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  • Question 1 - A client's family purchases the ward a box of chocolates but presents you...

    Correct

    • A client's family purchases the ward a box of chocolates but presents you with a separate card containing a £50 voucher for all your assistance. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Give the voucher back to the family and thank them

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Actions for Accepting Monetary Gifts from Patients’ Families

      It is common for patients’ families to express gratitude towards healthcare professionals for their services. However, accepting monetary gifts can raise ethical concerns and is generally frowned upon by other staff members. Here are some appropriate actions to take when faced with such situations:

      Appropriate Actions for Accepting Monetary Gifts from Patients’ Families

      1. Give the voucher back to the family and thank them. This is the most appropriate action as it avoids any ethical concerns and maintains the professional relationship between the healthcare professional and the patient’s family.

      2. Share the voucher with the ward. While it may seem like a good idea to share the gift with colleagues, it is still not recommended to accept monetary gifts. It is best to return the gift to the family.

      3. Say nothing, you deserve it. This is not an appropriate action as accepting monetary gifts can create ethical concerns and impact the doctor-patient relationship.

      4. Donate the voucher to charity. While donating the gift to charity may seem like a good idea, it is still not recommended to accept monetary gifts. It is best to return the gift to the family.

      5. Ask the family for a bigger voucher, as £50 is not enough. This is highly unprofessional and should never be considered. Accepting monetary gifts of any amount is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
      44.2
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old man who is an accountant presents with complaints of fainting spells,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man who is an accountant presents with complaints of fainting spells, dizziness, palpitations and pressure in his chest. He experiences these symptoms for 5-10 minutes during which he becomes anxious about fainting and dying. He takes a longer route to work to avoid crossing busy streets as he fears getting hit by a car if he faints. He avoids public speaking and works late into the night from home, which exacerbates his symptoms. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Panic disorder with agoraphobia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Panic Disorder from Other Conditions

      Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by intense anxiety episodes with somatic symptoms and an exaggerated sense of danger. However, it can be challenging to distinguish panic disorder from other conditions that share similar symptoms. Here are some examples:

      Panic Disorder vs. Somatisation Disorder

      Patients with somatisation disorder also experience physical symptoms, but they fall into four different clusters: pain, gastrointestinal, urogenital, and neurological dysfunction. In contrast, panic disorder symptoms are more generalized and not limited to specific bodily functions.

      Panic Disorder vs. Hypoglycemia

      Hypoglycemia rarely induces severe panic or anticipatory anxiety, except in cases of insulin reactions. Patients with hypoglycemia typically experience symptoms such as sweating and hunger, which are not necessarily associated with panic disorder.

      Panic Disorder vs. Paroxysmal Atrial Tachycardia

      Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia is a heart condition that causes a doubling of the pulse rate and requires electrocardiographic evidence for diagnosis. While it may cause some anxiety, it is not typically accompanied by the intense subjective anxiety seen in panic disorder.

      Panic Disorder vs. Specific Phobia

      Specific phobias involve reactions to limited cues or situations, such as spiders, blood, or needles. While they may trigger panic attacks and avoidance, they are not as generalized as panic disorder and are limited to specific feared situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman who is 26 weeks’ pregnant presents to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 26 weeks’ pregnant presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with some swelling of her ankles. She has had no other pregnancy problems and this is her first child. Her blood pressure is 150/95 mmHg and she has 2+ protein in her urine. After 4 hours, her blood pressure has decreased to 130/95 mmHg. Her booking bloods and previous bloods are not available. Her results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Blood pressure 130/95 mmHg < 120/< 80 mmHg
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 85 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Platelets (Plts) < 210 × 109/l 150-400 × 109/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 250 U/litre 25–250 U/litre (in pregnancy)

      Which of the following statements is most likely to be true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: By definition she has pre-eclampsia and should be admitted for investigations and blood pressure (BP) control

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pre-eclampsia and HELLP Syndrome in Pregnancy

      Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria. Diagnosis requires two readings of blood pressure, taken 4-6 hours apart, with a systolic reading of 140 or higher, a diastolic reading of 90 or higher, or an increase of 30 systolic or 20 diastolic from booking blood pressure in the second half of pregnancy. Proteinuria of at least 1+ on reagent stick testing is also required.

      The severity of pre-eclampsia is classified based on blood pressure readings. Mild pre-eclampsia is characterized by a systolic reading of 140-149 or a diastolic reading of 90-99. Moderate pre-eclampsia is characterized by a systolic reading of 150-159 or a diastolic reading of 100-109. Severe pre-eclampsia is diagnosed with a systolic reading of 160 or higher or a diastolic reading of 110 or higher.

      HELLP syndrome is a subtype of severe pre-eclampsia, characterized by haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. Diagnosis requires a blood film showing fragmented red cells, an LDH level over 600 IU/litre, and raised bilirubin. Elevated AST or ALT levels over 70 IU/litre and platelet counts below 100 x 10^9/litre are also required.

      It is important to note that not all cases of high blood pressure in pregnancy are pre-eclampsia or HELLP syndrome. However, if a pregnant woman meets the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia, it is an obstetrical emergency and requires immediate attention. Additionally, if a pregnant woman has high ALP levels, an ultrasound scan of the biliary tree may be necessary to check for biliary obstruction. It is also important to note that ALP levels are typically elevated during pregnancy due to the placenta releasing ALP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week history of vomiting after every feed and then appearing very hungry afterwards. His weight has remained at 3.8 kg for the past two weeks, and for the past two days, the vomiting has become projectile. His birth weight was 3.2 kg. He is exclusively breastfed. A small mass can be palpated in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition where the pylorus becomes enlarged, typically affecting baby boys at around six weeks of age. Symptoms include projectile vomiting, dehydration, and poor weight gain. Diagnosis is confirmed through ultrasound, and treatment involves surgical pyloromyotomy, often done laparoscopically.

      Cow’s milk protein allergy is an immune response to cow’s milk protein, with symptoms appearing immediately or hours after ingestion. Symptoms include rash, constipation, colic, diarrhea, or reflux, but not projectile vomiting or an abdominal mass. Treatment involves an exclusion diet, with breastfeeding mothers advised to avoid cow’s milk and take calcium and vitamin D supplements.

      Gastroenteritis presents with diarrhea and vomiting, but not projectile vomiting or an abdominal mass. Rotavirus is a common cause, and babies can receive a vaccine at eight and twelve weeks.

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) may cause vomiting and poor weight gain, but not projectile vomiting or an abdominal mass. Treatment involves regular winding during feeds, smaller and more frequent feeds, and keeping the baby upright after feeds. Medication may be prescribed if these measures fail.

      Volvulus is a twisting of the bowel resulting in acute obstruction and a distended abdomen. Symptoms have a shorter duration before the baby becomes very unwell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old male patient complains of a tender swelling in the natal cleft...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male patient complains of a tender swelling in the natal cleft that has been present for two days. Upon examination, three midline pits are observed, and there is a fluctuant swelling to the right of the natal cleft. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pilonidal abscess

      Explanation:

      Pilonidal and Perianal Abscesses

      Pilonidal abscesses are a type of inflammatory condition that occurs when hair produces a sinus. These abscesses are typically found in or near the midline of the body, close to the natal cleft. They are more common in Caucasian males who are in their thirties, particularly those who are obese or have a lot of body hair.

      When someone presents with a pilonidal abscess, they will typically undergo an incision and drainage procedure. However, if the disease becomes non-healing or recurrent, a more definitive procedure such as excision may be required.

      Perianal and ischiorectal abscesses, on the other hand, are caused by an infection of the anal glands found in the intersphincteric space. These abscesses can also be treated with incision and drainage procedures, but may require more extensive treatment if they become chronic or recurrent.

      Overall, the causes and treatments of pilonidal and perianal abscesses is important for anyone who may be at risk for these conditions. By seeking prompt medical attention and following a proper treatment plan, individuals can manage these conditions and prevent them from becoming more serious.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 6 - A child is put on a new agonist medication for asthma. While it...

    Incorrect

    • A child is put on a new agonist medication for asthma. While it works well at first, its effectiveness appears to diminish after a few months. What is the probable reason for this outcome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desensitisation

      Explanation:

      Desensitisation and Drug Intolerance

      When a person takes agonist drugs repeatedly, their effectiveness may decrease over time. This phenomenon is known as desensitisation or tachyphylaxis. There are several possible mechanisms that can contribute to desensitisation, including changes in the receptor structure, down-regulation of the number of receptors, increased degradation of receptors or the drug itself, physiological adaptation, and exhaustion of mediators. In the case of antimicrobial medications, the effect may be due to the microbe developing resistance to the drug. However, this term is not generally used to describe the effect of medications that are not antimicrobials.

      On the other hand, drug intolerance refers to the development of side effects that limit the use of the drug or the dosage at which it can be given. This can occur even if the drug is effective in treating the condition it was prescribed for. Drug intolerance can be caused by a variety of factors, including individual differences in metabolism, interactions with other medications, and underlying medical conditions. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients for signs of desensitisation and drug intolerance and adjust treatment plans accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old patient presents with polyarthralgia, cyclical fevers, and a salmon pink rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old patient presents with polyarthralgia, cyclical fevers, and a salmon pink rash on her torso. She reports experiencing flares of this condition since her late twenties and has been admitted to ITU in the past for intravenous medications, although she cannot recall their names. Her current medications include paracetamol 1g PRN and naproxen 500 mg PRN. On examination, she exhibits tenderness in multiple joints, including her hips, knees, wrists, shoulders, and small joints of her hands. Her vital signs show a heart rate of 110/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, blood pressure of 96/65 mmHg, oxygen saturations of 98% on room air, and temperature of 39ºC. Laboratory results reveal elevated CRP and ferritin levels, as well as mild leukocytosis and anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adult-onset Still's disease

      Explanation:

      The patient is exhibiting symptoms of adult-onset Still’s disease, including fever, polyarthralgia, and rash. The elevated ferritin levels also suggest this diagnosis, as ferritin is commonly used to monitor disease activity in these patients. It is important to note that severe flares of this disease can mimic sepsis. Treatment options include biologic therapies like anti-TNFs and anakinra, as well as traditional DMARDs and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. While rheumatoid arthritis is a possible differential diagnosis, the triad of symptoms is more commonly associated with Still’s disease. Septic arthritis typically presents as monoarthritis or oligoarthritis, not polyarthritis. Additionally, the rash described is not indicative of psoriasis. It is worth noting that this is a case of adult-onset Still’s disease, as the patient began experiencing symptoms in their twenties.

      Still’s disease in adults is a condition that has a bimodal age distribution, affecting individuals between the ages of 15-25 years and 35-46 years. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as arthralgia, elevated serum ferritin, a salmon-pink maculopapular rash, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, and a daily pattern of worsening joint symptoms and rash in the late afternoon or early evening. The disease is typically diagnosed using the Yamaguchi criteria, which has a sensitivity of 93.5% and is the most widely used criteria for diagnosis.

      Managing Still’s disease in adults can be challenging, and treatment options include NSAIDs as a first-line therapy to manage fever, joint pain, and serositis. It is recommended that NSAIDs be trialed for at least a week before steroids are added. While steroids may control symptoms, they do not improve prognosis. If symptoms persist, the use of methotrexate, IL-1, or anti-TNF therapy can be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) visits her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) visits her GP complaining of myalgia and fatigue. She is worried that her SLE is flaring up and has a tendency to develop health anxiety due to her condition. As lupus can affect multiple organs and systems, she frequently visits her GP practice whenever she experiences new symptoms. The GP conducts some blood tests, which reveal the following results:
      - Hb: 111 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - MCV: 86 fl (84-96)
      - WBC: 12.3 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Urea: 6.7 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      - Creatinine: 118 µmol/L (55-120)
      - eGFR: 90 ml/min/1.73m² (>/= 90)
      - CRP: 88 mg/L (<5)
      - ESR: 34 mm/hr (0-20)

      What is the probable cause of the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Underlying infection

      Explanation:

      If a patient with SLE has an elevated CRP, it could indicate the presence of an infection. The patient in question does not have AKI and her kidney function is normal. Although she has a slight normocytic anemia, it is unlikely to be the cause of her symptoms. Fibromyalgia is common in SLE patients, but the elevated CRP in this case suggests an underlying infection rather than fibromyalgia. The patient’s elevated white blood cell count and CRP levels indicate the presence of an infection, rather than a lupus flare.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 9 - What is the receptor for thyroid hormone? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the receptor for thyroid hormone?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A nuclear receptor

      Explanation:

      The Thyroid Hormone Receptor and its Role in Gene Transcription

      The thyroid hormone receptor is a type of nuclear receptor that plays a crucial role in gene transcription. When it binds to tri-iodothyronine (T3), it is able to interact with the thyroid hormone response element (TRE) located in the promoter region of genes that are responsive to thyroid hormone. This interaction leads to the initiation of transcription, which is the process by which genetic information is copied from DNA to RNA.

      In simpler terms, the thyroid hormone receptor acts like a key that unlocks the door to certain genes in our DNA. When it binds to T3, it is able to open up the door and allow the transcription process to begin. This is important because thyroid hormone plays a critical role in regulating many physiological processes in the body, including metabolism, growth, and development. By controlling the expression of genes that are responsive to thyroid hormone, the thyroid hormone receptor helps to ensure that these processes are functioning properly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old rugby player injured his shoulder after a heavy tackle during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old rugby player injured his shoulder after a heavy tackle during a match. He arrived at the Emergency Department in visible discomfort with a deformed right shoulder that appeared flattened and drooped lower than his left. An X-ray revealed an anterior dislocation.
      What is the name of the nerve that passes around the surgical neck of the humerus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior branch of the axillary nerve

      Explanation:

      Nerve Branches and their Innervations in the Upper Limb

      The upper limb is innervated by various nerves that originate from the brachial plexus. Each nerve has specific branches that innervate different muscles and areas of the arm. Here are some important nerve branches and their innervations in the upper limb:

      1. Anterior branch of the axillary nerve: This nerve branch winds around the surgical neck of the humerus and innervates the teres minor, deltoid, glenohumeral joint, and skin over the inferior part of the deltoid.

      2. Median nerve: This nerve passes through the carpal tunnel and innervates the muscles of the anterior forearm, as well as the skin over the palmar aspect of the hand.

      3. Lateral cutaneous nerve: This nerve is a continuation of the posterior branch of the axillary nerve and sweeps around the posterior border of the deltoid, innervating the skin over the lateral aspect of the arm.

      4. Posterior interosseous nerve: This nerve is a branch of the radial nerve and does not wind around the surgical neck of the humerus. It innervates the muscles of the posterior forearm.

      5. Radial nerve: This nerve winds around the midshaft of the humerus and innervates the muscles of the posterior arm and forearm, as well as the skin over the posterior aspect of the arm and forearm.

      Understanding the innervations of these nerve branches is important in diagnosing and treating upper limb injuries and conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of hypertension visits his primary care...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a long-standing history of hypertension visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. He mentions experiencing a painful, burning sensation in his legs when he walks long distances and feeling cold in his lower extremities. He has no history of dyslipidaemia. During the examination, his temperature is recorded as 37.1 °C, and his blood pressure in the left arm is 174/96 mmHg, with a heart rate of 78 bpm, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. Bilateral 1+ dorsalis pedis pulses are noted, and his lower extremities feel cool to the touch. Cardiac auscultation does not reveal any murmurs, rubs, or gallops. His abdominal examination is unremarkable, and no bruits are heard on auscultation. His renal function tests show a creatinine level of 71 μmol/l (50–120 μmol/l), which is his baseline. What is the most likely defect present in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest coarctation of the aorta, a condition where the aortic lumen narrows just after the branches of the aortic arch. This causes hypertension in the upper extremities and hypotension in the lower extremities, leading to lower extremity claudication. Chest X-rays may show notching of the ribs. Treatment involves surgical resection of the narrowed lumen. Bilateral lower extremity deep vein thrombosis, patent ductus arteriosus, renal artery stenosis, and atrial septal defects are other conditions that can cause different symptoms and require different treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 12 - A 50-year-old man with a caecal carcinoma undergoes a laparotomy with right hemicolectomy....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a caecal carcinoma undergoes a laparotomy with right hemicolectomy. Four weeks later, he presents to the Surgical Outpatient Clinic with a persistent sinus in his midline laparotomy scar.
      Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with poor wound healing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adjuvant radiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Factors Affecting Wound Healing: Adjuvant Radiotherapy, High Tension Sutures, Skin Closure Material, Medications, and Nutrient Deficiencies

      Wound healing can be influenced by various factors, including adjuvant radiotherapy, high tension sutures, skin closure material, medications, and nutrient deficiencies. Adjuvant radiotherapy is often used postoperatively to reduce the risk of recurrence, but it can also delay wound healing and cause complications such as fibrosis and stricture formation. High tension sutures can support wound healing, but if placed with too much tension, they can lead to tissue strangulation and necrosis. Skin closure material should be removed at the appropriate time to prevent wound dehiscence. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs have not been shown to have a significant effect on wound healing, but steroids and other immunosuppressive drugs can impair it. Finally, nutrient deficiencies, particularly of vitamins A, C, and E and zinc, can also impact wound healing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 13 - A 9-month-old infant comes to the clinic with a complaint of fever (39°C)...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old infant comes to the clinic with a complaint of fever (39°C) and a rash that started on the legs and has now spread to the limbs and trunk. The rash is purplish, non-palpable, and non-blanching. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Meningococcal septicaemia

      Explanation:

      Meningococcal septicaemia causes a non-blanching purpuric eruption. Other conditions such as giant urticaria, measles rash, haemophilia, and HSP have different symptoms and presentations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Practice
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  • Question 14 - A 33-year-old construction worker presents with an area of redness on his right...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old construction worker presents with an area of redness on his right foot. The area of redness has grown in size over the past day and is warmer than the surrounding normal skin. The patient mentions that the area is also tender to touch.
      Following taking a history and examining the patient, the physician suspects a diagnosis of cellulitis.
      Which of these terms is best used to describe ‘cellulitis’?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Localised inflammation and cellular debris accumulation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Forms of Skin Inflammation

      Cellulitis, inflammation of subcutaneous tissue, is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and requires urgent treatment with antibiotics. Surgical wounds and malignant tumors can also cause inflammation, but the latter is a response by the immune system to control malignancy. Inflammation of the epidermis can be caused by various non-infective processes, such as sunburns or abrasions. Localized infection may lead to an abscess, which requires incision and drainage. It is important to understand the distinct pathology and treatment for each form of skin inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 15 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with a scalp laceration she...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with a scalp laceration she sustained while playing basketball.

      Upon examination, it is found that she has a clean incised wound on her scalp that is approximately 2 cm in length.

      What is the most appropriate method of managing this wound?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tissue adhesive glue

      Explanation:

      Tissue Adhesive Glue for Scalp Wounds in Children

      Tissue adhesive glue is a highly effective method for closing scalp wounds, especially in children. This technique is suitable for wounds that are clean and less than 3 cm in length. However, it should not be used for wounds around the eyes or over joints. Unlike other methods such as staples or sutures, tissue adhesive glue can be performed without the need for local anesthesia, making it less distressing for patients. Therefore, it is the preferred closure technique for scalp wounds.

      On the other hand, steristrips are not appropriate for scalp wounds as they do not adhere well to the skin due to the presence of hair. In summary, tissue adhesive glue is a safe and efficient method for closing scalp wounds in children, providing a less painful and more comfortable experience for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman with menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea attends the clinic with her mother....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with menorrhagia and dysmenorrhoea attends the clinic with her mother. She tells you that her mother has had a hysterectomy to treat menorrhagia, which found growths in the uterus. She is worried that the condition is hereditary, how this will affect her fertility and whether she is at risk of cancer.
      Which of the following is most suitable for a definitive diagnosis of the condition described in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Fibroids: Ultrasound vs CT Scan vs MRI

      Fibroids, or leiomyomatas, are common tumours of smooth muscle origin found in the uterus and cervix. They can cause symptoms such as heavy periods, dysmenorrhoea, and lower abdominal pain. Risk factors include Afro-Caribbean origin, obesity, nulliparity, and family history. Clinical examination may reveal a palpable abdominal mass or a uterus palpable on bimanual examination, but ultrasound is the preferred diagnostic tool. CT scans are reserved for complex cases, while MRI is used for localisation and characterisation of fibroids. A full blood count is also important to diagnose and treat anaemia associated with heavy periods.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 58-year-old man presents to his Emergency Department complaining of blood in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents to his Emergency Department complaining of blood in his urine. He reports that this has been happening over the past three days. He denies any pain or fever.
      Physical examination revealed bilateral wheezes but is otherwise unremarkable. He does not have any problem passing urine. He has always lived in the UK and has not travelled anywhere outside the country recently. The patient is retired but used to work in a textile factory where he was responsible for working in the dye plants producing different coloured fabric. He has a past medical history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and hypertension. He takes losartan for his hypertension and a budesonide and formoterol combination inhaler for his COPD. The man is an ex-smoker with a 30 pack-year smoking history.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bladder cancer

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Painless Haematuria: Bladder Cancer vs. Other Possibilities

      When a patient presents with painless haematuria, bladder cancer should be highly suspected until proven otherwise. While other conditions, such as urinary tract infections, can cause haematuria, a strong history of smoking and exposure to chemical dyes increase the likelihood of bladder cancer.

      Prostate cancer is unlikely to present with haematuria and is more likely to be associated with lower urinary tract symptoms. Benign prostatic hyperplasia would present with signs of lower urinary tract obstruction, which this patient does not have. Nephrolithiasis can cause haematuria, but the absence of pain makes it less likely. Renal cancer may also present with haematuria, but it is more likely to be associated with loin or abdominal pain, weight loss, anaemia, and fatigue.

      In summary, when a patient presents with painless haematuria and a history of smoking and exposure to chemical dyes, bladder cancer should be the primary concern. Other possibilities should be considered, but they are less likely based on the absence of additional symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old man is found talking incoherently, confused and aggressive outside the local...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is found talking incoherently, confused and aggressive outside the local shopping centre late at night. Apparently, he has attended the Emergency Department on two previous occasions, one when he made a number of cuts to his forearms with a knife, and another when he was drunk and disorderly. When you question him in the Emergency Department, he tells you that he is a spy, that the TVs in the local department store are reading his thoughts and that voices are telling him to kill his mother as she is informing on him. He mentions that this has been going on for two months. He rambles when you talk to him and seems to have created a number of new words to describe his mission.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 7.6 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 203 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 25 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 31 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Schizophrenia from Other Mental Health Conditions

      The patient’s disordered speech, derogatory hallucinations, and delusions about the television reading his thoughts are indicative of schizophrenia. These symptoms are often accompanied by thoughts of persecution or paranoia, which are known as first rank symptoms.

      A manic episode is less likely as there is no history of overspending, pressured speech, or flight of thoughts. Similarly, endogenous depression is unlikely as neologisms and incoherent speech are not common presenting symptoms.

      Drug-induced psychosis is also unlikely as neologisms and delusions about being a spy are not typical symptoms. Alcohol intoxication is also less likely as there is no evidence of alcohol involvement in this presentation or previous visits to Casualty.

      Therefore, based on the symptoms presented, schizophrenia is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 19 - An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of persistent urinary symptoms. She mentions...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of persistent urinary symptoms. She mentions experiencing leakage whenever she coughs or sneezes, despite regularly performing pelvic floor muscle exercises. The patient expresses her reluctance towards any surgical intervention for this issue. What would be the next suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with stress incontinence does not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and refuses surgery, duloxetine may be prescribed as a treatment option. Bladder retraining exercises are not effective for stress incontinence, but may be helpful for urge incontinence. Oxybutynin and tolterodine are medications used to manage urge incontinence, while desmopressin is used for nocturnal enuresis.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 78-year-old man is currently receiving palliative care for metastatic lung cancer. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man is currently receiving palliative care for metastatic lung cancer. He has been admitted to the hospital with worsening back pain and lower limb neurological symptoms. Prior to admission, his pain was managed with paracetamol orally (PO) 1000 mg four times daily (QDS), codeine PO 60 mg QDS, and ibuprofen PO 400 mg three times daily (TDS). He has been diagnosed with metastatic deposits in his bony spine, causing compression, and has been scheduled for radiotherapy. The specialist pain team has prescribed Zomorph 30 mg PO twice daily (BD) and has requested that you prescribe appropriate breakthrough pain relief.
      What is an appropriate regimen for breakthrough pain relief?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Morphine sulphate PO 5–10 mg PRN

      Explanation:

      Choosing Appropriate Breakthrough Analgesia for a Patient on Slow-Release Morphine

      When a patient is prescribed a slow-release morphine for chronic pain, they may also require an immediate-release morphine-containing prescription for breakthrough analgesia. The recommended dose for breakthrough analgesia is one tenth to one sixth of the total daily dose of morphine, given as an immediate-release preparation. For example, if a patient is taking 84 mg of morphine per day, their breakthrough dose should be 5-10 mg as needed.

      It is important to note that not all opioid medications are appropriate for breakthrough analgesia. Oxycontin, a slow-release preparation of oxycodone, would not be effective for this purpose. Similarly, Zomorph, a slow-release morphine, would also not be appropriate for breakthrough analgesia. It is important to choose an immediate-release opioid medication, such as morphine sulphate, in the appropriate dose for effective breakthrough pain relief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old known cardiopath is brought to hospital by ambulance, complaining of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old known cardiopath is brought to hospital by ambulance, complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. He looks pale and is very sweaty. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 80/55 mmHg, pulse of 135 bpm, SpO2 of 93% and bibasal wet crackles in the chest, as well as peripheral oedema. Peripheral pulses are palpable. A previous median sternotomy is noted. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals regular tachycardia, with QRS complexes of uniform amplitude, a QRS width of 164 ms and a rate of 135 bpm.
      What is the most important step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Management of Ventricular Tachycardia in a Patient with Ischaemic Heart Disease

      When faced with a patient with a broad-complex tachycardia, it is important to consider ventricular tachycardia as the most common cause, particularly in patients with a history of ischaemic heart disease. In a haemodynamically unstable patient with regular ventricular tachycardia, the initial step is to evaluate for adverse signs or symptoms. If present, the patient should be sedated and synchronised DC shock should be administered, followed by amiodarone infusion and correction of electrolyte abnormalities. If there are no adverse signs or symptoms, amiodarone IV and correction of electrolyte abnormalities should begin immediately.

      Other management options, such as primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), IV magnesium, aspirin and clopidogrel, IV furosemide, and oxygen, may be indicated depending on the underlying cause of the ventricular tachycardia, but DC cardioversion is the most important step in a haemodynamically unstable patient. Diuretics are not indicated in a hypotensive patient, and improving cardiac function is the key to clearing fluid from the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 22 - To visualize the vocal cords, where should the tip of a Macintosh laryngoscope...

    Incorrect

    • To visualize the vocal cords, where should the tip of a Macintosh laryngoscope be inserted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Into the vallecula

      Explanation:

      Macintosh Laryngoscope: A Tool for Visualizing the Vocal Cords

      The Macintosh laryngoscope is a medical instrument designed to aid in the visualization of the vocal cords. Its curved blade is specifically shaped to fit into the oral and oropharyngeal cavity. To use it, the blade is inserted through the right side of the mouth and gradually advanced, pushing the tongue to the left and out of view. The blade has a small bulbous tip that is intended to sit in the vallecula, a small depression between the base of the tongue and the epiglottis.

      By lifting the laryngoscope up and forwards, the larynx is elevated, allowing for a clear view of the vocal cords. This tool is commonly used in medical settings, such as during intubation procedures or when examining the airway. Its design allows for a safe and effective way to visualize the vocal cords, aiding in the diagnosis and treatment of various medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 23 - A 44-year-old man presented to the hospital with complaints of hoarseness and unexplained...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man presented to the hospital with complaints of hoarseness and unexplained weight loss. Upon laryngoscopy, it was found that he had paralysis of the right vocal cord. A chest radiograph was ordered to further investigate the lesion. Which radiographic view would be most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lung apex

      Explanation:

      The Impact of Lesions on the Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve: A Guide by An AI Language Model

      The recurrent laryngeal nerve is a crucial nerve that innervates the vocal folds. Lesions along its course can cause dysfunction and lead to various symptoms. Here is a guide on how lesions in different regions of the body can impact the recurrent laryngeal nerve.

      Lung Apex:
      A lesion in the apex of the lung, known as a Pancoast tumor, can affect the right recurrent laryngeal nerve, which loops under the right subclavian artery at the apex of the right lung. This can cause dysfunction of the right vocal fold and may suggest malignancy, especially if accompanied by weight loss.

      Aortic Arch:
      The right recurrent laryngeal nerve branches off the vagus nerve at the right subclavian artery, and the left at the aortic arch. Therefore, lesions at the aortic arch can affect both the left and right recurrent laryngeal nerves.

      Basal Region of the Lung:
      Lesions at the base of the lungs would not affect the recurrent laryngeal nerve, as it branches from the vagus nerve at the level of the aortic arch and returns upwards.

      Hilar Region of the Right Lung:
      Lesions in the hilar region of the right lung would not affect the recurrent laryngeal nerve, as it branches off the vagus nerve at the right subclavian artery and the left at the aortic arch.

      Retrocardiac:
      Lesions in the retrocardiac region would be unlikely to impact the recurrent laryngeal nerve unless they are very large, as the nerve branches off the vagus nerve at the right subclavian artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
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  • Question 24 - A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis....

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man comes to the clinic for his regular follow-up of psoriasis. He had been managing it well with phototherapy six months ago, but recently his condition has worsened. He is currently using topical calcipotriol (Dovonex), topical coal tar ointment, and topical hydromol ointment, and is taking amoxicillin for a recent respiratory infection. He is in good health otherwise.

      During the examination, he has an erythematosus rash that covers most of his torso, with widespread plaques on his limbs and neck. The rash is tender and warm, and he is shivering. There are no oral lesions. His heart rate is 101 bpm, blood pressure is 91/45 mmHg, and temperature is 37.7 °C.

      What is the most crucial next step in treating this man?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange hospital admission

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of Erythrodermic Psoriasis

      Erythrodermic psoriasis is a dermatological emergency that requires urgent hospital admission. This is evident in a patient presenting with a drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, borderline pyrexia, and rigors. Supportive care, including IV fluids, cool wet dressings, and a systemic agent, is necessary. The choice of systemic agent depends on the patient and may involve rapid-acting therapies like ciclosporin or slower agents like methotrexate. Discontinuing amoxicillin is crucial as it can cause Stevens–Johnson syndrome/toxic epidermal necrolysis. However, admission is essential in both emergency presentations. Starting ciclosporin or methotrexate orally is not appropriate without investigations. Repeat phototherapy should be avoided as it can worsen erythroderma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 25 - A 19-year-old man playing rugby injures his right arm, resulting in swelling and...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man playing rugby injures his right arm, resulting in swelling and tenderness in the cubital fossa. Upon examination, it is found that the patient's ability to flex his elbow is reduced and his ability to supinate his right forearm is significantly impaired. However, sensation in the skin of his right forearm remains intact. What structure is most likely to have been damaged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biceps brachii muscle

      Explanation:

      Identifying the Cause of Weakness in Elbow Flexion and Supination: Biceps Brachii Muscle Injury

      The biceps brachii muscle plays a crucial role in elbow flexion and supination of the forearm. When a patient presents with weakness in both of these movements, along without loss of skin sensation, a biceps brachii injury is the most likely cause. In contrast, damage to the brachialis muscle would only affect elbow flexion, while damage to the pronator teres muscle would only affect forearm pronation. The musculocutaneous nerve, which innervates the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles, as well as the coracobrachialis muscle, would also result in sensory loss if damaged. The supinator muscle, on the other hand, only plays a role in supination and would not cause weakness in elbow flexion. Therefore, identifying the specific muscle involved is crucial in determining the cause of weakness in elbow flexion and supination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
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  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a friend. The man...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a friend. The man appears drowsy and has a strong smell of alcohol. According to his friend, he complained of sudden, severe retrosternal pain that worsened when swallowing. The patient has a history of alcoholic liver disease. His vital signs include a heart rate of 130/min, respiratory rate of 24/min, temperature of 37.7ºC, oxygen saturation of 98%, and blood pressure of 100/74 mmHg. Upon examination, there are crackles heard on auscultation of his chest wall, and dried vomit is present around his mouth. An ECG shows sinus rhythm. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Boerhaave's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Boerhaave’s syndrome is a condition where the oesophagus ruptures spontaneously due to repeated episodes of vomiting. This man’s symptoms, including retrosternal chest pain and subcutaneous emphysema, are consistent with the classic triad of Boerhaave’s syndrome. Alcoholics and individuals with bulimia are at higher risk of developing this condition due to forceful vomiting against a closed glottis, which can cause a build-up of pressure in the oesophagus and lead to a transmural rupture. Urgent surgery is required for individuals with this condition, who tend to be systemically unwell.

      Bleeding oesophageal varices, duodenal ulcer haemorrhage, and Mallory-Weiss syndrome are not the correct diagnoses for this man’s symptoms. Bleeding oesophageal varices typically present with life-threatening haematemesis, while duodenal ulcer haemorrhage causes hypotension, melena, and haematemesis. Mallory-Weiss syndrome is a small tear at the gastroesophageal junction that usually presents with haematemesis on a background of vomiting. None of these conditions would explain the subcutaneous emphysema or retrosternal chest pain seen in this case.

      Boerhaave’s Syndrome: A Dangerous Rupture of the Oesophagus

      Boerhaave’s syndrome is a serious condition that occurs when the oesophagus ruptures due to repeated episodes of vomiting. This rupture is typically located on the left side of the oesophagus and can cause sudden and severe chest pain. Patients may also experience subcutaneous emphysema, which is the presence of air under the skin of the chest wall.

      To diagnose Boerhaave’s syndrome, a CT contrast swallow is typically performed. Treatment involves thoracotomy and lavage, with primary repair being feasible if surgery is performed within 12 hours of onset. If surgery is delayed beyond 12 hours, a T tube may be inserted to create a controlled fistula between the oesophagus and skin. However, delays beyond 24 hours are associated with a very high mortality rate.

      Complications of Boerhaave’s syndrome can include severe sepsis, which occurs as a result of mediastinitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 27 - A 7-year-old boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his worried parents,...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought into the Emergency Department by his worried parents, who have noticed he is covered in a rash and has developed numerous bruises on his legs. This has come on suddenly and he has been well, apart from a ‘cold’ that he got over around 2 weeks previously. He has no past medical history of note, apart from undergoing an uncomplicated tonsillectomy aged 5 years following recurrent tonsillitis. There is no family history of any bleeding disorders. There is no history of fever within the last 24 hours.
      On examination, vital signs are normal. There is a purpuric rash to all four limbs and his trunk. A few red spots are noted on the oral mucosa. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable, without lymphadenopathy and no hepatosplenomegaly. Fundi are normal.
      A full blood count and urine dipstick are performed and yield the following results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 132 g/l 115–140 g/l
      White cell count 4.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 25 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Blood film thrombocytopenia
      Urine dipstick no abnormality detected
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

      Explanation:

      Pediatric Hematologic Conditions: ITP, AML, NAI, HSP, and SLE

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is an autoimmune condition that causes thrombocytopenia and presents with a red-purple purpuric rash. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) presents with bone marrow failure, resulting in anemia and thrombocytopenia. Non-accidental injury (NAI) is unlikely in cases of thrombocytopenia, as blood tests are typically normal. Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP) is an IgA-mediated vasculitis that primarily affects children and presents with a petechial purpuric rash, arthralgia, and haematuria. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects multiple organs and presents with a malar rash, proteinuria, thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, fever, seizures, and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 28 - An 80-year-old man comes to the doctor with complaints of widespread aches, bone...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the doctor with complaints of widespread aches, bone pains, headaches, and nerve entrapment syndromes that have been bothering him for several years. His blood work reveals an elevated serum alkaline phosphatase, and his urine test shows an increased urinary hydroxyproline. The X-ray of his skull displays a mix of lysis and sclerosis with thickened trabeculae. What medication would be appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonates to inhibit osteoclastic activity

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Paget’s Disease: Oral Bisphosphonates and More

      Paget’s disease is a condition characterized by abnormal bone remodeling, which can lead to a range of symptoms including bone pain, fractures, and osteoarthritis. Diagnosis is typically made through radiograph findings and laboratory tests. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of symptoms, with physiotherapy and NSAIDs being effective for mild cases. However, for more severe cases, oral bisphosphonates and calcitonin may be necessary to inhibit osteoclastic activity. Chelation therapy, antidepressant medication, and chemotherapy for osteosarcoma are not indicated for Paget’s disease. Operative therapy may be necessary for patients with degenerative joint disease and pathological fractures, but should be preceded by treatment with oral bisphosphonates or calcitonin to reduce bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 29 - A 38-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has troublesome...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has troublesome diarrhoea. She reports that she has had diarrhoea daily and it has a strong, malodorous smell. The unintentional weight loss is 7 kg over the last year and she has had a general decrease in energy.
      Which preparation would be most suitable to decrease her diarrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatin

      Explanation:

      Common Gastrointestinal Medications and Their Uses

      Pancreatin is a mixture of digestive enzymes that aid in the digestion of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. It is used in conditions where there is a lack of pancreatic enzyme production, such as cystic fibrosis and chronic pancreatitis. Pancreatin should be taken with meals and may cause side-effects such as nausea and hypersensitivity.

      Co-phenotrope is a combination drug that controls the consistency of faeces following ileostomy or colostomy formation and in acute diarrhoea. It is composed of diphenoxylate and atropine and may cause side-effects such as abdominal pain and lethargy.

      Cholestyramine binds bile in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing its reabsorption. It is used in conditions such as hypercholesterolaemia and primary biliary cholangitis. Side-effects may include constipation and nausea.

      Loperamide is an antimotility agent used in acute diarrhoea. It may cause side-effects such as constipation and nausea.

      Psyllium, also known as ispaghula, is a bulk-forming laxative that aids in normal bowel elimination. It is mainly used as a laxative but may also be used to treat mild diarrhoea.

      Understanding Common Gastrointestinal Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 30 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter after...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his daughter after being found collapsed at home by his caregiver. He is complaining of a headache and appears confused. The patient has a history of an irregular heartbeat and takes digoxin and warfarin. On examination, there is no evidence of trauma or injury. The patient is confused with a Mini Mental score of 24/30 and is slightly drowsy but can be easily awakened. He has mild weakness in his left arm and leg, and the left plantar response is extensor. Urgent blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 111 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), an INR of 5.7 (usual range for this patient: 2-3), and a urea level of 9.6 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l). An urgent CT scan is ordered. What is the most likely finding on the CT scan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right sided acute subdural haematoma

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Intracranial Bleeding and Their Causes

      Intracranial bleeding can occur in various forms, each with its own causes and symptoms. Here are some of the different types of intracranial bleeding and their associated factors:

      1. Right Sided Acute Subdural Haematoma
      This type of bleeding can occur in elderly patients who are on anticoagulation therapy, especially if their INR levels are higher than the therapeutic limits. The symptoms include fluctuating confusion and conscious level, and a history of trauma is not always necessary.

      2. Intraparenchymal Haematoma in the Right Temporal Lobe with Mass Effect
      This type of bleeding is usually caused by trauma, hypertension, or an underlying neoplastic lesion. It is less common than subdural haematoma.

      3. Right Sided Extradural Haematoma
      Extradural haematoma is associated with significant head trauma.

      4. Right Sided Chronic Subdural Haematoma
      Chronic subdural haematoma has a longer, insidious course and is often accompanied by headache, impaired conscious level, and focal signs. Over-anticoagulation can increase the likelihood of this type of bleeding.

      5. Right Sided Subarachnoid Haemorrhage
      Subarachnoid haemorrhage is usually caused by significant trauma or a ruptured aneurysm.

      Overall, the elderly are more at risk of subdural haematomas due to factors such as thinner cortical bridging veins, increased subdural space, and increased probability of falls and use of medications that alter blood clotting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosurgery
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