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Question 1
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A couple in their mid-40s with no known genetic disorders in their family have a baby boy who exhibits asymmetrical growth. The child's head and torso are proportionate, but his arms and legs are significantly shorter than average, and his fingers are all the same length. What is the mode of inheritance for this condition?
Your Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Achondroplasia: A Congenital Condition Causing Impaired Bone Growth
Achondroplasia is a congenital condition that affects bone growth, resulting in short arms and legs, fingers and toes of equal length, increased lumbar lordosis, and normal intellect and life expectancy. Although it is an autosomal dominant condition, most cases occur without a family history. The underlying defect is a mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3), which is responsible for membranous bone growth. However, 80% of all cases are sporadic mutations, with the most common cause being a de novo mutation. The risk of a de novo mutation is increased due to the age of the father.
Increased paternal age promotes single gene mutations, while increased maternal age promotes non-dysjunction and chromosomal abnormalities. Despite the impaired bone growth, affected patients have normal-sized heads and trunks due to normal membranous bone growth. Achondroplasia is a congenital condition that can be diagnosed through genetic testing and managed through various treatments, including limb-lengthening surgeries and physical therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for a screening.
What is the purpose of his visit and what complication is he being screened for?Your Answer: Keratitis
Correct Answer: Chronic anterior uveitis
Explanation:Complications of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
Patients with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) are regularly screened for chronic anterior uveitis, which can lead to scarring and blindness if left untreated. However, this condition may be asymptomatic in some cases, making annual screening using a slit-lamp essential.
One of the long-term complications of JIA is the development of flexion contractures of joints due to persistent joint inflammation. This occurs because pain is partly related to increased intra-articular pressure, which is at its lowest when joints are held at 30-50 degrees.
While corticosteroids may be used to manage joint inflammation, they are used sparingly in children due to the risk of cataract development. Conjunctivitis is not typically associated with JIA, but reactive arthritis. Keratitis, on the other hand, tends to be an infective process caused by bacteria or viruses.
Lastly, pterygium is an overgrowth of the conjunctiva towards the iris and is often seen in individuals exposed to windy or dusty conditions, such as surfers.
In summary, JIA can lead to various complications, including chronic anterior uveitis, joint contractures, and cataract development. Regular screening and management are crucial to prevent long-term damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
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A 27-year-old male presents with lower back pain and painful feet that feel like walking on pebbles. He has been generally healthy, but he recently returned from a trip to Corfu where he had a diarrheal illness. He admits to infrequently taking ecstasy but takes no other medication. On examination, he has limited movement and pain in the sacroiliac joints and soreness in the soles of his feet upon deep palpation. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:After a diarrhoeal illness, the patient may be at risk of developing reactive arthritis, which is a possible diagnosis for both sacroiliitis and plantar fasciitis. However, it is less likely to be related to inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) if there is only one acute episode of diarrhoea.
Sacroiliitis is a condition that affects the sacroiliac joint, which is located at the base of the spine where it connects to the pelvis. It causes inflammation and pain in the lower back, buttocks, and legs. Plantar fasciitis, on the other hand, is a condition that affects the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. It causes pain and stiffness in the heel and arch of the foot.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
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A 50-year old heavy drinker visits his GP complaining of swelling and pain in his left knee. He reports experiencing a similar excruciating pain in his right big toe two years ago, for which he was prescribed allopurinol. What is the patient's diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gout
Explanation:Common Bone and Joint Conditions
Gout is a condition where uric acid builds up in a joint, causing sudden and intense pain, swelling, and redness. It often affects the big toe and can be triggered by alcohol. Men are more likely to develop gout, and it can also affect other joints such as the ankle, knee, and elbow. The presence of uric acid crystals, known as tophi, can confirm the diagnosis. Allopurinol can be used to prevent future attacks.
Osgood-Schlatter disease is caused by tension on the patella tendon, leading to a fracture and symptoms such as pain and swelling over the tibial tubercle.
Osteoporosis is a condition where the bone mineral density is reduced, increasing the risk of fractures, especially in the spine, hip, and wrist. It is most common in women after menopause due to a decrease in estrogen levels.
Osteosarcoma is a type of bone cancer that can be associated with Paget’s disease of bone. It causes pain, especially at night, and increases the risk of fractures.
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder that commonly affects the small joints in the hands. Inflammatory markers will be elevated, and some cases may have a positive rheumatoid factor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient presents with complaints of recurrent bloody diarrhoea and symptoms of iritis. On examination, there is a painful nodular erythematous eruption on the shin and anal tags are observed. What diagnostic test would you recommend to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: HLA B-27
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Inflammatory Bowel Disease with Crohn’s Disease Suggestion
The patient’s symptoms and physical examination suggest inflammatory bowel disease, with anal skin tags indicating a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease. Other symptoms consistent with this diagnosis include iritis and a skin rash that may be erythema nodosum. To confirm the diagnosis, a colonoscopy with biopsies would be the initial investigation. While serum ACE levels can aid in diagnosis, they are often elevated in conditions other than sarcoidosis.
Overall, the patient’s symptoms and physical examination point towards inflammatory bowel disease, with Crohn’s disease as a possible subtype. Further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
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A 57-year-old female patient complains of morning stiffness, persistent low grade fever, and symmetrical joint pain for several months. During examination, you observe that the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints are affected with four nodules on the digits of her hand. The inflamed joints lead you to suspect a polyarthropathy disease.
What is the most specific serological marker for rheumatoid arthritis?Your Answer: Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies
Explanation:Serological Markers for Autoimmune Diseases
Rheumatoid factor is present in a majority of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, but it is not specific to the disease. On the other hand, anti-CCP antibodies are highly specific for rheumatoid arthritis, with a specificity of 98%. Anti-Jo antibodies are found in patients with dermatomyositis, while anti-Ro antibodies are associated with Sjögren’s syndrome. Lastly, anti-mitochondrial antibodies are found in patients with primary biliary cirrhosis. These serological markers can aid in the diagnosis and management of autoimmune diseases. It is important to note that while these markers can be helpful, they should not be used in isolation and should always be interpreted in the context of the patient’s clinical presentation and other diagnostic tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
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A 6-year-old boy presents to the clinic after experiencing his seventh fracture. Upon examination, his x-rays reveal dense bones with multiple cortical layers. He also has a mild normocytic anemia and low platelets, but his sclera appear white. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Osteopetrosis
Explanation:Osteopetrosis and its Distinction from Other Bone Disorders
Osteopetrosis is a congenital condition that affects bone reabsorption, leading to the appearance of a ‘bone within a bone’ from multiple cortical layers. Despite the increased density, bones become brittle and prone to fracture, and there is no room for the marrow to grow, causing bone marrow failure and peripheral cytopenias. Additionally, bones expand and frequently cause neural compression symptoms.
When diagnosing osteopetrosis, it is important to exclude non-accidental injury (NAI) due to the repeated bone injury, but NAI alone cannot account for the x-ray findings or the blood counts. However, a diagnosis of osteopetrosis does not rule out the possibility of NAI co-existing with the condition.
Other bone disorders, such as acute lymphocytic leukemia and aplastic anemia, may present with peripheral cytopenias but not the x-ray appearances or multiple fractures. On the other hand, osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) is a congenital condition of brittle bones susceptible to multiple fractures due to a mutation in type I collagen. The most common form, type I OI, is inherited as an autosomal dominant condition and is associated with blue sclerae and neural deafness from bone overgrowth. X-rays show reduced bone density with cortical disorganization.
In summary, the distinct features of osteopetrosis and its differentiation from other bone disorders is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl visits a rheumatologist with complaints of occasional joint pain. Despite the absence of clinical synovitis, she has a Beighton score of 9 and is in good health. What is the most suitable course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Ibuprofen as required
Correct Answer: Physiotherapy
Explanation:Joint Pain in Children and Hypermobility Syndrome
Joint pain in children can have various causes, including hypermobility syndrome. This condition is characterized by increased flexibility, as opposed to hereditary connective tissue disorders. The Beighton score is a method used to assess hypermobility, which involves ten tests. A score of 9 indicates high flexibility and suggests susceptibility to hypermobility syndrome. Although there is no intrinsic joint disease or clinical synovitis, joint pain can be experienced. Physiotherapy can help strengthen the soft tissues supporting joints and reduce pain.
In mild juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA), which may present similarly to hypermobility syndrome, ibuprofen is the first line of management. However, if joints show clinical synovitis, methotrexate may be considered for severe JIA. It is important to reassure the child and parents that the pain is not sinister, but it is not the optimal management for this condition. Genetic conditions causing hypermobility, such as Ehlers-Danlos and Marfan syndrome, may require referral for genetic counseling, but there are no other features of these syndromes present in hypermobility syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
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A 70-year-old male complains of increasing pain and swelling in his left knee over the past three days. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes bendroflumethiazide and lisinopril. Upon examination, his left knee is swollen, red, and tender, and he experiences limited mobility due to the pain. What is the most suitable test to perform for this patient?
Your Answer: Joint aspiration
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Monoarthropathy
Monoarthropathy can have various causes, and one of the possibilities is septic arthritis. To rule out this condition, joint aspiration is necessary, and the sample should be sent for microscopy and culture to detect the presence of crystals and organisms. Polymorphs and organisms are expected in septic arthritis, while negatively birefringent crystals are typical for gout, and positively birefringent crystals are seen in pseudogout. FBC and ESR are not useful for diagnosis, and although an x-ray may show osteoarthritis changes, it is not the primary investigation.
Bendroflumethiazide can increase urate levels and trigger acute gout, but urate concentrations may remain normal during an acute gout attack. Therefore, it is essential to consider all possible causes of monoarthropathy and perform the appropriate tests to make an accurate diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
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A 12-year-old boy comes to his GP complaining of a limp. He has a swollen right knee with clinical synovitis but no effusion. He is growing normally and has been generally healthy, except for experiencing diarrhoea and vomiting last week. There are no signs of joint issues in his other joints.
What condition is most likely causing his symptoms?Your Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive Arthritis in Children
Reactive arthritis is the most common form of arthritis in children and is often associated with recent illness. In this case, the child presents with large-joint oligoarthritis following gastroenteritis. While it may also be associated with genitourinary infection, treating the infection does not alter the course of the joint disease. The child should be given analgesia and observed for arthritis elsewhere.
Although this may be a new presentation of enteropathic arthritis or JIA, the child’s lack of chronic disease symptoms reduces the likelihood of these diagnoses. Gout is extremely rare in children, except for in rare metabolic conditions. Septic arthritis must also be considered, but the child is likely to be systemically unwell with features of infection.
In summary, reactive arthritis is the most likely diagnosis in this case of paediatric arthritis following recent illness. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and consider other potential diagnoses if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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