00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a 1 week...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a 1 week history of fever, lethargy, and irritability. The symptoms appeared suddenly and have not improved despite the GP's recommendation of antipyretics. The child has also experienced a loss of appetite and diarrhea during this time. This morning, a red rash appeared all over her body.

      Upon examination, the child appears toxic, has a temperature of 39.2ºC, and is tachycardic. The doctor observes a widespread maculopapular rash, left-sided cervical lymph node enlargement, and a swollen, erythematosus tongue.

      What is the most important investigation for this child, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      To detect the development of coronary artery aneurysms, it is crucial to conduct an echocardiogram when dealing with Kawasaki disease. This is because such an examination can identify any coronary artery dilation or aneurysm formation, which is the primary cause of death associated with this condition. While an ECG is also necessary to evaluate any conduction abnormalities that may arise due to carditis, it is not as fatal as coronary artery complications. On the other hand, a chest x-ray or lumbar puncture is unnecessary since Kawasaki disease typically does not affect the lungs or central nervous system. Similarly, an abdominal ultrasound scan is not required unless liver function tests suggest gallbladder distension.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      126.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old patient presented with red rashes on their feet. Upon examination, they...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient presented with red rashes on their feet. Upon examination, they were found to be pale with purpuric spots on their lower legs. Their temperature was 38.3 °C and they also complained of nausea. On the second day of admission, their fever increased and they became disoriented. New bleeding spots started appearing on their face. Blood reports revealed low hemoglobin, high white cell count, low platelets, and high creatinine levels. A peripheral blood smear showed helmet cells and anisocytosis. The CSF study was normal. What test should be done next for this patient?

      Your Answer: Bone marrow study

      Correct Answer: Urinary β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)

      Explanation:

      The patient is presenting with thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), which is characterized by low platelet count due to clotting and platelet sequestration in small vessels. TTP is associated with haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenic purpura, fever, and neurological and renal abnormalities. The patient’s risk factors for TTP include being female, obese, pregnant, and of Afro-Caribbean origin. To determine the appropriate management, a urinary β-hCG test should be performed to establish pregnancy status. The first-line treatment for TTP is plasma exchange with fresh frozen plasma. Blood cultures should also be performed to check for underlying septicaemia. Antiplatelet antibody titres can be raised in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), but ITP does not cause renal failure. A bone marrow study is appropriate to rule out leukaemia. Illicit drug use should also be considered as a cause of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      413.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old man comes to his primary care clinic complaining of an itchy...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man comes to his primary care clinic complaining of an itchy rash on his arm. During the examination, you observe polygonal, violaceous papules on the inner part of his forearm. Some of these papules have merged to form plaques. He has no history of skin disorders and is not presently taking any medications.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lichen planus

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Disorders: Characteristics and Differences

      Lichen planus is a skin disorder that is believed to be autoimmune in nature. It is characterized by a purple, polygonal, and papular rash that is often accompanied by itching. This condition is rare in both young and elderly populations and typically appears acutely on the flexor aspect of the wrists, forearms, and legs.

      Atopic dermatitis, also known as eczema, is a condition that usually presents as a red, itchy rash on the flexural areas of joints such as the elbows and knees. It is most commonly seen in children under the age of 5. As the patient in question has no history of skin disease, it is unlikely that he has eczema.

      Scabies is a contagious skin condition that is most commonly seen in children, young adults, and older adults in care homes. It causes widespread itching and linear burrows on the sides of fingers, interdigital webs, and the flexor aspect of the wrists.

      Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin disease that typically presents with itchy white spots. It is most commonly seen on the vulva in elderly women or on the penis in men.

      Plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that presents as itchy white or red plaques on the extensor surfaces of joints such as the elbows.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      58.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 10-day-old preterm neonate is having difficulty tolerating cow's milk feeds administered by...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-day-old preterm neonate is having difficulty tolerating cow's milk feeds administered by the nurses in the special care baby unit. During the most recent feed, the neonate vomited and the nurse observed bile in the vomit. Although the stools are of normal consistency, the last stool contained fresh red blood. Upon examination, the neonate appears to be well hydrated, but the abdomen is significantly distended. An urgent abdominal x-ray is ordered, which reveals distended loops of bowel with thickening of the bowel wall. What is the next course of action in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Continue oral feeds, switching to breast milk

      Correct Answer: Commence broad spectrum antibiotics

      Explanation:

      The infant in this scenario is likely suffering from bacterial necrotising enterocolitis, given their prematurity and symptoms. Immediate administration of broad spectrum antibiotics is necessary due to the severity of the condition. Therefore, the correct answer is option 2. While changing feeds may be helpful in preventing necrotising enterocolitis in bottle-fed infants, it is not useful in treating the condition once it has developed. While IV fluids are important for maintaining hydration, they are not as urgent as antibiotics in this case. Antenatal administration of erythromycin is intended to prevent necrotising enterocolitis, but it is not effective in treating the condition once it has developed.

      Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis

      Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.

      To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      133.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 44-year-old man is recovering on the ward several weeks after being treated...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man is recovering on the ward several weeks after being treated for acute pancreatitis caused by excessive alcohol consumption. Despite being clinically stable, he continues to experience pain in the epigastric region. Routine blood tests and an abdominal ultrasound scan are performed, revealing the following results:

      - Bilirubin: 28 µmol/l
      - Albumin: 38 g/l
      - ALT: 39 u/l
      - γGT: 68 u/l
      - CRP: 11.2 mg/l
      - Amylase: 541 u/l

      The abdominal ultrasound scan shows normal kidney and liver appearances, as well as a normal aortic diameter. However, a cystic lesion measuring 53 mm x 61 mm is present in the head of the pancreas. What is the most appropriate initial management strategy for this patient's pancreatic lesion?

      Your Answer: Endoscopic drainage

      Correct Answer: Conservative management

      Explanation:

      When a cystic lesion and elevated amylase levels are observed after pancreatitis, it is likely to be a pancreatic pseudocyst. In such cases, it is best to initially manage the condition conservatively, especially if the patient is stable and liver function is not significantly affected. Procedures such as radiological fine-needle aspiration should be avoided as they can increase the risk of infection and have a high morbidity and mortality rate. Active drainage is only necessary if there are signs of infection, mass effect on abdominal organs, or if the pseudocyst persists beyond 12 weeks. Even if the patient experiences symptoms, conservative management is often preferred as the risks of a procedure outweigh the benefits.

      Acute pancreatitis can lead to various complications, both locally and systemically. Local complications include peripancreatic fluid collections, which occur in about 25% of cases and may develop into pseudocysts or abscesses. Pseudocysts are walled by fibrous or granulation tissue and typically occur 4 weeks or more after an attack of acute pancreatitis. Pancreatic necrosis, which involves both the pancreatic parenchyma and surrounding fat, can also occur and is directly linked to the extent of necrosis. Pancreatic abscesses may result from infected pseudocysts and can be treated with drainage methods. Haemorrhage may also occur, particularly in cases of infected necrosis.

      Systemic complications of acute pancreatitis include acute respiratory distress syndrome, which has a high mortality rate of around 20%. Local complications such as peripancreatic fluid collections and pancreatic necrosis can also lead to systemic complications if left untreated. It is important to manage these complications appropriately, with conservative management being preferred for sterile necrosis and early necrosectomy being avoided unless necessary. Treatment options for local complications include endoscopic or surgical cystogastrostomy, aspiration, and drainage methods. Overall, prompt recognition and management of complications is crucial in improving outcomes for patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      181.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old man, diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC) 18 months ago, presents with...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man, diagnosed with ulcerative colitis (UC) 18 months ago, presents with 2-day history of progressively worsening abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea. He is currently passing motion 11 times per day.
      On examination, there is generalised abdominal tenderness and distension. He is pyrexial, with a temperature of 39 °C; his pulse is 124 bpm.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 90 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 15 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Erect chest X-ray Normal
      Plain abdominal X-ray 12-cm dilation of the transverse colon
      He also has a raised C-reactive protein (CRP).
      What would be the most appropriate initial management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) hydrocortisone, low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), IV fluids, reassess response after 72 hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Toxic Megacolon in Ulcerative Colitis: Medical and Surgical Options

      Toxic megacolon (TM) is a rare but life-threatening complication of ulcerative colitis (UC) characterized by severe colon dilation and systemic toxicity. The initial management of TM involves aggressive medical therapy with intravenous (IV) hydrocortisone, low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH), and IV fluids to restore hemodynamic stability. Oral mesalazine is indicated for mild to moderate UC or for maintenance of remission. If the patient fails to respond to medical management after 72 hours, urgent surgery, usually subtotal colectomy with end ileostomy, should be considered.

      Infliximab and vedolizumab are second-line management options for severe active UC in patients who fail to respond to intensive IV steroid treatment. However, their role in the setting of TM is unclear. LMWH is required for UC patients due to their high risk of venous thromboembolism.

      Prompt recognition and management of TM is crucial to prevent mortality. A multidisciplinary approach involving gastroenterologists, surgeons, and critical care specialists is recommended for optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      214.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 6-year-old girl comes to the GP with a pink spotted rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl comes to the GP with a pink spotted rash on her torso that has spread to all her limbs. Her mother reports that she had a high fever for three days before the rash appeared, and that she seemed to be improving before that. The girl is now without a fever.

      During the examination, the GP observes a maculopapular red rash on the girl's trunk and limbs. All other aspects of the examination are normal, and her vital signs are stable.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chicken pox

      Correct Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      Roseola infantum begins with a high fever that disappears before the rash appears. The rash starts suddenly after the temperature drops and usually starts on the trunk before spreading to the limbs. It is a non-itchy maculopapular rash.

      Measles rash occurs with other systemic symptoms and usually starts on the face before spreading to other parts of the body. The characteristic ‘koplik spots’ are a classic sign of this illness.

      Chickenpox starts as a red, itchy papular rash that becomes vesicular and can appear anywhere on the body.

      Erythema multiforme is not caused by a virus but is a hypersensitivity reaction to herpes 7 virus. The macules are typically larger than other rashes and can progress to plaque-like lesions.

      Hand, foot, and mouth disease is caused by the Coxsackie A6 virus and is characterized by painful vesicular lesions on the palms, soles, and buccal mucosa.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      205.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A preteen visits the sexual health clinic complaining of painful urination and penile...

    Incorrect

    • A preteen visits the sexual health clinic complaining of painful urination and penile discharge. He suspects he may have contracted a sexually transmitted infection. Upon further inquiry, you discover that he is just 10 years old, despite appearing older. When you ask about his sexual partner, he refuses to provide any additional details and insists that you keep this encounter confidential from his parents and others. What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Treat his infection and advise him that it's against the law for him to take part in sexual intercourse at his age

      Correct Answer: Explain why you are unable to keep it a secret and tell him you will have to inform social services and his parents

      Explanation:

      Referral to social services for investigation is necessary as this may be a case of sexual abuse, particularly since the child involved is under 13 years old and may not have been able to give consent. As per GMC guidelines, it is recommended to share information about such sexual activity involving children under 13.

      NICE Guidelines for Suspecting Child Maltreatment

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on when to suspect child maltreatment, which includes physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, neglect, and fabricated or induced illness. The guidelines provide a comprehensive list of features that should raise suspicion of abuse, with selected features highlighted for each type of abuse.

      For neglect, features such as severe and persistent infestations, failure to administer essential prescribed treatment, and inadequate provision of food and living environment that affects the child’s health should be considered as abuse. On the other hand, neglect should be suspected when parents persistently fail to obtain treatment for tooth decay, attend essential follow-up appointments, or engage with child health promotion.

      For sexual abuse, persistent or recurrent genital or anal symptoms associated with a behavioral or emotional change, sexualized behavior in a prepubertal child, and STI in a child younger than 12 years without evidence of vertical or blood transmission should be considered as abuse. Suspected sexual abuse should be reported when there is a gaping anus in a child during examination without a medical explanation, pregnancy in a young woman aged 13-15 years, or hepatitis B or anogenital warts in a child aged 13-15 years.

      For physical abuse, any serious or unusual injury with an absent or unsuitable explanation, bruises, lacerations, or burns in a non-mobile child, and one or more fractures with an unsuitable explanation, including fractures of different ages and X-ray evidence of occult fractures, should be considered as abuse. Physical abuse should be suspected when there is an oral injury in a child with an absent or suitable explanation, cold injuries or hypothermia in a child without a suitable explanation, or a human bite mark not by a young child.

      Overall, healthcare professionals should be vigilant in identifying signs of child maltreatment and report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      208.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You arrive with the ambulance crew to the scene of a high-energy road...

    Incorrect

    • You arrive with the ambulance crew to the scene of a high-energy road traffic accident involving a 30-year-old man. He has an open fracture of his right femur and is unconscious. He appears to be struggling to breathe. On initial observation, you see a large pool of blood gathered around his abdomen coming from a wide wound.
      Which of the following is the first step in his immediate management?

      Your Answer: Secure the airway and stabilise the C spine

      Correct Answer: Apply pressure to the abdominal wound to minimise bleeding

      Explanation:

      Prioritizing Medical Interventions in Trauma Cases

      In cases of trauma, it is crucial to prioritize medical interventions in order to save the patient’s life. The ABCDE approach is commonly used, with standing for catastrophic bleeding. If there is evidence of catastrophic bleeding, it must be addressed immediately to minimize blood loss. Once bleeding is under control, the airway must be secured and breathing must be managed. In cases where the patient is unconscious, C-spine immobilization is necessary.

      Assessment of wounds and exposure of the patient should only be done after the primary survey is completed. Fluid resuscitation through two large-bore cannulae is necessary to stabilize the patient’s condition. However, this should only be done after the airway and breathing have been assessed and managed.

      While morphine may provide pain relief, it presents a risk of sedation and respiratory depression. Therefore, it should not be administered until the patient’s breathing is stable. By prioritizing medical interventions in trauma cases, healthcare professionals can increase the chances of saving the patient’s life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Trauma
      91.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of persistent urinary symptoms. She mentions...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of persistent urinary symptoms. She mentions experiencing leakage whenever she coughs or sneezes, despite regularly performing pelvic floor muscle exercises. The patient expresses her reluctance towards any surgical intervention for this issue. What would be the next suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Desmopressin

      Correct Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      If a patient with stress incontinence does not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and refuses surgery, duloxetine may be prescribed as a treatment option. Bladder retraining exercises are not effective for stress incontinence, but may be helpful for urge incontinence. Oxybutynin and tolterodine are medications used to manage urge incontinence, while desmopressin is used for nocturnal enuresis.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      105.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (0/4) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Gastroenterology (1/1) 100%
Trauma (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Passmed