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  • Question 1 - A baby is born prematurely at 28 weeks, increasing the likelihood of delayed...

    Incorrect

    • A baby is born prematurely at 28 weeks, increasing the likelihood of delayed closure of the ductus venosus. What are the structures that the ductus venosus connects in the fetus?

      Your Answer: Umbilical vein and umbilical artery

      Correct Answer: IVC and umbilical vein

      Explanation:

      During fetal development, the ductus venosus redirects blood flow from the left umbilical vein directly to the inferior vena cava, enabling oxygenated blood from the placenta to bypass the fetal liver. Typically, the ductus closes and becomes the ligamentum venosum between day 3 and 7. However, premature infants are more susceptible to delayed closure.

      During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of mild chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male comes to the GP complaining of mild chest pain and dyspnoea. The patient has no significant medical history but has a family history of heart disease, with his father passing away following a heart attack last year. The GP suspects atrial flutter and decides to perform an ECG to confirm the diagnosis. What ECG findings would you anticipate given the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prolonged QT interval

      Correct Answer: Narrow complex tachycardia

      Explanation:

      Atrial flutter is characterized by a sawtooth pattern on ECG and typically presents as a narrow complex tachycardia. The regular atrial activity in atrial flutter is typically 300 bpm, and the ventricular rate is a fraction of this. For example, a 2:1 block would result in a ventricular rate of 150/min, a 3:1 block would result in a ventricular rate of 100/min, and a 4:1 block would result in a ventricular rate of 75/min.

      Atrial flutter is a type of supraventricular tachycardia that is characterized by a series of rapid atrial depolarization waves. This condition can be identified through ECG findings, which show a sawtooth appearance. The underlying atrial rate is typically around 300 beats per minute, which can affect the ventricular or heart rate depending on the degree of AV block. For instance, if there is a 2:1 block, the ventricular rate will be 150 beats per minute. Flutter waves may also be visible following carotid sinus massage or adenosine.

      Managing atrial flutter is similar to managing atrial fibrillation, although medication may be less effective. However, atrial flutter is more sensitive to cardioversion, so lower energy levels may be used. For most patients, radiofrequency ablation of the tricuspid valve isthmus is curative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 26-year-old man collapses during a game of cricket. He has previously experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man collapses during a game of cricket. He has previously experienced chest pain and shortness of breath while running, which subsides on rest. Upon examination, he is found to have an ejection systolic murmur that intensifies with Valsalva maneuvers and diminishes with squatting. His echocardiogram reveals mitral regurgitation, asymmetric hypertrophy, and systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve leaflet. What is the expected inheritance pattern for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      The inheritance pattern of HOCM is autosomal dominant, which means that it can be passed down from generation to generation. Symptoms of HOCM may include exertional dyspnoea, angina, syncope, and an ejection systolic murmur. It is important to note that there may be a family history of similar cardiac problems or sudden death due to ventricular arrhythmias. Autosomal recessive, mitochondrial inheritance, and X-linked dominant inheritance are not applicable to HOCM.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a severe headache that...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a severe headache that started suddenly during exercise. She reports vomiting and recurrent vertigo sensations. On examination, she has an ataxic gait, left-sided horizontal nystagmus, and an intention tremor during the 'finger-to-nose' test. An urgent CT scan is ordered. Which arteries provide blood supply to the affected area of the brain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Basilar and the vertebral arteries

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the basilar and vertebral arteries, which form branches that supply the cerebellum. The patient’s sudden onset headache, vomiting, and vertigo suggest a pathology focused on the brain, with ataxia, nystagmus, and intention tremor indicating cerebellar syndrome. A CT scan is necessary to rule out a cerebellar haemorrhage or stroke, as the basilar and vertebral arteries are the main arterial supply to the cerebellum.

      The incorrect answer is the anterior and middle cerebral arteries, which supply the cerebral cortex and would present with different symptoms. The anterior and posterior spinal arteries are also incorrect, as they supply the spine and would present with different symptoms. The ophthalmic and central retinal artery is also incorrect, as it would only present with visual symptoms and not the other symptoms seen in this patient.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 67-year old man with a history of cardiovascular disease and COPD visits...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year old man with a history of cardiovascular disease and COPD visits his GP. During a routine blood test, the GP observes that the patient has mild hyponatraemia. Which medication could have played a role in causing his hyponatraemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Thiazide diuretics have been linked to the adverse effect of hyponatremia, while caution is advised when using β2-agonists like salbutamol in patients with hypokalemia due to their potential to decrease serum potassium. In cases of hyperkalemia, β2-agonists may be used as a temporary treatment option. Bendroflumethiazide, a thiazide diuretic, can cause electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, and hypochloremic alkalosis. On the other hand, ACE inhibitors like ramipril may lead to hyperkalemia, especially in patients with renal impairment, diabetes mellitus, or those taking potassium-sparing diuretics, potassium supplements, or potassium-containing salts. Atenolol, however, is not directly associated with electrolyte disturbances.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlorthalidone.

      Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old patient comes in for a routine follow-up appointment and reports a...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old patient comes in for a routine follow-up appointment and reports a decline in exercise tolerance. They mention having difficulty with stairs and experiencing occasional central chest pain that radiates to their back, which is relieved by rest. The pain is not present at rest.

      During the examination, you observe a regular, slow-rising pulse and record a blood pressure of 110/95mmHg. Upon auscultation of the precordium, you detect an ejection systolic murmur.

      To further assess cardiac function and valves, an echocardiogram is scheduled. Based on the likely diagnosis, what additional exam findings are you most likely to discover?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fourth heart sound (S4)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and physical exam suggest the presence of aortic stenosis. This is indicated by the ejection systolic murmur, slow-rising pulse, and progressive heart failure symptoms. The fourth heart sound (S4) is also present, which occurs when the left atrium contracts forcefully to compensate for a stiff ventricle. In aortic stenosis, the left ventricle is hypertrophied due to the narrowed valve, leading to the S4 sound.

      While hepatomegaly is more commonly associated with right heart valvular disease, it is not entirely ruled out in this case. However, the patient’s history is more consistent with aortic stenosis.

      Malar flush, a pink flushed appearance across the cheeks, is typically seen in mitral stenosis due to hypercarbia causing arteriole vasodilation.

      Pistol shot femoral pulses, a sound heard during systole when auscultating the femoral artery, is a finding associated with aortic regurgitation and not present in this case.

      Heart sounds are the sounds produced by the heart during its normal functioning. The first heart sound (S1) is caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves, while the second heart sound (S2) is due to the closure of the aortic and pulmonary valves. The intensity of these sounds can vary depending on the condition of the valves and the heart. The third heart sound (S3) is caused by the diastolic filling of the ventricle and is considered normal in young individuals. However, it may indicate left ventricular failure, constrictive pericarditis, or mitral regurgitation in older individuals. The fourth heart sound (S4) may be heard in conditions such as aortic stenosis, HOCM, and hypertension, and is caused by atrial contraction against a stiff ventricle. The different valves can be best heard at specific sites on the chest wall, such as the left second intercostal space for the pulmonary valve and the right second intercostal space for the aortic valve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 3-week-old male is brought to the paediatrician with concerns of inadequate feeding...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-week-old male is brought to the paediatrician with concerns of inadequate feeding and weight gain. During cardiac examination, a continuous 'machine-like' murmur is detected. An echocardiogram confirms the presence of a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).

      What is the name of the structure that would remain if the PDA had closed at birth?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ligamentum arteriosum

      Explanation:

      The ligamentum arteriosum is what remains of the ductus arteriosus after it typically closes at birth. If the ductus arteriosus remains open, known as a patent ductus arteriosus, it can cause infants to fail to thrive. The ventricles of the heart come from the bulbus cordis and primitive ventricle. The coronary sinus is formed by a group of cardiac veins merging together. The ligamentum venosum is the leftover of the ductus venosum. The fossa ovalis is created when the foramen ovale closes.

      During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 55-year-old man undergoes a regular health examination, including observation, ECG, and routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man undergoes a regular health examination, including observation, ECG, and routine blood tests. The ECG reveals an extended corrected QT interval. Which abnormality detected in his blood test could explain the ECG results?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Long QT syndrome can be caused by hypokalaemia, among other electrolyte imbalances.

      Electrolyte imbalances such as hypocalcaemia and hypomagnesaemia can also result in long QT syndrome.

      However, hyperkalaemia, hypercalcaemia, and hypermagnesaemia are not linked to long QT syndrome.

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes a delay in the ventricles’ repolarization. This delay can lead to ventricular tachycardia/torsade de pointes, which can cause sudden death or collapse. The most common types of LQTS are LQT1 and LQT2, which are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other conditions. Congenital factors include Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome. Drugs that can cause a prolonged QT interval include amiodarone, sotalol, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Other factors that can cause a prolonged QT interval include electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      LQTS may be detected on a routine ECG or through family screening. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress, exercise, or auditory stimuli. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest and can lead to sudden cardiac death.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers are often used, and implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary in high-risk cases. It is important to note that sotalol may exacerbate LQTS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 9 - You are caring for a woman who has heart failure with reduced ejection...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a woman who has heart failure with reduced ejection fraction due to a previous myocardial infarction.

      Starling's Law of the Heart states that:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: As preload progressively increases, stroke volume increases gradually then decreases suddenly

      Explanation:

      Starling’s Law of the Heart states that as preload increases, stroke volume also increases gradually, up to a certain point. However, beyond this point, stroke volume decreases due to overloading of the cardiac muscle fibers. Therefore, the higher the cardiac preload, the greater the stroke volume, but only up to a certain limit.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of increasing fatigue and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of increasing fatigue and shortness of breath during physical activity over the past 6 months. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications.

      During the examination, the lungs are clear upon auscultation, but a loud P2 heart sound is detected. An X-ray of the chest reveals enlarged shadows of the pulmonary artery.

      What could be the underlying cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Endothelin

      Explanation:

      The cause of pulmonary vasoconstriction in primary pulmonary hypertension is endothelin, which is why antagonists are used to treat the condition. This is supported by the symptoms and diagnostic findings in a woman between the ages of 20 and 50. Other options such as bradykinin, iloprost, and nitric oxide are not vasoconstrictors and do not play a role in the development of pulmonary hypertension.

      Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases

      Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.

      Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.

      In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 11 - A patient develops a broad complex tachycardia three days following a myocardial infarction....

    Incorrect

    • A patient develops a broad complex tachycardia three days following a myocardial infarction. What is the primary mechanism of action of intravenous amiodarone in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blocks voltage-gated potassium channels

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone’s mechanism of action involves the inhibition of potassium channels.

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain. The ECG strip shows an irregularly irregular tachycardia that is not in sinus rhythm.

      Where is the site of this pathology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discordance of electrical activity from the myocytes surrounding the pulmonary veins

      Explanation:

      Atrial fibrillation occurs when irregular electrical activity from the myocytes surrounding the pulmonary veins overwhelms the regular impulses from the sinus node. This leads to discordance of electrical activity in the atria, causing the irregularly irregular tachycardia characteristic of AF. It is important to note that AF is not caused by an absence of electrical activity in the atria or bundle of His.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 13 - Which one of the following is not considered a major branch of the...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not considered a major branch of the ascending thoracic aorta?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inferior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The thyrocervical trunk, which is a branch of the subclavian artery, is typically the source of the inferior thyroid artery.

      Anatomy of the Thoracic Aorta

      The thoracic aorta is a major blood vessel that originates from the fourth thoracic vertebrae and terminates at the twelfth thoracic vertebrae. It is located in the chest cavity and has several important relations with surrounding structures. Anteriorly, it is related to the root of the left lung, the pericardium, the oesophagus, and the diaphragm. Posteriorly, it is related to the vertebral column and the azygos vein. On the right side, it is related to the hemiazygos veins and the thoracic duct, while on the left side, it is related to the left pleura and lung.

      The thoracic aorta has several branches that supply blood to different parts of the body. The lateral segmental branches are the posterior intercostal arteries, which supply blood to the muscles and skin of the back. The lateral visceral branches are the bronchial arteries, which supply blood to the bronchial walls and lung, excluding the alveoli. The midline branches are the oesophageal arteries, which supply blood to the oesophagus.

      In summary, the thoracic aorta is an important blood vessel that supplies blood to various structures in the chest cavity. Its anatomy and relations with surrounding structures are crucial for understanding its function and potential clinical implications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old male inpatient, three days post myocardial infarction, has a sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male inpatient, three days post myocardial infarction, has a sudden onset of intense crushing chest pain.
      What is the most effective cardiac enzyme to determine if this patient has experienced a recurrent heart attack?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      The Most Useful Enzyme to Measure in Diagnosing Early Re-infarction

      In diagnosing early re-infarction, measuring the levels of creatine kinase is the most useful enzyme to use. This is because the levels of creatine kinase return to normal relatively quickly, unlike the levels of troponins which remain elevated at this stage post MI and are therefore not useful in diagnosing early re-infarction.

      The table above shows the rise, peak, and fall of various enzymes in the body after a myocardial infarction. As seen in the table, the levels of creatine kinase rise within 4-6 hours, peak at 24 hours, and fall within 3-4 days. On the other hand, troponin levels rise within 4-6 hours, peak at 12-16 hours, and fall within 5-14 days. This indicates that measuring creatine kinase levels is more useful in diagnosing early re-infarction as it returns to normal levels faster than troponins.

      In conclusion, measuring the levels of creatine kinase is the most useful enzyme to use in diagnosing early re-infarction. Its levels return to normal relatively quickly, making it a more reliable indicator of re-infarction compared to troponins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden dizziness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden dizziness and palpitations. His medical history reveals that he had infectious diarrhea a week ago and was prescribed a 10-day course of erythromycin. Upon examination, an ECG confirms fast atrial fibrillation. The physician decides to use amiodarone to convert the patient into sinus rhythm. What is one potential risk associated with the use of amiodarone in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular arrhythmias

      Explanation:

      The risk of ventricular arrhythmias is increased when amiodarone and erythromycin are used together due to their ability to prolong the QT interval. Manufacturers advise against using multiple drugs that prolong QT interval to avoid this risk. WPW syndrome is a congenital condition that involves abnormal conductive cardiac tissue and can lead to reentrant tachycardia circuit in association with SVT. Amiodarone can cause a slate-grey appearance of the skin, while drugs like rifampicin can cause orange discoloration of body fluids. COPD is associated with multifocal atrial tachycardia.

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat various types of abnormal heart rhythms. It works by blocking potassium channels, which prolongs the action potential and helps to regulate the heartbeat. However, it also has other effects, such as blocking sodium channels. Amiodarone has a very long half-life, which means that loading doses are often necessary. It should ideally be given into central veins to avoid thrombophlebitis. Amiodarone can cause proarrhythmic effects due to lengthening of the QT interval and can interact with other drugs commonly used at the same time. Long-term use of amiodarone can lead to various adverse effects, including thyroid dysfunction, corneal deposits, pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis, liver fibrosis/hepatitis, peripheral neuropathy, myopathy, photosensitivity, a ‘slate-grey’ appearance, thrombophlebitis, injection site reactions, and bradycardia. Patients taking amiodarone should be monitored regularly with tests such as TFT, LFT, U&E, and CXR.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 16 - What is the equivalent of cardiac preload? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the equivalent of cardiac preload?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: End diastolic volume

      Explanation:

      Preload, also known as end diastolic volume, follows the Frank Starling principle where a slight increase results in an increase in cardiac output. However, if preload is significantly increased, such as exceeding 250ml, it can lead to a decrease in cardiac output.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 5-year-old girl with a history of unrepaired Tetralogy of Fallot has arrived...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl with a history of unrepaired Tetralogy of Fallot has arrived at the emergency department with sudden cyanosis and difficulty breathing after crying. Additionally, the patient is administered oxygen, morphine, and propranolol, and is expected to recover well. Surgery to repair the condition is scheduled in the near future.

      What is the term for this cyanotic episode that is commonly associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tet's spells

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is Tet’s spells, which are episodic hypercyanotic events that can cause loss of consciousness in infants with Tetralogy of Fallot. This condition is characterized by four structural abnormalities in the heart, but Tet’s spells are a specific manifestation of the disease. Acute coronary syndrome and neonatal respiratory distress syndrome are not relevant to this patient’s presentation, while Eisenmenger’s syndrome is a chronic condition that does not fit the acute nature of Tet’s spells.

      Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that causes cyanosis, or a bluish tint to the skin, due to a lack of oxygen in the blood. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease. TOF is typically diagnosed in infants between 1-2 months old, but may not be detected until they are 6 months old.

      TOF is caused by a malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum, resulting in four characteristic features: a ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, pulmonary stenosis, and an overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.

      Other symptoms of TOF include episodic hypercyanotic tet spells, which can cause severe cyanosis and loss of consciousness. These spells occur when the right ventricular outflow tract is nearly occluded and are triggered by stress, pain, or fever. A right-to-left shunt may also occur. A chest x-ray may show a boot-shaped heart, and an ECG may show right ventricular hypertrophy.

      Surgical repair is often necessary for TOF, and may be done in two parts. Beta-blockers may also be used to reduce infundibular spasm and help with cyanotic episodes. It is important to diagnose and manage TOF early to prevent complications and improve outcomes.

      Overall, understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals and caregivers to provide the best possible care for infants with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 18 - A 73-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe cramping...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe cramping pain in his leg at rest. He has a medical history of peripheral vascular disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and hypertension.

      During the examination, his blood pressure is measured at 138/92 mmHg, respiratory rate at 22/min, and oxygen saturations at 99%. The healthcare provider performs a neurovascular exam of the lower limbs and palpates the pulses.

      Which area should be palpated first?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: First metatarsal space on dorsum of foot

      Explanation:

      To assess lower leg pulses, it is recommended to start from the most distal point and move towards the proximal area. This helps to identify the location of any occlusion. The first pulse to be checked is the dorsalis pedis pulse, which is located on the dorsum of the foot in the first metatarsal space, lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon. Palpating behind the knee or in the fourth metatarsal space is incorrect, as no pulse can be felt there. The posterior tibial pulse can be felt posteriorly and inferiorly to the medial malleolus, but it should not be assessed first as it is not as distal as the dorsalis pedis pulse.

      The anterior tibial artery starts opposite the lower border of the popliteus muscle and ends in front of the ankle, where it continues as the dorsalis pedis artery. As it descends, it runs along the interosseous membrane, the distal part of the tibia, and the front of the ankle joint. The artery passes between the tendons of the extensor digitorum and extensor hallucis longus muscles as it approaches the ankle. The deep peroneal nerve is closely related to the artery, lying anterior to the middle third of the vessel and lateral to it in the lower third.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 19 - A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father after...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father after the child has been having a fever and has been very irritable since last night. The child has a temperature of 39.5ºC, and the emergency doctor notices that the child has a red tongue and cracked lips. On examination cervical lymph nodes are enlarged. After noticing that the child's palms and soles are erythematous, the emergency doctor calls the pediatrician on call, and they make a decision to begin treatment. What is the severe complication that can occur if this patient is not treated appropriately and on time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary artery aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease can lead to coronary artery aneurysms, which should be screened for with an echocardiogram. Prompt treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin and aspirin is necessary to prevent this complication. Other potential complications, such as septic shock or febrile seizures, are not as severe as coronary artery aneurysms in this case. Anaphylactic shock is not a possibility based on the information provided.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days, which is resistant to antipyretics. Other features include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms instead of angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease include coronary artery aneurysm, which can be life-threatening. Early recognition and treatment of Kawasaki disease can prevent serious complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 20 - Which of these statements relating to the external carotid is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of these statements relating to the external carotid is false?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It ends by bifurcating into the superficial temporal and ascending pharyngeal artery

      Explanation:

      The external carotid artery ends by splitting into two branches – the superficial temporal and maxillary branches. It has a total of eight branches, with three located on its anterior surface – the thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The pharyngeal artery is a medial branch, while the posterior auricular and occipital arteries are located on the posterior surface.

      Anatomy of the External Carotid Artery

      The external carotid artery begins on the side of the pharynx and runs in front of the internal carotid artery, behind the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid muscles. It is covered by sternocleidomastoid muscle and passed by hypoglossal nerves, lingual and facial veins. The artery then enters the parotid gland and divides into its terminal branches within the gland.

      To locate the external carotid artery, an imaginary line can be drawn from the bifurcation of the common carotid artery behind the angle of the jaw to a point in front of the tragus of the ear.

      The external carotid artery has six branches, with three in front, two behind, and one deep. The three branches in front are the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The two branches behind are the occipital and posterior auricular arteries. The deep branch is the ascending pharyngeal artery. The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary arteries within the parotid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 21 - A 79-year-old woman with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman with a history of heart failure visits the clinic complaining of swollen ankles and difficulty walking. She has previously experienced fluid retention due to her heart failure. During the examination, soft heart sounds are heard and pitting edema is observed in both lower limbs up to 15 cm above the ankles. The decision is made to increase her daily furosemide dose from 40mg to 80 mg. Which part of the nephron does furosemide target?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ascending limb of the loop of Henle

      Explanation:

      Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by inhibiting the Na-K-Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. It is commonly used to treat fluid retention in patients with heart failure. Other diuretic agents work on different parts of the nephron, such as carbonic anhydrase inhibitors in the proximal and distal tubules, thiazide diuretics in the distal convoluted tubule, and potassium-sparing diuretics like amiloride and spironolactone in the cortical collecting ducts. Understanding the mechanism of action of diuretics can help clinicians choose the most appropriate medication for their patients.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 22 - During surgery on her neck, a woman in her 50s suffers a vagus...

    Incorrect

    • During surgery on her neck, a woman in her 50s suffers a vagus nerve injury where the nerve is cut near the exit from the skull. She wakes up with a high heart rate and high blood pressure due to loss of parasympathetic tone.

      What other features would be expected with a vagus nerve injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hoarse voice

      Explanation:

      The vagus (X) nerve is responsible for all innervation related to speech, meaning that any injuries to this nerve can lead to speech problems. It’s important to note that the vagus nerve has both autonomic and somatic effects, with the latter being the most crucial for speech. This involves the motor supply to the larynx through the recurrent laryngeal nerves, which are branches of the vagus. If one vagus nerve is damaged, it would have the same impact as damage to a single recurrent laryngeal nerve, resulting in a hoarse voice.

      However, it’s worth noting that anal tone, erections, and urination are controlled by the sacral parasympathetics and would not be affected by the loss of the vagus nerve. Similarly, pupillary constriction is controlled by parasympathetics on the oculomotor nerve and would not be impacted by the loss of the vagus nerve.

      The vagus nerve is responsible for a variety of functions and supplies structures from the fourth and sixth pharyngeal arches, as well as the fore and midgut sections of the embryonic gut tube. It carries afferent fibers from areas such as the pharynx, larynx, esophagus, stomach, lungs, heart, and great vessels. The efferent fibers of the vagus are of two main types: preganglionic parasympathetic fibers distributed to the parasympathetic ganglia that innervate smooth muscle of the innervated organs, and efferent fibers with direct skeletal muscle innervation, largely to the muscles of the larynx and pharynx.

      The vagus nerve arises from the lateral surface of the medulla oblongata and exits through the jugular foramen, closely related to the glossopharyngeal nerve cranially and the accessory nerve caudally. It descends vertically in the carotid sheath in the neck, closely related to the internal and common carotid arteries. In the mediastinum, both nerves pass posteroinferiorly and reach the posterior surface of the corresponding lung root, branching into both lungs. At the inferior end of the mediastinum, these plexuses reunite to form the formal vagal trunks that pass through the esophageal hiatus and into the abdomen. The anterior and posterior vagal trunks are formal nerve fibers that splay out once again, sending fibers over the stomach and posteriorly to the coeliac plexus. Branches pass to the liver, spleen, and kidney.

      The vagus nerve has various branches in the neck, including superior and inferior cervical cardiac branches, and the right recurrent laryngeal nerve, which arises from the vagus anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery and hooks under it to insert into the larynx. In the thorax, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus on the aortic arch and hooks around the inferior surface of the arch, passing upwards through the superior mediastinum and lower part of the neck. In the abdomen, the nerves branch extensively, passing to the coeliac axis and alongside the vessels to supply the spleen, liver, and kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 23 - Which one of the following nerves is not found in the posterior triangle...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following nerves is not found in the posterior triangle of the neck?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ansa cervicalis

      Explanation:

      The anterior triangle of the neck contains the ansa cervicalis.

      The posterior triangle of the neck is an area that is bound by the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, the occipital bone, and the middle third of the clavicle. Within this triangle, there are various nerves, vessels, muscles, and lymph nodes. The nerves present include the accessory nerve, phrenic nerve, and three trunks of the brachial plexus, as well as branches of the cervical plexus such as the supraclavicular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, great auricular nerve, and lesser occipital nerve. The vessels found in this area are the external jugular vein and subclavian artery. Additionally, there are muscles such as the inferior belly of omohyoid and scalene, as well as lymph nodes including the supraclavicular and occipital nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 24 - A parent brings their toddler to the Emergency Department after noticing a pale...

    Incorrect

    • A parent brings their toddler to the Emergency Department after noticing a pale yellow fluid leaking from their umbilicus. The doctor explains that this is due to the incomplete closure of a remnant from embryological development. What is the name of this remnant, which used to be part of the umbilical ligament?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urachus

      Explanation:

      The allantois leaves behind the urachus, while the male prostatic utricle is a vestige of the vagina. The ductus arteriosus is represented by the ligamentum arteriosum, which links the aorta to the pulmonary trunk during fetal development. The ligamentum venosum, on the other hand, is the residual structure of the ductus venous, which diverts blood from the left umbilical vein to the placenta, bypassing the liver.

      During cardiovascular embryology, the heart undergoes significant development and differentiation. At around 14 days gestation, the heart consists of primitive structures such as the truncus arteriosus, bulbus cordis, primitive atria, and primitive ventricle. These structures give rise to various parts of the heart, including the ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk, right ventricle, left and right atria, and majority of the left ventricle. The division of the truncus arteriosus is triggered by neural crest cell migration from the pharyngeal arches, and any issues with this migration can lead to congenital heart defects such as transposition of the great arteries or tetralogy of Fallot. Other structures derived from the primitive heart include the coronary sinus, superior vena cava, fossa ovalis, and various ligaments such as the ligamentum arteriosum and ligamentum venosum. The allantois gives rise to the urachus, while the umbilical artery becomes the medial umbilical ligaments and the umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres hepatis inside the falciform ligament. Overall, cardiovascular embryology is a complex process that involves the differentiation and development of various structures that ultimately form the mature heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 25 - Which of the following structures separates the subclavian artery from the subclavian vein?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following structures separates the subclavian artery from the subclavian vein?

      And for the age change:

      Which of the following structures separates the subclavian artery from the subclavian vein in a 30-year-old patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Scalenus anterior

      Explanation:

      The scalenus anterior muscle separates the artery and vein. It originates from the transverse processes of C3, C4, C5, and C6 and inserts onto the scalene tubercle of the first rib.

      The Subclavian Artery: Origin, Path, and Branches

      The subclavian artery is a major blood vessel that supplies blood to the upper extremities, neck, and head. It has two branches, the left and right subclavian arteries, which arise from different sources. The left subclavian artery originates directly from the arch of the aorta, while the right subclavian artery arises from the brachiocephalic artery (trunk) when it bifurcates into the subclavian and the right common carotid artery.

      From its origin, the subclavian artery travels laterally, passing between the anterior and middle scalene muscles, deep to scalenus anterior and anterior to scalenus medius. As it crosses the lateral border of the first rib, it becomes the axillary artery and is superficial within the subclavian triangle.

      The subclavian artery has several branches that supply blood to different parts of the body. These branches include the vertebral artery, which supplies blood to the brain and spinal cord, the internal thoracic artery, which supplies blood to the chest wall and breast tissue, the thyrocervical trunk, which supplies blood to the thyroid gland and neck muscles, the costocervical trunk, which supplies blood to the neck and upper back muscles, and the dorsal scapular artery, which supplies blood to the muscles of the shoulder blade.

      In summary, the subclavian artery is an important blood vessel that plays a crucial role in supplying blood to the upper extremities, neck, and head. Its branches provide blood to various parts of the body, ensuring proper functioning and health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 26 - Oliver is an 80-year-old man with known left-sided heart failure. He has a...

    Incorrect

    • Oliver is an 80-year-old man with known left-sided heart failure. He has a left ventricular ejection fraction of 31%. He has recently been admitted to the cardiology ward as the doctors are concerned his condition is worsening. He is short of breath on exertion and has peripheral oedema.

      Upon reviewing his ECG, you note a right bundle branch block (RBBB) indicative of right ventricular hypertrophy. You also observe that this was present on an ECG of his on an emergency department admission last month.

      What is the most likely cause of the RBBB in Oliver?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cor pulmonale

      Explanation:

      A frequent underlying cause of RBBB that persists over time is right ventricular hypertrophy, which may result from the spread of left-sided heart failure to the right side of the heart. Oliver’s shortness of breath is likely due to an accumulation of fluid in the lungs, which can increase pulmonary perfusion pressure and lead to right ventricular strain and hypertrophy. This type of right heart failure that arises from left heart failure is known as cor-pulmonale. While a pulmonary embolism or rheumatic heart disease can also cause right ventricular strain, they are less probable in this case. Myocardial infarction typically presents with chest pain, which is not mentioned in the question stem regarding Oliver’s symptoms.

      Right bundle branch block is a frequently observed abnormality on ECGs. It can be differentiated from left bundle branch block by remembering the phrase WiLLiaM MaRRoW. In RBBB, there is a ‘M’ in V1 and a ‘W’ in V6, while in LBBB, there is a ‘W’ in V1 and a ‘M’ in V6.

      There are several potential causes of RBBB, including normal variation which becomes more common with age, right ventricular hypertrophy, chronically increased right ventricular pressure (such as in cor pulmonale), pulmonary embolism, myocardial infarction, atrial septal defect (ostium secundum), and cardiomyopathy or myocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 27 - A nursing student is being consented for a parathyroidectomy for symptomatic hyperparathyroidism. The...

    Incorrect

    • A nursing student is being consented for a parathyroidectomy for symptomatic hyperparathyroidism. The parathyroid gland consists of 2 superior and 2 inferior glands. The patient is informed that all four glands will be removed in order to achieve a complete resolution of her symptoms. You explain to her that the superior and inferior glands are derived from different structures.

      From which one of the following embryological structures are the superior parathyroid glands derived from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fourth pharyngeal pouch

      Explanation:

      The superior parathyroid glands are formed from the fourth pharyngeal pouch during embryonic development. The pharyngeal pouches develop between the branchial arches, with the first pouch located between the first and second arches. There are four pairs of pouches, with the fifth pouch being either absent or very small. A helpful mnemonic to remember the derivatives of the four pharyngeal pouches is 1A, 2P, 3 TIP, 4 SUB. This stands for the auditory tube, middle ear cavity, and mastoid antrum for the first pouch; the crypts of the palatine tonsil for the second pouch; the thymus and inferior parathyroid gland for the third pouch; and the superior parathyroid gland and ultimobranchial body for the fourth pouch.

      Anatomy and Development of the Parathyroid Glands

      The parathyroid glands are four small glands located posterior to the thyroid gland within the pretracheal fascia. They develop from the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches, with those derived from the fourth pouch located more superiorly and associated with the thyroid gland, while those from the third pouch lie more inferiorly and may become associated with the thymus.

      The blood supply to the parathyroid glands is derived from the inferior and superior thyroid arteries, with a rich anastomosis between the two vessels. Venous drainage is into the thyroid veins. The parathyroid glands are surrounded by various structures, with the common carotid laterally, the recurrent laryngeal nerve and trachea medially, and the thyroid anteriorly. Understanding the anatomy and development of the parathyroid glands is important for their proper identification and preservation during surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 28 - A 68-year-old man is prescribed clopidogrel to manage his peripheral artery disease-related claudication...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is prescribed clopidogrel to manage his peripheral artery disease-related claudication pain. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibits ADP binding to platelet receptors

      Explanation:

      Clopidogrel prevents clot formation by blocking the binding of ADP to platelet receptors. Factor Xa inhibitors like rivaroxaban directly inhibit factor Xa and are used to prevent and treat venous thromboembolism and atherothrombotic events. Dabigatran, a direct thrombin inhibitor, is used for prophylaxis and treatment of venous thromboembolism. Heparin/LMWH increase the effect of antithrombin and can be used to treat acute peripheral arterial occlusion, prevent and treat deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism.

      Clopidogrel: An Antiplatelet Agent for Cardiovascular Disease

      Clopidogrel is a medication used to manage cardiovascular disease by preventing platelets from sticking together and forming clots. It is commonly used in patients with acute coronary syndrome and is now also recommended as a first-line treatment for patients following an ischaemic stroke or with peripheral arterial disease. Clopidogrel belongs to a class of drugs called thienopyridines, which work in a similar way. Other examples of thienopyridines include prasugrel, ticagrelor, and ticlopidine.

      Clopidogrel works by blocking the P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor, which prevents platelets from becoming activated. However, concurrent use of proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) may make clopidogrel less effective. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) issued a warning in July 2009 about this interaction, and although evidence is inconsistent, omeprazole and esomeprazole are still cause for concern. Other PPIs, such as lansoprazole, are generally considered safe to use with clopidogrel. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any new medications or supplements.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 29 - A 65-year-old man with a history of claudication for several years is evaluated...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of claudication for several years is evaluated in the clinic. A duplex scan reveals an 85% stenosis of the superficial femoral artery. After two weeks, he returns with a sudden onset of severe leg pain that has been present for an hour. Upon examination, absent pulses are noted in the affected limb, and it is significantly cooler than the opposite limb. What is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombosis

      Explanation:

      When dealing with an already present lesion, the probability of encountering a complication like thrombosis is higher than that of an embolus. To address this, patients should be administered heparin and undergo imaging with duplex scanning. Although an early surgical bypass or intra-arterial thrombolysis may be necessary, performing an embolectomy is generally not recommended as the lesion is not an embolus, rendering the operation ineffective.

      Understanding Claudication

      Claudication is a medical condition that causes pain in the limbs during physical activity. It is usually caused by arterial insufficiency, which occurs when atheroma develops in the arterial wall and blocks the blood flow to the tissues. The most common symptom of claudication is calf pain that worsens during exercise and improves with rest. However, if the disease is located in more proximal areas, other symptoms such as buttock claudication and impotence may occur.

      The condition usually develops progressively, and in severe cases, it can lead to critical limb ischemia, which is characterized by severe pain, diminished sensation, pallor, and absent pulses. Risk factors for claudication include smoking, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia.

      To diagnose claudication, doctors may measure ankle-brachial pressure indices, perform duplex scanning, or conduct formal angiography. Treatment options depend on the severity of the condition. Patients with long claudication distances and no ulceration or gangrene may be managed conservatively, while those with rest pain, ulceration, or gangrene will require intervention. All patients should receive an antiplatelet agent and a statin, unless there are compelling contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 30 - A 75-year-old male presents to the GP clinic complaining of increased shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male presents to the GP clinic complaining of increased shortness of breath during physical activity and swelling in both ankles. The GP schedules an echocardiogram for him as an outpatient. During the echocardiogram, the patient's heart rate was 72 bpm and blood pressure was 136/88 mmHg. The results of the echocardiogram show an end-diastolic volume of 105ml and an end-systolic volume of 65ml. What is the left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 40%

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.

      Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.

      Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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