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  • Question 1 - An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain that worsens with walking. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain that worsens with walking. Upon obtaining a thorough medical history and conducting a neurological and vascular assessment, the possibility of spinal stenosis is considered. Following the prescription of pain relief medication, what would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Lumbar spine x-ray

      Correct Answer: Refer for MRI

      Explanation:

      To confirm the diagnosis of spinal stenosis and rule out other potential causes like metastatic disease, an MRI is necessary for this presentation. The lower back pain that worsens with walking is a typical symptom of spinal stenosis.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      188.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 40-year-old pregnant woman is confused about why she has been advised to...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old pregnant woman is confused about why she has been advised to undergo an oral glucose tolerance test. She has had four previous pregnancies, and her babies' birth weights have ranged from 3.4-4.6kg. She has no history of diabetes, but both her parents have hypertension, and her grandfather has diabetes. She is of white British ethnicity and has a BMI of 29.6kg/m². What is the reason for recommending an oral glucose tolerance test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Previous macrosomia

      Explanation:

      It is recommended that pregnant women with a family history of diabetes undergo an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for gestational diabetes between 24 and 28 weeks of pregnancy.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      127.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old female soccer player presents to the clinic with intense left knee...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female soccer player presents to the clinic with intense left knee discomfort. She reports that she landed awkwardly on her knee while playing soccer and heard a 'snapping sound' followed by significant swelling around the left knee joint. During the physical examination, there was an increase in laxity on anterior drawer of the left tibia compared to the femur. What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Left knee magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is a knee ligament that is frequently injured, with non-contact injuries being the most common cause. However, a lateral blow to the knee or skiing can also cause ACL injuries. Symptoms of an ACL injury include a sudden popping sound, knee swelling, and a feeling of instability or that the knee may give way. To diagnose an ACL injury, doctors may perform an anterior draw test or a Lachman’s test. During the anterior draw test, the patient lies on their back with their knee at a 90-degree angle, and the examiner pulls the tibia forward to assess the amount of anterior motion in comparison to the femur. An intact ACL should prevent forward translational movement. Lachman’s test is a variant of the anterior draw test, but the knee is at a 20-30 degree angle, and it is considered more reliable than the anterior draw test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      117
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A one-month-old baby boy develops bluish skin and mucous membrane discoloration. The pregnancy...

    Incorrect

    • A one-month-old baby boy develops bluish skin and mucous membrane discoloration. The pregnancy and delivery were uncomplicated. The arterial oxygen saturation is 70%, and the arterial partial pressure of oxygen is 35 mmHg (normal range is 75-100 mmHg) after receiving 100% oxygen. There are no signs of respiratory distress or pulmonary edema upon examination. What is the probable reason for the infant's discoloration?

      Your Answer: Severe ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries (TGA)

      Explanation:

      Causes of Cyanotic Congenital Heart Disease in Newborns

      Cyanotic congenital heart disease is a condition that results in low oxygen levels in the blood, leading to a bluish discoloration of the skin. There are several causes of this condition in newborns, including transposition of the great arteries (TGA), tetralogy of Fallot with severe pulmonary stenosis, hypoplastic left heart syndrome, severe ventricular septal defect, and tricuspid atresia with atrial and ventricular septal defect.

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns. In this condition, the aorta and pulmonary trunk are switched, which is incompatible with life without an associated mixing defect such as atrial septal defect, ventricular septal defect, or patent ductus arteriosus.

      Tetralogy of Fallot with severe pulmonary stenosis is another cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns. This condition results in cyanosis early after birth due to a severely stenotic pulmonary outflow, which maximizes the right-to-left shunt through the ventricular septal defect.

      Hypoplastic left heart syndrome is a cyanotic congenital heart disease that is usually associated with pulmonary edema. This condition is caused by dysgenesis of the left ventricle, which leads to mixing of arterial and venous blood and subsequent cyanosis.

      Severe ventricular septal defect results in left-to-right shunting of blood, which typically does not result in cyanosis until progressive cardiac decompensation occurs. This makes it an unlikely cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns who present with cyanosis immediately after birth.

      Tricuspid atresia with atrial and ventricular septal defects is another cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease in newborns. This condition results in right-to-left blood shunting without pulmonary edema early after birth, but it is less common than other causes of cyanotic congenital heart disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 62-year-old woman came to the clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating and...

    Correct

    • A 62-year-old woman came to the clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating and diarrhea for the past week. She was especially bothered by frequent passing of gas. She had recently returned from a trip to India where she was involved in missionary work. There was no presence of blood in her stool. Additionally, she reported experiencing mild nausea. She had no history of abdominal surgery and was not taking any medications. What is the recommended course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole, 400 mg three times daily (tid) for 5 days

      Explanation:

      If a person has not followed proper food hygiene while traveling in the Indian subcontinent, they may develop infectious diseases. Symptoms such as bloating, belching, and flatulence suggest acute Giardia infection, which can lead to chronic infection and malabsorption if left untreated. The recommended treatment is metronidazole 400 mg three times daily for five days. Tinidazole 2 g single-dose therapy is also effective, but three days of treatment are excessive. Albendazole 400 mg is used to treat intestinal helminth infections. Oral rehydration therapy is suitable for viral or toxin-mediated diarrhea, but it is not the first choice. If left untreated, chronic infection may persist, so any suspected episode of giardiasis should be treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      108.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department from a party with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is brought into the Emergency Department from a party with sudden onset chest pain and extreme agitation. His blood pressure is 136/94 mmHg and his pulse rate is 49/min. A collateral history from his partner suggests the use of illicit drugs.

      On examination, he has brisk reflexes bilaterally.

      An ECG shows QT prolongation and ST elevation in V1-V4.

      What is the probable pathophysiology behind this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Platelet activation leading to thrombotic occlusion of the left anterior descending artery

      Correct Answer: Spasm of the coronary arteries

      Explanation:

      Myocardial ischaemia can be caused by cocaine-induced coronary artery spasm.

      Understanding Cocaine Toxicity

      Cocaine is a popular recreational stimulant derived from the coca plant. However, its widespread use has resulted in an increase in cocaine toxicity cases. The drug works by blocking the uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin, leading to a variety of adverse effects.

      Cardiovascular effects of cocaine include coronary artery spasm, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypertension, QRS widening, QT prolongation, and aortic dissection. Neurological effects may include seizures, mydriasis, hypertonia, and hyperreflexia. Psychiatric effects such as agitation, psychosis, and hallucinations may also occur. Other complications include ischaemic colitis, hyperthermia, metabolic acidosis, and rhabdomyolysis.

      Managing cocaine toxicity involves using benzodiazepines as a first-line treatment for most cocaine-related problems. For chest pain, benzodiazepines and glyceryl trinitrate may be used, and primary percutaneous coronary intervention may be necessary if myocardial infarction develops. Hypertension can be treated with benzodiazepines and sodium nitroprusside. The use of beta-blockers in cocaine-induced cardiovascular problems is controversial, with some experts warning against it due to the risk of unopposed alpha-mediated coronary vasospasm.

      In summary, cocaine toxicity can lead to a range of adverse effects, and managing it requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      188.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What vitamin is utilized to treat confusion in individuals with chronic alcoholism? ...

    Correct

    • What vitamin is utilized to treat confusion in individuals with chronic alcoholism?

      Your Answer: Thiamine

      Explanation:

      Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome

      Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a condition that arises due to insufficient intake of thiamine, as well as impaired absorption and storage. This condition is known to cause various symptoms, including dementia, nystagmus, paralysis of extra ocular muscles, ataxia, and retrograde amnesia, particularly in individuals who struggle with alcoholism.

      The inadequate intake of thiamine is often associated with chronic alcoholism, as alcohol can interfere with the body’s ability to absorb and store thiamine. This can lead to a deficiency in the vitamin, which can cause damage to the brain and nervous system. The symptoms of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome can be severe and can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life.

      It is essential to understand the causes and symptoms of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome to ensure that individuals who are at risk receive the necessary treatment and support. With proper care and management, it is possible to manage the symptoms of this condition and improve an individual’s overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 21-year-old male student from Egypt presents to the emergency department with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male student from Egypt presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of increasing lethargy and reduced exercise tolerance. He also reports dark urine. These symptoms started 2 days after he finished a course of antibiotics for a lower respiratory tract infection.

      On examination, you notice yellow sclerae bilaterally. His abdomen is soft and non-tender, respiratory and neurological examinations are unremarkable, cardiac examination shows sinus tachycardia of 110 beats/min.

      His blood test results are as follows:

      Hb 89 g/L (135-180)

      Platelets 450* 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 12 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Bilirubin 65 µmol/L (3 - 17)

      ALP 90 u/L (30 - 100)

      ALT 33 u/L (3 - 40)

      Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)

      Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)

      K+ 5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Creatinine 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      Reticulocytes 4 % (0.5 - 1.5)

      Blood film Heinz bodies

      Which antibiotic is responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in individuals from the Mediterranean and Africa. Ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in individuals with G6PD deficiency as it can cause haemolytic anaemia. This condition is characterized by the presence of Heinz bodies, which are small round inclusions composed of denatured haemoglobin, in red blood cells. Other antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, macrolides, and tetracyclines are safe to use in individuals with G6PD deficiency.

      Understanding Quinolones: Antibiotics that Inhibit DNA Synthesis

      Quinolones are a type of antibiotics that are known for their bactericidal properties. They work by inhibiting DNA synthesis, which makes them effective in treating bacterial infections. Some examples of quinolones include ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin.

      The mechanism of action of quinolones involves inhibiting topoisomerase II (DNA gyrase) and topoisomerase IV. However, bacteria can develop resistance to quinolones through mutations to DNA gyrase or by using efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of quinolones inside the cell.

      While quinolones are generally safe, they can have adverse effects. For instance, they can lower the seizure threshold in patients with epilepsy and cause tendon damage, including rupture, especially in patients taking steroids. Additionally, animal models have shown that quinolones can damage cartilage, which is why they are generally avoided in children. Quinolones can also lengthen the QT interval, which can be dangerous for patients with heart conditions.

      Quinolones should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and in patients with glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency. Overall, understanding the mechanism of action, mechanism of resistance, adverse effects, and contraindications of quinolones is important for their safe and effective use in treating bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      88
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old smoker presents with a four-day history of dyspnoea and cough productive...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old smoker presents with a four-day history of dyspnoea and cough productive of purulent sputum with some blood staining. She also reports experiencing pleuritic chest pain for one day.

      During examination, her temperature is 38°C, pulse is 120/min, blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate is 20/min. Upon auscultation, inspiratory crepitations are heard at the left mid zone and the percussion note is dull in this area.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism

      Correct Answer: Pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Productive Purulent Sputum

      Patients presenting with productive purulent sputum require a thorough differential diagnosis to ensure appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient is pyrexial and has signs of consolidation, indicating community-acquired pneumonia. However, it is important to consider other potential causes, such as lung cancer and pulmonary embolism.

      To exclude malignancy, features of cancer must be ruled out and the chest X-ray carefully examined. Additionally, the possibility of pulmonary embolism should be considered, and evidence of DVT and other risk factors should be assessed. If the patient fails to respond to antibiotic therapy or shows abnormal ECG results, pulmonary embolism may be suspected.

      Overall, a comprehensive evaluation is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat patients with productive purulent sputum. By considering all potential causes and ruling out malignancy and pulmonary embolism, appropriate treatment can be administered to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      37.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old patient, with advanced liver cirrhosis and a diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient, with advanced liver cirrhosis and a diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma, is experiencing intense back pain. Considering his liver dysfunction, which medication would be the most appropriate for pain relief?

      Your Answer: Tramadol

      Correct Answer: Fentanyl

      Explanation:

      Safe and Unsafe Pain Medications for Patients with Chronic Liver Disease

      Patients with chronic liver disease or cirrhosis require special consideration when it comes to pain management. Some pain medications can cause histamine release, haemodynamic disturbance, altered bioavailability, and accumulation of toxic metabolites and intermediates. Here are some examples:

      Safe Choices:
      – Fentanyl: causes less histamine release and haemodynamic disturbance than other opiates.
      – Acetaminophen: does not cause liver damage when used in recommended doses.

      Unsafe Choices:
      – Codeine: should be avoided due to the risk of altered bioavailability and elevated risk of accumulation of toxic metabolites and intermediates.
      – Pethidine: there is an increased risk of accumulation when opioids are used in patients with liver impairment.
      – Tramadol: has the same risks associated with pethidine and codeine in liver impairment.

      It is also important to note that non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and aspirin should be avoided in patients with chronic liver disease and cirrhosis. Always consult with a healthcare provider before taking any pain medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      36.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 46-year-old man with type 1 diabetes for 20 years presents with an...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old man with type 1 diabetes for 20 years presents with an ulcer on his right foot. The ulcer is located on the outer aspect of his right big toe and measures 2 cm in diameter. Despite having palpable peripheral pulses, he experiences peripheral neuropathy to the mid shins. The ulcer has an erythematosus margin and is covered by slough. What is the most probable infective organism?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Diabetic foot ulcers can be categorized into neuropathic and ischemic. Infections in diabetic feet are serious and can range from superficial to deep infections and gangrene. Diabetics are more susceptible to foot ulceration due to neuropathy, vascular insufficiency, and reduced neutrophil function. Local signs of wound infection include friable granulation tissue, yellow or grey moist tissue, purulent discharge, and an unpleasant odor. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is more common in previously hospitalized or antibiotic-treated patients. Deep swab and tissue samples should be sent for culture and broad-spectrum antibiotics started if infection is suspected. Urgent surgical intervention is indicated for a large area of infected sloughy tissue, localised fluctuance and expression of pus, crepitus in the soft tissues on radiological examination, and purplish discoloration of the skin. Antibiotic treatment should be tailored according to the clinical response, culture results, and sensitivity. If osteomyelitis is present, surgical resection should be considered, and antibiotics continued for four to six weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP to extract a common bile duct stone discovered during an episode of biliary colic.
      What is the primary medical condition for which ERCP would be the most beneficial diagnostic procedure?

      Your Answer: Pancreatic duct strictures

      Explanation:

      ERCP and its Indications for Diagnosis and Management of Pancreatic Duct Strictures

      Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used for imaging the biliary tree and pancreatic ducts. It involves the injection of contrast to outline the ducts, allowing for visual inspection of the ampullary region of the pancreas and outlining of the pancreatic duct. ERCP is helpful in identifying stones, strictures, and tumors that cause obstruction, as well as for therapeutic interventions such as stone extraction or stent insertion.

      ERCP is indicated for patients with evidence or suspicion of obstructive jaundice, biliary/pancreatic duct disease, pancreatic cancer, pancreatitis of unknown origin, pancreatic pseudocysts, sphincter of Oddi dysfunction, and for therapeutic drainage. However, ERCP is not indicated for the diagnosis or management of alcoholic cirrhosis or hereditary hemochromatosis. Diagnosis of alcoholic cirrhosis can generally be based on clinical and laboratory findings, while liver biopsy can be used to confirm diagnosis if the cause is unclear. Gilbert syndrome, a mild self-limiting condition that causes pre-hepatic jaundice, does not require ERCP for diagnosis. Although ERCP may be used in the therapeutic management of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma with obstructive jaundice, it is not useful in the diagnosis of the condition itself.

      In conclusion, ERCP is a valuable tool for the diagnosis and management of pancreatic duct strictures, but its indications should be carefully considered in each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A clinical trial compared the effectiveness of two anti-anginal medications in reducing stable...

    Correct

    • A clinical trial compared the effectiveness of two anti-anginal medications in reducing stable angina pain while walking on flat ground. The study found that 65% of patients who took drug A and 60% of patients who took drug B achieved the primary outcome.

      If a patient wants to avoid stable angina pain while walking on flat ground, how many more patients need to be treated with drug A compared to drug B?

      Your Answer: 20

      Explanation:

      Number Needed to Treat (NNT)

      When analyzing the results of a randomized controlled clinical trial, the number needed to treat (NNT) is a useful metric to consider. It is calculated by taking 100 divided by the absolute risk reduction (ARR). For example, if the ARR is 5%, then the NNT would be 20 (100/5).

      The NNT provides a more intuitive of the results compared to other metrics such as relative risk reduction (RRR) or ARR. It represents the number of patients who need to be treated in order to prevent one additional negative outcome. In the example above, for every 20 patients treated, one negative outcome would be prevented.

      Overall, the NNT is a valuable tool for clinicians and researchers to evaluate the effectiveness of treatments and interventions. It allows for a more practical interpretation of study results and can aid in making informed decisions about patient care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      138.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty swallowing, and unsteadiness of gait. Upon neurological assessment, he is found to have nystagmus with the quick phase towards the right side and ataxia of the right upper and lower limbs. He reports no hearing loss. There is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the face, and the left side of the limbs and trunk. The patient exhibits drooping of the right side of the palate upon eliciting the gag reflex, as well as right-sided ptosis and miosis.

      Which vessel is most likely to be affected by thromboembolism given these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: The right anterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Correct Answer: The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Arterial Territories and Associated Syndromes

      The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery is commonly associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which presents with symptoms such as palatal drooping, dysphagia, and dysphonia. The right anterior choroidal artery, which supplies various parts of the brain, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, loss of sensation, and homonymous hemianopia when occluded. Similarly, occlusion of the left anterior choroidal artery can result in similar symptoms. The right labyrinthine artery, a branch of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, can cause unilateral deafness and vertigo when ischemia occurs. Finally, the right anterior inferior cerebellar artery can lead to ipsilateral facial paresis, vertigo, nystagmus, and hearing loss, as well as facial hemianaesthesia due to trigeminal nerve nucleus involvement. Understanding these arterial territories and associated syndromes can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      152.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A newborn delivered 12 hours ago without any complications is showing signs of...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn delivered 12 hours ago without any complications is showing signs of jaundice. The mother gave birth at home and has been breastfeeding, but is concerned about the baby's skin color. The baby was born at 38 weeks gestation. What is the recommended course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for paediatric assessment

      Explanation:

      Since the infant is just 15 hours old, the jaundice is considered pathological. This implies that it is not related to breastfeeding, and the appropriate course of action would be to promptly seek a paediatric evaluation.

      Jaundice in newborns can occur within the first 24 hours of life and is always considered pathological. The causes of jaundice during this period include rhesus and ABO haemolytic diseases, hereditary spherocytosis, and glucose-6-phosphodehydrogenase deficiency. On the other hand, jaundice in neonates from 2-14 days is common and usually physiological, affecting up to 40% of babies. This type of jaundice is due to a combination of factors such as more red blood cells, fragile red blood cells, and less developed liver function. Breastfed babies are more likely to develop this type of jaundice.

      If jaundice persists after 14 days (21 days for premature babies), a prolonged jaundice screen is performed. This includes tests for conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin, direct antiglobulin test, thyroid function tests, full blood count and blood film, urine for MC&S and reducing sugars, and urea and electrolytes. Prolonged jaundice can be caused by biliary atresia, hypothyroidism, galactosaemia, urinary tract infection, breast milk jaundice, prematurity, and congenital infections such as CMV and toxoplasmosis. Breast milk jaundice is more common in breastfed babies and is thought to be due to high concentrations of beta-glucuronidase, which increases the intestinal absorption of unconjugated bilirubin. Prematurity also increases the risk of kernicterus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
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  • Question 16 - A 16-year-old girl visits her doctor with primary amenorrhoea and cyclical abdominal pain....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl visits her doctor with primary amenorrhoea and cyclical abdominal pain. The patient has normal secondary sexual characteristics on examination.
      What is the probable cause of her absence of menstrual periods?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Imperforate hymen

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing cyclical abdominal pain and amenorrhoea, indicating a pathological delay in menarche rather than a normal physiological delay. A specialist should assess the patient, as an imperforate hymen may be present, causing obstruction of menstrual blood outflow. An ultrasound scan can confirm the presence of haematocolpos, and initial treatment involves using oral contraceptives to suppress menses and analgesia to manage pain until surgical correction and drainage of collected blood occurs. Congenital uterine deformities are associated with pelvic pain, abnormal bleeding, recurrent miscarriages, and premature delivery. Hyperprolactinaemia and hypothyroidism are less likely causes, as the patient does not exhibit symptoms such as headaches, galactorrhoea, breast pain, fatigue, constipation, weight gain, cold intolerance, muscle weakness, depression, or altered mental function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 42-year-old obese female is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old obese female is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound, which was ordered due to recurrent urinary tract infections. Other than the UTIs, she is in good health. What is the best course of action for managing the gallstones?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Observation

      Explanation:

      Gallstones: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis involves abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm the presence of stones in the bile duct. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and early ERCP or surgical exploration for stones in the bile duct. Intraoperative cholangiography or laparoscopic ultrasound may be used to confirm anatomy or exclude CBD stones during surgery. ERCP carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      0
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after falling down the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after falling down the stairs at home. She complains of ‘rib pain’ and is moved to the resus room from triage, as she was unable to complete full sentences due to shortness of breath. Sats on room air were 92%. You are asked to see her urgently as the nursing staff are concerned about her deterioration.
      On examination, she appears distressed; blood pressure is 85/45, heart rate 115 bpm, respiratory rate 38 and sats 87% on air. Her left chest does not appear to be moving very well, and there are no audible breath sounds on the left on auscultation.
      What is the most appropriate next step in immediate management of this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Needle thoracocentesis of left chest

      Explanation:

      Needle Thoracocentesis for Tension Pneumothorax

      Explanation:
      In cases of traumatic chest pain, it is important to keep an open mind regarding other injuries. However, if a patient rapidly deteriorates with signs of shock, hypoxia, reduced chest expansion, and no breath sounds audible on the affected side of the chest, a tension pneumothorax should be suspected. This is an immediately life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention.

      There is no time to wait for confirmation on a chest X-ray or to set up a chest drain. Instead, needle thoracocentesis should be performed on the affected side of the chest. A large-bore cannula is inserted in the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line, on the affected side. This can provide rapid relief and should be followed up with the insertion of a chest drain.

      It is important to note that there is no role for respiratory consultation or nebulisers in this scenario. Rapid intervention is key to preventing cardiac arrest and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      0
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  • Question 19 - You are requested to attend to a 65-year-old male patient who has just...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to attend to a 65-year-old male patient who has just returned from surgery in the high dependency unit. He underwent a left hemicolectomy to remove colon cancer. Your task is to prescribe the appropriate intravenous fluids for him.

      What is the most effective way to determine the infusion rate for the fluids?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Measure his urine output and adjust accordingly

      Explanation:

      Importance of Adequate Hydration in Monitoring Organ Perfusion

      Hourly urine output is a reliable indicator of organ perfusion, which is directly linked to hydration levels. However, if there is a urological obstruction, this measure may not be accurate. While a trend in central venous pressure (CVP) can be helpful, a single reading is not a reliable indicator of hydration status. Late signs of hypovolemia include dry mucous membranes and hypotension. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain adequate hydration levels to ensure proper organ perfusion and prevent hypovolemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 20 - A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and swelling. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and swelling. She works as a teacher and is in a committed relationship. Upon examination, her abdomen is tender, particularly in the right upper quadrant, and there is mild jaundice. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and has no significant medical history or regular medication use. After three days of hospitalization, her abdomen became distended and fluid thrill was detected. Laboratory tests show:
      Parameter Result
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 150 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Bilirubin 51 μmol/ 2–17 μmol/
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 1050 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 998 IU/l 5−30 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 210 IU/l 36–76 IU/l
      Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 108 IU/l 8–35 IU/l
      Albumin 30 g/l 35–55 g/l
      An ultrasound revealed a slightly enlarged liver with a prominent caudate lobe.
      What is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Liver transplantation

      Explanation:

      Management of Budd-Chiari Syndrome: Liver Transplantation and Other Treatment Options

      Budd-Chiari syndrome (BCS) is a condition characterized by hepatic venous outflow obstruction, resulting in hepatic dysfunction, portal hypertension, and ascites. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound Doppler, and risk factors include the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill and genetic mutations such as factor V Leiden. Treatment options depend on the severity of the disease, with liver transplantation being necessary in cases of fulminant BCS. For less severe cases, the European Association for the Study of the Liver (EASL) recommends a stepwise approach, starting with anticoagulation and progressing to angioplasty, thrombolysis, and transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPSS) procedure if needed. Oral lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy, and anticoagulation is necessary both urgently and long-term. Therapeutic drainage of ascitic fluid and diuretic therapy with furosemide or spironolactone may also be used to manage ascites, but these treatments do not address the underlying cause of BCS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 75-year-old man, with metastatic prostate cancer presented with a week's history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man, with metastatic prostate cancer presented with a week's history of severe weakness, obtundation, and poor oral intake.

      One month ago, CT of the head revealed multiple intracerebral lesions. He underwent cranial irradiation and received dexamethasone, 12 mg orally daily.

      On examination he is unwell and disoriented. Temperature is 36.6°C, pulse is 100/min, respiratory rate is 28/min and blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg supine. Chest examination and heart examination are normal. There is lower abdominal tenderness, especially in the suprapubic area. Diffuse muscle weakness is noted. No lateralizing neurologic signs or abnormal reflexes are noted.

      Investigations reveal:

      White cell count 19.5 ×109/L (4-11)

      Plasma glucose 40 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      Urea 25 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Creatinine 160 µmol/L (60-110)

      Calcium 2.2 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      Sodium 130 mmol/L (137-144)

      Potassium 5.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (20-28)

      Urinalysis Glucose +++

      Protein ++

      Moderate bacteria seen

      Cultures of blood and urine are requested and he is treated with an intravenous sliding scale insulin.

      Which of the following IV fluids would you prescribe in conjunction with the insulin sliding scale for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal saline

      Explanation:

      Management of Excessive Hyperglycaemia in a Dehydrated Patient

      This patient is experiencing excessive hyperglycaemia, which is contributing to her symptoms and is related to hyperosmolarity. However, her normal bicarbonate levels suggest that she does not have Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State (HHS), but rather dehydration. Additionally, her marked hyperglycaemia is likely caused by the dexamethasone she is taking, which is causing insulin resistance.

      To manage her condition, the patient requires IV normal saline to address her dehydration, along with insulin to regulate her blood glucose levels. Once her blood glucose levels have decreased to 10 mmol/L, she can switch to IV dextrose. This approach will help to address her crystalloid requirements and manage her hyperglycaemia effectively.

      In summary, managing excessive hyperglycaemia in a dehydrated patient requires a careful approach that addresses both the underlying cause of the hyperglycaemia and the patient’s hydration status. By providing IV fluids and insulin as needed, healthcare providers can help to regulate the patient’s blood glucose levels and improve their overall condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Emergency Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 23-year-old female, gravidity 1 and parity 0 at 12 weeks' gestation is...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female, gravidity 1 and parity 0 at 12 weeks' gestation is in a car accident where her abdomen hits the dashboard. The mother's vital signs are stable, and there is no vaginal bleeding or uterine contractions. An ultrasound reveals an intact placenta. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood type and Rhesus testing

      Explanation:

      Rhesus testing should be promptly conducted for a pregnant woman who has experienced abdominal trauma, as those who are Rhesus-negative require anti-D administration to prevent Rhesus isoimmunization.

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 23 - Patients who have been taking amiodarone for a prolonged period of time may...

    Incorrect

    • Patients who have been taking amiodarone for a prolonged period of time may experience what issues related to thyroid function?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism + thyrotoxicosis

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, around 1 in 6 patients taking amiodarone develop thyroid dysfunction. This can manifest as either amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) or amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT).

      The pathophysiology of AIH is thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. This is an autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide. Despite this, amiodarone may be continued if desirable.

      On the other hand, AIT may be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 is caused by amiodarone-related destructive thyroiditis. In patients with AIT, amiodarone should be stopped if possible.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients taking amiodarone for any signs of thyroid dysfunction and adjust treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 24 - A 58-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatric ward by her family due...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman is brought to the psychiatric ward by her family due to concerns about her behavior. During your conversation with her, you observe that she speaks rapidly and does not allow you to interrupt her. She frequently changes the subject, but you can discern connections between them. What psychiatric disorder is most commonly associated with these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      Mania is often characterized by flight of ideas, which is when a person speaks rapidly and jumps between different topics. This is a common symptom of bipolar disorder. It is important to differentiate flight of ideas from Knight’s move thinking, which is associated with schizophrenia. In flight of ideas, there are identifiable connections between the topics that the person jumps between, while in Knight’s move thinking, there are no apparent connections between the topics. This is referred to as loosening of association.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man presents to the rheumatologist with persistent pain, swelling, and soreness...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the rheumatologist with persistent pain, swelling, and soreness in his right knee, lower back, and eyes. He reports feeling generally well and is currently taking ciprofloxacin for a UTI. He was treated for Chlamydia and gonococcus co-infection four weeks ago. Blood tests reveal Hb levels of 132 (115 - 160), WBC count of 10.4 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), and CRP levels of 55 mg/L (< 5). On examination, the right knee and ankle are swollen and tender. What auto-antibody is typically associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HLA-B27

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient’s presentation is reactive arthritis, which is associated with HLA-B27. This condition is characterized by arthritis, urethritis, and conjunctivitis. The patient’s acute onset arthritis and suspected UTI that has not resolved after three days of treatment suggest the presence of urethritis. Additionally, the patient’s history of a Chlamydia infection is a common trigger for reactive arthritis.

      It is important to note that HLA-B51 is associated with Behcet’s disease, which presents with ulcers of the genitals and oral mucosa, skin lesions, and inflammation of parts of the eye. HLA-DQ2 is associated with Coeliac disease, which causes symptoms of malabsorption. HLA-DR3 is associated with Addison’s disease, systemic lupus erythematosus, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Grave’s disease, and myasthenia gravis, none of which would explain the patient’s presentation.

      HLA Associations and Disease

      HLA antigens are proteins that are encoded by genes on chromosome 6. There are two classes of HLA antigens: class I (HLA-A, B, and C) and class II (HLA-DP, DQ, and DR). Diseases can be strongly associated with certain HLA antigens.

      For example, HLA-A3 is strongly associated with haemochromatosis, while HLA-B51 is associated with Behcet’s disease. HLA-B27 is associated with several conditions, including ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and acute anterior uveitis. HLA-DQ2/DQ8 is associated with coeliac disease, and HLA-DR2 is associated with narcolepsy and Goodpasture’s syndrome. HLA-DR3 is associated with dermatitis herpetiformis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and primary biliary cirrhosis. Finally, HLA-DR4 is associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus and rheumatoid arthritis.

      It is important to note that some diseases may be associated with multiple HLA antigens, and that the strength of the association can vary. Understanding these associations can help with diagnosis and treatment of these diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 26 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to see GP by his mom with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to see GP by his mom with a seal-like barking cough. His mom is worried as he seems to be struggling with his breathing, especially at night.

      On examination, he is alert and engaging, although has mild sternal indrawing and appears tired. His observations are as follows:

      Heart rate: 90 bpm
      Blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on air
      Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min
      Temperature: 37.2 C°

      You suspect croup. What statement best fits this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is more common in autumn

      Explanation:

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 27 - A 26-year-old woman weighing 70kg is brought to the emergency department with burns...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman weighing 70kg is brought to the emergency department with burns covering 25% of her body surface area.

      Using the Parkland formula, calculate the volume of Hartmann's solution that is recommended to be given in the first 8 hours after the burn.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3.5L

      Explanation:

      To calculate the amount of Hartmann’s solution to be administered in the first 24 hours after a burn, multiply the body surface area by the weight in kilograms. For example, if the body surface area is 4 and the weight is 70 kg, the calculation would be 4 x 25 x 70 = 7000 ml. Half of this amount should be given within the first 8 hours after the burn, which equals 3.5 liters.

      Fluid Resuscitation for Burns

      Fluid resuscitation is necessary for patients with burns that cover more than 15% of their total body area (10% for children). The primary goal of resuscitation is to prevent the burn from deepening. Most fluid is lost within the first 24 hours after injury, and during the first 8-12 hours, fluid shifts from the intravascular to the interstitial fluid compartments, which can compromise circulatory volume. However, fluid resuscitation causes more fluid to enter the interstitial compartment, especially colloid, which should be avoided in the first 8-24 hours. Protein loss also occurs.

      The Parkland formula is used to calculate the total fluid requirement in 24 hours, which is given as 4 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)). Fifty percent of the total fluid requirement is given in the first 8 hours, and the remaining 50% is given in the next 16 hours. The resuscitation endpoint is a urine output of 0.5-1.0 ml/kg/hour in adults, and the rate of fluid is increased to achieve this.

      It is important to note that the starting point of resuscitation is the time of injury, and fluids already given should be deducted. After 24 hours, colloid infusion is begun at a rate of 0.5 ml x (total burn surface area (%)) x (body weight (kg)), and maintenance crystalloid (usually dextrose-saline) is continued at a rate of 1.5 ml x (burn area) x (body weight). Colloids used include albumin and FFP, and antioxidants such as vitamin C can be used to minimize oxidant-mediated contributions to the inflammatory cascade in burns. High tension electrical injuries and inhalation injuries require more fluid, and monitoring of packed cell volume, plasma sodium, base excess, and lactate is essential.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 28 - A 52-year-old man is shot in the abdomen and suffers a significant intra-abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man is shot in the abdomen and suffers a significant intra-abdominal injury. He undergoes a laparotomy, bowel resection, and end colostomy, and requires a 6-unit blood transfusion due to an associated vascular injury. After a prolonged recovery, he is paralyzed and ventilated for 2 weeks in the intensive care unit. He is given total parenteral nutrition and eventually weaned off the ventilator and transferred to the ward. During a routine blood test, the following results are observed:

      Full blood count
      Hb 11.3 g/dl
      Platelets 267 x 109/l
      WBC 10.1 x109/l

      Urea and electrolytes
      Na+ 131 mmol/l
      K+ 4.6 mmol/l
      Urea 2.3 mmol/l
      Creatinine 78 µmol/l

      Liver function tests
      Bilirubin 25 µmol/l
      ALP 445 u/l
      ALT 89 u/l
      γGT 103 u/l

      What is the most probable underlying cause for the noted abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Total parenteral nutrition

      Explanation:

      Liver function tests are often affected by TPN, which can cause cholestasis but it is unlikely to lead to the formation of gallstones as seen in the image. While blood transfusion reactions may cause hepatitis, they usually present earlier and with changes in haemoglobin, which is rare in modern times.

      Understanding Total Parenteral Nutrition

      Total parenteral nutrition is a commonly used method of providing nutrition to surgical patients who are nutritionally compromised. The bags used in this method contain a combination of glucose, lipids, and essential electrolytes, with the exact composition being determined by the patient’s nutritional requirements. While it is possible to infuse this nutrition peripherally, doing so may result in thrombophlebitis. As such, longer-term infusions should be administered into a central vein, preferably via a PICC line.

      Complications associated with total parenteral nutrition are related to sepsis, refeeding syndromes, and hepatic dysfunction. It is important to monitor patients closely for any signs of these complications and adjust the nutrition accordingly. By understanding the basics of total parenteral nutrition, healthcare professionals can provide optimal care to their patients and ensure their nutritional needs are being met.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 29 - You are on an anaesthetic attachment in Day Surgery and are reviewing patients...

    Incorrect

    • You are on an anaesthetic attachment in Day Surgery and are reviewing patients preoperatively. You review a 25-year-old man who is having an elective knee arthroscopy. He has not had a general anaesthetic before, but he tells you that his father had problems following suxamethonium anaesthetic, and he had to have a muscle sample sent off to find out the cause, which came back positive. His father is still alive.
      Which of these is his father’s most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Explanation:

      Common Complications of Suxamethonium Administration

      Suxamethonium is a commonly used muscle relaxant during anesthesia. However, it can lead to several complications, including malignant hyperthermia, raised intraocular pressure, anaphylaxis, prolonged paralysis, and hyperkalemia.

      Malignant hyperthermia is a genetic myopathy that causes a hypermetabolic state, leading to circulatory collapse and death. Treatment involves recognition, removal of stimuli, continuation of anesthesia with intravenous agents, cooling, and administration of dantrolene.

      Raised intraocular pressure and intracranial pressure can occur after suxamethonium administration, but this is only relevant to patients with ocular and intracranial diseases.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur after suxamethonium administration. Diagnosis is based on signs and symptoms.

      Prolonged paralysis can occur in patients with abnormal pseudocholinesterase level or function, which is generally due to inherited genetic alleles. Diagnosis is by blood test.

      Hyperkalemia can occur after suxamethonium administration, especially in patients with severe muscle damage or recent burns. Diagnosis does not require a muscle biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old homeless man who also abuses alcohol but has been abstinent for...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old homeless man who also abuses alcohol but has been abstinent for 3 years is seeking advice from relief medical staff at a homeless shelter regarding his sore gums. He has noticed coiled body hairs with small bruises at their points of insertion. Additionally, he has observed that when he cuts himself or experiences trauma, the wounds take longer to heal than expected. What is the most probable issue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency

      Explanation:

      Scurvy: A Clinical Syndrome Caused by Vitamin C Deficiency

      Scurvy is a clinical syndrome that results from a lack of vitamin C in the body. This condition is primarily caused by impaired collagen synthesis, which leads to disordered connective tissue. The symptoms of scurvy can occur as early as three months after a deficient intake of vitamin C and include ecchymoses, bleeding gums, petechiae, and impaired wound healing.

      Scurvy is most commonly found in severely malnourished individuals, drug and alcohol abusers, or those living in poverty. It is important to note that vitamin C is essential for the body’s overall health and well-being. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain a balanced and nutritious diet to prevent the onset of scurvy and other related health conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (1/2) 50%
Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/3) 0%
Emergency Medicine (1/1) 100%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
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