex the foot, following a fibular neck fracture. This injury commonly affects the common peroneal nerve, which supplies the dorsum of the foot and lower, lateral part of the leg. The patient’s history of falling from a skateboard and tenderness and bruising over the lower left leg support this diagnosis.

      Achilles tendon rupture, on the other hand, presents with sudden-onset pain and a popping sensation at the back of the heel. It is more common in athletes or those taking certain medications. The deltoid ligament, which stabilizes the ankle against eversion injury, is less commonly injured and would not cause foot drop. The femoral nerve, which supplies the quadriceps muscles and plays a role in knee extension, is not affected by a fibular neck fracture and does not cause foot drop. The tibial nerve, responsible for foot plantarflexion and inversion, is not directly involved in foot drop, although its lack of opposing action from the anterior muscle group of the lower leg may contribute to the foot’s plantarflexed position.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

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  • Question 37 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for the motor innervation of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for the motor innervation of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accessory nerve

      Explanation:

      The accessory nerve provides the motor supply to the sternocleidomastoid, while the ansa cervicalis is responsible for supplying sensory information from the muscle.

      The Sternocleidomastoid Muscle: Anatomy and Function

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle is a large muscle located in the neck that plays an important role in head and neck movement. It is named after its origin and insertion points, which are the sternum, clavicle, mastoid process, and occipital bone. The muscle is innervated by the spinal part of the accessory nerve and the anterior rami of C2 and C3, which provide proprioceptive feedback.

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle has several actions, including extending the head at the atlanto-occipital joint and flexing the cervical vertebral column. It also serves as an accessory muscle of inspiration. When only one side of the muscle contracts, it can laterally flex the neck and rotate the head so that the face looks upward to the opposite side.

      The sternocleidomastoid muscle divides the neck into anterior and posterior triangles, which are important landmarks for medical professionals. The anterior triangle contains several important structures, including the carotid artery, jugular vein, and thyroid gland. The posterior triangle contains the brachial plexus, accessory nerve, and several lymph nodes.

      Overall, the sternocleidomastoid muscle is a crucial muscle for head and neck movement and plays an important role in the anatomy of the neck.

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  • Question 38 - A 23-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a sharp pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a sharp pain on the right side of their chest while bench pressing 120kg at the gym. They heard a snapping noise and noticed swelling on the right side of their chest and bruising on their right arm. Upon examination, the right side of their chest appears asymmetrical with bunched up musculature, indicating a tear of the pectoralis major tendon. What is the typical insertion point for this tendon?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral lip of the intertubercular sulcus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the lateral lip of the intertubercular sulcus, which is the insertion site of the latissimus dorsi muscle.

      A ruptured pectoralis major tendon is a common injury in weight training, often occurring during the bench press exercise. The patient may experience a painful snap or hear a snapping noise, and the tension in the muscle is lost, causing the chest wall to lose its shape. Bruising may be visible on the chest or arm.

      Other anatomical features mentioned in the question include the lesser and greater tubercles of the humerus, which are insertion sites for various rotator cuff muscles, and the pectineal line on the femur, which is the insertion site for the pectineus muscle.

      Pectoralis Major Muscle: Origin, Insertion, Nerve Supply, and Actions

      The pectoralis major muscle is a large, fan-shaped muscle located in the chest region. It originates from the medial two thirds of the clavicle, manubrium, and sternocostal angle and inserts into the lateral edge of the bicipital groove of the humerus. The muscle is innervated by the lateral pectoral nerve and its main actions include adduction and medial rotation of the humerus.

      In simpler terms, the pectoralis major muscle is responsible for bringing the arm towards the body and rotating it inward. It is an important muscle for movements such as pushing, pulling, and lifting. The muscle is commonly targeted in strength training exercises such as bench press and push-ups. Understanding the origin, insertion, nerve supply, and actions of the pectoralis major muscle is important for proper exercise form and injury prevention.

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  • Question 39 - A carpal tunnel release results in median nerve damage. Which muscles will be...

    Incorrect

    • A carpal tunnel release results in median nerve damage. Which muscles will be impacted by this in the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis

      Explanation:

      Only the abductor pollicis brevis is innervated by the median nerve, while the other muscles are innervated by different nerves. It is important to be careful not to confuse the terms adductor and abductor when discussing muscle innervation.

      Abductor Pollicis Brevis: Anatomy and Function

      The abductor pollicis brevis is a muscle located in the palm of the hand. It originates from the flexor retinaculum, scaphoid, and trapezium bones and inserts into the radial side of the proximal phalanx of the thumb via a short tendon. The muscle is innervated by the recurrent branch of the median nerve in the palm.

      The main function of the abductor pollicis brevis is to abduct the thumb at the carpometacarpal and metacarpophalangeal joints. This causes the thumb to move anteriorly at right angles to the plane of the palm and to rotate medially, which is useful for activities such as typing. When the thumb is fully abducted, there is an angulation of around 30 degrees between the proximal phalanx and the metacarpal.

      Abduction of the thumb involves medial rotation of the metacarpal, and the abductor pollicis brevis is used along with the opponens pollicis in the initial stages of thumb opposition. Overall, the abductor pollicis brevis plays an important role in the movement and function of the thumb.

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  • Question 40 - A 25-year-old male patient arrives with a belated diagnosis of appendicitis. The appendix...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient arrives with a belated diagnosis of appendicitis. The appendix is located retrocaecally and has resulted in a psoas abscess due to perforation. What is the structure that the psoas major muscle inserts into?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lesser trochanter of the femur

      Explanation:

      The lesser trochanter is the insertion point of the psoas major.

      The Psoas Muscle: Origin, Insertion, Innervation, and Action

      The psoas muscle is a deep-seated muscle that originates from the transverse processes of the five lumbar vertebrae and the superficial part originates from T12 and the first four lumbar vertebrae. It inserts into the lesser trochanter of the femur and is innervated by the anterior rami of L1 to L3.

      The main action of the psoas muscle is flexion and external rotation of the hip. When both sides of the muscle contract, it can raise the trunk from the supine position. The psoas muscle is an important muscle for maintaining proper posture and movement, and it is often targeted in exercises such as lunges and leg lifts.

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  • Question 41 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her work performance....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP with concerns about her work performance. She reports experiencing painful episodes in her fingers for the past month, which turn white and then red. As a gardener, she requires a high level of manual dexterity for her job. The symptoms subside after she finishes her shift.

      What is the underlying pathophysiological mechanism responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exaggerated vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest Raynaud’s disease, which is characterized by an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response to the cold in the digital and cutaneous arteries. As the patient is young and has no history or features of an underlying rheumatological disease, it is more likely to be primary Raynaud’s disease rather than Raynaud’s phenomenon. While a blood clot or rheumatoid arthritis can also cause similar symptoms, the patient’s age and lack of relevant history make these less likely. Carpal tunnel syndrome and Cushing’s disease are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s hand pain.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.

      If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.

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  • Question 42 - Liam is a 5-year-old boy playing outside in the park on his scooter....

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 5-year-old boy playing outside in the park on his scooter. He accidentally falls off his scooter and scrapes his elbow, causing a small amount of bleeding. After a few days, a scab forms and eventually falls off, leaving the skin healed. What is the outermost layer of the epidermis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stratum corneum

      Explanation:

      The epidermis comprises five distinct layers that consist of various cell types and perform different functions. These layers, listed from outermost to innermost, are the stratum corneum, stratum lucidum*, and stratum granulosum.

      The Layers of the Epidermis

      The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and is made up of a stratified squamous epithelium with a basal lamina underneath. It can be divided into five layers, each with its own unique characteristics. The first layer is the stratum corneum, which is made up of flat, dead, scale-like cells filled with keratin. These cells are continually shed and replaced with new ones. The second layer, the stratum lucidum, is only present in thick skin and is a clear layer. The third layer, the stratum granulosum, is where cells form links with their neighbors. The fourth layer, the stratum spinosum, is the thickest layer of the epidermis and is where squamous cells begin keratin synthesis. Finally, the fifth layer is the stratum germinativum, which is the basement membrane and is made up of a single layer of columnar epithelial cells. This layer gives rise to keratinocytes and contains melanocytes. Understanding the layers of the epidermis is important for understanding the structure and function of the skin.

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  • Question 43 - A 25-year-old woman with sialolithiasis of the submandibular gland is having the gland...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with sialolithiasis of the submandibular gland is having the gland removed. During the mobilization of the duct, which nerve is in danger?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lingual nerve

      Explanation:

      Wharton’s duct is encircled by the lingual nerve, which is responsible for providing sensory innervation to the front two-thirds of the tongue.

      Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland

      The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.

      The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

      The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.

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  • Question 44 - A 55-year-old woman reports a gradual onset of numbness and tingling that extends...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman reports a gradual onset of numbness and tingling that extends from her heel to the first three toes over the past six months. She experiences increased symptoms when pressure is applied to the area behind the medial malleolus for thirty seconds.

      Which foot movement is likely to worsen this patient's discomfort?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plantarflexion of the foot

      Explanation:

      The structures that pass behind the medial malleolus can be remembered using the mnemonic Tom, Dick and Very Nervous Harry which stands for Tibialis posterior, flexor Digitorum longus, posterior tibial Artery, posterior tibial Vein, tibial Nerve and flexor Hallucis longus.

      The patient in this case is experiencing tarsal tunnel syndrome which is characterized by numbness and tingling along the distribution of the posterior tibial nerve. Tinel’s test, which involves tapping on the area behind the medial malleolus, can help diagnose nerve compression.

      The abductor hallucis muscle is responsible for abducting the big toe and its tendon does not pass through the tarsal tunnel. Dorsiflexion of the foot is primarily performed by the tibialis anterior muscle, while the tibialis posterior tendon runs through the tarsal tunnel. Extension of the big toe is performed by the extensor hallucis brevis and longus muscles, while extension of the toes is primarily performed by the extensor digitorum longus muscle. The big toe can be extended independently from the other toes due to the action of the extensor hallucis muscles.

      Anatomy of the Ankle Joint

      The ankle joint is a type of synovial joint that is made up of the tibia and fibula superiorly and the talus inferiorly. It is supported by several ligaments, including the deltoid ligament, lateral collateral ligament, and talofibular ligaments. The calcaneofibular ligament is separate from the fibrous capsule of the joint, while the two talofibular ligaments are fused with it. The syndesmosis is composed of the antero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, postero-inferior tibiofibular ligament, inferior transverse tibiofibular ligament, and interosseous ligament.

      The ankle joint allows for plantar flexion and dorsiflexion movements, with a range of 55 and 35 degrees, respectively. Inversion and eversion movements occur at the level of the sub talar joint. The ankle joint is innervated by branches of the deep peroneal and tibial nerves.

      Reference:
      Golano P et al. Anatomy of the ankle ligaments: a pictorial essay. Knee Surg Sports Traumatol Arthrosc. 2010 May;18(5):557-69.

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  • Question 45 - Which one of the following is not a content of the posterior triangle...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a content of the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve

      Explanation:

      The contents of the posterior triangle include the phrenic nerve, while the carotid sheath and its contents are found in the anterior triangle.

      The Anterior Triangle of the Neck: Boundaries and Contents

      The anterior triangle of the neck is a region that is bounded by the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lower border of the mandible, and the anterior midline. It is further divided into three sub-triangles by the digastric muscle and the omohyoid muscle. The muscular triangle contains the neck strap muscles, while the carotid triangle contains the carotid sheath, which houses the common carotid artery, the vagus nerve, and the internal jugular vein. The submandibular triangle, located below the digastric muscle, contains the submandibular gland, submandibular nodes, facial vessels, hypoglossal nerve, and other structures.

      The digastric muscle, which separates the submandibular triangle from the muscular triangle, is innervated by two different nerves. The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is supplied by the mylohyoid nerve, while the posterior belly is supplied by the facial nerve.

      Overall, the anterior triangle of the neck is an important anatomical region that contains many vital structures, including blood vessels, nerves, and glands. Understanding the boundaries and contents of this region is essential for medical professionals who work in this area.

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  • Question 46 - A 43-year-old man presents to his doctor with complaints of struggling to use...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man presents to his doctor with complaints of struggling to use the twist throttle on his motorcycle with his right hand. He sustained a mid-shaft fracture of his right humerus in a car accident 10 weeks ago, which was successfully treated with surgery. What is the most frequent nerve injury resulting from this type of fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve injury

      Explanation:

      The most common nerve injury that occurs with a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus is radial nerve injury. This type of injury can cause a dropped wrist presentation, which is characterized by weakness in wrist extension and difficulty making a fist. The patient in the scenario describes difficulty accelerating on their motorcycle, which requires normal wrist extension and the ability to make a fist.

      Other nerve injuries that can occur include axillary nerve injury, which affects shoulder abduction and external rotation and is usually caused by anterior shoulder dislocation. Median nerve injury can result in weakness of forearm pronation, wrist flexion, and thumb flexion, and is associated with carpal tunnel syndrome. Musculocutaneous nerve injury, on the other hand, does not typically affect wrist movements and is responsible for elbow flexion and certain shoulder movements.

      The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.

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  • Question 47 - A 40-year-old male is admitted to a neurology ward with a diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male is admitted to a neurology ward with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. During examination, it is observed that there is paralysis of big toe extension.

      Which myotome is affected by this paralysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L5

      Explanation:

      The L5 myotome is responsible for extending the big toe, while S1 is responsible for ankle plantar-flexion, ankle eversion, and knee flexion. L4 is responsible for ankle dorsiflexion, and T12 is responsible for abdominal muscle contraction.

      The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.

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  • Question 48 - A 32-year-old male visits the GP after a soccer injury. During the game,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male visits the GP after a soccer injury. During the game, he received a blow to the lateral side of his left leg, causing valgus strain on the knee. The GP suspects an unhappy triad injury. What are the three injuries typically associated with this triad?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Damage to the medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus and anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      The unhappy triad refers to a set of knee injuries that happen when the knee experiences a lateral impact causing Valgus stress. This stress leads to tears in the medial collateral ligament and the medial meniscus, which are closely connected. Additionally, the anterior cruciate ligament is also affected and traumatized. However, the lateral collateral ligament, lateral meniscus, and posterior cruciate ligament are not involved in this triad.

      Knee Injuries and Common Causes

      Knee injuries can be caused by a variety of factors, including twisting injuries, dashboard injuries, skiing accidents, and lateral blows to the knee. One common knee injury is the unhappy triad, which involves damage to the anterior cruciate ligament, medial collateral ligament, and meniscus. While the medial meniscus is classically associated with this injury, recent evidence suggests that the lateral meniscus is actually more commonly affected.

      When the anterior cruciate ligament is damaged, it may be the result of twisting injuries. Tests such as the anterior drawer test and Lachman test may be positive if this ligament is damaged. On the other hand, dashboard injuries may cause damage to the posterior cruciate ligament. Damage to the medial collateral ligament is often caused by skiing accidents or valgus stress, and can result in abnormal passive abduction of the knee. Isolated injury to the lateral collateral ligament is uncommon.

      Finally, damage to the menisci can also occur from twisting injuries. Common symptoms of meniscus damage include locking and giving way. Overall, understanding the common causes and symptoms of knee injuries can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and prevent further damage.

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  • Question 49 - Which nerve provides innervation to the interossei of the fifth finger? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve provides innervation to the interossei of the fifth finger?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep ulnar

      Explanation:

      PAD and DAB can be remembered as a mnemonic for the actions of the palmar and dorsal interossei muscles. The palmar interossei muscles ADduct the fingers towards the midline of the hand, while the dorsal interossei muscles ABduct the fingers away from the midline.

      Interossei: Muscles of the Hand

      Interossei are a group of muscles located in the hand that occupy the spaces between the metacarpal bones. There are three palmar and four dorsal interossei, each with a specific origin and insertion point. Palmar interossei originate from the metacarpal of the digit on which it acts, while dorsal interossei come from the surface of the adjacent metacarpal on which it acts. The interosseous tendons, except the first palmar, pass to one or other side of the metacarpophalangeal joint posterior to the deep transverse metacarpal ligament. They become inserted into the base of the proximal phalanx and partly into the extensor hood.

      All interossei are innervated by the ulnar nerve and have specific actions. Dorsal interossei abduct the fingers, while palmar interossei adduct the fingers. Along with the lumbricals, the interossei flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints. They are responsible for fine-tuning these movements.

      In cases where the interossei and lumbricals are paralyzed, the digits are pulled into hyperextension by extensor digitorum, resulting in a claw hand. Understanding the function and innervation of the interossei is important in diagnosing and treating hand injuries and conditions.

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  • Question 50 - A 30-year-old construction worker presents to the GP with a complaint of right...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old construction worker presents to the GP with a complaint of right forearm pain that started 2 days ago. He reports that the pain began suddenly after lifting heavy equipment and has been progressively worsening. Upon examination, there is noticeable swelling in the forearm, and the pain intensifies with flexion of the elbow. The GP suspects a possible injury to the brachioradialis muscle.

      Which nerve could have been impacted by this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The correct nerve that supplies innervation to the brachioradialis muscle is the radial nerve.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 51 - A 72-year-old retiree visits his doctor with a skin lesion on the back...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old retiree visits his doctor with a skin lesion on the back of his right hand. The lesion appears as a red papulo-nodule with scaling and ulceration. After a biopsy, the diagnosis of cutaneous squamous cell carcinoma is confirmed.

      What histological findings are expected from the biopsy examination?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Keratin pearls

      Explanation:

      Keratin pearls are a characteristic finding in cutaneous squamous cell carcinomas on biopsy. Atypical melanocytes are typically found in melanomas, not squamous cell carcinoma. Central invagination with a keratotic core is more commonly seen in keratoacanthomas. Basal cell carcinomas are characterized by the proliferation of basaloid cells parallel to the long axis of the epidermis. Seborrheic keratosis, a benign proliferation of immature keratinocytes, is typically identified by small keratin-filled cysts and a well-demarcated lesion with a stuck-on appearance.

      Understanding Squamous Cell Carcinoma of the Skin

      Squamous cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer that is commonly seen in individuals who have had excessive exposure to sunlight or have undergone psoralen UVA therapy. Other risk factors include actinic keratoses and Bowen’s disease, immunosuppression, smoking, long-standing leg ulcers, and genetic conditions. While metastases are rare, they may occur in 2-5% of patients.

      This type of cancer typically appears on sun-exposed areas such as the head and neck or dorsum of the hands and arms. The nodules are painless, rapidly expanding, and may have a cauliflower-like appearance. Bleeding may also occur in some cases.

      Treatment for squamous cell carcinoma involves surgical excision with margins of 4mm for lesions less than 20 mm in diameter and 6mm for larger tumors. Mohs micrographic surgery may be used in high-risk patients and in cosmetically important sites. Prognosis is generally good for well-differentiated tumors that are less than 20 mm in diameter and less than 2mm deep. However, poorly differentiated tumors that are larger than 20 mm in diameter and deeper than 4mm, as well as those associated with immunosuppression, have a poorer prognosis.

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  • Question 52 - A 35-year-old female presents to a clinic with worsening joint pains, low-grade fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presents to a clinic with worsening joint pains, low-grade fever and tiredness for the past 6 months. She also has chest pain that increases when breathing in. On examination, there are painless ulcers in her oral cavity. There is a reddish butterfly-patterned rash on her cheeks. She mentions that the rash worsens when she goes out into the sun. Her blood tests show:

      Hb 98 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 95 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 3.2 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      ESR 90 mm/hr (0 - 20)

      Urinalysis reveals proteinuria and red cell casts. Investigations for autoantibodies are sent for the patient.

      What is the most sensitive test for the condition that this 35-year-old female patient is likely to have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibodies (ANA)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

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  • Question 53 - A 12-year-old boy presents to the orthopaedic clinic with complaints of right knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents to the orthopaedic clinic with complaints of right knee pain. He has been experiencing pain for the past 4 months, which usually lasts for a few hours. During examination, he displays an antalgic gait and appears to have a shortened right leg. While the right knee appears normal, he experiences pain on internal and external rotation of the right hip. Imaging reveals flattening of the femoral head. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perthes disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, leading to bone infarction and degeneration. Boys are five times more likely to develop this condition, and around 10% of cases are bilateral. Symptoms include hip pain, limping, stiffness, and reduced range of hip movement. Early changes can be seen on x-rays, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      Diagnosis is typically made through a plain x-ray, but a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary if symptoms persist despite a normal x-ray. Complications of Perthes’ disease can include osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The Catterall staging system is used to classify the severity of the disease, with Stage 1 being the mildest and Stage 4 being the most severe. Management options include casting or bracing to keep the femoral head within the acetabulum, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical intervention for severe deformities in older children.

      Overall, most cases of Perthes’ disease will resolve with conservative management, and early diagnosis can improve outcomes. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they suspect a child may be affected by this condition.

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  • Question 54 - A 67-year-old man with peripheral vascular disease is scheduled for a below knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with peripheral vascular disease is scheduled for a below knee amputation. Can you identify the compartment in the lower leg where peroneus brevis is located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lateral compartment

      Explanation:

      The deep transverse fascia divides the leg into anterior and posterior compartments, while the interosseous membrane separates them. The lateral compartment includes the peroneus brevis muscle.

      Fascial Compartments of the Leg

      The leg is divided into compartments by fascial septae, which are thin layers of connective tissue. In the thigh, there are three compartments: the anterior, medial, and posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the femoral nerve and artery, as well as the quadriceps femoris muscle group. The medial compartment contains the obturator nerve and artery, as well as the adductor muscles and gracilis muscle. The posterior compartment contains the sciatic nerve and branches of the profunda femoris artery, as well as the hamstrings muscle group.

      In the lower leg, there are four compartments: the anterior, posterior (divided into deep and superficial compartments), lateral, and deep posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the deep peroneal nerve and anterior tibial artery, as well as the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneus tertius muscles. The posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the deep and superficial muscles. The lateral compartment contains the superficial peroneal nerve and peroneal artery, as well as the peroneus longus and brevis muscles. The deep posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior, and popliteus muscles.

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  • Question 55 - The transversalis fascia plays a role in which of the following? ...

    Incorrect

    • The transversalis fascia plays a role in which of the following?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep inguinal ring

      Explanation:

      The internal spermatic fascia covers the ductus deferens and testicular vessels, and is formed from the transversalis fascia. The deep inguinal ring is the opening of this pouch-like structure.

      Muscles and Layers of the Abdominal Wall

      The abdominal wall is composed of various muscles and layers that provide support and protection to the organs within the abdominal cavity. The two main muscles of the abdominal wall are the rectus abdominis and the quadratus lumborum. The rectus abdominis is located anteriorly, while the quadratus lumborum is located posteriorly.

      The remaining abdominal wall is made up of three muscular layers, each passing from the lateral aspect of the quadratus lumborum to the lateral margin of the rectus sheath. These layers are muscular posterolaterally and aponeurotic anteriorly. The external oblique muscle lies most superficially and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs, inserting into the anterior half of the outer aspect of the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubic tubercle. The internal oblique arises from the thoracolumbar fascia, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 2/3 of the inguinal ligament, while the transversus abdominis is the innermost muscle, arising from the inner aspect of the costal cartilages of the lower 6 ribs, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 1/3 of the inguinal ligament.

      During abdominal surgery, it is often necessary to divide either the muscles or their aponeuroses. It is desirable to divide the aponeurosis during a midline laparotomy, leaving the rectus sheath intact above the arcuate line and the muscles intact below it. Straying off the midline can lead to damage to the rectus muscles, particularly below the arcuate line where they may be in close proximity to each other. The nerve supply for these muscles is the anterior primary rami of T7-12.

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  • Question 56 - A 55-year-old man presents with a complaint of stiffness in his right shoulder...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a complaint of stiffness in his right shoulder for the past 8 months. Initially, he experienced severe pain, but now only stiffness persists. Upon examination, you observe that the right shoulder is stiff during both active and passive movements.

      What is the probable underlying cause of this stiffness?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adhesive capsulitis

      Explanation:

      Adhesive capsulitis is identified by a decrease in shoulder mobility, both when moving the shoulder voluntarily and when it is moved by someone else. The ability to rotate the shoulder outward is more affected than the ability to rotate it inward or lift it away from the body.

      On the other hand, a tear in the rotator cuff muscles will result in a reduction in active movement due to muscle weakness. Passive movement may also be restricted due to pain. However, we would not anticipate a rigid joint that opposes passive movement.

      Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is a common cause of shoulder pain that is more prevalent in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not fully understood. It is associated with diabetes mellitus, with up to 20% of diabetics experiencing an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over a few days and affect external rotation more than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. Bilateral frozen shoulder occurs in up to 20% of patients, and the episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.

      The diagnosis of frozen shoulder is usually made based on clinical presentation, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. There is no single intervention that has been proven to improve long-term outcomes. Treatment options include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids. It is important to note that the management of frozen shoulder should be tailored to the individual patient, and a multidisciplinary approach may be necessary for optimal outcomes.

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  • Question 57 - A 25-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of loss of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of loss of sensation in the 1st webspace of his left hand after a night of heavy drinking at a party. During the examination, the GP observes that the patient is unable to extend his left wrist and also reports a loss of sensation in the dorsal aspect of the 1st webspace. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve supplies the skin on the dorsal aspect of the hand, while the axillary nerve innervates teres minor and deltoid muscle and provides sensory innervation to the badge area. The median nerve is the main nerve of the anterior compartment of the forearm, and the ulnar nerve innervates muscles in the forearm and intrinsic muscles of the hand. The musculocutaneous nerve supplies muscles in the upper arm and terminates as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 58 - A 16-year-old soccer player injures her ankle while playing a game. She reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old soccer player injures her ankle while playing a game. She reports that her ankle turned inward, causing her foot to roll inward, and she experienced immediate pain and swelling.

      What ligament is the most probable to have been sprained in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior talofibular ligament

      Explanation:

      The most frequently sprained ligament in ankle inversion injuries is the anterior talofibular ligament, which runs from the talus to the fibula and restricts inversion in plantar flexion. The calcaneonavicular ligament, located between the calcaneus and navicular bones, stabilizes the medial longitudinal arch and is not involved in resisting inversion or eversion, making it unlikely to be injured. The deltoid ligament, found on the medial side of the ankle, resists eversion and is therefore not typically affected in inversion injuries. The interosseous ligament, located between the tibia and fibula above the ankle joint, is only impacted if there is trauma to the lower leg. The Lisfranc ligament, which connects the second metatarsal to the medial cuneiform, is more commonly disrupted by direct blows or axial loads on a plantarflexed foot with rotation, whereas a simple sprain to the anterior talofibular ligament is more common in inversion injuries.

      Ankle Sprains: Types, Presentation, Investigation, and Treatment

      Ankle sprains occur when ligaments in the ankle are stretched or torn. The ankle joint is composed of the distal tibia and fibula and the superior aspect of the talus, which form a mortise secured by ligamentous structures. Low ankle sprains involve the lateral collateral ligaments, with the anterior inferior tibiofibular ligament being the most commonly injured. Inversion injury is the most common mechanism, causing pain, swelling, tenderness, and sometimes bruising. Low ankle sprains are classified into three grades based on the extent of ligament disruption, bruising and swelling, and pain on weight-bearing. Radiographs should be done to rule out associated fractures, and MRI may be useful for evaluating perineal tendons. Treatment for low ankle sprains involves rest, ice, compression, and elevation, with occasional use of a removable orthosis, cast, or crutches. Surgical intervention is rare.

      High ankle sprains involve the syndesmosis, which is rare and severe. The mechanism of injury is usually external rotation of the foot, causing the talus to push the fibula laterally. Patients experience more pain when weight-bearing than with low ankle sprains. Radiographs may show widening of the tibiofibular joint or ankle mortise, and MRI may be necessary for high suspicion of syndesmotic injury. Treatment for high ankle sprains involves non-weight-bearing orthosis or cast until pain subsides, or operative fixation if there is diastasis or failed non-operative management.

      Isolated injuries to the deltoid ligament are rare and frequently associated with a fracture, such as Maisonneuve fracture of the proximal fibula. Treatment for deltoid ligament injuries is similar to that for low ankle sprains, provided the ankle mortise is anatomically reduced. If not, reduction and fixation may be necessary.

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  • Question 59 - Which of the following structures is situated between the lateral and medial heads...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures is situated between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The correct nerve that runs in its groove between the two heads is the radial nerve. The ulnar nerve is positioned anterior to the medial head, while the axillary nerve passes through the quadrangular space located above the lateral head of the triceps muscle. As a result, the lateral border of the quadrangular space is the humerus.

      Anatomy of the Triceps Muscle

      The triceps muscle is a large muscle located on the back of the upper arm. It is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. The long head originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, while the lateral head originates from the dorsal surface of the humerus, lateral and proximal to the groove of the radial nerve. The medial head originates from the posterior surface of the humerus on the inferomedial side of the radial groove and both of the intermuscular septae.

      All three heads of the triceps muscle insert into the olecranon process of the ulna, with some fibers inserting into the deep fascia of the forearm and the posterior capsule of the elbow. The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve and supplied with blood by the profunda brachii artery.

      The primary action of the triceps muscle is elbow extension. The long head can also adduct the humerus and extend it from a flexed position. The radial nerve and profunda brachii vessels lie between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle. Understanding the anatomy of the triceps muscle is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of injuries or conditions affecting this muscle.

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  • Question 60 - A 14-year-old-girl is brought into the emergency department after she accidentally poured boiling...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old-girl is brought into the emergency department after she accidentally poured boiling water onto her hand. Upon examination, her hand appears to have turned white and she is not expressing any discomfort. What could be the reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A full thickness burn has gone through the dermis and damaged sensory neurons

      Explanation:

      Patients with third-degree burns do not experience pain because the damage is so severe that it affects the sensory nerves in the deeper layers of skin, which are responsible for transmitting pain signals. In contrast, superficial burns are painful because the sensory nerves in the epidermis are still intact and able to transmit pain signals. The absence of pain in third-degree burns is not due to an increased pain threshold, but rather the damage to the sensory nerves.

      First Aid and Management of Burns

      Burns can be caused by heat, electricity, or chemicals. Immediate first aid involves removing the person from the source of the burn and irrigating the affected area with cool water. The extent of the burn can be assessed using Wallace’s Rule of Nines or the Lund and Browder chart. The depth of the burn can be determined by its appearance, with full-thickness burns being the most severe. Referral to secondary care is necessary for deep dermal and full-thickness burns, as well as burns involving certain areas of the body or suspicion of non-accidental injury.

      Severe burns can lead to tissue loss, fluid loss, and a catabolic response. Intravenous fluids and analgesia are necessary for resuscitation and pain relief. Smoke inhalation can result in airway edema, and early intubation may be necessary. Circumferential burns may require escharotomy to relieve compartment syndrome and improve ventilation. Conservative management is appropriate for superficial burns, while more complex burns may require excision and skin grafting. There is no evidence to support the use of antimicrobial prophylaxis or topical antibiotics in burn patients.

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  • Question 61 - A 16-year-old adolescent is brought to the emergency department by his father after...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old adolescent is brought to the emergency department by his father after falling off his skateboard on an outstretched hand. The patient complains of pain at the base of the thumb which is worse with the use of the hand.

      Upon examination, there is swelling and tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox.

      The emergency physician is concerned about avascular necrosis of the scaphoid bone. The physician explains to the patient that the scaphoid bone receives its blood supply through a specific part of the bone and fracture to this area can result in bone death. Therefore, an urgent scaphoid x-ray is necessary.

      Which part of the scaphoid bone, when fractured, increases the risk of avascular necrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tubercle

      Explanation:

      The scaphoid bone’s blood supply is only through the tubercle, and a fracture in this area can lead to avascular necrosis. It attaches to the trapezium and trapezoid bones at the greater and lesser multangular ends, respectively.

      The scaphoid bone has various articular surfaces for different bones in the wrist. It has a concave surface for the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface for the lunate. The proximal end has a wide convex surface for the radius, while the distal end has a tubercle that can be felt. The remaining articular surface faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones. The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum and is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis.

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  • Question 62 - A young girl comes to the clinic complaining of severe menstrual cramps that...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl comes to the clinic complaining of severe menstrual cramps that occur every month. Her physician assures her that this is a common issue and prescribes mefenamic acid as a pain reliever. What is the mechanism of action of mefenamic acid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibiting COX, decreasing prostaglandin production

      Explanation:

      Mefenamic acid is classified as an NSAID because it works by inhibiting COX, which ultimately leads to a decrease in prostaglandin production. Any response indicating an increase or alteration in prostaglandin levels would be inaccurate. The idea of blocking dorsal horn sodium channels is more characteristic of a neuropathic medication rather than an NSAID.

      Understanding Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 Selective NSAIDs

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that work by inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase enzymes, which are responsible for producing key mediators involved in inflammation such as prostaglandins. By reducing the production of these mediators, NSAIDs can help alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. Examples of NSAIDs include ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen, and aspirin.

      However, NSAIDs can also have important and common side-effects, such as peptic ulceration and exacerbation of asthma. To address these concerns, COX-2 selective NSAIDs were developed. These medications were designed to reduce the incidence of side-effects seen with traditional NSAIDs, particularly peptic ulceration. Examples of COX-2 selective NSAIDs include celecoxib and etoricoxib.

      Despite their potential benefits, COX-2 selective NSAIDs are not widely used due to ongoing concerns about cardiovascular safety. This led to the withdrawal of rofecoxib (‘Vioxx’) in 2004. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential risks and benefits of NSAIDs and COX-2 selective NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before use.

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  • Question 63 - A 16-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a gradually worsening rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a gradually worsening rash on his face that has been present for the past 2 months. The patient has no significant medical history and appears to be in good health. During the examination, the doctor notes the presence of numerous papules, pustules, and comedones on the patient's forehead, cheeks, and chin. What is the responsible pathogen for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Propionibacterium acnes

      Explanation:

      Propionibacterium acnes is the bacteria responsible for contributing to the formation of acne.

      The patient’s facial papules, pustules, and comedones indicate a diagnosis of acne vulgaris, which is more prevalent in adolescents and those with oily skin. While bacteria can play a role in the development of acne, it is important to note that acne vulgaris is not a contagious rash. Propionibacterium acnes is the most common pathogen associated with acne vulgaris, as it triggers enzymes and inflammatory mediators that worsen the existing rash and inflammation.

      Staphylococcus aureus is linked to bacterial skin conditions like impetigo and cellulitis, which often require more intensive antibiotic treatment.

      Staphylococcus epidermidis is a commensal bacterium typically found on the skin’s surface. It may cause opportunistic bacterial skin infections in immunocompromised patients, but it is not involved in acne development.

      Streptococcus pyogenes also causes bacterial skin infections like cellulitis and erysipelas, similar to Staphylococcus aureus. If either bacterium were implicated in acne vulgaris, it would cause significant inflammation and infection (e.g., fever, erythema, swelling). However, they do not play a role in the normal development of acne.

      Understanding Acne Vulgaris

      Acne vulgaris is a prevalent skin condition that typically affects teenagers, with around 80-90% of them experiencing it. It commonly appears on the face, neck, and upper trunk and is characterized by the blockage of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. However, acne may persist beyond adolescence, with 10-15% of females and 5% of males over 25 years old still being affected.

      The pathophysiology of acne vulgaris is multifactorial. It involves the overgrowth of skin cells in hair follicles, leading to the formation of keratin plugs that obstruct the follicles. Although androgen levels may control the activity of sebaceous glands, which produce oil, they are often normal in patients with acne. Additionally, the anaerobic bacterium Propionibacterium acnes can colonize the blocked follicles, leading to inflammation and the formation of pimples.

      Overall, understanding the pathophysiology of acne vulgaris is crucial in developing effective treatments for this common skin condition.

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  • Question 64 - A 21-year-old patient visits the clinic after injuring their knee during a soccer...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old patient visits the clinic after injuring their knee during a soccer game. During the examination, the physician flexes the knee to a 90-degree angle with the foot resting on the exam table. Using both hands to grasp the proximal tibia, the doctor applies an anterior force followed by a posterior force. The physician detects laxity during the anterior movement, indicating possible damage to the anterior cruciate ligament. What is the test called?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drawer test

      Explanation:

      The drawer test is used to check for cruciate ligament rupture in the knee. The examiner flexes the hip and knee, holds the tibia, and attempts to pull it forward or backward. Excessive displacement indicates a rupture of the anterior or posterior cruciate ligament.

      Knee Injuries and Common Causes

      Knee injuries can be caused by a variety of factors, including twisting injuries, dashboard injuries, skiing accidents, and lateral blows to the knee. One common knee injury is the unhappy triad, which involves damage to the anterior cruciate ligament, medial collateral ligament, and meniscus. While the medial meniscus is classically associated with this injury, recent evidence suggests that the lateral meniscus is actually more commonly affected.

      When the anterior cruciate ligament is damaged, it may be the result of twisting injuries. Tests such as the anterior drawer test and Lachman test may be positive if this ligament is damaged. On the other hand, dashboard injuries may cause damage to the posterior cruciate ligament. Damage to the medial collateral ligament is often caused by skiing accidents or valgus stress, and can result in abnormal passive abduction of the knee. Isolated injury to the lateral collateral ligament is uncommon.

      Finally, damage to the menisci can also occur from twisting injuries. Common symptoms of meniscus damage include locking and giving way. Overall, understanding the common causes and symptoms of knee injuries can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and prevent further damage.

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  • Question 65 - A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the neck, in the area between the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the neck, in the area between the omohyoid and digastric muscles. During surgery to explore the injury, a nerve injury is discovered just above the lingual artery where it branches off from the external carotid artery. What is the most probable outcome of this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paralysis of the ipsilateral side of the tongue

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery is located posterior to the hypoglossal nerve, while the lingual arterial branch is situated below it. In case of damage to the nerve, the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles on the same side will become paralyzed. When the patient is instructed to stick out their tongue, it will deviate towards the affected side.

      The Anterior Triangle of the Neck: Boundaries and Contents

      The anterior triangle of the neck is a region that is bounded by the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lower border of the mandible, and the anterior midline. It is further divided into three sub-triangles by the digastric muscle and the omohyoid muscle. The muscular triangle contains the neck strap muscles, while the carotid triangle contains the carotid sheath, which houses the common carotid artery, the vagus nerve, and the internal jugular vein. The submandibular triangle, located below the digastric muscle, contains the submandibular gland, submandibular nodes, facial vessels, hypoglossal nerve, and other structures.

      The digastric muscle, which separates the submandibular triangle from the muscular triangle, is innervated by two different nerves. The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is supplied by the mylohyoid nerve, while the posterior belly is supplied by the facial nerve.

      Overall, the anterior triangle of the neck is an important anatomical region that contains many vital structures, including blood vessels, nerves, and glands. Understanding the boundaries and contents of this region is essential for medical professionals who work in this area.

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  • Question 66 - You are in a clinic with your consultant examining a 55-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • You are in a clinic with your consultant examining a 55-year-old man who complains of shoulder pain. During the assessment, the consultant instructs the patient to place the back of his hand against the lumbar region of his back. Which muscle of the rotator cuff is responsible for this movement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subscapularis

      Explanation:

      The subscapularis muscle is responsible for internal rotation, while the other muscles in the cuff are responsible for external rotation. During Gerber’s Test, the consultant will ask you to place the dorsum of your hand behind your back, which requires internal rotation of the humerus. This movement is facilitated by the subscapularis muscle.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.

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  • Question 67 - A patient in his 50s has undergone a muscle biopsy for progressive muscle...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in his 50s has undergone a muscle biopsy for progressive muscle weakness. During his clinic visit, the doctor presents a histological specimen and indicates the sarcomere. What is the doctor referring to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The region between two Z-lines on the myofibril

      Explanation:

      The area between Z lines is known as the sarcomere. The skeletal muscle is composed of the following elements, as shown in the diagram.

      The Process of Muscle Contraction

      Muscle contraction is a complex process that involves several steps. It begins with an action potential reaching the neuromuscular junction, which causes a calcium ion influx through voltage-gated calcium channels. This influx leads to the release of acetylcholine into the extracellular space, which activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, triggering an action potential. The action potential then spreads through the T-tubules, activating L-type voltage-dependent calcium channels in the T-tubule membrane, which are close to calcium-release channels in the adjacent sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium, which binds to troponin C, causing a conformational change that allows tropomyosin to move, unblocking the binding sites. Myosin then binds to the newly released binding site, releasing ADP and pulling the Z bands towards each other. ATP binds to myosin, releasing actin.

      The components involved in muscle contraction include the sarcomere, which is the basic unit of muscles that gives skeletal and cardiac muscles their striated appearance. The I-band is the zone of thin filaments that is not superimposed by thick filaments, while the A-band contains the entire length of a single thick filament. The H-zone is the zone of the thick filaments that is not superimposed by the thin filaments, and the M-line is in the middle of the sarcomere, cross-linking myosin. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ion in response to depolarization, while actin is the thin filaments that transmit the forces generated by myosin to the ends of the muscle. Myosin is the thick filaments that bind to the thin filament, while titin connects the Z-line to the thick filament, altering the structure of tropomyosin. Tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding sites on actin, while troponin-C binds with calcium ions. The T-tubule is an invagination of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that helps co-ordinate muscular contraction.

      There are two types of skeletal muscle fibres: type I and type II. Type I fibres have a slow contraction time, are red in colour due to the presence of myoglobin, and are used for sustained force. They have a high mitochondrial density and use triglycerides as

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  • Question 68 - Which one of the following structures does not pass posteriorly to the medial...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures does not pass posteriorly to the medial malleolus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibialis anterior tendon

      Explanation:

      Structures Passing Posterior to the Medial Malleolus

      The medial malleolus is a bony prominence on the inner side of the ankle joint. Several important structures pass posterior to it, including the tibialis posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery, tibial nerve, and tendon of flexor hallucis longus.

      The tibialis posterior tendon is responsible for plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, while the flexor digitorum longus tendon helps to flex the toes. The posterior tibial artery supplies blood to the foot and ankle, while the tibial nerve provides sensation and motor function to the muscles of the lower leg and foot. Finally, the tendon of flexor hallucis longus helps to flex the big toe.

      It is important to be aware of these structures when performing any procedures or surgeries in the area, as damage to them can result in significant complications. Understanding the anatomy of the ankle and foot can also help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting these structures.

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  • Question 69 - A 29-year-old rugby player comes to your clinic with a painful shoulder. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old rugby player comes to your clinic with a painful shoulder. The discomfort began three weeks ago after a rugby match. Although he has experienced aches and pains after rugby before, this has been more persistent and limiting. He has been painting a room in his house and finds that the pain worsens when he reaches upward. He has been unable to participate in rugby or go to the gym. During the examination, there is tenderness on the tip of the shoulder. Both the empty can test is positive. You suspect that the patient may have a partial articular supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) lesion. Where does the supraspinatus tendon insert on the humerus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Greater tubercle of the humerus

      Explanation:

      The greater tubercle of the humerus is the correct answer. It is the insertion site for the supraspinatus muscle, which is one of three rotator cuff muscles that insert onto the greater tubercle. The infraspinatus muscle inserts onto the middle facet of the greater tubercle, while the teres minor muscle inserts onto the inferior facet.

      The lesser tubercle of the humerus is located on the anteromedial aspect of the bone and is the insertion site for the subscapularis muscle, which is the remaining rotator cuff muscle.

      The deltoid tuberosity is found on the lateral surface of the humeral shaft and is the insertion site for the deltoid muscle.

      The intertubercular sulcus is a groove in the humerus that houses the tendon of the long head of biceps brachii. The floor of the intertubercular sulcus is the insertion site for the latissimus dorsi muscle.

      The capitulum of the humerus is located at the distal end of the bone and articulates with the head of the radius.

      PASTA lesions are partial tears of the supraspinatus tendon where it inserts into the humerus. They typically occur in athletes after a pulling or twisting injury.

      The empty can test, also known as Jobe’s test, is used to test the supraspinatus tendon. It involves slight abduction of the arm, rotating the arm so the thumbs point downwards (as though holding two empty cans), and resisting downward pressure from the examiner. A positive test result indicates a PASTA lesion.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.

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  • Question 70 - A 19-year-old athlete presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and swelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old athlete presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and swelling on the medial side of the knee joint. The pain is experienced while climbing stairs, but not while walking on level ground. On clinical examination, there is tenderness over the proximal medial tibia and the McMurray test is negative. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pes Anserinus Bursitis

      Explanation:

      The Pes Anserinus, also known as the goose’s foot, is formed by the combination of the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinous muscles as they insert into the anteromedial proximal tibia.

      Overuse injuries can lead to Pes Anserinus Bursitis, which is frequently seen in athletes. The primary symptom is pain in the medial proximal tibia. A negative McMurray test can rule out medial meniscal injury.

      The Sartorius Muscle: Anatomy and Function

      The sartorius muscle is the longest strap muscle in the human body and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most superficial muscle in this region and has a unique origin and insertion. The muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts on the medial surface of the body of the tibia, anterior to the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles. The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2,3).

      The primary action of the sartorius muscle is to flex the hip and knee, while also slightly abducting the thigh and rotating it laterally. It also assists with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur, which is important for movements such as crossing one leg over the other. The middle third of the muscle, along with its strong underlying fascia, forms the roof of the adductor canal. This canal contains important structures such as the femoral vessels, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis.

      In summary, the sartorius muscle is a unique muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh that plays an important role in hip and knee flexion, thigh abduction, and lateral rotation. Its location and relationship to the adductor canal make it an important landmark for surgical procedures in the thigh region.

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  • Question 71 - A 30-year-old man visits the GP complaining of weakness in his right foot...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man visits the GP complaining of weakness in his right foot muscles. The GP observes difficulty with inversion and suspects weakness in the posterior leg muscles.

      Which muscle is responsible for this movement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior

      Explanation:

      The muscles located in the deep posterior compartment are:

      Muscular Compartments of the Lower Limb

      The lower limb is composed of different muscular compartments that perform various actions. The anterior compartment includes the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor hallucis longus muscles. These muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve and are responsible for dorsiflexing the ankle joint, inverting and evert the foot, and extending the toes.

      The peroneal compartment, on the other hand, consists of the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles, which are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. These muscles are responsible for eversion of the foot and plantar flexion of the ankle joint.

      The superficial posterior compartment includes the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot and may also flex the knee.

      Lastly, the deep posterior compartment includes the flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for flexing the toes, flexing the great toe, and plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, respectively.

      Understanding the muscular compartments of the lower limb is important in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these muscles. Proper identification and management of these conditions can help improve mobility and function of the lower limb.

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  • Question 72 - A 46-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department after falling while walking her...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department after falling while walking her dog. She explains that she stumbled on the pavement and landed on her left hand, with her hands taking the brunt of the fall.

      During the examination, the doctor notices tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox and telescoping of the left thumb. What other structure is in danger of being harmed, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial artery

      Explanation:

      The anatomical snuffbox contains the radial artery and is a common site for scaphoid fractures. The scaphoid bone forms the floor of the snuffbox and the radial artery provides its blood supply. Missing a scaphoid fracture can lead to avascular necrosis. Other structures such as the flexor pollicis longus tendon, median nerve, pisiform bone, and ulnar artery do not lie within the snuffbox.

      The Anatomical Snuffbox: A Triangle on the Wrist

      The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral aspect of the wrist. It is bordered by tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and abductor pollicis longus muscles, as well as the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the trapezium and scaphoid bones. The apex of the triangle is located distally, while the posterior border is formed by the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus. The radial artery runs through the snuffbox, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.

      In summary, the anatomical snuffbox is a small triangular area on the wrist that is bordered by tendons and bones. It is an important landmark for medical professionals due to the presence of the radial artery.

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  • Question 73 - A mother brings her 3-year-old son to the GP worried about his motor...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-year-old son to the GP worried about his motor development. Since he started walking 9 months ago, the child has been limping and avoiding weight bearing on the left leg. He has otherwise been healthy. He was born at term via a caesarean section, due to his breech position, and weighed 4.5kg. What is the probable reason for his limp?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Developmental dysplasia of the hip

      Explanation:

      The condition is developmental dysplasia of the hip, which is typically observed in individuals under the age of 4.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

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  • Question 74 - Which of the following anatomical structures is located in the spiral groove of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following anatomical structures is located in the spiral groove of the humerus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Fractures involving the shaft can compromise the radial nerve, which is located in this groove.

      The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.

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  • Question 75 - A 25-year-old male has been struggling with anger issues for a while. Following...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male has been struggling with anger issues for a while. Following a disagreement with a relative, he vents his frustration by punching the wall, resulting in a cut on his hand. At the hospital, the medical team orders an x-ray to rule out any fractures and discovers a 'boxer's fracture.'

      What bone did this young man break?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5th metacarpal

      Explanation:

      A fracture of the 5th metacarpal, known as a ‘Boxer fracture’, is commonly caused by punching a hard surface. This type of fracture is typically minimally displaced. Fracture of the scaphoid bone in the wrist can lead to avascular necrosis. The 2nd metacarpal is not typically fractured in punching injuries, while the lunate and hamate bones in the wrist are not commonly affected by this type of injury.

      Boxer fracture is a type of fracture that occurs in the fifth metacarpal bone. It is usually caused by punching a hard surface, such as a wall. The fracture is typically minimally displaced, meaning that the bone is still in its proper position but has a small crack or break. This injury is commonly seen in boxers, hence the name, but can also occur in other individuals who engage in activities that involve punching or striking objects. The treatment for a boxer fracture may involve immobilization of the affected hand with a cast or splint, and in some cases, surgery may be necessary.

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  • Question 76 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of crushing chest pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of crushing chest pain. Her ECG shows no abnormalities. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis managed with methotrexate, hypertension, and type II diabetes. Her BMI is 34 kg/m². As a healthcare provider, you initiate aspirin therapy.

      What is the most significant risk this patient is facing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow toxicity

      Explanation:

      Taking aspirin while on methotrexate treatment can be dangerous as it reduces the excretion of methotrexate, leading to an increased risk of toxicity and bone marrow problems. However, some studies suggest that methotrexate may be helpful in treating severe osteoarthritis and polymyositis. All other options are incorrect.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

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  • Question 77 - During a soccer match, a young player is tackled and suffers a twisting...

    Incorrect

    • During a soccer match, a young player is tackled and suffers a twisting injury to their knee. They are diagnosed with a soft tissue knee injury. What is the name of the structure that originates from the medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle and inserts onto the anterior intercondylar area of the tibial plateau?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      To recall the attachments of the ACL, one can imagine placing their hand in their pocket and moving from the superolateral to inferomedial direction. Conversely, for the PCL, the movement would be from inferolateral to superomedial.

      The ACL originates from the medial surface of the lateral condyle, while the PCL originates from the lateral surface of the medial condyle.

      Located in the medial compartment of the knee, beneath the medial condyle of the femur, is the medial meniscus.

      The knee joint is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body, consisting of two condylar joints between the femur and tibia and a sellar joint between the patella and femur. The degree of congruence between the tibiofemoral articular surfaces is improved by the presence of the menisci, which compensate for the incongruence of the femoral and tibial condyles. The knee joint is divided into two compartments: the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral compartments. The fibrous capsule of the knee joint is a composite structure with contributions from adjacent tendons, and it contains several bursae and ligaments that provide stability to the joint. The knee joint is supplied by the femoral, tibial, and common peroneal divisions of the sciatic nerve and by a branch from the obturator nerve, while its blood supply comes from the genicular branches of the femoral artery, popliteal, and anterior tibial arteries.

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  • Question 78 - Which of the following is not linked to hypertrichosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not linked to hypertrichosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoriasis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis

      Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.

      Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 79 - A 42-year-old patient with motor neuron disease experiences muscle weakness in a cranial...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old patient with motor neuron disease experiences muscle weakness in a cranial nerve innervated muscle. Which muscle is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trapezius

      Explanation:

      The trapezius muscle is supplied by the spinal accessory nerve (CN XI), while the levator scapulae muscle is innervated by the fourth and fifth cervical nerves (C4 and C5) as well as the dorsal scapular nerve. The middle scalene muscle receives innervation from the anterior rami of C3-C8. The sternohyoid and sternothyroid muscles, located in the muscular triangle of the anterior neck, are innervated by the ansa cervicalis, which is a component of the cervical plexus and responsible for raising the thyroid cartilage during talking and swallowing.

      The trapezius muscle originates from the medial third of the superior nuchal line of the occiput, the external occipital protruberance, the ligamentum nuchae, the spines of C7 and all thoracic vertebrae, and all intervening interspinous ligaments. Its insertion points are the posterior border of the lateral third of the clavicle, the medial border of the acromion, and the upper border of the crest of the spine of the scapula. The spinal portion of the accessory nerve supplies this muscle. The trapezius muscle is responsible for elevating the shoulder girdle and laterally rotating the scapula.

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  • Question 80 - A 23-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of frequent bruising. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of frequent bruising. During the physical examination, an early-diastolic murmur is heard over the aortic region. The patient's skin is found to be highly elastic, and his joints exhibit greater extension than normal. Genetic testing is recommended, which confirms the suspected diagnosis of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome. Which collagen type is predominantly affected by this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Collagen type 3

      Explanation:

      The main cause of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a genetic defect in collagen type III, although a less common variant also affects collagen type V. Osteogenesis imperfecta is primarily caused by a defect in collagen type I, while Goodpasture’s syndrome is associated with a defect in collagen type IV.

      Ehler-Danlos syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue, specifically type III collagen. This causes the tissue to be more elastic than usual, resulting in increased skin elasticity and joint hypermobility. Common symptoms include fragile skin, easy bruising, and recurrent joint dislocation. Additionally, individuals with Ehler-Danlos syndrome may be at risk for serious complications such as aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse, aortic dissection, subarachnoid hemorrhage, and angioid retinal streaks.

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  • Question 81 - In pediatric patients with sickle cell disease, what is the most common causative...

    Incorrect

    • In pediatric patients with sickle cell disease, what is the most common causative organism of osteomyelitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salmonella species

      Explanation:

      Salmonella is the most common infecting organism in children with osteomyelitis worldwide.

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria in the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children and can be caused by risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species are more prevalent. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%.

      The treatment for osteomyelitis involves a course of antibiotics for six weeks. Flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic, but clindamycin can be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin. Understanding the types, causes, and treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial in managing this bone infection.

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  • Question 82 - A young adult presents to the emergency department on a Sunday morning after...

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    • A young adult presents to the emergency department on a Sunday morning after a night out with friends. Upon waking up, they realize they had fallen asleep with their arm draped over the back of a park bench and are now diagnosed with a radial nerve injury. Which muscle is expected to exhibit weakness during examination as a result of this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extensor carpi ulnaris

      Explanation:

      The radial nerve supplies all extensor muscles in the upper limb, including the extensor carpi ulnaris. The only exception is the brachioradialis muscle, which is not an extensor. The median nerve is responsible for wrist and finger flexion, as well as thumb opposition, while the ulnar nerve innervates the interossei muscles.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 83 - A 46-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following his first dose of...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following his first dose of allopurinol for gout management. He displays redness covering 40% of his skin, with skin separation upon pressure. The patient also exhibits pyrexia and tachycardia.

      What are the acute complications that require close monitoring by the healthcare team in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid loss, electrolyte derangement

      Explanation:

      Both frostbite and necrotizing fasciitis can lead to complications similar to those seen in burn patients, including volume loss, electrolyte imbalances, hypothermia, and secondary infections. Despite the initial fever, the break in the skin can cause hypothermia.

      Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. The condition causes the skin to appear scalded over a large area and is considered by some to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include feeling unwell, a high temperature, and a rapid heartbeat. Additionally, the skin may separate with mild lateral pressure, a sign known as Nikolsky’s sign.

      Several drugs are known to cause TEN, including phenytoin, sulphonamides, allopurinol, penicillins, carbamazepine, and NSAIDs. If TEN is suspected, the first step is to stop the use of the drug that is causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Electrolyte derangement and volume loss are potential complications that need to be monitored. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment that has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents such as cyclosporine and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.

      In summary, TEN is a severe skin disorder that can be caused by certain drugs. It is important to recognize the symptoms and stop the use of the drug causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment, and other options include immunosuppressive agents and plasmapheresis.

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  • Question 84 - A 42-year-old man presents after a car accident. He has a posterior dislocation...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents after a car accident. He has a posterior dislocation of his right knee but is in stable condition. During a neurological examination of his lower limbs, it is observed that he has a lack of plantarflexion and inversion in his right foot. Which nerve is likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The tibial nerve is responsible for allowing a patient to plantarflex and invert their foot. Although it is rare for this nerve to be injured due to its location deep within soft tissue, it can be damaged in cases of posterior knee dislocations. When the tibial nerve is affected, the patient will experience a loss of these specific movements.

      The common fibular nerve is not the correct answer. This nerve controls muscles in the anterior and lateral compartments of the lower limb, allowing for foot eversion and dorsiflexion. Therefore, if this nerve is damaged, the patient will experience the opposite symptoms of what is described in the scenario.

      Similarly, the common peroneal nerve is not the correct answer. This nerve is responsible for foot drop, which is a loss of foot dorsiflexion and eversion. This is the opposite of what the patient in the scenario is experiencing. While it is possible for this nerve to be injured in a posterior knee dislocation, it is more commonly affected in cases of fibular neck fractures.

      The femoral nerve is also not the correct answer. This nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, but it is not involved in foot movements. Additionally, the course of this nerve does not extend past the knee, so it cannot be damaged by a posterior knee dislocation.

      Finally, the obturator nerve is not the correct answer. This nerve is located higher up in the limb and controls thigh adduction. Its course does not extend distally beyond the femoral head, so it cannot be affected by popliteal pathology.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

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  • Question 85 - A 70-year-old woman with osteoporosis experiences a fall resulting in a fully displaced...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman with osteoporosis experiences a fall resulting in a fully displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture. What is the primary vessel responsible for supplying blood to the femoral head?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Circumflex femoral arteries

      Explanation:

      The anastomoses encircling the femoral head are created by vessels originating from the medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, typically sourced from the profunda femoris artery.

      Anatomy of the Hip Joint

      The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.

      There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.

      The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.

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  • Question 86 - A 70-year-old woman with hypertension and heart failure has been prescribed hydralazine. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman with hypertension and heart failure has been prescribed hydralazine. She now presents with joint pain, fatigue, a cough, and a rash on her cheeks. Her blood test reveals positive results for anti-histone antibodies.

      What is the underlying reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug induced lupus

      Explanation:

      Hydralazine has the potential to cause drug-induced lupus, which is the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. Lupus is characterized by respiratory symptoms, arthralgia, fatigue, and a malar rash (butterfly rash), and the patient has no prior history of these symptoms but has tested positive for anti-histone antibodies. Other drugs that can induce lupus include procainamide, isoniazid, and methyldopa.

      Leukaemia, on the other hand, would present with abnormal full blood count results and a more gradual onset, making it less likely in this case.

      Pneumonia and parvovirus B19 are also less likely causes, as the patient’s lack of fever and positive anti-histone antibodies do not align with these conditions.

      Drug-induced lupus is a condition that differs from systemic lupus erythematosus in that it does not typically involve renal or nervous system complications. This condition can be resolved by discontinuing the medication that caused it. Symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint and muscle pain, skin rashes (such as a malar rash), and pleurisy. Patients with this condition will test positive for ANA, but negative for dsDNA. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith are only present in around 5%. The most common causes of drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine, while less common causes include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.

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  • Question 87 - A young girl comes to the clinic with complaints of arm issues following...

    Incorrect

    • A young girl comes to the clinic with complaints of arm issues following a fall from a tree where she grabbed onto a branch to prevent the fall. Upon examination, she displays a claw hand and a wrist that is hyper-extended. Which part of the brachial plexus is likely to have been affected by the injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lower trunk (C8, T1)

      Explanation:

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 88 - A 75-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a fractured neck of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a fractured neck of femur. The trauma and orthopaedic team decides that a total hip replacement is necessary. What is the most significant danger of leaving hip fractures untreated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

      Explanation:

      Fractures in the neck of the femur can be extremely dangerous, especially in elderly women with osteoporosis who experience minor trauma. However, they can also be caused by a single traumatic event.

      When the femoral neck is fractured, the femur is displaced anteriorly and superiorly, resulting in a shortened leg. This displacement causes the medial rotators to become lax and the lateral rotators to become taut, leading to lateral rotation of the leg.

      The blood supply to the femoral neck is delicate and is provided by the lateral and medial circumflex femoral arteries, which give off reticular arteries that pierce the joint capsule. These arteries are branches of the femoral artery.

      The hip joint is supplied by two anastomoses: the trochanteric anastomosis, formed by the circumflex femoral arteries and the descending branch of the superior gluteal, and the Cruciate anastomosis, formed by the circumflex femoral, descending branch of the inferior gluteal, and ascending branch of the first perforating artery.

      The femoral head has a high metabolic rate due to its wide range of movement, which stimulates bone turnover and remodeling. This requires an adequate blood supply.

      Intracapsular fractures in the cervical or subcapital regions can impede blood supply and lead to avascular necrosis of the head. However, intertrochanteric fractures spare the blood supply.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures are classified based on their location, either intracapsular or extracapsular. The Garden system is a commonly used classification system that categorizes fractures into four types based on stability and displacement. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV.

      Undisplaced intracapsular fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures require replacement arthroplasty, with total hip replacement being preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with no more than a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular fractures are managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures and an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

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  • Question 89 - A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a car accident with...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a car accident with complaints of shortness of breath and right shoulder pain. Upon examination, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 36.5ºC, heart rate of 96 bpm, respiratory rate of 36 breaths per minute, and blood pressure of 125/95 mmHg. The right clavicle is tender and deformed, and there is hyper resonance over the right thorax. A chest x-ray is ordered, which reveals a right-sided apical pneumothorax. Which part of the clavicle is most likely fractured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Middle third of the clavicle

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the middle third of the clavicle. The apex of the pleural cavity is located behind this area, with its tip situated in the supraclavicular fossa.

      The acromioclavicular junction, lateral third of the clavicle, medial third of the clavicle, and sternoclavicular junction are all incorrect answers. These areas have different anatomical structures and functions.

      Anatomy of the Clavicle

      The clavicle is a bone that runs from the sternum to the acromion and plays a crucial role in preventing the shoulder from falling forwards and downwards. Its inferior surface is marked by ligaments at each end, including the trapezoid line and conoid tubercle, which provide attachment to the coracoclavicular ligament. The costoclavicular ligament attaches to the irregular surface on the medial part of the inferior surface, while the subclavius muscle attaches to the intermediate portion’s groove.

      The superior part of the clavicle’s medial end has a raised surface that gives attachment to the clavicular head of sternocleidomastoid, while the posterior surface attaches to the sternohyoid. On the lateral end, there is an oval articular facet for the acromion, and a disk lies between the clavicle and acromion. The joint’s capsule attaches to the ridge on the margin of the facet.

      In summary, the clavicle is a vital bone that helps stabilize the shoulder joint and provides attachment points for various ligaments and muscles. Its anatomy is marked by distinct features that allow for proper function and movement.

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  • Question 90 - Samantha, a 26-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after a high impact...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 26-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after a high impact injury from a fall. She reports experiencing pain in her right leg.

      Upon examination, Samantha's neurovascular status is intact, and an X-ray is ordered. The X-ray reveals a posterior dislocation of the hip, with no accompanying fractures. The dislocation is reduced while Samantha is under anesthesia.

      What is the usual indication observed during the examination of Samantha's leg?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Leg is internally rotated

      Explanation:

      The position of the leg in hip dislocations depends on whether it is an anterior or posterior dislocation. In the case of a posterior dislocation, as specified in the question, the leg is internally rotated. However, if it were an anterior dislocation, the leg would be externally rotated. It is important to note that the leg is not in its normal anatomical position in either case. Additionally, in a posterior dislocation, the leg may also be flexed. The option of external rotation is incorrect for a posterior dislocation. Finally, while the leg may be internally rotated in a posterior dislocation, it is usually flexed rather than hyperextended.

      Understanding Hip Dislocation: Types, Management, Complications, and Prognosis

      Hip dislocation is a painful condition that is often caused by direct trauma, such as road traffic accidents or falls from a significant height. This condition can be associated with other fractures and life-threatening injuries due to the large forces required to cause most traumatic hip dislocations. Therefore, prompt diagnosis and appropriate management are crucial to reduce morbidity.

      There are three types of hip dislocation: posterior, anterior, and central. Posterior dislocation is the most common, accounting for 90% of cases. It is characterized by a shortened, adducted, and internally rotated affected leg. On the other hand, anterior dislocation presents with an abducted and externally rotated affected leg, while central dislocation is rare.

      The management of hip dislocation follows the ABCDE approach, with analgesia as a priority. A reduction under general anaesthetic within four hours is recommended to reduce the risk of avascular necrosis. Long-term management involves physiotherapy to strengthen the surrounding muscles.

      Complications of hip dislocation include sciatic or femoral nerve injury, avascular necrosis, osteoarthritis (more common in older patients), and recurrent dislocation due to damage of supporting ligaments.

      The prognosis of hip dislocation depends on the timing of reduction and the extent of joint damage. It takes about two to three months for the hip to heal after a traumatic dislocation. The best prognosis is when the hip is reduced less than 12 hours post-injury and when there is less damage to the joint.

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  • Question 91 - Which of these nerves passes through the greater and lesser sciatic foramina? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these nerves passes through the greater and lesser sciatic foramina?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve

      Explanation:

      The structures passing through the lesser and greater sciatic foramina, from medial to lateral, are the pudendal nerve, internal pudendal artery, and nerve to obturator internus. The pudendal nerve originates from the ventral rami of the second, third, and fourth sacral nerves and passes through the greater sciatic foramen before crossing the spine of the ischium and reentering the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen. It gives off the inferior rectal nerves and terminates into the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris.

      The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents

      The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.

      The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.

      In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.

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  • Question 92 - A 25-year-old woman visits the clinic with a rash on her right ankle....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits the clinic with a rash on her right ankle. She suspects it was triggered by a new anklet gifted by her friend. What category of hypersensitivity response does this fall under?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 4

      Explanation:

      The Gell and Coombs classification divides hypersensitivity reactions into four types. Type 1 is immediate and IgE mediated, type 2 is mediated by IgG and IgM causing cell death, type 3 is mediated by immune complexes, and type 4 is delayed and mediated by T lymphocytes causing contact dermatitis. Examples of each type include allergic rhinitis, Goodpasture syndrome, and rheumatoid arthritis. Nickel is a common cause of contact dermatitis.

      Understanding Contact Dermatitis

      Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by two main types of reactions. The first type is irritant contact dermatitis, which is a non-allergic reaction that occurs due to exposure to weak acids or alkalis, such as detergents. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen on the hands and is characterized by erythema, but crusting and vesicles are rare.

      The second type of contact dermatitis is allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of dermatitis is uncommon and is often seen on the head following hair dyes. It presents as an acute weeping eczema that predominantly affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated for this type of dermatitis.

      Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis, while the dichromates in cement can also cause an allergic contact dermatitis. It is important to understand the different types of contact dermatitis and their causes to effectively manage and treat this condition.

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  • Question 93 - Sophie, a 35-year-old female, is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie, a 35-year-old female, is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after being involved in a car accident.

      Upon conducting several tests, an X-ray reveals that she has sustained a mid shaft humeral fracture.

      What is the structure that is typically most vulnerable to injury in cases of mid shaft humeral fractures?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.

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  • Question 94 - A woman in her early fifties comes in with a painful shoulder and...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early fifties comes in with a painful shoulder and limited range of motion. The shoulder is sensitive to touch, and there is no record of injury. During the examination, both active and passive movement are restricted due to pain. Based on these symptoms, you suspect the patient has a frozen shoulder. What is the primary location of inflammation in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shoulder capsule

      Explanation:

      Frozen shoulder is caused by inflammation of the shoulder capsule, leading to pain and reduced range of movement. Other conditions that can cause shoulder pain include biceps tendonitis, shoulder arthritis, and glenoid labrum tears.

      Adhesive capsulitis, also known as frozen shoulder, is a common cause of shoulder pain that is more prevalent in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not fully understood. It is associated with diabetes mellitus, with up to 20% of diabetics experiencing an episode of frozen shoulder. Symptoms typically develop over a few days and affect external rotation more than internal rotation or abduction. Both active and passive movement are affected, and patients usually experience a painful freezing phase, an adhesive phase, and a recovery phase. Bilateral frozen shoulder occurs in up to 20% of patients, and the episode typically lasts between 6 months and 2 years.

      The diagnosis of frozen shoulder is usually made based on clinical presentation, although imaging may be necessary for atypical or persistent symptoms. There is no single intervention that has been proven to improve long-term outcomes. Treatment options include nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), physiotherapy, oral corticosteroids, and intra-articular corticosteroids. It is important to note that the management of frozen shoulder should be tailored to the individual patient, and a multidisciplinary approach may be necessary for optimal outcomes.

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  • Question 95 - An 77-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of loose teeth and mucosal ulcers...

    Incorrect

    • An 77-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of loose teeth and mucosal ulcers that won't heal. She has a medical history of asthma, diabetes, and recurrent falls, as well as having undergone bilateral hip replacement surgery. Upon examination, the doctor notes periodontal disease, while radiology reports reveal sclerotic lesions in the mandible and maxilla that are indicative of osteonecrosis. Which medication could be responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alendronate

      Explanation:

      Osteonecrosis of the jaw is a potential side effect of bisphosphonates, particularly alendronate, and the risk increases with prolonged use. However, the other options listed are not associated with this condition. While denosumab is also linked to osteonecrosis of the jaw, it is less common than with bisphosphonates. It is unlikely that the patient is taking denosumab as there is no mention of any contraindications to bisphosphonates, and alendronate is the first-line drug for bone protection. Additionally, denosumab is significantly more expensive than alendronate.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.

      The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.

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  • Question 96 - A 68-year-old man presents to an orthopedic surgeon with a two-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to an orthopedic surgeon with a two-month history of dull pain in his left knee that is worse at night and unresponsive to over-the-counter pain relievers. Both knees appear normal with no swelling, tendon or ligament abnormalities, and no limited range of motion. The patient has a history of Paget disease of the bone and takes alendronic acid. The orthopedic surgeon notes a Codman triangle on knee X-ray due to periosteum elevation. What is the most likely condition affecting this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteosarcoma

      Explanation:

      The presence of a Codman triangle on an X-ray is a strong indication of osteosarcoma, a bone tumor that can cause night pain and is unresponsive to analgesics. This condition is often associated with Paget disease of the bone, which increases the risk of developing osteosarcoma. Giant cell tumor is another bone tumor that can occur in young adults and has a characteristic ‘soap bubble’ appearance on X-ray. Osteochondroma is a common benign bone tumor that can rarely transform into a malignant chondrosarcoma. Osteoarthritis is a painful joint condition caused by mechanical destruction of the cartilage, often worsened by factors such as obesity and age. Treatment options for osteoarthritis include pain relief medication and joint replacement surgery.

      Types of Bone Tumours

      Benign and malignant bone tumours are two types of bone tumours. Benign bone tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a benign overgrowth of bone that usually occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, the most common benign bone tumour, is a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma that occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones.

      Malignant bone tumours are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and is associated with t(11;22) translocation. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age.

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  • Question 97 - A 75-year-old man falls and injures his left hip. He is given paracetamol...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man falls and injures his left hip. He is given paracetamol by a junior doctor and sent home. After a few months, he returns with persistent pain and discomfort in the hip. The doctors suspect avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Which of the following features is least likely to be present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apoptosis of osteoblasts

      Explanation:

      Necrotic cell death does not involve apoptosis. Instead, the body typically attempts to repair the damage by promoting angiogenesis and the proliferation of fibroblasts. These cells may even differentiate into osteoblasts, which can then lay down new matrix.

      Avascular necrosis (AVN) is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, resulting in bone destruction and joint dysfunction. This commonly affects the femur’s epiphysis, which is a long bone. The causes of AVN include long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma. Initially, AVN may not show any symptoms, but pain in the affected joint may develop over time. Plain x-rays may not show any abnormalities at first, but osteopenia and microfractures may be visible early on. The crescent sign may appear due to the collapse of the articular surface. MRI is the preferred diagnostic tool as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. Joint replacement may be necessary for management.

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  • Question 98 - A 78-year-old man is receiving community physiotherapy after a prolonged period of immobility...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man is receiving community physiotherapy after a prolonged period of immobility caused by depression. He is experiencing difficulty with hip abduction. Which muscle is primarily responsible for this movement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gluteus medius

      Explanation:

      The correct muscle for hip abduction is the gluteus medius, which has anterior and posterior parts. The anterior part contributes to hip flexion and internal rotation, while the posterior part contributes to hip extension and external rotation. When both parts work together, they abduct the hip. The gluteus maximus primarily functions for hip extension and external rotation, while the hamstrings coordinate flexion and extension of the hip and knee joints but do not contribute to abduction. The iliopsoas primarily functions for hip extension.

      Anatomy of the Hip Joint

      The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.

      There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.

      The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.

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  • Question 99 - Which one of the following nerves innervates the long head of the biceps...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following nerves innervates the long head of the biceps femoris muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibial division of sciatic nerve

      Explanation:

      The common peroneal component of the sciatic nerve innervates the short head of biceps femoris, which may be absent at times. On the other hand, the tibial division of the sciatic nerve innervates the long head.

      The Biceps Femoris Muscle

      The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.

      On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.

      Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.

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  • Question 100 - A thirty-four-year-old man is experiencing pain in his right gluteal region that radiates...

    Incorrect

    • A thirty-four-year-old man is experiencing pain in his right gluteal region that radiates down his leg. The pain worsens when he runs or sits for extended periods, and he is concerned as he is training for a half-marathon. An MRI scan shows that one of his lateral hip rotators has hypertrophied and is compressing his sciatic nerve.

      Which muscle is responsible for compressing the sciatic nerve in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Piriformis

      Explanation:

      P-GO-GO-Q is a mnemonic for remembering the lateral hip rotators in order from top to bottom: Piriformis, Gemellus superior, Obturator internus, Gemellus inferior, and Obturator externus.

      Anatomy of the Hip Joint

      The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.

      There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.

      The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.

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  • Question 101 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for innervating the triceps muscle? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for innervating the triceps muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      To memorize the nerve roots and their corresponding reflexes:

      1-2: Ankle reflex (S1-S2)
      3-4: Knee reflex (L3-L4)
      5-6: Biceps reflex (C5-C6)
      7-8: Triceps reflex (C7-C8)

      It’s important to note that the radial nerve provides innervation to all three heads of the triceps muscle, with a distinct branch to each head.

      Anatomy of the Triceps Muscle

      The triceps muscle is a large muscle located on the back of the upper arm. It is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. The long head originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, while the lateral head originates from the dorsal surface of the humerus, lateral and proximal to the groove of the radial nerve. The medial head originates from the posterior surface of the humerus on the inferomedial side of the radial groove and both of the intermuscular septae.

      All three heads of the triceps muscle insert into the olecranon process of the ulna, with some fibers inserting into the deep fascia of the forearm and the posterior capsule of the elbow. The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve and supplied with blood by the profunda brachii artery.

      The primary action of the triceps muscle is elbow extension. The long head can also adduct the humerus and extend it from a flexed position. The radial nerve and profunda brachii vessels lie between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle. Understanding the anatomy of the triceps muscle is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of injuries or conditions affecting this muscle.

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  • Question 102 - A 27-year-old renal transplant recipient due to polycystic kidney disease visits the follow-up...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old renal transplant recipient due to polycystic kidney disease visits the follow-up clinic. She has been prescribed mycophenolate mofetil as part of her immunosuppressant regimen.

      What is the mechanism of action of mycophenolate mofetil?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inosine-5'-monophosphate dehydrogenase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) is an immunosuppressant that inhibits inosine-5′-monophosphate dehydrogenase, an enzyme necessary for purine synthesis. MMF is commonly used in organ transplantation and autoimmune disorders. Azathioprine also inhibits purine synthesis, but through a different mechanism.

      Calcineurin inhibitors, such as tacrolimus and ciclosporin, reduce T-cell differentiation to suppress the immune system.

      Protease inhibitors, like ritonavir and darunavir, are antivirals used to treat HIV and hepatitis.

      HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors, such as statins, lower LDL cholesterol levels.

      Hydroxycarbamide is a ribonucleotide reductase inhibitor that reduces the production of deoxyribonucleotides, thereby decreasing DNA synthesis. It is used to treat cancer.

      Mycophenolate Mofetil: How it Works as an Immunosuppressant

      Mycophenolate mofetil is a medication that is often prescribed to prevent the rejection of organ transplants. It works by inhibiting the activity of inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase, an enzyme that is necessary for the synthesis of purines. Since T and B cells rely heavily on this pathway for their proliferation, mycophenolate mofetil can effectively reduce the activity of these immune cells.

      In simpler terms, mycophenolate mofetil works by blocking a key enzyme that immune cells need to grow and multiply. By doing so, it can help prevent the body from attacking and rejecting a transplanted organ. This medication is often used in combination with other immunosuppressants to achieve the best possible outcomes for transplant patients.

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  • Question 103 - A 25-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department half an hour after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department half an hour after experiencing severe burns in a house fire. According to a Lund and Browder chart, approximately 42% of the patient's body is affected, with significant areas of full-thickness burns and oedema. During examination, the patient's heart rate is recorded at 124/min and blood pressure at 92/48 mmHg. What is the probable reason for the patient's vital signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Third space fluid loss

      Explanation:

      Third space fluid loss is a common occurrence in patients with severe burns. This happens when fluid leaks into the area surrounding cells, leading to symptoms such as edema, tachycardia, and hypotension.

      It is unlikely that neurogenic shock is the cause of these symptoms. Neurogenic shock is typically caused by damage to the autonomic pathways in the central nervous system, which is usually the result of spinal cord or central nervous system trauma.

      While secondary bacterial infections and sepsis are important considerations in patients with major burns, it is unlikely that this patient has an infection since the burns occurred only 30 minutes ago.

      Severe pain may explain the tachycardia, but it does not account for the hypotension.

      Smoke inhalation can cause coughing, shortness of breath, and burns around the airway, but it is unlikely to be the cause of the hypotension and tachycardia in this patient.

      First Aid and Management of Burns

      Burns can be caused by heat, electricity, or chemicals. Immediate first aid involves removing the person from the source of the burn and irrigating the affected area with cool water. The extent of the burn can be assessed using Wallace’s Rule of Nines or the Lund and Browder chart. The depth of the burn can be determined by its appearance, with full-thickness burns being the most severe. Referral to secondary care is necessary for deep dermal and full-thickness burns, as well as burns involving certain areas of the body or suspicion of non-accidental injury.

      Severe burns can lead to tissue loss, fluid loss, and a catabolic response. Intravenous fluids and analgesia are necessary for resuscitation and pain relief. Smoke inhalation can result in airway edema, and early intubation may be necessary. Circumferential burns may require escharotomy to relieve compartment syndrome and improve ventilation. Conservative management is appropriate for superficial burns, while more complex burns may require excision and skin grafting. There is no evidence to support the use of antimicrobial prophylaxis or topical antibiotics in burn patients.

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  • Question 104 - A 4-year-old boy is presented to the GP by his father. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is presented to the GP by his father. He has developed a rash around his mouth and nose over the past few days. It started as a flat red patch at the corner of his mouth but quickly progressed to a blistering rash that oozes fluid. During today's examination, the rash appears to have a crusty, golden appearance on the surface. The child is healthy otherwise and has no prior history of skin problems. Based on this history and examination, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impetigo

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis based on the history and examination is impetigo or eczema herpeticum, which can have similar presentations and are difficult to differentiate clinically. However, since the child has no prior history of skin conditions, eczema herpeticum is less probable. Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

      Option 1: Atopic eczema would not manifest with a yellowish crust.

      Option 3: Chickenpox would not exhibit this particular progression.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

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  • Question 105 - Mrs. Smith presents to the clinic with a newly noticed lesion on her...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Smith presents to the clinic with a newly noticed lesion on her leg. Upon examination, concerning characteristics of malignancy are observed.

      What signs would be most indicative of an in situ malignant melanoma in Mrs. Smith, who is in her early 50s?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Having multiple colours

      Explanation:

      When assessing a pigmented lesion, it is important to consider the ‘ABCDE’ criteria: Asymmetry, Border, Colour, Diameter, and Evolution. The British Association of Dermatologists (BAD) provides guidance on this assessment. According to BAD, a diameter of over 6mm is more indicative of a melanoma than a diameter of 4mm. A lesion’s color alone does not determine malignancy, as highly pigmented lesions can be benign. Rolled edges are more commonly associated with basal cell carcinoma than melanoma. However, the presence of multiple colors within a lesion, including different shades of black, brown, and pink, is a significant indicator of melanoma.

      Skin cancer is a type of cancer that affects the skin. There are three main types of skin cancer: basal cell cancer, squamous cell cancer, and malignant melanoma. The risk factors for skin cancer include sun exposure, iatrogenic factors such as PUVA and UVB phototherapy, exposure to arsenic, and immunosuppression following renal transplant. People who have undergone renal transplant are at a higher risk of developing squamous cell cancer and basal cell cancer, and this may be linked to human papillomavirus.

      Skin cancer is a type of cancer that affects the skin. It can be classified into three main types: basal cell cancer, squamous cell cancer, and malignant melanoma. The risk factors for skin cancer include exposure to the sun, iatrogenic factors such as PUVA and UVB phototherapy, exposure to arsenic, and immunosuppression following renal transplant. People who have undergone renal transplant are at a higher risk of developing squamous cell cancer and basal cell cancer, and this may be linked to human papillomavirus.

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  • Question 106 - A 50-year-old woman presents with two months of lower back pain. The pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with two months of lower back pain. The pain worsens during prolonged periods of sitting and shoots down her left leg. She is still able to perform all of her usual activities but has noticed that she has been catching her left foot on stairs when walking.

      On examination, power is normal in all myotomes of the right leg. In the left leg, dorsiflexion is slightly weak. The sensation is intact to touch and pin-prick on the right leg but there is a subjective loss of sensation along the sole of the left foot. Reflexes are normal. Hip abduction is assessed, which shows reduced power on the left compared to the right.

      An MRI is organised to assess for pathology.

      What spinal level corresponds to the symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fifth lumbar vertebrae (L5)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.

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  • Question 107 - A 60-year-old patient visits the GP with symptoms indicative of a rotator cuff...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old patient visits the GP with symptoms indicative of a rotator cuff injury. The GP intends to assess the subscapularis muscle. What is the most suitable special test to examine the subscapularis muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lift-off test

      Explanation:

      If a lift-off test shows abnormal results, it suggests that the subscapularis muscle may be involved.

      Rotator cuff injuries are a common cause of shoulder problems and can be classified into four types of disease: subacromial impingement, calcific tendonitis, rotator cuff tears, and rotator cuff arthropathy. The symptoms of a rotator cuff injury include shoulder pain that worsens during abduction. The signs of a rotator cuff injury include tenderness over the anterior acromion and a painful arc of abduction. The painful arc of abduction is typically between 60 and 120 degrees for subacromial impingement, while for rotator cuff tears, the pain may be in the first 60 degrees. Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent further damage and improve shoulder function.

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  • Question 108 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother who is...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother who is worried about her daughter's hearing loss. The girl has a history of frequent bone fractures. During the examination, the doctor observes that the external ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal and there is no discharge or swelling. However, the girl's sclera has a bluish tint. What type of collagen is most likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Type 1

      Explanation:

      Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by a defect in type 1 collagen, which is found in the skin, tendons, vasculature, and bones. This abnormality results in fragile bones, leading to multiple fractures, as seen in a child with deafness, blue sclera, and fractures. Type 2 collagen is present in cartilage and is not typically affected in osteogenesis imperfecta. Type 3 collagen is the primary component of reticular fibers, which are also not typically affected in this condition. Type 4 collagen makes up basement membranes, which are also not typically affected in osteogenesis imperfecta.

      Understanding Osteogenesis Imperfecta

      Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides.

      This condition typically presents in childhood, with individuals experiencing fractures following minor trauma. Other common features include blue sclera, deafness secondary to otosclerosis, and dental imperfections. Despite these symptoms, adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal in individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of osteogenesis imperfecta is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

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  • Question 109 - Which one of the following is not closely related to the capitate bone?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not closely related to the capitate bone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The pisiform bone is in close proximity to both the ulnar nerve and artery. Additionally, the capitate bone is in articulation with the lunate, scaphoid, hamate, and trapezoid bones, indicating a close relationship between them.

      The Capitate Bone: Largest of the Carpal Bones

      The capitate bone is the largest of the carpal bones and is located centrally in the wrist. It has a rounded head that fits into the cavities of the lunate and scaphoid bones. The bone also has flatter articular surfaces for the hamate medially and the trapezoid laterally. At the distal end, the capitate bone primarily articulates with the middle metacarpal. Overall, the capitate bone plays an important role in the structure and function of the wrist joint.

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  • Question 110 - A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a fall on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a fall on his outstretched arm. He has a medical history of osteoporosis and takes calcium, vitamin D, and alendronic acid.

      During the examination, he experiences tenderness at the proximal humerus and is unable to abduct his shoulder. However, his elbow, wrist, and hand appear normal.

      After a plain radiography, it is discovered that he has a fracture of the proximal humerus. Which nerve has been affected by this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The correct nerve associated with loss of shoulder abduction due to denervation of the deltoid muscle in an elderly man with a proximal humerus fracture is the axillary nerve (C5,C6). Injury to the long thoracic, musculocutaneous, radial, and ulnar nerves are less likely based on the mechanism of injury and examination findings.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 111 - Sarah, a 23-year-old female, complains of worsening pain in her right lower leg...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 23-year-old female, complains of worsening pain in her right lower leg after it was casted for a fibular fracture. The medical team suspects compartment syndrome and initiates prompt treatment. Besides pain, what is another early symptom of compartment syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paresthesia

      Explanation:

      Compartment syndrome is characterized by the 6 P’s: pain, paresthesia, paresis, pallor, perishingly cold, and pulselessness. Pain is an early symptom that is often not relieved by pain medication and is particularly noticeable during passive stretching. Paresthesia, which includes abnormal sensations like tingling, numbness, and burning, may progress to anesthesia.

      Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Even if a pulse is present, compartment syndrome cannot be ruled out. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40 mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may experience myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.

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  • Question 112 - A 6-year-old girl visits her GP with her parents as they have noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl visits her GP with her parents as they have noticed a localized area of red and blistered swelling on her forehead. The GP suspects a superficial skin infection and prescribes appropriate antibiotics.

      What is the most common microorganism associated with this condition, based on the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

      Explanation:

      Streptococcus pyogenes is the primary cause of erysipelas, a localized skin infection. However, Staphylococcus aureus can also be a culprit. Haemophilus influenzae type B used to be a common cause before vaccination was available. Diphtheria, which can lead to serious renal and nervous system complications if left untreated, is caused by Corynebacterium diphtheriae. Enterococcus faecium, a gut bacterium, may also be involved in meningitis and endocarditis.

      Understanding Erysipelas: A Superficial Skin Infection

      Erysipelas is a skin infection that is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. It is a less severe form of cellulitis, which is a more widespread skin infection. Erysipelas is a localized infection that affects the skin’s upper layers, causing redness, swelling, and warmth. The infection can occur anywhere on the body, but it is most commonly found on the face, arms, and legs.

      The treatment of choice for erysipelas is flucloxacillin, an antibiotic that is effective against Streptococcus pyogenes. Other antibiotics may also be used, depending on the severity of the infection and the patient’s medical history.

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  • Question 113 - A 55 years old female patient presented with complaints of morning hand stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 years old female patient presented with complaints of morning hand stiffness that improves with use throughout the day. During a physical examination, nonmobile, nodular growths were found over the extensor surfaces of both elbows. Initial laboratory tests showed negative results for rheumatoid factor and Antinuclear antibody screen. To eliminate the possibility of other skin conditions, a biopsy of the nodules was conducted, which revealed cholesterol deposits.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that typically causes symmetric arthritis in multiple joints, with the distal interphalangeal joints being spared. Diagnosis is usually based on clinical features, supported by serological testing that shows positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide or rheumatoid factor. X-rays may reveal periarticular osteopenia, marginal bony erosions, and joint space narrowing. A biopsy of rheumatoid nodules that shows cholesterol deposits is considered pathognomonic for RA.

      Reactive arthritis is characterized by a combination of conjunctivitis, urethritis, and arthritis, often accompanied by diarrhea. Patients may also develop keratoderma blennorhagicum, which is characterized by hyperkeratotic vesicles on the palms and soles.

      Septic arthritis typically affects a single joint, causing redness, swelling, and pain. It occurs when the synovial membrane is invaded, resulting in yellow, turbid synovial fluid with high neutrophil levels. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of septic arthritis.

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a condition that causes shorter duration of morning stiffness, with symptoms worsening throughout the day with weight-bearing. X-rays may show loss of joint space, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis, and subchondral cysts.

      Rheumatoid arthritis can be diagnosed clinically, which is considered more important than using specific criteria. However, the American College of Rheumatology has established classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis. These criteria require the presence of at least one joint with definite clinical synovitis that cannot be explained by another disease. A score of 6 out of 10 is needed for a definite diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The score is based on factors such as the number and type of joints involved, serology (presence of rheumatoid factor or anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody), acute-phase reactants (such as CRP and ESR), and duration of symptoms. These criteria are used to classify patients with rheumatoid arthritis for research and clinical purposes.

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  • Question 114 - A 75-year-old man sustains a scaphoid bone fracture that is displaced. The medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man sustains a scaphoid bone fracture that is displaced. The medical team decides to use a screw to fix the fracture. What structure is located directly medial to the scaphoid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lunate

      Explanation:

      The lunate is positioned towards the middle in the anatomical plane. Injuries that involve high velocity and result in scaphoid fractures may also lead to dislocation of the lunate.

      The scaphoid bone has various articular surfaces for different bones in the wrist. It has a concave surface for the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface for the lunate. The proximal end has a wide convex surface for the radius, while the distal end has a tubercle that can be felt. The remaining articular surface faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones. The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum and is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis.

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  • Question 115 - Which of the following structures separates the intervertebral disks from the spinal cord?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures separates the intervertebral disks from the spinal cord?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior longitudinal ligament

      Explanation:

      The posterior longitudinal ligament covers both the posterior surface of the vertebral bodies and the intervertebral disks.

      Intervertebral Discs

      Intervertebral discs are composed of two main parts: the outer annulus fibrosus and the inner nucleus pulposus. The annulus fibrosus is made up of multiple layers of fibrocartilage, while the nucleus pulposus contains loose fibers suspended in a mucoprotein gel with a jelly-like consistency. The nucleus of the disc acts as a shock absorber, and pressure on the disc can cause the posterior protrusion of the nucleus pulposus. This is most commonly seen in the lumbrosacral and lower cervical areas.

      The discs are separated by hyaline cartilage, and there is one disc between each pair of vertebrae, except for C1/2 and the sacrococcygeal vertebrae. Understanding the structure and function of intervertebral discs is important in the diagnosis and treatment of spinal conditions. By providing support and cushioning to the spine, these discs play a crucial role in maintaining spinal health and mobility.

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  • Question 116 - A 33-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of decreased mobility....

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of decreased mobility. He reports experiencing difficulty walking due to weakness in his left foot. The patient has no significant medical history and is typically healthy, regularly participating in sports.

      Upon examination, there is a decrease in sensation in the lateral aspect of the left foot and the posterior aspect of the left leg. The patient exhibits normal power on dorsiflexion but reduced power on plantarflexion of the left foot. Additionally, ankle reflexes are absent.

      Which anatomical structure is likely to be damaged and causing the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: S1 nerve root

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a lesion in the S1 nerve root, which supplies sensation to the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot. This is supported by the presence of sensory loss, weakness in plantarflexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. The other options, such as Achilles tendon rupture, injury to the common fibular nerve, or L4-L5 nerve root compression, do not fully explain the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.

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  • Question 117 - A 25-year-old patient was recently admitted to hospital with symptoms of diarrhoea, weight...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient was recently admitted to hospital with symptoms of diarrhoea, weight loss and abdominal pain. Upon blood tests, a raised C-reactive protein (CRP) and anaemia were observed. A stool test for faecal calprotectin was significantly raised. A colonoscopy was performed, revealing deep ulceration and skip lesions. The patient was diagnosed with Crohn's disease without complications and was promptly started on glucocorticoids to induce remission. Subsequently, the gastroenterologist prescribed a drug called azathioprine to maintain remission of symptoms.

      What is the correct mechanism of action for azathioprine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Its metabolite inhibits purine synthesis

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine is an immunosuppressant that is commonly used to maintain remission in Crohn’s disease. It is metabolized into mercaptopurine, which inhibits purine synthesis and helps to control inflammation.

      Infliximab is a monoclonal antibody that is sometimes used to induce remission in refractory or fistulating Crohn’s disease. It works by binding to and neutralizing tumor necrosis factor, a key mediator of inflammation.

      Mesalazine is a second-line drug that is used to induce remission in Crohn’s disease after glucocorticoids. It belongs to the 5-aminosalicylate class of drugs and works by inhibiting prostaglandin secretion. It is also considered for use in maintaining remission in post-surgical Crohn’s patients.

      Methotrexate is another immunosuppressant that is used as a second-line treatment for Crohn’s disease. It works by disrupting folic acid metabolism and accumulating the anti-inflammatory molecule adenosine.

      Metronidazole is an antibiotic that is used to treat isolated peri-anal Crohn’s disease. It works by forming radicals that disrupt the DNA of anaerobic bacteria.

      Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

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  • Question 118 - A 21-year-old man is participating in a rugby game when he experiences a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man is participating in a rugby game when he experiences a sharp pain in the posterolateral area of his right thigh. Which muscle group is the most probable source of the injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long head of biceps femoris

      Explanation:

      The hamstring muscle group consists of three muscles: the biceps femoris, which is located on the lateral side, and the semitendinosus and semimembranosus, which are located on the medial side. While less common, it is possible for the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles to also experience a rupture.

      The Biceps Femoris Muscle

      The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.

      On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.

      Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.

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  • Question 119 - A 21-year-old male comes to you with sudden onset back pain following weightlifting...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male comes to you with sudden onset back pain following weightlifting at the gym. He reports a sharp pain that travels from his lower back down his legs. During the physical examination, you observe that the pain is replicated when he is lying on his back and you lift his leg. Additionally, he has decreased sensation on the top of his foot. Based on these findings, you suspect that he may have a herniated intervertebral disc.

      Which level is the most probable location of the herniated disc?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L5-S1

      Explanation:

      When a disc herniates at the L5-S1 level, it can impact the L5 spinal nerve and result in a loss of sensation on the top of the foot. Additionally, it can affect the function of the sciatic nerve, leading to pain that travels down the leg from the lower back. This pain can be detected through the sciatic nerve stretch test.

      If the disc herniation occurs at the L3-L4 level, it can cause a loss of sensation in the front of the thigh and knee. The femoral nerve stretch test would be positive in this case.

      Finally, if the disc herniation is at the S1-S2 level, it can cause a loss of sensation on the back and side of the leg, as well as the outer edge of the foot.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.

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  • Question 120 - A 56-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of numbness and tingling in his thumb, middle, and index fingers for the past 8 months. This is beginning to interfere with his work as a financial analyst. He has a history of hypothyroidism for which he takes 100 micrograms of thyroxine daily.

      Which nerves are involved in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median nerve

      Explanation:

      To identify the affected nerve, it is crucial to accurately diagnose the underlying condition. The patient’s symptoms, such as numbness and tingling in the thumb and middle finger (and possibly the radial half of the ring finger), suggest carpal tunnel syndrome. Additionally, the patient’s occupation involving computer use and hypothyroidism are risk factors for this condition.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome occurs when the median nerve is compressed at the carpal tunnel as it passes through the wrist.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

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  • Question 121 - A 75-year-old man comes to the hospital following a fall where he landed...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the hospital following a fall where he landed on his outstretched left hand. He reports experiencing pain in his left arm. Upon conducting an x-ray, it is revealed that he has a surgical neck fracture of the left humerus. Which nerve is commonly affected by this type of injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The axillary nerve is frequently injured in cases of surgical neck fractures of the humerus, as it passes through this area. Symptoms of axillary nerve injury include loss of sensation in the regimental badge area and difficulty with arm abduction due to the affected deltoid and teres minor muscles.

      Damage to the median nerve is uncommon in cases of proximal or mid-shaft humeral fractures, as it is protected by surrounding muscle. However, it may be affected in distal humeral fractures as it passes through the cubital fossa.

      The musculocutaneous nerve is well-protected by muscle and is rarely injured in cases of proximal humeral fractures.

      The radial nerve is most commonly injured in midshaft humeral fractures, as it runs along the radial groove of the humerus.

      Similarly to the median nerve, the ulnar nerve arises from the brachial plexus and runs along the medial surface of the upper arm. It is most commonly injured in cases of distal humeral fractures.

      The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.

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  • Question 122 - A physician is evaluating a 25-year-old male who came to the ER with...

    Incorrect

    • A physician is evaluating a 25-year-old male who came to the ER with wrist drop and weakened extension of his left elbow. The physician determines that the radial nerve, which innervates the tricep brachii, has been affected.

      What is the insertion point of this muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Olecranon process of the ulna

      Explanation:

      The tricep muscle, which gets its name from the Latin word for three-headed muscles, is responsible for extending the elbow. It is made up of three heads: the long head, which originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapular; the lateral head, which comes from the dorsal surface of the humerus; and the medial head, which originates from the posterior surface of the humerus. These three heads come together to form a single tendon that inserts onto the olecranon process of the ulna.

      Anatomy of the Triceps Muscle

      The triceps muscle is a large muscle located on the back of the upper arm. It is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. The long head originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, while the lateral head originates from the dorsal surface of the humerus, lateral and proximal to the groove of the radial nerve. The medial head originates from the posterior surface of the humerus on the inferomedial side of the radial groove and both of the intermuscular septae.

      All three heads of the triceps muscle insert into the olecranon process of the ulna, with some fibers inserting into the deep fascia of the forearm and the posterior capsule of the elbow. The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve and supplied with blood by the profunda brachii artery.

      The primary action of the triceps muscle is elbow extension. The long head can also adduct the humerus and extend it from a flexed position. The radial nerve and profunda brachii vessels lie between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle. Understanding the anatomy of the triceps muscle is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of injuries or conditions affecting this muscle.

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  • Question 123 - Which of the following nerves is responsible for innervating the posterior belly of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following nerves is responsible for innervating the posterior belly of the digastric muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial nerve

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve innervates the posterior belly of digastric, while the mylohoid nerve innervates the anterior belly.

      The Anterior Triangle of the Neck: Boundaries and Contents

      The anterior triangle of the neck is a region that is bounded by the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lower border of the mandible, and the anterior midline. It is further divided into three sub-triangles by the digastric muscle and the omohyoid muscle. The muscular triangle contains the neck strap muscles, while the carotid triangle contains the carotid sheath, which houses the common carotid artery, the vagus nerve, and the internal jugular vein. The submandibular triangle, located below the digastric muscle, contains the submandibular gland, submandibular nodes, facial vessels, hypoglossal nerve, and other structures.

      The digastric muscle, which separates the submandibular triangle from the muscular triangle, is innervated by two different nerves. The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is supplied by the mylohyoid nerve, while the posterior belly is supplied by the facial nerve.

      Overall, the anterior triangle of the neck is an important anatomical region that contains many vital structures, including blood vessels, nerves, and glands. Understanding the boundaries and contents of this region is essential for medical professionals who work in this area.

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  • Question 124 - A 68-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a complaint of a painful, red toe. The pain began a few hours ago and has been getting worse. Upon examination, her 1st metatarsophalangeal joint is inflamed, erythematous, and tender to the touch.

      What are the joint aspiration findings that would confirm a gout flare diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Negatively birefringent needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals

      Explanation:

      Joint aspiration is a valuable diagnostic tool for differentiating between various causes of joint swelling, including septic arthritis and pseudogout. In the case of gout, joint aspiration will reveal needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals that are negatively birefringent under polarised light. These crystals form when uric acid levels remain persistently high and deposit in tissues, leading to the characteristic inflammatory response seen in gout.

      It is important to note that a green-colored aspirate with a positive gram stain for Staphylococcus aureus is not indicative of gout, but rather suggests septic arthritis. In this case, the aspirate may have a raised white cell count and appear yellow or green.

      Similarly, the presence of negatively birefringent needle-shaped calcium oxalate crystals is not associated with gout, but rather with kidney stones. These crystals form when there are high concentrations of calcium oxalate in the urine and are typically octahedral or envelope-shaped.

      Finally, positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped calcium pyrophosphate crystals are not seen in gout, but rather in pseudogout. Pseudogout presents with similar symptoms to gout and more commonly affects the knee joint.

      Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and can affect various joints, with the first metatarsophalangeal joint being the most commonly affected. Swelling and redness are also common symptoms of gout.

      If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to joint damage and chronic joint problems. To diagnose gout, doctors may perform synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarised light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack.

      Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, gout does not cause periarticular osteopenia. Soft tissue tophi may also be visible.

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  • Question 125 - Which nerve is in danger during removal of the submandibular gland? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve is in danger during removal of the submandibular gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marginal mandibular nerve

      Explanation:

      The depressor anguli oris and depressor labii inferioris muscles are supplied by the marginal mandibular nerve, which is located beneath the platysma muscle. Damage to this nerve can result in facial asymmetry and drooling.

      Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland

      The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.

      The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

      The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.

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  • Question 126 - A 70-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic with worsening bone and joint pain. Upon examination, diffuse muscular tenderness is noted but is otherwise unremarkable. The following blood test results are obtained:

      Calcium 1.9 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
      Phosphate 2.0 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
      ALP 170 IU/L (44-147)
      Parathyroid Hormone 70 pg/mL (15-65)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The patient’s low serum calcium, high serum phosphate, high ALP, and high PTH levels suggest that they have chronic kidney disease leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism. This occurs when the kidneys are unable to synthesize enough vitamin D, resulting in low calcium levels. Additionally, poor kidney function leads to high phosphate levels. As a compensatory mechanism, the parathyroid hormone levels increase, causing lytic bone lesions and high ALP, which explains the patient’s diffuse musculoskeletal tenderness.

      Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy is a condition where parathyroid hormone-related peptide acts similarly to parathyroid hormone, leading to high calcium levels. However, phosphate levels would be low or normal due to the effect of this hormone. In contrast, this patient’s parathyroid hormone levels are high, indicating secondary hyperparathyroidism.

      Liver disease alone does not typically cause disturbances in calcium metabolism.

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by excess secretion of parathyroid hormone, resulting in high serum calcium and parathyroid hormone levels. However, in this condition, phosphate levels are low due to the effect of high parathyroid hormone. This patient’s blood work does not suggest primary hyperparathyroidism.

      Tertiary hyperparathyroidism occurs in end-stage renal disease, where longstanding secondary hyperparathyroidism leads to excess production of parathyroid hormone and eventual hypercalcemia, rather than hypocalcemia.

      Lab Values for Bone Disorders

      When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information about the condition. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically normal. However, in osteomalacia, calcium and phosphate levels are decreased while ALP and PTH levels are increased. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can result in secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is marked by decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels. Paget’s disease, on the other hand, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels but increased ALP levels. Finally, osteopetrosis is associated with normal levels of calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH. By analyzing these lab values, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat bone disorders.

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  • Question 127 - A 57-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer experiences severe groin pain upon getting...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer experiences severe groin pain upon getting out of bed due to an oestolytic deposit in the proximal femur. X-rays reveal an avulsed lesser trochanter. What muscle is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoas major

      Explanation:

      The lesser trochanter is the insertion point for the psoas major, which contracts during the act of raising the trunk from a supine position. In cases where there are oestolytic lesions in the femur, the lesser trochanter may become avulsed.

      The Psoas Muscle: Origin, Insertion, Innervation, and Action

      The psoas muscle is a deep-seated muscle that originates from the transverse processes of the five lumbar vertebrae and the superficial part originates from T12 and the first four lumbar vertebrae. It inserts into the lesser trochanter of the femur and is innervated by the anterior rami of L1 to L3.

      The main action of the psoas muscle is flexion and external rotation of the hip. When both sides of the muscle contract, it can raise the trunk from the supine position. The psoas muscle is an important muscle for maintaining proper posture and movement, and it is often targeted in exercises such as lunges and leg lifts.

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  • Question 128 - A 67-years-old man with a history of gout and seasonal allergies visits his...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-years-old man with a history of gout and seasonal allergies visits his primary care physician. He reports experiencing a burning sensation on the left side of his chest for the past three days, which has been disrupting his sleep. He has also had a fever for the last three days.

      During the examination, the physician observes erythema and occasional vesicles on the left side of the patient's chest. The affected area extends from above his nipple to under his axilla.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shingles

      Explanation:

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

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  • Question 129 - Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the posterior...

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    • Which one of the following structures is not closely related to the posterior tibial artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deep peroneal nerve laterally

      Explanation:

      The deep peroneal nerve is in the front compartment and the tibial nerve is on the inner side. The tibial nerve is located beneath the flexor retinaculum at its end.

      Anatomy of the Posterior Tibial Artery

      The posterior tibial artery is a major branch of the popliteal artery that terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar arteries. It is accompanied by two veins throughout its length and its position corresponds to a line drawn from the lower angle of the popliteal fossa to a point midway between the medial malleolus and the most prominent part of the heel.

      The artery is located anteriorly to the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles, and posteriorly to the surface of the tibia and ankle joint. The posterior tibial nerve is located 2.5 cm distal to its origin. The proximal part of the artery is covered by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, while the distal part is covered by skin and fascia. The artery is also covered by the fascia overlying the deep muscular layer.

      Understanding the anatomy of the posterior tibial artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the foot and ankle. Any damage or blockage to this artery can lead to serious complications, such as peripheral artery disease or even amputation.

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  • Question 130 - Which muscle is responsible for causing flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle is responsible for causing flexion of the interphalangeal joint of the index finger?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexor pollicis longus

      Explanation:

      There are a total of 8 muscles that are involved in the movement of the thumb. These include two flexors, namely flexor pollicis brevis and flexor pollicis longus, two extensors, namely extensor pollicis brevis and longus, two abductors, namely abductor pollicis brevis and longus, one adductor, namely adductor pollicis, and one muscle that opposes the thumb by rotating the CMC joint, known as opponens pollicis. The flexor and extensor longus muscles are responsible for moving both the MCP and IP joints and insert on the distal phalanx.

      Anatomy of the Hand: Fascia, Compartments, and Tendons

      The hand is composed of bones, muscles, and tendons that work together to perform various functions. The bones of the hand include eight carpal bones, five metacarpals, and 14 phalanges. The intrinsic muscles of the hand include the interossei, which are supplied by the ulnar nerve, and the lumbricals, which flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joint. The thenar eminence contains the abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and flexor pollicis brevis, while the hypothenar eminence contains the opponens digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and abductor digiti minimi.

      The fascia of the palm is thin over the thenar and hypothenar eminences but relatively thick elsewhere. The palmar aponeurosis covers the soft tissues and overlies the flexor tendons. The palmar fascia is continuous with the antebrachial fascia and the fascia of the dorsum of the hand. The hand is divided into compartments by fibrous septa, with the thenar compartment lying lateral to the lateral septum, the hypothenar compartment lying medial to the medial septum, and the central compartment containing the flexor tendons and their sheaths, the lumbricals, the superficial palmar arterial arch, and the digital vessels and nerves. The deepest muscular plane is the adductor compartment, which contains adductor pollicis.

      The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) enter the common flexor sheath deep to the flexor retinaculum. The tendons enter the central compartment of the hand and fan out to their respective digital synovial sheaths. The fibrous digital sheaths contain the flexor tendons and their synovial sheaths, extending from the heads of the metacarpals to the base of the distal phalanges.

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  • Question 131 - A 65 years old female patient visits her doctor with complaints of stiffness...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 years old female patient visits her doctor with complaints of stiffness in both hands lasting for several hours. She has also observed that her fingers turn white when exposed to cold but denies any other related symptoms. X-rays of the affected metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joints of the hands reveal periarticular osteopenia and bony erosions.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      In contrast to osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by longer morning stiffness lasting more than 30-60 minutes. It typically affects three or more joints symmetrically, but spares the distal interphalangeal joints. Diagnosis is based on clinical features and can be supported by positive anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) or rheumatoid factor (RF) serological testing. X-rays may show periarticular osteopenia, marginal bony erosions, and joint space narrowing. Additionally, Raynaud’s phenomenon can be an extra-articular manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis.

      Comparison of Osteoarthritis and Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis are two types of arthritis that affect the joints. Osteoarthritis is caused by mechanical wear and tear, resulting in the localized loss of cartilage, remodelling of adjacent bone, and associated inflammation. On the other hand, rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease that affects women more commonly than men and can occur in adults of all ages. It typically affects the MCP and PIP joints, causing bilateral symptoms and systemic upset, while osteoarthritis affects large weight-bearing joints such as the hip and knee, as well as the carpometacarpal joint and DIP and PIP joints, causing unilateral symptoms and no systemic upset.

      The typical history of osteoarthritis involves pain following use, which improves with rest, while rheumatoid arthritis involves morning stiffness that improves with use. X-ray findings for osteoarthritis include loss of joint space, subchondral sclerosis, subchondral cysts, and osteophytes forming at joint margins. For rheumatoid arthritis, X-ray findings include loss of joint space, juxta-articular osteoporosis, periarticular erosions, and subluxation.

      In summary, while both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis affect the joints, they have different causes, affected joints, symptoms, and X-ray findings. Understanding these differences can help with accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 132 - A 25-year-old male is stabbed in the groin, resulting in injury to multiple...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male is stabbed in the groin, resulting in injury to multiple structures and a laceration of the adductor longus muscle. Which nerve is responsible for the innervation of the adductor longus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      Adductor Longus Muscle

      The adductor longus muscle originates from the anterior body of the pubis and inserts into the middle third of the linea aspera. Its main function is to adduct and flex the thigh, as well as medially rotate the hip. This muscle is innervated by the anterior division of the obturator nerve, which originates from the spinal nerves L2, L3, and L4. The adductor longus is one of the adductor muscles, which are a group of muscles located in the thigh that work together to bring the legs towards the midline of the body. The schematic image below illustrates the relationship of the adductor muscles.

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  • Question 133 - Which muscle initiates abduction of the shoulder at an early age? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscle initiates abduction of the shoulder at an early age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supraspinatus

      Explanation:

      The primary function of the intermediate deltoid muscle is to abduct the humerus, but it relies on the supraspinatus muscle to initiate this movement. Rotator cuff disease often involves damage to the supraspinatus tendon.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

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  • Question 134 - A 70-year-old man is recuperating from a fall that resulted in a fracture...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is recuperating from a fall that resulted in a fracture of his left fibular neck. He has observed that his left foot drags on the ground when he attempts to walk. Which nerve is the most probable to have been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely to have suffered damage to their common peroneal nerve, resulting in foot drop, following a fibular neck fracture. This is a common occurrence in such cases.

      It is important to note that damage to the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh, obturator nerve, or pudendal nerve is unlikely to cause foot drop. These nerves are associated with different symptoms and conditions.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

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  • Question 135 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to a rheumatology clinic with complaints of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to a rheumatology clinic with complaints of pain and stiffness in the small joints of her hands. After diagnosis, she is prescribed methotrexate for her rheumatoid arthritis. How does the addition of a folate supplement reduce the risk of which side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myelosuppression

      Explanation:

      The risk of myelosuppression can be reduced by prescribing folate along with methotrexate, as folate supplements can counteract the inhibition of folate caused by methotrexate. This is important because methotrexate targets fast-dividing cells by preventing DNA, RNA, and protein synthesis, and the cells in the bone marrow are heavily reliant on folate due to their rapid division.

      Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.

      Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.

      It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.

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  • Question 136 - A 27-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman visits her GP with concerns about well-defined patches of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman visits her GP with concerns about well-defined patches of significantly lighter skin. At first, this was only on her hands, but she has recently noticed similar patches on her face. She has a medical history of Hashimoto's thyroid disease and takes levothyroxine.

      During the examination, the GP observes well-demarcated areas of hypopigmentation on her hands, arms, and face. Based on the most probable diagnosis, which layer of the epidermis is affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stratum germinativum

      Explanation:

      The deepest layer of the epidermis is called the stratum germinativum, which is responsible for producing keratinocytes and contains melanocytes. Vitiligo, a condition characterized by depigmented patches, affects this layer by causing the loss of melanocytes.

      The stratum corneum is the topmost layer of the epidermis, consisting of dead cells filled with keratin.

      The stratum granulosum is where keratin production occurs in the epidermis.

      The stratum lucidum is only present in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.

      The Layers of the Epidermis

      The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and is made up of a stratified squamous epithelium with a basal lamina underneath. It can be divided into five layers, each with its own unique characteristics. The first layer is the stratum corneum, which is made up of flat, dead, scale-like cells filled with keratin. These cells are continually shed and replaced with new ones. The second layer, the stratum lucidum, is only present in thick skin and is a clear layer. The third layer, the stratum granulosum, is where cells form links with their neighbors. The fourth layer, the stratum spinosum, is the thickest layer of the epidermis and is where squamous cells begin keratin synthesis. Finally, the fifth layer is the stratum germinativum, which is the basement membrane and is made up of a single layer of columnar epithelial cells. This layer gives rise to keratinocytes and contains melanocytes. Understanding the layers of the epidermis is important for understanding the structure and function of the skin.

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  • Question 137 - A 48-year-old male visits his GP with blister-like skin alterations that have been...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old male visits his GP with blister-like skin alterations that have been bothering him for a few months on his body and inside his mouth. Upon biopsy, it is revealed that there are intra-epithelial blisters containing acantholytic keratinocytes.

      What skin condition is known to present with these features?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris

      Explanation:

      Pemphigus vulgaris is likely the condition that a middle-aged man with acantholytic keratinocytes and involvement of the mouth (mucous membranes) would present with. This is because this condition is characterised by intra-epithelial blisters containing acantholytic keratinocytes.

      Bullous pemphigoid, on the other hand, is characterised by damage to the hemidesmosomes and infiltration of white blood cells such as lymphocytes into the affected area. It does not demonstrate acantholytic keratinocytes and does not affect mucous membranes like the mouth.

      Actinic keratosis does not cause blistering, and bullous impetigo typically affects babies.

      Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.

      The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.

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  • Question 138 - A 65-year-old man presents with a cough, headache, and fever. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a cough, headache, and fever. He has a medical history of hypertension and dyslipidemia and has taken ibuprofen for symptom relief. What is the mechanism of action for the antipyretic effect of the medication he took?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduction of prostaglandin E2

      Explanation:

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) reduce the production of prostaglandin E2 (PGE2), which is responsible for their antipyretic effect. NSAIDs inhibit the enzyme cyclooxygenase (COX), which is required for the production of thromboxanes, prostaglandins, and prostacyclins. By reducing the production of PGE2, NSAIDs decrease fever by acting on the thermoregulation centre in the hypothalamus. However, NSAIDs can have side effects such as gastric ulcer, acute kidney injury, indigestion, and an increased risk of heart failure. It is important to note that insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF-1) is not affected by NSAIDs, as it is stimulated by growth hormones.

      Understanding Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 Selective NSAIDs

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that work by inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase enzymes, which are responsible for producing key mediators involved in inflammation such as prostaglandins. By reducing the production of these mediators, NSAIDs can help alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. Examples of NSAIDs include ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen, and aspirin.

      However, NSAIDs can also have important and common side-effects, such as peptic ulceration and exacerbation of asthma. To address these concerns, COX-2 selective NSAIDs were developed. These medications were designed to reduce the incidence of side-effects seen with traditional NSAIDs, particularly peptic ulceration. Examples of COX-2 selective NSAIDs include celecoxib and etoricoxib.

      Despite their potential benefits, COX-2 selective NSAIDs are not widely used due to ongoing concerns about cardiovascular safety. This led to the withdrawal of rofecoxib (‘Vioxx’) in 2004. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential risks and benefits of NSAIDs and COX-2 selective NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before use.

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  • Question 139 - The foramen indicating the end of the adductor canal is situated in which...

    Incorrect

    • The foramen indicating the end of the adductor canal is situated in which of the subsequent options?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adductor magnus

      Explanation:

      The adductor canal’s distal boundary is demarcated by a foramen located within the adductor magnus. The vessel traverses this area to reach the popliteal fossa.

      The Adductor Canal: Anatomy and Contents

      The adductor canal, also known as Hunter’s or the subsartorial canal, is a structure located in the middle third of the thigh, immediately distal to the apex of the femoral triangle. It is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis muscle and posteriorly by the adductor longus and adductor magnus muscles. The roof of the canal is formed by the sartorius muscle. The canal terminates at the adductor hiatus.

      The adductor canal contains three important structures: the saphenous nerve, the superficial femoral artery, and the superficial femoral vein. The saphenous nerve is a sensory nerve that supplies the skin of the medial leg and foot. The superficial femoral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the lower limb. The superficial femoral vein is a large vein that drains blood from the lower limb.

      In order to expose the contents of the adductor canal, the sartorius muscle must be removed. Understanding the anatomy and contents of the adductor canal is important for medical professionals who perform procedures in this area, such as nerve blocks or vascular surgeries.

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  • Question 140 - Which one of the following is not an intrinsic muscle of the foot?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not an intrinsic muscle of the foot?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Palmaris longus

      Explanation:

      The origin of palmaris longus is in the forearm.

      Anatomy of the Hand: Fascia, Compartments, and Tendons

      The hand is composed of bones, muscles, and tendons that work together to perform various functions. The bones of the hand include eight carpal bones, five metacarpals, and 14 phalanges. The intrinsic muscles of the hand include the interossei, which are supplied by the ulnar nerve, and the lumbricals, which flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joint. The thenar eminence contains the abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and flexor pollicis brevis, while the hypothenar eminence contains the opponens digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and abductor digiti minimi.

      The fascia of the palm is thin over the thenar and hypothenar eminences but relatively thick elsewhere. The palmar aponeurosis covers the soft tissues and overlies the flexor tendons. The palmar fascia is continuous with the antebrachial fascia and the fascia of the dorsum of the hand. The hand is divided into compartments by fibrous septa, with the thenar compartment lying lateral to the lateral septum, the hypothenar compartment lying medial to the medial septum, and the central compartment containing the flexor tendons and their sheaths, the lumbricals, the superficial palmar arterial arch, and the digital vessels and nerves. The deepest muscular plane is the adductor compartment, which contains adductor pollicis.

      The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) enter the common flexor sheath deep to the flexor retinaculum. The tendons enter the central compartment of the hand and fan out to their respective digital synovial sheaths. The fibrous digital sheaths contain the flexor tendons and their synovial sheaths, extending from the heads of the metacarpals to the base of the distal phalanges.

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  • Question 141 - A 25-year-old male patient is diagnosed with appendicitis and requires an appendicectomy. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient is diagnosed with appendicitis and requires an appendicectomy. The surgical procedure begins with a 5cm incision at McBurney's point. What is the first structure that will be encountered during the dissection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External oblique aponeurosis

      Explanation:

      The rectus sheath is located more medially than the external oblique, which is encountered first. The external oblique muscle is the most superficial muscle of the abdominal wall and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs. It inserts into the linea alba, pubic tubercle, and anterior half of the iliac crest by passing inferomedially. The muscle is innervated by the thoracoabdominal nerves (T7-T11) and subcostal nerves.

      Muscles and Layers of the Abdominal Wall

      The abdominal wall is composed of various muscles and layers that provide support and protection to the organs within the abdominal cavity. The two main muscles of the abdominal wall are the rectus abdominis and the quadratus lumborum. The rectus abdominis is located anteriorly, while the quadratus lumborum is located posteriorly.

      The remaining abdominal wall is made up of three muscular layers, each passing from the lateral aspect of the quadratus lumborum to the lateral margin of the rectus sheath. These layers are muscular posterolaterally and aponeurotic anteriorly. The external oblique muscle lies most superficially and originates from the 5th to 12th ribs, inserting into the anterior half of the outer aspect of the iliac crest, linea alba, and pubic tubercle. The internal oblique arises from the thoracolumbar fascia, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 2/3 of the inguinal ligament, while the transversus abdominis is the innermost muscle, arising from the inner aspect of the costal cartilages of the lower 6 ribs, the anterior 2/3 of the iliac crest, and the lateral 1/3 of the inguinal ligament.

      During abdominal surgery, it is often necessary to divide either the muscles or their aponeuroses. It is desirable to divide the aponeurosis during a midline laparotomy, leaving the rectus sheath intact above the arcuate line and the muscles intact below it. Straying off the midline can lead to damage to the rectus muscles, particularly below the arcuate line where they may be in close proximity to each other. The nerve supply for these muscles is the anterior primary rami of T7-12.

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  • Question 142 - Which one of the following is a branch of the fourth part of...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is a branch of the fourth part of the axillary artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior circumflex humeral

      Explanation:

      Anatomy of the Axilla

      The axilla, also known as the armpit, is a region of the body that contains important structures such as nerves, veins, and lymph nodes. It is bounded medially by the chest wall and serratus anterior, laterally by the humeral head, and anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major. The floor of the axilla is formed by the subscapularis muscle, while the clavipectoral fascia forms its fascial boundary.

      One of the important nerves that passes through the axilla is the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve and trunk, on the other hand, innervated and vascularize the latissimus dorsi muscle. The axillary vein, which is the continuation of the basilic vein, lies at the apex of the axilla and becomes the subclavian vein at the outer border of the first rib. The intercostobrachial nerves, which provide cutaneous sensation to the axillary skin, traverse the axillary lymph nodes and are often divided during axillary surgery.

      The axilla is also an important site of lymphatic drainage for the breast. Therefore, any pathology or surgery involving the breast can affect the lymphatic drainage of the axilla and lead to lymphedema. Understanding the anatomy of the axilla is crucial for healthcare professionals who perform procedures in this region, as damage to any of the structures can lead to significant complications.

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  • Question 143 - A 30-year-old rower comes to your clinic complaining of a painful shoulder that...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old rower comes to your clinic complaining of a painful shoulder that has been bothering him for the past two weeks. The pain is dull and comes and goes, mainly affecting the posterior and lateral parts of his shoulder. Heavy exercises such as weightlifting and rowing exacerbate the pain, so he has been avoiding these activities. During the examination, you notice tenderness on the posterior aspect of the shoulder, and there is some weakness on shoulder abduction. Quadrangular space syndrome is a rare possibility for this presentation. Which of the following is not a border of the quadrangular space?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infraspinatus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is infraspinatus, which is located superior to the quadrangular space. The quadrangular space is a passage for nerves and vessels between the anterior and posterior regions of the shoulder, bordered by the inferior border of teres major, the lateral border of the surgical neck of the humerus, the medial border of the lateral margin of the long head of triceps brachii, and the superior border of the inferior margin of teres minor. The axillary nerve and posterior circumflex artery pass through this space. Quadrangular space syndrome is a rare condition that involves compression of these structures, typically in young adults without trauma. Symptoms may include shoulder pain during resisted abduction and external rotation, as well as wasting of the deltoid muscle.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

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  • Question 144 - A 63-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic with a recent diagnosis of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman comes to the rheumatology clinic with a recent diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. She is prescribed a brief course of steroids and a disease modifying anti-rheumatic drug. Which joint is predominantly impacted by rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Synovial

      Explanation:

      There are three main types of joints: synovial, cartilaginous, and fibrous. Synovial joints have a fibrous capsule with ligaments that check excessive movements. Some synovial joints have an intra-articular disc made of fibrocartilage. Cartilaginous joints can grow while resisting forces and eventually become synostoses. Fibrous joints include sutures, which slowly become rigid synostoses, syndesmoses, which allow some movement, and gomphoses, which anchor teeth into alveolar sockets.

      Rheumatoid arthritis can be diagnosed clinically, which is considered more important than using specific criteria. However, the American College of Rheumatology has established classification criteria for rheumatoid arthritis. These criteria require the presence of at least one joint with definite clinical synovitis that cannot be explained by another disease. A score of 6 out of 10 is needed for a definite diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. The score is based on factors such as the number and type of joints involved, serology (presence of rheumatoid factor or anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody), acute-phase reactants (such as CRP and ESR), and duration of symptoms. These criteria are used to classify patients with rheumatoid arthritis for research and clinical purposes.

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  • Question 145 - A teenage boy arrives at the hospital with a biking injury. An X-ray...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy arrives at the hospital with a biking injury. An X-ray reveals that he has fractured both his tibia and fibula. The medical team applies a cast to his leg.

      However, just an hour later, the boy is experiencing excruciating pain despite receiving regular doses of morphine. As a result, the doctors decide to remove his cast.

      What should be the next course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Notify the orthopaedic surgeon and theatre team

      Explanation:

      The appropriate course of action in this scenario is to notify the orthopaedic surgeon and theatre team immediately for an urgent fasciotomy. Sedation, increased pain relief, or reapplying a vacuum splint would not be helpful and could potentially worsen the situation.

      Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Even if a pulse is present, compartment syndrome cannot be ruled out. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20mmHg being abnormal and over 40mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may experience myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.

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  • Question 146 - Which one of the following relationship descriptions regarding the scalene muscles is incorrect?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following relationship descriptions regarding the scalene muscles is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The subclavian artery passes posterior to the middle scalene

      Explanation:

      The middle scalene is located posterior to the subclavian artery.

      The Scalene Muscles and Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

      The scalene muscles are a group of three paired muscles located in the neck that play a role in elevating the ribs and tilting the neck. The scalenus anterior and medius muscles elevate the first rib and laterally flex the neck to the same side, while the scalenus posterior muscle elevates the second rib and tilts the neck to the opposite side. These muscles are innervated by spinal nerves C4-6 and originate from the transverse processes of C2 to C7, inserting into the first and second ribs.

      The scalene muscles are important because the brachial plexus and subclavian artery pass between the anterior and middle scalenes through a space called the scalene hiatus or fissure. The subclavian vein and phrenic nerve pass anteriorly to the anterior scalene as it crosses over the first rib. However, the scalenes are at risk of adhering to the fascia surrounding the brachial plexus or shortening, which can cause compression of the brachial plexus when it passes between the clavicle and first rib. This condition is known as thoracic outlet syndrome.

      In summary, the scalene muscles play an important role in the neck and chest, but can also cause issues if they become adhered or shortened, leading to thoracic outlet syndrome. It is important to be aware of this condition and seek medical attention if experiencing symptoms such as pain, numbness, or tingling in the arm or hand.

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  • Question 147 - A 19-year-old motorcyclist is rushed to the emergency department following a car collision....

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old motorcyclist is rushed to the emergency department following a car collision. Upon examination, it is discovered that the lower left limb has suffered a compound fracture.

      The patient undergoes surgery to treat the injuries with open reduction and internal fixation. Despite intensive physiotherapy, the patient experiences an abnormal gait after the surgery. The left foot's plantarflexion and inversion power are measured at 2/5.

      Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibial nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient experiences a loss of the ability to plantarflex and invert their foot, which is likely due to damage to the tibial nerve.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

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  • Question 148 - A 25-year-old man gets into a brawl and receives a cut on the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man gets into a brawl and receives a cut on the back of his right arm, about 2 cm above the olecranon process. Upon examination at the ER, he is unable to straighten his elbow. Which tendon is the most probable one to have been severed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Triceps

      Explanation:

      The elbow joint is extended by the triceps muscle, while the remaining muscles listed are responsible for flexion of the elbow joint.

      Anatomy of the Triceps Muscle

      The triceps muscle is a large muscle located on the back of the upper arm. It is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. The long head originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, while the lateral head originates from the dorsal surface of the humerus, lateral and proximal to the groove of the radial nerve. The medial head originates from the posterior surface of the humerus on the inferomedial side of the radial groove and both of the intermuscular septae.

      All three heads of the triceps muscle insert into the olecranon process of the ulna, with some fibers inserting into the deep fascia of the forearm and the posterior capsule of the elbow. The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve and supplied with blood by the profunda brachii artery.

      The primary action of the triceps muscle is elbow extension. The long head can also adduct the humerus and extend it from a flexed position. The radial nerve and profunda brachii vessels lie between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle. Understanding the anatomy of the triceps muscle is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of injuries or conditions affecting this muscle.

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  • Question 149 - During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a positive trendelenburg's sign. When she stands on only her left leg, her right pelvis drops.

      Which muscles are affected in Sarah?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left gluteus medius and gluteus minimus

      Explanation:

      The superior gluteal nerve is responsible for innervating the gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles. These muscles are involved in the abduction and medial rotation of the lower limb, as well as preventing pelvic drop of the opposing limb. For instance, when standing on only the right leg, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles stabilize the pelvis. However, if the right superior gluteal nerve is damaged, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles will not receive innervation, resulting in a lack of stability when standing on the right leg and causing the left pelvis to drop. On the other hand, the inferior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscles, which primarily functions as the main extensor of the thigh and also performs lateral rotation.

      The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function

      The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.

      When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.

      To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.

      It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.

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  • Question 150 - A 35-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department after experiencing a crush injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department after experiencing a crush injury to his left lower leg. Despite taking opiates, he is still in excruciating pain.

      During the examination, the patient experiences pain when his left lower leg is passively dorsiflexed. The dorsalis pedis pulse is present, but the posterior tibial pulse is absent. Additionally, there is weakness in the left big toe's plantar flexion.

      Which muscle is most likely affected by this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior

      Explanation:

      The muscles located in the deep posterior compartment are:

      Muscular Compartments of the Lower Limb

      The lower limb is composed of different muscular compartments that perform various actions. The anterior compartment includes the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor hallucis longus muscles. These muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve and are responsible for dorsiflexing the ankle joint, inverting and evert the foot, and extending the toes.

      The peroneal compartment, on the other hand, consists of the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles, which are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. These muscles are responsible for eversion of the foot and plantar flexion of the ankle joint.

      The superficial posterior compartment includes the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot and may also flex the knee.

      Lastly, the deep posterior compartment includes the flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for flexing the toes, flexing the great toe, and plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, respectively.

      Understanding the muscular compartments of the lower limb is important in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these muscles. Proper identification and management of these conditions can help improve mobility and function of the lower limb.

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  • Question 151 - A 13-year-old boy presents at the emergency room with wrist joint pain. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy presents at the emergency room with wrist joint pain. He reports a persistent dull ache for three days and mild swelling. Upon examination, there is no misalignment or bruising. The doctor evaluates active and passive movement, including flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction.

      Which synovial joint is impacted in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Condyloid

      Explanation:

      The wrist joint is classified as a synovial condyloid joint, which allows movement along two axes. Unlike a synovial ball and socket joint, the wrist joint cannot rotate. It also differs from a hinge joint, which only allows movement in one plane, and a pivot joint, which only allows axial rotation. Additionally, the wrist joint is not a synovial saddle joint. While the wrist joint has less freedom of movement than the shoulder joint, it is still capable of flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction.

      Carpal Bones: The Wrist’s Building Blocks

      The wrist is composed of eight carpal bones, which are arranged in two rows of four. These bones are convex from side to side posteriorly and concave anteriorly. The trapezium is located at the base of the first metacarpal bone, which is the base of the thumb. The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones do not have any tendons attached to them, but they are stabilized by ligaments.

      In summary, the carpal bones are the building blocks of the wrist, and they play a crucial role in the wrist’s movement and stability. The trapezium bone is located at the base of the thumb, while the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum bones are stabilized by ligaments. Understanding the anatomy of the wrist is essential for diagnosing and treating wrist injuries and conditions.

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  • Question 152 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with a swollen, red, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with a swollen, red, and hot first metatarsophalangeal joint. The diagnosis is an acute gout attack. What substance in the joint space is responsible for causing gout?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Monosodium urate

      Explanation:

      When joint aspiration is performed in cases of gout, the presence of needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals that are negatively birefringent can be observed under polarised light. The acute manifestation of gout often involves the first metatarsophalangeal joint, which is commonly referred to as podagra. Gout is caused by elevated levels of uric acid, which results in the accumulation of monosodium urate crystals in and around the joints. Pseudogout, a similar condition, is caused by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate. In rheumatoid arthritis, a collection of fibrous tissue known as a pannus may be observed within affected joints, while osteoarthritis may present with bony projections called osteophytes. A diet that is high in purines, such as red meat, liver, and beer, may increase the likelihood of developing gout.

      Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and can affect various joints, with the first metatarsophalangeal joint being the most commonly affected. Swelling and redness are also common symptoms of gout.

      If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to joint damage and chronic joint problems. To diagnose gout, doctors may perform synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarised light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack.

      Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, gout does not cause periarticular osteopenia. Soft tissue tophi may also be visible.

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  • Question 153 - A 32-year-old man with a submandibular gland stone is undergoing excision of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a submandibular gland stone is undergoing excision of the submandibular gland. The incision is sited transversely approximately 4 cm below the mandible. After incising the skin, platysma and deep fascia which of the following structures is most likely to be encountered.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Facial vein

      Explanation:

      When accessing the submandibular gland, the facial vein and submandibular lymph nodes are the structures that are most easily visible. The gland is divided into a superficial and deep part by the mylohyoid muscle. The facial artery runs along the surface of the gland and can be seen in a groove. It then passes between the gland and the mandible before emerging on the face. During surgery, the facial vein is encountered first as the incision is made 4 cm below the mandible to prevent damage to the marginal mandibular nerve.

      Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland

      The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.

      The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.

      The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.

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  • Question 154 - Which one of the following structures does not pass behind the piriformis muscle...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures does not pass behind the piriformis muscle in the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      The greater sciatic foramen does not serve as a pathway for the obturator nerve.

      The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents

      The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.

      The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.

      In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.

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  • Question 155 - A 50-year-old woman presents with painful tingling in her fingers and relief when...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with painful tingling in her fingers and relief when hanging her arm over the side of the bed. She exhibits a positive Tinel's sign at the wrist. What is the most probable factor contributing to her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome, which is often caused by rheumatological disorders. During the clinical examination, it is important to look for signs of rheumatoid arthritis, such as rheumatoid nodules, vasculitic lesions, and arthritis in the metacarpophalangeal joints.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

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  • Question 156 - A 25-year-old female experiences repeated anterior dislocations of her left shoulder and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female experiences repeated anterior dislocations of her left shoulder and a CT scan shows a Bankart lesion. What is the name of the rotator cuff muscle tendon located at the front of the shoulder capsule?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subscapularis tendon

      Explanation:

      The tendon of the subscapularis runs in front of the shoulder capsule, while the supraspinatus tendon runs above it. The tendons of the infraspinatus and teres minor run behind the shoulder capsule, with the infraspinatus tendon positioned above the teres minor tendon. It should be noted that the teres major muscle is not part of the rotator cuff. A Bankart lesion refers to a tear in the front part of the glenoid labrum and is commonly seen in cases of anterior shoulder dislocation.

      Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles

      The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.

      The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.

      Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.

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  • Question 157 - A 58-year-old man presents to his GP with difficulty ascending stairs and transitioning...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents to his GP with difficulty ascending stairs and transitioning from sitting to standing. He reports experiencing relief from buttock pain with ibuprofen. He has no prior medical or surgical history, but has a 20-pack year smoking habit and works in finance for a large multinational corporation, requiring him to sit for extended periods during meetings. Upon examination, there is limited hip extension and lateral rotation. During gait analysis, he exhibits a backward trunk lurch. The GP refers him for further physiotherapy evaluation, suspecting nerve entrapment from prolonged sitting.

      Which nerve is likely to be entrapped in this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve

      Explanation:

      The patient in the vignette is experiencing impaired hip extension and lateral rotation, making it difficult for them to rise from a seat and climb stairs. These symptoms are consistent with inferior gluteal nerve palsy, which can be caused by nerve entrapment or compression. The inferior gluteal nerve runs anterior to the piriformis and can be damaged during hip replacement surgery or by sitting for prolonged periods with a wallet in a rear pocket.

      Other nerves that can be affected in the lower limb include the femoral nerve, which supplies the lower limb extensively and can be injured by direct trauma or compression. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve compression can cause meralgia paresthetica, which leads to burning, tingling, and numbness in the front and lateral aspect of the thigh. The obturator nerve is rarely injured but can cause medial thigh sensory changes, weak hip adduction, and a wide-based gait if damaged. The superior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus medius and minimus and can be assessed with tests that assess hip abductor and stabilizer function.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy and function of these nerves can help diagnose and manage lower limb nerve injuries.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

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  • Question 158 - A 68-year-old man visits his doctor accompanied by his daughter, reporting a recent...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man visits his doctor accompanied by his daughter, reporting a recent onset of tremors and slower movements. During the examination, the doctor observes a shuffling gait, slower movements, and a resting pill-rolling tremor of the right hand with cogwheel rigidity. As part of the neurological examination for Parkinson's disease, the doctor assesses the coordination of the lower limbs by instructing the patient to place his left foot on his right knee and slide it down his leg.

      Which muscle is the most crucial for this movement?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The sartorius muscle is crucial in assisting with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur. It performs multiple actions such as flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation of the thigh, as well as flexion of the knee. These functions are particularly important when crossing the legs or placing the heel of the foot onto the opposite knee.

      Although the gastrocnemius muscle also flexes the knee and plantarflexes the foot at the ankle joint, the sartorius muscle is more significant in this scenario due to its ability to perform the necessary limb movement.

      While the psoas major muscle may aid in this action as a hip joint flexor and lateral rotator, it is not as effective as the sartorius muscle in lateral rotation.

      The tibialis anterior muscle is responsible for dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot at the ankle joint, while the soleus muscle is responsible for plantarflexion of the foot at the ankle joint.

      The Sartorius Muscle: Anatomy and Function

      The sartorius muscle is the longest strap muscle in the human body and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most superficial muscle in this region and has a unique origin and insertion. The muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts on the medial surface of the body of the tibia, anterior to the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles. The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2,3).

      The primary action of the sartorius muscle is to flex the hip and knee, while also slightly abducting the thigh and rotating it laterally. It also assists with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur, which is important for movements such as crossing one leg over the other. The middle third of the muscle, along with its strong underlying fascia, forms the roof of the adductor canal. This canal contains important structures such as the femoral vessels, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis.

      In summary, the sartorius muscle is a unique muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh that plays an important role in hip and knee flexion, thigh abduction, and lateral rotation. Its location and relationship to the adductor canal make it an important landmark for surgical procedures in the thigh region.

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  • Question 159 - A 45-year-old carpenter comes to your medical practice complaining of weakness and numbness...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old carpenter comes to your medical practice complaining of weakness and numbness in his right hand. During the examination, you observe a decrease in sensation on the palmar side of his index finger, middle finger, and the radial half of his ring finger. Tinel's sign is positive, leading you to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome. Which nerve is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Median

      Explanation:

      The carpal tunnel only allows the median nerve to pass through it, providing sensory innervation to the palmar aspect of the thumb, index, middle, and radial aspect of the ring finger. If the median nerve is damaged, it can also cause weakness in wrist flexion.

      If any of the other nerves are affected, they would cause different patterns of sensory disturbance. For example, an ulnar nerve palsy would typically cause paresthesia on the ulnar half of the ring finger, the entire little finger, and the dorsal medial (ulnar) aspect of the hand. A radial nerve palsy would cause paresthesia on the dorsal lateral (radial) aspect of the hand, but not beyond the metacarpal-phalangeal joint. An axillary nerve palsy would only cause paresthesia in the deltoid area and not affect the sensation in the hands. Finally, a musculocutaneous nerve palsy would cause paresthesia along the lateral aspect of the forearm, but the sensation in the hand would remain intact.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.

      There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.

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  • Question 160 - During a thyroidectomy, at what age do surgeons typically ligate the inferior thyroid...

    Incorrect

    • During a thyroidectomy, at what age do surgeons typically ligate the inferior thyroid artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyrocervical trunk

      Explanation:

      The thyrocervical trunk gives rise to the inferior thyroid artery, which is a derivative of the subclavian artery.

      Anatomy of the Thyroid Gland

      The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is surrounded by a sheath from the pretracheal layer of deep fascia and is situated between the base of the tongue and the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. The apex of the thyroid gland is located at the lamina of the thyroid cartilage, while the base is situated at the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. In some individuals, a pyramidal lobe may extend from the isthmus and attach to the foramen caecum at the base of the tongue.

      The thyroid gland is surrounded by various structures, including the sternothyroid, superior belly of omohyoid, sternohyoid, and anterior aspect of sternocleidomastoid muscles. It is also related to the carotid sheath, larynx, trachea, pharynx, oesophagus, cricothyroid muscle, and parathyroid glands. The superior and inferior thyroid arteries supply the thyroid gland with blood, while the superior and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein, and the inferior thyroid vein drains into the brachiocephalic veins.

      In summary, the thyroid gland is a vital gland located in the neck, responsible for producing hormones that regulate metabolism. Its anatomy is complex, and it is surrounded by various structures that are essential for its function. Understanding the anatomy of the thyroid gland is crucial for the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.

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  • Question 161 - You are the junior doctor working in the emergency department. A 30-year-old male...

    Incorrect

    • You are the junior doctor working in the emergency department. A 30-year-old male is brought in by ambulance after being caught in a house fire. He has significant burns spreading across his left arm, chest, abdomen and left thigh. During the A to E assessment, the consultant working with you asks you to give the patient aggressive fluid resuscitation using 1L of 0.9% sodium chloride over 30 minutes.

      What is the rationale behind administering aggressive fluid resuscitation to this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Burns cause fluid loss via third spacing

      Explanation:

      To determine the severity of a burn, a thorough examination is necessary. A superficial burn only affects the epidermis, while a partial thickness burn affects the dermis, and a full-thickness burn affects all layers of skin, including subcutaneous tissues, muscle, and bone if severe.

      Third spacing occurs when fluid moves from the intravascular space to the interstitial or third space due to increased capillary permeability and loss of albumin. This can cause hypotension, making it crucial to replace intravascular volume in the management of severe burns.

      While burns can cause fluid loss through evaporation, it is minimal and can be stopped by removing the source of the burn.

      While adequate hydration is important for healing any injury, it is not the reason for aggressive fluid resuscitation. It is worth noting that a patient’s energy requirement increases during burn recovery, and they may require up to 6000 calories per day.

      Maintenance fluids are given to patients who cannot drink enough to stay hydrated, such as those who are cognitively impaired or nil by mouth before surgery. Unlike resuscitation fluids, maintenance fluids provide the body with the necessary water, electrolytes, and glucose to function normally in a day based on weight.

      Fluids do not affect the inflammatory process and therefore cannot reduce inflammation caused by burns.

      First Aid and Management of Burns

      Burns can be caused by heat, electricity, or chemicals. Immediate first aid involves removing the person from the source of the burn and irrigating the affected area with cool water. The extent of the burn can be assessed using Wallace’s Rule of Nines or the Lund and Browder chart. The depth of the burn can be determined by its appearance, with full-thickness burns being the most severe. Referral to secondary care is necessary for deep dermal and full-thickness burns, as well as burns involving certain areas of the body or suspicion of non-accidental injury.

      Severe burns can lead to tissue loss, fluid loss, and a catabolic response. Intravenous fluids and analgesia are necessary for resuscitation and pain relief. Smoke inhalation can result in airway edema, and early intubation may be necessary. Circumferential burns may require escharotomy to relieve compartment syndrome and improve ventilation. Conservative management is appropriate for superficial burns, while more complex burns may require excision and skin grafting. There is no evidence to support the use of antimicrobial prophylaxis or topical antibiotics in burn patients.

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  • Question 162 - A senior citizen trips and falls, injuring her hip. Upon examination, her hip...

    Incorrect

    • A senior citizen trips and falls, injuring her hip. Upon examination, her hip is sensitive to touch and x-rays are ordered to check for a possible intertrochanteric fracture. What is the typical degree of the angle between the femoral neck and shaft?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 130o

      Explanation:

      The femoral head and shaft typically form an angle of 130 degrees, but any deviations from this angle may indicate underlying disease or pathology and require further examination.

      Anatomy of the Hip Joint

      The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.

      There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.

      The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.

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  • Question 163 - A young woman presents with the inability to extend her wrist. Examination confirms...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman presents with the inability to extend her wrist. Examination confirms this and is consistent with a 'wrist drop'. Which nerve has most likely been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      If the radial nerve is damaged, it can lead to wrist drop because it is responsible for innervating the extensor muscles that help extend the hand against gravity. This symptom is unique to radial nerve damage and is not seen with any of the other nerves listed.

      Damage to the axillary nerve would affect the deltoid muscle and cause problems with arm abduction.

      Impaired biceps brachii muscle function and arm flexion would result from damage to the musculocutaneous nerve.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve would cause weakness in the lateral two fingers, resulting in a claw-like appearance.

      Paralysis of the thenar muscles due to damage to the median nerve would lead to an inability to abduct and oppose the thumb.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 164 - In a confrontation, a 35-year-old woman was stabbed in the medial aspect of...

    Incorrect

    • In a confrontation, a 35-year-old woman was stabbed in the medial aspect of her left thigh. Upon examination, there is a noticeable decrease in knee extension. Additionally, there is a reduction in sensation over the anterior thigh.

      Which anatomical structure has been affected by the stabbing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve

      Explanation:

      The femoral nerve is responsible for loss of knee extension and sensory loss to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh following a stab injury. The muscles innervated by the femoral nerve are responsible for hip flexion and knee extension, while the nerve is responsible for sensation over the anterior thigh. Injury to the inferior gluteal nerve would result in loss of hip extension, while injury to the obturator nerve would result in a loss of sensation to the medial thigh and impaired hip adduction. Although the quadriceps tendon is vital to knee extension, it would not explain the sensory deficit and the location of the injury.

      Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.

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  • Question 165 - A 65-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a three-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a three-week history of gradual-onset left knee pain. She has a known history of hyperparathyroidism, but is not on any regular medications.

      Upon examination, there are no visible changes to the joint and the temperature over the knee is normal. However, she experiences tenderness over passive and active movement, but no restriction of joint movement.

      A joint radiograph reveals no fracture but chondrocalcinosis. Further, a joint aspiration under polarised light shows positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals.

      What is the underlying pathology, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for this patient is pseudogout, which is characterized by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals in the synovium, resulting in pain during movement. The knee joint is commonly affected, and the presence of rhomboid-shaped crystals that are positively birefringent in polarised-light microscopy of joint aspirate confirms the diagnosis. Radiography may also reveal chondrocalcinosis.

      A fracture would require a history of trauma and would be visible on the radiograph, neither of which is present in this case, making it an unlikely diagnosis.

      Reactive arthritis is associated with immune-mediated destruction of the joint, but there is no recent history of diarrhoea, coryza, conjunctivitis, or urethritis, which are commonly associated with this condition. The light microscopy of joint aspirate and radiography findings do not support this diagnosis.

      Joint infection typically presents with a hot, swollen joint that rapidly develops after a history of trauma. The joint aspirate would be expected to contain turbid fluid and grow organisms. However, none of these features are present in this patient, making joint infection an unlikely diagnosis.

      Understanding Pseudogout

      Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is commonly associated with increasing age, but younger patients who develop pseudogout usually have an underlying risk factor such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease.

      The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints in pseudogout. Diagnosis is made through joint aspiration, which reveals weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals, and x-rays, which show chondrocalcinosis. In the knee, linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage can be seen.

      Management of pseudogout involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, followed by treatment with NSAIDs or intra-articular, intra-muscular, or oral steroids, similar to the treatment for gout. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of pseudogout can help with early diagnosis and effective management of this condition.

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  • Question 166 - A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of limited mobility in his left...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of limited mobility in his left shoulder for the past 3 days. He has been using crutches to move around due to a recent tibia fracture, but he denies any shoulder injury.

      During the examination, the doctor observes decreased external rotation of the left shoulder. The patient also has slightly reduced flexion, extension, and abduction of the shoulder.

      Which nerve is the most probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      The axillary nerve is responsible for supplying the teres minor and deltoid muscles, which are involved in external rotation, flexion, extension, and abduction of the shoulder. Injuries to the axillary nerve can occur from compression, such as prolonged use of crutches.

      The other nerves mentioned are not responsible for the patient’s presentation. The lateral pectoral nerve innervates the pectoralis major muscle, which is involved in different movements than those affected in this patient. The spinal accessory nerve innervates the trapezius muscle, which is not involved in external rotation. The subscapular nerve innervates the subscapularis muscle, which is involved in internal rotation. The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are not involved in flexion or extension of the shoulder.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 167 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with a pigmented lesion measuring 1.5cm on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with a pigmented lesion measuring 1.5cm on her back. The surgeon suspects it may be a melanoma. What would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Excisional biopsy of the lesion

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to partially sample suspicious naevi as this can greatly compromise the accuracy of histological interpretation. Complete excision is necessary for lesions that meet diagnostic criteria. However, it may be acceptable to delay wide excision for margins until definitive histology results are available.

      When dealing with suspicious melanomas, it is important to excise them with complete margins. Radical excision is not typically performed for diagnostic purposes, so if subsequent histopathological analysis confirms the presence of melanoma, further excision of margins may be necessary. Incisional punch biopsies of potential melanomas can make histological interpretation challenging and should be avoided whenever possible.

      Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.

      The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.

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  • Question 168 - A 65-year-old man is set to undergo a surgical procedure to drain an...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man is set to undergo a surgical procedure to drain an abscess situated on the medial side of his lower leg. The anaesthetist plans to administer a saphenous nerve block by injecting a local anaesthetic through the adductor canal's roof. What is the muscular structure that the needle for the local anaesthetic must pass through?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      The Adductor Canal: Anatomy and Contents

      The adductor canal, also known as Hunter’s or the subsartorial canal, is a structure located in the middle third of the thigh, immediately distal to the apex of the femoral triangle. It is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis muscle and posteriorly by the adductor longus and adductor magnus muscles. The roof of the canal is formed by the sartorius muscle. The canal terminates at the adductor hiatus.

      The adductor canal contains three important structures: the saphenous nerve, the superficial femoral artery, and the superficial femoral vein. The saphenous nerve is a sensory nerve that supplies the skin of the medial leg and foot. The superficial femoral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the lower limb. The superficial femoral vein is a large vein that drains blood from the lower limb.

      In order to expose the contents of the adductor canal, the sartorius muscle must be removed. Understanding the anatomy and contents of the adductor canal is important for medical professionals who perform procedures in this area, such as nerve blocks or vascular surgeries.

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  • Question 169 - A 35-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department following a bicycle accident....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient arrives at the emergency department following a bicycle accident. He reports experiencing pain and swelling in his right hand and has difficulty moving his thumb. Upon examination, there is reduced range of motion of the thumb and palpable tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox. However, his hand is neurovascularly intact. Can you identify the structures that form the lateral border of this anatomical landmark?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendon

      Explanation:

      The tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus form the lateral border of the anatomical snuffbox, not the muscles themselves. This patient’s pain and tenderness over the anatomical snuffbox suggest a likely scaphoid fracture, which is a common injury resulting from a fall on an outstretched hand. It is important to keep in mind the boundaries of the anatomical snuffbox, which include the tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, brevis, and abductor pollicis muscles. The proximal border is the styloid process of the radius, the distal border is the apex of the snuffbox triangle, and the floor is made up of the trapezium and scaphoid bones.

      The Anatomical Snuffbox: A Triangle on the Wrist

      The anatomical snuffbox is a triangular depression located on the lateral aspect of the wrist. It is bordered by tendons of the extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, and abductor pollicis longus muscles, as well as the styloid process of the radius. The floor of the snuffbox is formed by the trapezium and scaphoid bones. The apex of the triangle is located distally, while the posterior border is formed by the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus. The radial artery runs through the snuffbox, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.

      In summary, the anatomical snuffbox is a small triangular area on the wrist that is bordered by tendons and bones. It is an important landmark for medical professionals due to the presence of the radial artery.

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  • Question 170 - A teenager comes to the clinic with an inability to flex his arm...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager comes to the clinic with an inability to flex his arm at the elbow and reduced sensation in the deltoid region after falling down the stairs. The diagnosis reveals axillary nerve palsy. What could be the probable reason for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Shoulder dislocation or fracture

      Explanation:

      Axillary nerve palsy is most commonly caused by dislocation or fracture near the shoulder, rather than trauma to the axilla or chest wall. Medial epicondyle fractures do not typically result in axillary nerve palsy, but it is possible for trauma to the humerus to lead to this condition.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

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  • Question 171 - A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a wrist injury sustained...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a wrist injury sustained from a fall. Upon examination, the physician notes tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox, as well as localized swelling and bruising. The physician suspects a fracture in one of the carpal bones and orders a series of plain x-rays to confirm the diagnosis. The physician is concerned about the potential consequences of leaving this fracture untreated due to its precarious blood supply.

      Which blood supply could be compromised as a result of this injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retrograde blood supply to the scaphoid through the tubercle

      Explanation:

      Fractures to the scaphoid bone can result in avascular necrosis due to its sole blood supply through the tubercle. The healing process may be complicated by non-union as well. It is important to note that blood supply to the scaphoid is not anterograde and pain in the anatomical snuffbox is indicative of a scaphoid fracture, not a trapezium fracture. Additionally, the scaphoid bone receives blood supply through the tubercle, not the lunate surface.

      The scaphoid bone has various articular surfaces for different bones in the wrist. It has a concave surface for the head of the capitate and a crescentic surface for the lunate. The proximal end has a wide convex surface for the radius, while the distal end has a tubercle that can be felt. The remaining articular surface faces laterally and is associated with the trapezium and trapezoid bones. The narrow strip between the radial and trapezial surfaces and the tubercle gives rise to the radial collateral carpal ligament. The tubercle also receives part of the flexor retinaculum and is the only part of the scaphoid bone that allows for the entry of blood vessels. However, this area is commonly fractured and can lead to avascular necrosis.

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  • Question 172 - A teenage boy presents with a left-sided winged scapula after getting into a...

    Incorrect

    • A teenage boy presents with a left-sided winged scapula after getting into a scuffle at a party. During the examination, he struggles to perform a specific movement with his left arm. Which movement is most likely causing him difficulty?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abduction

      Explanation:

      Winged scapula is caused by paralysis of serratus anterior, which affects arm abduction. Triceps brachii is responsible for extension, biceps brachii for flexion, and latissimus dorsi for adduction.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 173 - During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a...

    Incorrect

    • During a hip examination, Sarah, a 65-year-old female, is found to have a positive trendelenburg's sign. When she stands on only her left leg, her right pelvis drops.

      If the cause of her positive trendelenburg's sign is neurological, which nerve is affected in Sarah?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right superior gluteal

      Explanation:

      If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. This nerve is responsible for providing innervation to the gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles, which are important for abducting and medially rotating the lower limb, as well as preventing pelvic drop of the opposing limb. For example, when standing on only the right leg, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles stabilize the pelvis. However, if the right superior gluteal nerve is damaged, the right gluteus minimus and gluteus medius muscles will not receive proper innervation, leading to instability and a drop in the left pelvis when standing on the right leg. On the other hand, the inferior gluteal nerve innervates the gluteus maximus muscles, which are responsible for extending the thigh and performing lateral rotation.

      The Trendelenburg Test: Assessing Gluteal Nerve Function

      The Trendelenburg test is a diagnostic tool used to assess the function of the superior gluteal nerve. This nerve is responsible for the contraction of the gluteus medius muscle, which is essential for maintaining balance and stability while standing on one leg.

      When the superior gluteal nerve is injured or damaged, the gluteus medius muscle is weakened, resulting in a compensatory shift of the body towards the unaffected side. This shift is characterized by a gravitational shift, which causes the body to be supported on the unaffected limb.

      To perform the Trendelenburg test, the patient is asked to stand on one leg while the physician observes the position of the pelvis. In a healthy individual, the gluteus medius muscle contracts as soon as the contralateral leg leaves the floor, preventing the pelvis from dipping towards the unsupported side. However, in a person with paralysis of the superior gluteal nerve, the pelvis on the unsupported side descends, indicating that the gluteus medius on the affected side is weak or non-functional. This is known as a positive Trendelenburg test.

      It is important to note that the Trendelenburg test is also used in vascular investigations to determine the presence of saphenofemoral incompetence. In this case, tourniquets are placed around the upper thigh to assess blood flow. However, in the context of assessing gluteal nerve function, the Trendelenburg test is a valuable tool for diagnosing and treating motor deficits and gait abnormalities.

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  • Question 174 - A 6-year-old girl falls and suffers a growth plate fracture in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl falls and suffers a growth plate fracture in her left wrist. What system is utilized to categorize the injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salter - Harris system

      Explanation:

      The Salter-Harris system is widely utilized, but it can be problematic as Type 1 and Type 5 injuries may exhibit similar radiological indications. This is unfortunate because Type 5 injuries have poor outcomes and may go undetected.

      Genetic Conditions Causing Pathological Fractures

      Osteogenesis imperfecta and osteopetrosis are genetic conditions that can cause pathological fractures. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital condition that results in defective osteoid formation, leading to a lack of intercellular substances like collagen and dentine. This can cause translucent bones, multiple fractures, particularly of the long bones, wormian bones, and a trefoil pelvis. There are four subtypes of osteogenesis imperfecta, each with varying levels of collagen quantity and quality.

      Osteopetrosis, on the other hand, causes bones to become harder and more dense. It is an autosomal recessive condition that is most common in young adults. Radiology can reveal a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, which is described as marble bone.

      It is important to consider these genetic conditions when evaluating paediatric fractures, especially if there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between the proposed and actual mechanism of injury, or injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma. Prompt diagnosis and management can help prevent further fractures and complications.

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  • Question 175 - A 25-year-old male suffers a fracture in his left tibia during a sports...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male suffers a fracture in his left tibia during a sports activity. During which stage of the healing process is the fracture callus expected to be visible on radiographs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 weeks

      Explanation:

      The formation of fracture callus involves the production of fibroblasts and chondroblasts, which then synthesize fibrocartilage. This process can usually be observed on X-rays after a certain period of time.

      Fracture Healing: Factors and Process

      When a bone is fractured, bleeding vessels in the bone and periosteum cause clot and haematoma formation. Over a week, the clot organizes and improves in structure and collagen. Osteoblasts in the periosteum produce new bone, while mesenchymal cells produce cartilage in the soft tissue around the fracture. The connective tissue and hyaline cartilage form a callus, which is bridged by endochondral ossification as new bone approaches. Trabecular bone forms, which is then resorbed by osteoclasts and replaced with compact bone.

      Several factors can affect fracture healing, including age, malnutrition, bone disorders like osteoporosis, systemic disorders like diabetes, and drugs like steroids and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents. The type of bone, degree of trauma, vascular injury, degree of immobilization, intra-articular fractures, separation of bone ends, and infection can also impact healing.

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  • Question 176 - A 75-year-old man experiences a sudden pain in his forearm while lifting a...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man experiences a sudden pain in his forearm while lifting a heavy object and is unable to continue. He notices a swelling over his upper forearm and an MRI scan reveals a recent tear with a small cuff of tendon still attached to the radial tuberosity. Which muscle is likely to have been injured?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biceps brachii

      Explanation:

      Although ruptures of the biceps muscle near its origin are more common, injuries to the distal portion of the muscle, where it attaches to the radial tuberosity, are less frequent but more significant from a clinical standpoint.

      Anatomy of the Radius Bone

      The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.

      The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.

      The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.

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  • Question 177 - A 82-year-old female experiences a fall and is brought to the emergency department....

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old female experiences a fall and is brought to the emergency department. X-rays reveal a displaced fracture above the greater and lesser trochanter of the proximal femur on the right side. What would be the best surgical approach for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hemiarthroplasty

      Explanation:

      When a hip fracture occurs within the joint capsule, there is a higher chance of the femoral head experiencing avascular necrosis. This type of fracture is considered displaced and requires treatment with hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement, especially for older patients. However, younger patients may opt for hip fixation instead of replacement as prosthetic joints have a limited lifespan.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures are classified based on their location, either intracapsular or extracapsular. The Garden system is a commonly used classification system that categorizes fractures into four types based on stability and displacement. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV.

      Undisplaced intracapsular fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures require replacement arthroplasty, with total hip replacement being preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with no more than a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular fractures are managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures and an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

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  • Question 178 - In Froment's test, what muscle function is being evaluated? ...

    Incorrect

    • In Froment's test, what muscle function is being evaluated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adductor pollicis

      Explanation:

      Nerve signs are used to assess the function of specific nerves in the body. One such sign is Froment’s sign, which is used to assess for ulnar nerve palsy. During this test, the adductor pollicis muscle function is tested by having the patient hold a piece of paper between their thumb and index finger. The object is then pulled away, and if the patient is unable to hold the paper and flexes the flexor pollicis longus to compensate, it may indicate ulnar nerve palsy.

      Another nerve sign used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome is Phalen’s test. This test is more sensitive than Tinel’s sign and involves holding the wrist in maximum flexion. If there is numbness in the median nerve distribution, the test is considered positive.

      Tinel’s sign is also used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome. During this test, the median nerve at the wrist is tapped, and if the patient experiences tingling or electric-like sensations over the distribution of the median nerve, the test is considered positive. These nerve signs are important tools in diagnosing and assessing nerve function in patients.

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  • Question 179 - A 29-year-old woman with a bony Bankart lesion who suffers from recurrent dislocations...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman with a bony Bankart lesion who suffers from recurrent dislocations is scheduled to have a Laterjet procedure. Your consultant has asked you to scrub in and assist with the procedure. During your pre-operative conversation with the patient, she inquires about the procedure. You explain that the surgery involves relocating the coracoid process, along with its associated muscles, to the front of the glenoid where the bony Bankart lesion is located. Which of the subsequent structures do not connect to the coracoid process?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long head of biceps brachii

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the long head of biceps brachii, which originates from the supraglenoid tubercle. The coracoid process of the scapula serves as the site of origin for coracobrachialis and the short head of biceps brachii, as well as the site of insertion for pectoralis minor. Additionally, it serves as the attachment site for the coracoclavicular, coracoacromial, and coracohumeral ligaments.

      During the Laterjet procedure, a portion of the coracoid process and its attached muscles are removed and repositioned to the front of the glenoid. This helps to prevent dislocation by using the coracoid as a block and reinforcing the front of the shoulder capsule. This procedure is typically performed to treat a bony Bankart lesion, which is a bone lesion in the anterior glenoid fossa that can cause anterior dislocation of the shoulder joint.

      The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.

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  • Question 180 - A man in his early 50s arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his early 50s arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and haematemesis. Upon diagnosis, he is found to have a peptic ulcer. During resuscitation, he reveals that he has been taking ibuprofen for several years. His physician informs him that this could be the reason for the bleeding. What is the explanation for this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reduced prostaglandin synthesis

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of NSAIDs like ibuprofen, which involves inhibiting COX enzymes and reducing prostaglandin synthesis, increases the risk of peptic ulcers. This is because prostaglandins play a crucial role in gastroprotection by stimulating gastric mucus production, and lower levels of prostaglandins make individuals more susceptible to peptic ulcers.

      It is important to note that increased prostaglandin breakdown does not have the same effect as NSAIDs, and increased prostaglandin synthesis is actually gastroprotective.

      While Helicobacter pylori is often found in patients with ulcers and is treated, NSAIDs do not have any effect on the levels of this bacterium.

      Understanding Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 Selective NSAIDs

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that work by inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase enzymes, which are responsible for producing key mediators involved in inflammation such as prostaglandins. By reducing the production of these mediators, NSAIDs can help alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. Examples of NSAIDs include ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen, and aspirin.

      However, NSAIDs can also have important and common side-effects, such as peptic ulceration and exacerbation of asthma. To address these concerns, COX-2 selective NSAIDs were developed. These medications were designed to reduce the incidence of side-effects seen with traditional NSAIDs, particularly peptic ulceration. Examples of COX-2 selective NSAIDs include celecoxib and etoricoxib.

      Despite their potential benefits, COX-2 selective NSAIDs are not widely used due to ongoing concerns about cardiovascular safety. This led to the withdrawal of rofecoxib (‘Vioxx’) in 2004. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential risks and benefits of NSAIDs and COX-2 selective NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before use.

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  • Question 181 - Which of the following is not associated with an increase in ESR? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not associated with an increase in ESR?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      Understanding Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR)

      The Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) is a test that measures the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube over a period of time. It is a non-specific marker of inflammation and can be affected by various factors such as the size, shape, and number of red blood cells, as well as the concentration of plasma proteins like fibrinogen, alpha2-globulins, and gamma globulins.

      A high ESR can be caused by various conditions such as temporal arteritis, myeloma, connective tissue disorders like systemic lupus erythematosus, malignancies, infections, and other factors like increasing age, female sex, and anaemia. On the other hand, a low ESR can be caused by conditions like polycythaemia, afibrinogenaemia, or hypofibrinogenaemia.

      It is important to note that while a high ESR can indicate the presence of an underlying condition, it is not a definitive diagnosis and further testing may be required to determine the cause. Therefore, it is essential to consult a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management.

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  • Question 182 - You are a doctor in the emergency department. A 33-year-old man comes in...

    Incorrect

    • You are a doctor in the emergency department. A 33-year-old man comes in with weakness in his hand. He was playing basketball with his friends and fell on his hand an hour ago. During the examination, it is observed that the patient cannot extend his forearm, wrist, and fingers, and there is unopposed flexion of the wrist.

      Which nerve is most likely affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial

      Explanation:

      A patient with a humeral midshaft fracture is experiencing wrist drop, which is indicative of radial nerve injury. This is characterized by the inability to extend the forearm, wrist, and fingers, and unopposed flexion of the wrist. It is important to note that injury to the axillary nerve results in flattened deltoid, while median nerve injury can cause paralysis of the thenar muscles or loss of pronation of the forearm and weak wrist flexion. Musculocutaneous nerve injury primarily affects elbow flexion and supination and is unlikely to affect the movements of the forearm, wrist, and fingers. Ulnar nerve injury, on the other hand, leads to a claw hand rather than wrist drop.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 183 - Which of the following structures separates the ulnar artery from the median nerve?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures separates the ulnar artery from the median nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pronator teres

      Explanation:

      It is located deeply to the pronator teres muscle, which creates a separation from the median nerve.

      Anatomy of the Ulnar Artery

      The ulnar artery is a blood vessel that begins in the middle of the antecubital fossa and runs obliquely downward towards the ulnar side of the forearm. It then follows the ulnar border to the wrist, where it crosses over the flexor retinaculum and divides into the superficial and deep volar arches. The artery is deep to the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, and palmaris longus muscles, and lies on the brachialis and flexor digitorum profundus muscles. At the wrist, it is superficial to the flexor retinaculum.

      The ulnar nerve runs medially to the lower two-thirds of the artery, while the median nerve is in relation with the medial side of the artery for about 2.5 cm before crossing over it. The artery also gives off a branch called the anterior interosseous artery.

      Understanding the anatomy of the ulnar artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the forearm and hand.

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  • Question 184 - A 33-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of a red rash on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of a red rash on her hands. She first noticed the rash a few weeks ago after moving into her new apartment with her partner. However, in the past few days, the rash has become extremely itchy and is keeping her up at night. Despite using her regular moisturizer cream, the rash has not improved. Upon examination, the doctor observes a bilateral erythematous rash on both hands that extends into the interdigital spaces, with multiple excoriation marks. The rash is not present anywhere else, and there are no other significant findings.

      What is the likely diagnosis, and what is the underlying mechanism behind this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reaction

      Explanation:

      The severe itching caused by scabies is a result of a delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and their eggs, which occurs around 30 days after infestation. This type of reaction involves T-cells and antigen-presenting cells, leading to an inflammatory response. Scabies is typically spread through close skin-to-skin contact with an infected person. An allergic reaction to the patient’s regular moisturizer would be a type I hypersensitivity reaction, which causes acute itching. Antigen-antibody complex deposition in the epidermis would be a type III hypersensitivity reaction, while psoriasis is caused by hyperproliferation of epidermal keratinocytes and presents with red, scaly patches on extensor surfaces. Bacterial skin infections like cellulitis cause warm, swollen, and red skin with systemic symptoms like fever.

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

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  • Question 185 - What is the most frequent reason for osteolytic bone metastasis in adolescents? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent reason for osteolytic bone metastasis in adolescents?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neuroblastoma

      Explanation:

      Neuroblastomas are a childhood tumour that frequently metastasizes widely and causes lytic lesions.

      Secondary Malignant Tumours of Bone: Risk of Fracture and Treatment Options

      Metastatic lesions affecting bone are more common than primary bone tumours, with typical tumours that spread to bone including breast, bronchus, renal, thyroid, and prostate. These tumours are more likely to affect those over the age of 50, with the commonest bone sites affected being the vertebrae, proximal femur, ribs, sternum, pelvis, and skull. The greatest risk for pathological fracture is osteolytic lesions, and bones with lesions that occupy 50% or less are prone to fracture under loading. The Mirel scoring system is used to determine the risk of fracture, with a score of 9 or greater indicating an impending fracture and requiring prophylactic fixation. Non-operative treatments for hypercalcaemia include rehydration and bisphosphonates, while pain can be managed with opiate analgesics and radiotherapy. Some tumours, such as breast and prostate, may benefit from chemotherapy and/or hormonal agents. In cases where the lesion is an isolated metastatic deposit, excision and reconstruction may be considered for better outcomes.

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  • Question 186 - A 65-year-old avid hiker complains of discomfort in her leg while ascending hills...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old avid hiker complains of discomfort in her leg while ascending hills and using stairs. Which muscle is accountable for extending the hip?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gluteus maximus

      Explanation:

      The gluteus medius and minimus muscles are responsible for hip abduction, while the gluteus maximus muscle externally rotates and extends the hip. The gluteus maximus muscle originates from the sacrum, coccyx, and posterior surface of the ilium, and inserts onto the gluteal tuberosity. The other gluteal muscles attach to the greater trochanter to facilitate abduction.

      Anatomy of the Hip Joint

      The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.

      There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.

      The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.

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  • Question 187 - Which one of the following does not pass through the greater sciatic foramen?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following does not pass through the greater sciatic foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obturator nerve

      Explanation:

      The obturator foramen is the exit point for the obturator nerve.

      The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents

      The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.

      The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.

      In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.

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  • Question 188 - A 35-year-old teacher presents to her doctor with a complaint of foot pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher presents to her doctor with a complaint of foot pain for the past week. The pain is located on the bottom of her heel and is most severe in the morning and after prolonged periods of sitting at her desk. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plantar fasciitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Plantar Fasciitis

      Plantar fasciitis is a prevalent condition that causes heel pain in adults. The pain is typically more severe around the medial calcaneal tuberosity. To manage this condition, it is essential to rest the feet as much as possible. Wearing shoes with good arch support and cushioned heels can also help alleviate the pain. Additionally, insoles and heel pads may be useful in providing extra support and cushioning to the feet. By taking these steps, individuals with plantar fasciitis can manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

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  • Question 189 - A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful, erythematous, vesicular rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful, erythematous, vesicular rash on the anteromedial aspect of his left arm and a small area of his left chest. The patient reports that he first experienced pain in the affected area three days ago and noticed the rash yesterday morning. He attributes his current stressful state to work-related issues, which were exacerbated by a recent COVID-19 infection that required him to take 10 days off. The patient confirms that he had chickenpox during his childhood. Based on this information, where is the virus responsible for his symptoms most likely to have been dormant in his nervous system?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T1 dorsal root ganglion

      Explanation:

      After the primary infection (usually chickenpox during childhood), the herpes zoster virus remains inactive in the dorsal root or cranial nerve ganglia. The patient’s rash, which appears in the left T1 dermatome, indicates that the virus has been dormant in the T1 dorsal root ganglion. Although herpes zoster can reactivate at any time, it is more commonly associated with older age, recent viral infections, periods of stress, or immunosuppression.

      Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.

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  • Question 190 - Liam, a 6-year-old boy, injures his arm and the doctors suspect damage to...

    Incorrect

    • Liam, a 6-year-old boy, injures his arm and the doctors suspect damage to the contents of the cubital fossa. Can you list the contents of the cubital fossa from lateral to medial?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Radial nerve, biceps tendon, brachial artery, median nerve

      Explanation:

      The cubital fossa contains the following structures in order from lateral to medial: radial nerve, brachial tendon, brachial artery, and median nerve. A helpful mnemonic to remember this order is Really Need Beer To Be At My Nicest. It is important to note that the ulnar nerve is not part of the contents of the cubital fossa.

      The Antecubital Fossa: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The antecubital fossa is a depression located on the anterior aspect of the arm, between the arm and forearm. It is an important area for medical professionals as it is where venous blood samples are typically taken from. The borders of the antecubital fossa are the brachioradialis muscle laterally, the pronator teres medially, and a line between the medial and lateral epicondyles superiorly.

      There are both deep and superficial structures found in the antecubital fossa. Deep structures include the radial nerve, tendon of the biceps muscle, brachial artery, and medial nerve. Superficial structures consist of a network of veins, including the cephalic vein and basilic vein, which come together as the median cubital vein.

      The main clinical relevance of the antecubital fossa is its use for blood sampling and cannulation. However, it is also important to have a working knowledge of the anatomy as structures can become damaged. Excessive straining of the biceps tendon can cause it to rupture, leading to a ‘Popeye sign’. Damage to the medial nerve can also occur, resulting in muscle paralysis in the forearm and hand. Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the antecubital fossa is crucial for medical professionals.

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  • Question 191 - A 15-year-old athlete suffers an injury during a soccer game after a fall....

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old athlete suffers an injury during a soccer game after a fall. Due to the injury, she cannot flex the metacarpophalangeal joint or proximal interphalangeal joint of her middle finger. All other sensory and motor functions remain intact.

      What anatomical structure is likely to have been affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum superficialis

      Explanation:

      The muscle responsible for flexing the MCPs and PIPs is the flexor digitorum superficialis. The flexor digitorum profundus is responsible for flexing the distal interphalangeal joint, while the flexor carpi ulnaris flexes and adducts the wrist. The flexor digiti minimi brevis is responsible for flexing the little (5th) finger. It should be noted that there is no muscle called the flexor indicis distalis.

      The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.

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  • Question 192 - Mary, an 82-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a minor...

    Incorrect

    • Mary, an 82-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a minor fall. She reports discomfort in her left leg.

      A radiograph is ordered and reveals a left intracapsular neck of femur fracture. As a result, Mary is scheduled for a hemiarthroplasty to avoid avascular necrosis of the femoral head.

      In this particular fracture, which blood vessel is the primary source of blood supply to the femoral head and is most susceptible to damage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Medial femoral circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The medial femoral circumflex artery is a significant supplier of blood to the femoral head, while the perforating branches of the profunda femoris artery supply the medial and posterior thigh. The lateral femoral circumflex artery provides blood to some muscles of the lateral thigh and a portion of the femoral head. Additionally, the anterior branch of the obturator artery supplies blood to the obturator externus, pectineus, adductor muscles, and gracilis muscles.

      Anatomy of the Femur: Structure and Blood Supply

      The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, extending from the hip joint to the knee joint. It consists of a rounded head that articulates with the acetabulum and two large condyles at its inferior aspect that articulate with the tibia. The superior aspect of the femur comprises a head and neck that pass inferolaterally to the body and the two trochanters. The neck meets the body of the femur at an angle of 125o and is demarcated from it by a wide rough intertrochanteric crest. The greater trochanter has discernible surfaces that form the site of attachment of the gluteal muscles, while the linea aspera forms part of the origin of the attachments of the thigh adductors.

      The femur has a rich blood supply, with numerous vascular foramina existing throughout its length. The blood supply to the femoral head is clinically important and is provided by the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head. It is important to note that the neck is covered by synovial membrane up to the intertrochanteric line, and the posterior aspect of the neck is demarcated from the shaft by the intertrochanteric crest. Understanding the anatomy of the femur, including its structure and blood supply, is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions related to this bone.

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  • Question 193 - During a placement at a GP practice, a 16-year-old girl complains of knee...

    Incorrect

    • During a placement at a GP practice, a 16-year-old girl complains of knee pain. As part of the examination, the GP palpates her patella. What category of bone does the patella belong to?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sesamoid bone

      Explanation:

      The patella, which is the largest sesamoid bone in the body, shares an articular space with the femur and tibia. Sesamoid bones are embedded in tendons and often pass over joints to protect the tendon from damage.

      Long bones, such as the femur, humerus, tibia, and fibula, have a body that is longer than it is wide.

      Short bones, like the carpals, are as wide as they are long.

      Flat bones are plate-like structures that serve to protect vital organs.

      Irregular bones, such as the vertebrae and mandible, do not fit into any of the other categories.

      Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults

      Knee problems are common in children and young adults, and can be caused by a variety of conditions. Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that affects teenage girls and is characterized by softening of the cartilage of the patella. This can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. However, it usually responds well to physiotherapy.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle. Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking. Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella, and the knee may give way. Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys and causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. It is tender below the patella on examination.

      It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Understanding the key features of these common knee problems can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 194 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her doctor complaining of a facial rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her doctor complaining of a facial rash on both sides, joint pain, swelling, and redness in her hands, and mouth sores. Her symptoms aggravate upon exposure to sunlight. Which substance's antibody testing is likely to assist in your diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a connective tissue disorder that is more common in females and typically arises between the ages of 20 and 40. SLE can cause a range of symptoms, including a malar facial rash, arthritis, pericarditis, pleuritis, kidney disease, and neurological and psychiatric symptoms. SLE is thought to occur due to autoimmune attack against intracellular substances, such as double stranded DNA, ribonucleoproteins, histones, and phospholipids. SLE patients may release greater levels of intracellular substances due to low levels of complement factor 4 (C4), which prevents their clearance by macrophages. Anti-double stranded DNA antibodies are a specific marker of SLE, but their absence does not rule out the condition. Antibodies against citrullinated proteins are uncommon in SLE and are more commonly seen in rheumatoid arthritis. Anticentromere antibodies are rarely produced in SLE patients and are usually detected in patients with CREST syndrome. The body has high tolerance to its own cell surface proteins, including Class 1 Major Histocompatibility Complexes (MHCs), which present foreign antigens on the surfaces of cells to natural killer cells, T- and B-lymphocytes.

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease that is much more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1 compared to males. It is also more prevalent in Afro-Caribbeans and Asian communities. The onset of SLE usually occurs between the ages of 20-40 years, and its incidence has risen substantially over the past 50 years. SLE is considered a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction and is associated with HLA B8, DR2, and DR3.

      The pathophysiology of SLE is characterized by immune system dysregulation, leading to immune complex formation. These immune complexes can deposit in any organ, including the skin, joints, kidneys, and brain. It is important to note that the incidence of SLE in black Africans is much lower than in black Americans, and the reasons for this are unclear.

      In summary, SLE is a complex autoimmune disease that affects multiple organs and is more common in females and certain ethnic groups. Understanding the pathophysiology of SLE is crucial in developing effective treatments and improving patient outcomes.

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  • Question 195 - From which of the following structures does the posterior cruciate ligament originate? ...

    Incorrect

    • From which of the following structures does the posterior cruciate ligament originate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior intercondylar area of tibia

      Explanation:

      The attachment point of the anterior cruciate ligament is the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia. From there, it extends in a posterolateral direction and inserts into the posteromedial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle.

      The knee joint is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body, consisting of two condylar joints between the femur and tibia and a sellar joint between the patella and femur. The degree of congruence between the tibiofemoral articular surfaces is improved by the presence of the menisci, which compensate for the incongruence of the femoral and tibial condyles. The knee joint is divided into two compartments: the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral compartments. The fibrous capsule of the knee joint is a composite structure with contributions from adjacent tendons, and it contains several bursae and ligaments that provide stability to the joint. The knee joint is supplied by the femoral, tibial, and common peroneal divisions of the sciatic nerve and by a branch from the obturator nerve, while its blood supply comes from the genicular branches of the femoral artery, popliteal, and anterior tibial arteries.

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  • Question 196 - Which structure divides the cephalic vein and the brachial artery in the antecubital...

    Incorrect

    • Which structure divides the cephalic vein and the brachial artery in the antecubital fossa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biceps muscle

      Explanation:

      The Antecubital Fossa: Anatomy and Clinical Significance

      The antecubital fossa is a depression located on the anterior aspect of the arm, between the arm and forearm. It is an important area for medical professionals as it is where venous blood samples are typically taken from. The borders of the antecubital fossa are the brachioradialis muscle laterally, the pronator teres medially, and a line between the medial and lateral epicondyles superiorly.

      There are both deep and superficial structures found in the antecubital fossa. Deep structures include the radial nerve, tendon of the biceps muscle, brachial artery, and medial nerve. Superficial structures consist of a network of veins, including the cephalic vein and basilic vein, which come together as the median cubital vein.

      The main clinical relevance of the antecubital fossa is its use for blood sampling and cannulation. However, it is also important to have a working knowledge of the anatomy as structures can become damaged. Excessive straining of the biceps tendon can cause it to rupture, leading to a ‘Popeye sign’. Damage to the medial nerve can also occur, resulting in muscle paralysis in the forearm and hand. Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the antecubital fossa is crucial for medical professionals.

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  • Question 197 - A 26-year-old arrives at the emergency department with a dislocated shoulder after playing...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old arrives at the emergency department with a dislocated shoulder after playing basketball. The joint is relocated, but he experiences pain and limited mobility in his affected arm. During the examination, it is observed that his right shoulder's flexion, extension, abduction, and external rotation are weakened. Additionally, he reports a loss of sensation in the lateral upper arm on the right side.

      Which muscle/s receive innervation from the affected nerve in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Deltoid and teres minor

      Explanation:

      The axillary nerve is responsible for supplying the deltoid and teres minor muscles, which allow for flexion, extension, abduction, and external rotation of the shoulder joint. Damage to this nerve can result in a loss of sensation over the ‘regimental badge’ area of the upper arm and impaired shoulder movement.

      The biceps brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis muscles are innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve and are responsible for forearm flexion and shoulder adduction. Damage to this nerve would cause sensory impairment of the lateral aspect of the forearm.

      The serratus anterior muscle is innervated by the long thoracic nerve and is responsible for stabilizing and upwardly rotating the scapula. Damage to this nerve would cause ‘winging’ of the scapula.

      The supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles are innervated by the suprascapular nerve and are responsible for initiating the first 15 degrees of abduction at the shoulder joint and externally rotating the shoulder, respectively.

      The trapezius muscle is innervated by the accessory nerve and the ventral rami of the C3 and C4 spinal nerves. It acts to rotate and stabilize the scapula to enable movements of the upper limb.

      Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.

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  • Question 198 - Which one of the following statements relating to the hip joint is false?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements relating to the hip joint is false?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The posterior aspect of the patella is extrasynovial

      Explanation:

      The knee is the largest synovial joint in the body and its posterior aspect is located within the synovial membrane. In case of an ACL injury, the knee may swell significantly and cause severe pain due to its extensive innervation from the femoral, sciatic, and obturator nerves. When fully extended, all ligaments are stretched and the knee is in a locked position.

      The knee joint is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body, consisting of two condylar joints between the femur and tibia and a sellar joint between the patella and femur. The degree of congruence between the tibiofemoral articular surfaces is improved by the presence of the menisci, which compensate for the incongruence of the femoral and tibial condyles. The knee joint is divided into two compartments: the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral compartments. The fibrous capsule of the knee joint is a composite structure with contributions from adjacent tendons, and it contains several bursae and ligaments that provide stability to the joint. The knee joint is supplied by the femoral, tibial, and common peroneal divisions of the sciatic nerve and by a branch from the obturator nerve, while its blood supply comes from the genicular branches of the femoral artery, popliteal, and anterior tibial arteries.

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  • Question 199 - Mr. Johnson is a 65-year-old man who has had rheumatoid arthritis for 20...

    Incorrect

    • Mr. Johnson is a 65-year-old man who has had rheumatoid arthritis for 20 years. During his yearly check-up, he mentions experiencing difficulty while eating as his food feels very dry. Additionally, he has received comments about his cheeks appearing larger. Mr. Johnson has also developed a dry cough and a CT scan of his chest reveals early signs of bronchiectasis.

      What could be the possible reason for these new symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sjogren's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Sjogren’s syndrome is the most appropriate answer as it can affect multiple systems of the body, including the lacrimal and salivary glands, which can lead to xerophthalmia and xerostomia. Additionally, it can predispose individuals to conditions such as COPD and bronchiectasis due to mucosal dryness. Early stages of bronchiectasis, early COPD, and parotitis are not the most appropriate answers as they do not fully explain the oral symptoms and other systemic manifestations associated with Sjogren’s syndrome.

      Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome

      Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The condition is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with Sjogren’s syndrome have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely than the general population.

      The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, as well as check for the presence of rheumatoid factor, ANA, anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and anti-La (SSB) antibodies.

      Management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears, as well as medications like pilocarpine to stimulate saliva production. It is important for patients with Sjogren’s syndrome to receive regular medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.

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  • Question 200 - A 28-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense epigastric pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense epigastric pain, along with continuous nausea and vomiting. She had visited the emergency department a week ago due to severe bloody diarrhea and was hospitalized for a day before being released.

      Her amylase levels are elevated.

      Which medication is the most probable cause of her current symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Azathioprine is known to cause pancreatitis, which is likely the adverse effect experienced by this patient. It is possible that the patient was prescribed azathioprine after presenting with severe bloody diarrhea, a symptom of an acute flare-up of ulcerative colitis. Other drugs listed are not commonly associated with pancreatitis, although erythromycin may have a weak association. For more information on serious adverse effects of the listed drugs, please refer to the table below.

      Drug Serious adverse effects
      Paracetamol Hepatotoxicity
      Amitriptyline Anticholinergic side effects
      Erythromycin GI disturbance and prolongs QT interval
      Azathioprine Bone marrow depression and pancreatitis

      Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.

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