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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old Caucasian man visits his primary care physician complaining of heartburn that...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old Caucasian man visits his primary care physician complaining of heartburn that has been bothering him for the past 3 months. He reports experiencing gnawing pain in his upper abdomen that worsens between meals but improves after eating. The pain does not spread to other areas and is relieved by taking antacids that can be purchased over-the-counter.

      The patient undergoes a gastroscopy, which reveals a bleeding ulcer measuring 2x3cm in the first part of his duodenum.

      What is the probable cause of this patient's ulcer?

      Your Answer: Helicobacter pylori infection

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of the patient’s duodenal ulcer is Helicobacter pylori infection, which is responsible for the majority of cases. Diagnosis can be made through serology, microbiology, histology, or CLO testing. The patient’s symptoms of gnawing epigastric pain and improvement with food are consistent with a duodenal ulcer. Adenocarcinoma is an unlikely cause as duodenal ulcers are typically benign. Alcohol excess and NSAIDs are not the most common causes of duodenal ulcers, with Helicobacter pylori being the primary culprit.

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 2 - As an observer in the colorectal surgical department, you spend a morning watching...

    Correct

    • As an observer in the colorectal surgical department, you spend a morning watching a colonoscopy list. A number of patients who arrive during the morning are individuals with Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer (HNPCC), who are being screened to detect any early signs of colorectal cancer. What is the lifetime risk of developing colorectal cancer for individuals with this condition?

      Your Answer: 90%

      Explanation:

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman came in with a 7-month history of upper abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman came in with a 7-month history of upper abdominal pain and nausea. She reported no weight loss. An upper GI endoscopy showed mild gastritis, but her symptoms persisted even after a 3-month course of proton pump inhibitors. A CT scan was done and revealed a probable gastrinoma. Which type of cell does the hormone produced by this tumor target to stimulate acid secretion?

      Your Answer: Chief cell

      Correct Answer: Parietal cell

      Explanation:

      The secretion of H+ by gastric parietal cells is increased by gastrin.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 4 - A 24-year-old male patient visits the GP with recurring diarrhoea and urinary symptoms....

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male patient visits the GP with recurring diarrhoea and urinary symptoms. The patient is currently undergoing tests for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). He reports dysuria and describes his urine as dark brown and frothy. What aspect of IBD is likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Goblet cell loss

      Correct Answer: Fistula

      Explanation:

      Fistulas are often seen in patients with Crohn’s disease due to the erosion of the submucosal layer, which can lead to full-thickness ulcers. If these ulcers penetrate the bowel and reach the bladder, they can create a pathway for undigested food to enter the bladder.

      While bloody stool is commonly associated with ulcerative colitis (UC), it can also occur in Crohn’s disease. However, this symptom alone cannot explain the patient’s urinary tract infections or the passing of tomato skin.

      Crypt abscesses are not present in Crohn’s disease and are only associated with UC. Therefore, they cannot explain the patient’s symptoms.

      Goblet cell loss, which refers to the loss of mucin-secreting cells in the intestine, is only seen in UC and not in Crohn’s disease.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 5 - A patient with gastric ulcers has been diagnosed with significantly low levels of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with gastric ulcers has been diagnosed with significantly low levels of somatostatin. The medical consultant suspects that a particular type of cell found in both the pancreas and stomach is affected, leading to the disruption of somatostatin release.

      Which type of cell is impacted in this case?

      Your Answer: Parietal cells

      Correct Answer: D cells

      Explanation:

      Somatostatin is released by D cells found in both the pancreas and stomach. These cells release somatostatin to inhibit the hormone gastrin and reduce gastric secretions. The patient’s low levels of somatostatin may have led to an increase in gastrin secretion and stomach acid, potentially causing gastric ulcers. G cells secrete gastrin, while parietal cells secrete gastric acid. Pancreatic cells is too general of a term and does not specify the specific type of cell responsible for somatostatin production.

      Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones

      Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.

      One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.

      Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.

      Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.

      In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - A 12-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with complaints of central abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with complaints of central abdominal pain that has shifted to the right iliac fossa. Upon examination, there are no indications of rebound tenderness or guarding.

      What is the most probable diagnosis, and how would you describe the pathophysiology of the condition?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune destruction of the appendix

      Correct Answer: Obstruction of the appendiceal lumen due to lymphoid hyperplasia or faecolith

      Explanation:

      The pathophysiology of appendicitis involves obstruction of the appendiceal lumen, which is commonly caused by lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith. This condition is most prevalent in young individuals aged 10-20 years and is the most common acute abdominal condition requiring surgery. Blood clots are not a typical cause of appendiceal obstruction, but foreign bodies and worms can also contribute to this condition.

      Pancreatitis can lead to autodigestion in the pancreas, while autoimmune destruction of the pancreas is responsible for type 1 diabetes. Symptoms of type 1 diabetes, which typically develops at a younger age than type 2 diabetes, include polydipsia and polyuria.

      Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, resulting in oedema, ischaemia, and possibly perforation.

      The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is typically peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding and rigidity, and classical signs such as Rovsing’s sign and psoas sign.

      Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers and compatible history and examination findings. Imaging may be used in certain cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. Management of acute appendicitis involves appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy. Intravenous antibiotics alone have been trialled as a treatment for appendicitis, but evidence suggests that this is associated with a longer hospital stay and up to 20% of patients go on to have an appendicectomy within 12 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man with persistent constipation visits his doctor seeking a laxative prescription....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man with persistent constipation visits his doctor seeking a laxative prescription. Despite having a good appetite and hydration, he has no notable medical history except for constipation. He is a non-alcoholic but occasionally smokes when socializing with friends.

      The doctor intends to prescribe a laxative to alleviate the patient's constipation, but like any other medication, laxatives have side effects that must be taken into account before prescribing.

      What is the laxative that has been demonstrated to have carcinogenic properties?

      Your Answer: Co-danthramer

      Explanation:

      Co-danthramer is a genotoxic laxative that should only be prescribed to patients receiving palliative care due to its potential to cause cancer. Other laxatives should be considered first for patients with constipation. However, if constipation is not improved by other laxatives, co-danthramer may be prescribed to palliative patients. It is important to note that a high-fibre diet, adequate fluid intake, and exercise are recommended for all patients with constipation. Fruits and vegetables high in fibre and sorbitol, as well as fruit juices high in sorbitol, can also be helpful in preventing and treating constipation.

      Understanding Laxatives

      Laxatives are frequently prescribed medications in clinical practice, with constipation being a common issue among patients. While constipation may be a symptom of underlying pathology, many patients experience simple idiopathic constipation. The British National Formulary (BNF) categorizes laxatives into four groups: osmotic, stimulant, bulk-forming, and faecal softeners.

      Osmotic laxatives, such as lactulose, macrogols, and rectal phosphates, work by drawing water into the bowel to soften stools and promote bowel movements. Stimulant laxatives, including senna, docusate, bisacodyl, and glycerol, stimulate the muscles in the bowel to contract and move stool along. Co-danthramer, a combination of a stimulant and a bulk-forming laxative, should only be prescribed to palliative patients due to its potential carcinogenic effects.

      Bulk-forming laxatives, such as ispaghula husk and methylcellulose, work by increasing the bulk of stool and promoting regular bowel movements. Faecal softeners, such as arachis oil enemas, are not commonly prescribed but can be used to soften stool and ease bowel movements.

      In summary, understanding the different types of laxatives and their mechanisms of action can help healthcare professionals prescribe the most appropriate treatment for patients experiencing constipation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 8 - A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe back pain and...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old female presents to the emergency department with severe back pain and no medical history except for a penicillin allergy. Following an MRI, she is diagnosed with osteomyelitis and prescribed a 6-week course of two antibiotics. However, a few days into treatment, she reports abdominal pain and diarrhea. Stool samples reveal the presence of Clostridium difficile toxins, leading to a diagnosis of pseudomembranous colitis. Which antibiotic is the most likely culprit for causing the C. difficile colitis?

      Your Answer: Clindamycin

      Explanation:

      The use of clindamycin as a treatment is linked to a significant risk of developing C. difficile infection. This antibiotic is commonly associated with Clostridium difficile colitis. Doxycycline has the potential to cause sensitivity to sunlight and birth defects, while trimethoprim can lead to high levels of potassium in the blood and is also harmful to developing fetuses. Vancomycin, on the other hand, can cause red man syndrome and is among the medications used to treat Clostridium difficile colitis.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of intermittent upper abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of intermittent upper abdominal pain that worsens after eating. She denies having a fever and reports normal bowel movements. The pain is rated at 6/10 and is only slightly relieved by paracetamol. The GP suspects a blockage in the biliary tree. Which section of the duodenum does this tube open into, considering the location of the blockage?

      Your Answer: 2nd part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      The second segment of the duodenum is situated behind the peritoneum and contains the major and minor duodenal papillae.

      Based on the symptoms described, the woman is likely experiencing biliary colic, which is characterized by intermittent pain that worsens after consuming fatty meals. Blockages in the biliary tree, typically caused by stones, can occur at any point, but in this case, it is likely in the cystic duct, as there is no mention of jaundice and the stool is normal.

      The cystic duct joins with the right and left hepatic ducts to form the common bile duct, which then merges with the pancreatic duct to create the common hepatopancreatic duct. The major papilla, located in the second segment of the duodenum, is where these ducts empty into the duodenum. This segment is also situated behind the peritoneum.

      Peptic ulcers affecting the duodenum are most commonly found in the first segment.

      The third segment of the duodenum can be compressed by the superior mesenteric artery, leading to superior mesenteric artery syndrome, particularly in individuals with low body fat.

      The fourth segment of the duodenum runs close to the abdominal aorta and can be compressed by an abdominal aortic aneurysm.

      The ligament of Treitz attaches the duodenojejunal flexure to the diaphragm and is not associated with any particular pathology.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 10 - A 27-year-old man presents with fatigue and joint pains for the past 8...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with fatigue and joint pains for the past 8 months. He cannot recall any specific trigger for the symptoms and they have been persistent. During examination, you observe that his skin is quite tanned but no other significant findings are noted.

      The following are his blood test results:

      - Bilirubin: 10 umol/L
      - ALT: 120 IU/L
      - Albumin: 35 g/L
      - Ferritin: 450 mg/mL
      - Transferrin saturation: 70%
      - Random plasma glucose: 17.0 mmol/L

      Afterwards, a genetic test was conducted and returned with positive results. Based on the most probable diagnosis, what is the mode of inheritance for this disease?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      The probable condition affecting the patient is hereditary haemochromatosis, which is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. The presence of iron overload and abnormal liver function tests are indicative of this diagnosis. Additionally, the patient’s elevated blood glucose levels and skin pigmentation changes may suggest the presence of bronze diabetes.

      Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms and Complications

      Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to iron accumulation in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is prevalent in people of European descent, with 1 in 10 carrying a mutation in the genes affecting iron metabolism. Early symptoms of haemochromatosis are often non-specific, such as lethargy and arthralgia, and may go unnoticed. However, as the disease progresses, patients may experience fatigue, erectile dysfunction, and skin pigmentation.

      Other complications of haemochromatosis include diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis. While some symptoms are reversible with treatment, such as cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy, liver cirrhosis is irreversible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a 14-day history of profuse, watery diarrhoea. She...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a 14-day history of profuse, watery diarrhoea. She denies the presence of blood. There is no history of recent travel. The diarrhoea is stopping her from going to work, and so she has been forced to take unpaid leave. She wants to return to work as she is the sole breadwinner for the family.

      On examination, she is apyrexial but looks clinically dehydrated.

      After ruling out infection and inflammatory bowel disease, you prescribe a short course of loperamide to help slow down her bowel movements.

      What is the mechanism of action of the prescribed anti-diarrhoeal medication?

      Your Answer: Agonist of μ-opioid receptors in the myenteric plexus of the large intestine

      Explanation:

      The myenteric plexus of the large intestine’s μ-opioid receptors are targeted by loperamide.

      Antidiarrhoeal Agents: Opioid Agonists

      Antidiarrhoeal agents are medications used to treat diarrhoea. Opioid agonists are a type of antidiarrhoeal agent that work by slowing down the movement of the intestines, which reduces the frequency and urgency of bowel movements. Two common opioid agonists used for this purpose are loperamide and diphenoxylate.

      Loperamide is available over-the-counter and is often used to treat acute diarrhoea. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the intestines, which reduces the contractions of the muscles in the intestinal wall. This slows down the movement of food and waste through the intestines, allowing more time for water to be absorbed and resulting in firmer stools.

      Diphenoxylate is a prescription medication that is often used to treat chronic diarrhoea. It works in a similar way to loperamide, but is often combined with atropine to discourage abuse and overdose.

      Overall, opioid agonists are effective at treating diarrhoea, but should be used with caution and under the guidance of a healthcare professional. They can cause side effects such as constipation, dizziness, and nausea, and may interact with other medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 12 - You are present during the colonoscopy of a middle-aged patient who is being...

    Correct

    • You are present during the colonoscopy of a middle-aged patient who is being investigated by gastroenterology due to experiencing severe abdominal pain and passing bloody stools multiple times a day for several weeks. Although the symptoms have subsided, the patient also complains of significant joint pain and has had episodes of painful, red left eye with blurry vision. The consultant suspects ulcerative colitis as the probable diagnosis and performs a biopsy during the procedure to confirm it. What feature would most likely confirm the consultant's suspicions?

      Your Answer: Crypt abscesses

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can cause various symptoms, including ocular manifestations such as anterior uveitis. A biopsy of affected tissue is crucial in diagnosing ulcerative colitis and distinguishing it from other similar conditions, particularly Crohn’s disease. The characteristic microscopic features of ulcerative colitis include crypt abscesses and pseudopolyps. Partial villous atrophy is not typically associated with ulcerative colitis but may be seen in tropical sprue. Crypt hyperplasia and complete villous atrophy are more commonly seen in coeliac disease. Non-caseating granulomas and transmural inflammation are typical histological features of Crohn’s disease, which is the primary differential diagnosis for ulcerative colitis.

      Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a condition that includes two main types: Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis. Although they share many similarities in terms of symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment, there are some key differences between the two. Crohn’s disease is characterized by non-bloody diarrhea, weight loss, upper gastrointestinal symptoms, mouth ulcers, perianal disease, and a palpable abdominal mass in the right iliac fossa. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis is characterized by bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant, tenesmus, gallstones, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Complications of Crohn’s disease include obstruction, fistula, and colorectal cancer, while ulcerative colitis has a higher risk of colorectal cancer than Crohn’s disease. Pathologically, Crohn’s disease lesions can be seen anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis inflammation always starts at the rectum and never spreads beyond the ileocaecal valve. Endoscopy and radiology can help diagnose and differentiate between the two types of IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of painless left-sided facial weakness, along with difficulty speaking and a drooping mouth. She expresses concern about having a stroke, but her medical history is unremarkable. Upon further examination, you rule out a stroke and suspect that she may be experiencing Bell's palsy, an unexplained paralysis of the facial nerve.

      What signs would you anticipate discovering during the examination?

      Your Answer: Taste impairment of the anterior tongue

      Explanation:

      The facial nerve’s chorda tympani branch is responsible for providing taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Bell’s palsy is a condition characterized by unilateral facial nerve weakness or paralysis, which can result in impaired taste sensation in the anterior tongue.

      Upper motor neuron lesions typically spare the forehead, as alternative nerve routes can still provide innervation. In contrast, lower motor neuron lesions like Bell’s palsy can cause forehead paralysis.

      While ptosis may occur in Bell’s palsy, it typically presents unilaterally rather than bilaterally.

      Although patients with Bell’s palsy may complain of tearing eyes, tear production is actually decreased due to loss of control of the eyelids and facial muscles.

      The facial nerve controls the motor aspect of the corneal reflex, so an abnormal corneal reflex may be observed in Bell’s palsy.

      Nerve Supply of the Tongue

      The tongue is a complex organ that plays a crucial role in speech and taste. It is innervated by three different cranial nerves, each responsible for different functions. The anterior two-thirds of the tongue receive general sensation from the lingual branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) and taste sensation from the chorda tympani branch of the facial nerve (CN VII). On the other hand, the posterior one-third of the tongue receives both general sensation and taste sensation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX).

      In terms of motor function, the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) is responsible for controlling the movements of the tongue. It is important to note that the tongue’s nerve supply is essential for proper functioning, and any damage to these nerves can result in speech and taste disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old male has been referred to the clinic due to a family...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male has been referred to the clinic due to a family history of colorectal cancer. Genetic testing revealed a mutation of the APC gene, and a colonoscopy is recommended. What is the probable outcome of the procedure?

      Your Answer: Caecal carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Multiple colonic adenomas

      Explanation:

      Familial adenomatous polyposis coli is characterized by the presence of multiple colonic adenomas, which are caused by mutations in the APC gene.

      Polyposis syndromes are a group of genetic disorders that cause the development of multiple polyps in the colon and other parts of the gastrointestinal tract. These polyps can increase the risk of developing cancer, and therefore, early detection and management are crucial. There are several types of polyposis syndromes, each with its own genetic defect, features, and associated disorders.

      Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is characterized by the development of over 100 colonic adenomas, with a 100% risk of cancer. Screening and management involve regular colonoscopies and resectional surgery if polyps are found. FAP is also associated with gastric and duodenal polyps and abdominal desmoid tumors.

      MYH-associated polyposis is caused by a biallelic mutation of the MYH gene and is associated with multiple colonic polyps and an increased risk of right-sided cancers. Attenuated phenotype can be managed with regular colonoscopies, while resection and ileoanal pouch reconstruction are recommended for those with multiple polyps.

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is caused by a mutation in the STK11 gene and is characterized by multiple benign intestinal hamartomas, episodic obstruction, and an increased risk of GI cancers. Screening involves annual examinations and pan-intestinal endoscopy every 2-3 years.

      Cowden disease is caused by a mutation in the PTEN gene and is characterized by macrocephaly, multiple intestinal hamartomas, and an increased risk of cancer at any site. Targeted individualized screening is recommended, with extra surveillance for breast, thyroid, and uterine cancers.

      HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) is caused by germline mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes and is associated with an increased risk of colorectal, endometrial, and gastric cancers. Colonoscopies every 1-2 years from age 25 and consideration of prophylactic surgery are recommended, along with extra colonic surveillance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 15 - You see a 24-year-old patient who has been admitted to hospital after being...

    Correct

    • You see a 24-year-old patient who has been admitted to hospital after being found by her roommate surrounded by empty bottles of vodka. She was treated with activated charcoal but has deteriorated.

      The patient's blood results are below:

      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 24 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 380 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      International normalised ratio 6.5

      The hepatology consultant tells you that she is being considered for a liver transplant.

      When you speak to the patient, she is confused and is unable to give her name or date of birth. She appears disorientated and is unaware that she is in hospital.

      What is most likely to be causing her altered mental state?

      Your Answer: Ammonia

      Explanation:

      Hepatic encephalopathy, which this patient is experiencing due to acute liver failure from paracetamol overdose, is caused by ammonia crossing the blood-brain barrier. The liver’s inability to convert ammonia to urea, which is normally excreted by the kidneys, leads to an increase in ammonia levels. Although ammonia typically has low permeability across the blood-brain barrier, high levels can cause cerebral edema and encephalopathy through active transport.

      The King’s College Criteria for liver transplant in acute liver failure includes grade 3/4 encephalopathy, which this patient has, along with meeting criteria for INR and creatinine levels.

      While hypoglycemia can cause encephalopathy, it is not the most likely cause in this case. Liver failure does not cause raised uric acid levels, and although high levels of urea can cause encephalopathy, this patient’s urea levels are low due to the liver’s inability to produce it from ammonia and CO2.

      Although N-acetylcysteine can cause allergic reactions and angioedema, it is not associated with the development of encephalopathy.

      Hepatic encephalopathy is a condition that can occur in any liver disease. Its exact cause is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve the absorption of excess ammonia and glutamine from the breakdown of proteins by gut bacteria. While it is commonly associated with acute liver failure, it can also be seen in chronic liver disease. In fact, many patients with liver cirrhosis may experience mild cognitive impairment before the more recognizable symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy appear. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting (TIPSS) may also trigger encephalopathy.

      The symptoms of hepatic encephalopathy can range from irritability to coma, with confusion, altered consciousness, and incoherence being common. Other features may include the inability to draw a 5-pointed star, arrhythmic negative myoclonus, and triphasic slow waves on an EEG. The condition can be graded from I to IV, with Grade IV being the most severe.

      Several factors can precipitate hepatic encephalopathy, including infection, gastrointestinal bleeding, constipation, drugs, hypokalaemia, renal failure, and increased dietary protein. Treatment involves addressing any underlying causes and using medications such as lactulose and rifaximin. Lactulose promotes the excretion of ammonia and increases its metabolism by gut bacteria, while rifaximin modulates the gut flora, resulting in decreased ammonia production. Other options include embolisation of portosystemic shunts and liver transplantation in selected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 16 - A 15-year-old boy, with a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, is showing symptoms...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old boy, with a family history of Gilbert's syndrome, is showing symptoms of hepatic dysfunction. Upon conducting liver function tests, it is found that he has elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin. After genetic testing, it is confirmed that he has Gilbert's syndrome. What is the reason behind the increased levels of unconjugated bilirubin in Gilbert's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Reduced levels of UDP-glucuronosyl transferase-1

      Explanation:

      Gilbert’s syndrome is characterized by a decrease in UDP glucuronosyltransferase levels.
      Enhanced drug effects can occur due to reduced warfarin metabolism caused by CYP2C9 deficiency.
      Elevated GGT levels are often caused by pancreatic disease, cholestasis, excessive alcohol consumption, and certain medications.
      Dubin-Johnson syndrome is associated with defective hepatocyte excretion of conjugated bilirubin.
      Disordered metabolism of clopidogrel and other drugs, including proton-pump inhibitors, anticonvulsants, and sedatives, can result from reduced CYP2C19 levels.

      Gilbert’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the way bilirubin is processed in the body. It is caused by a deficiency of UDP glucuronosyltransferase, which leads to unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. This means that bilirubin is not properly broken down and eliminated from the body, resulting in jaundice. However, jaundice may only be visible during certain conditions such as fasting, exercise, or illness. The prevalence of Gilbert’s syndrome is around 1-2% in the general population.

      To diagnose Gilbert’s syndrome, doctors may look for a rise in bilirubin levels after prolonged fasting or the administration of IV nicotinic acid. However, treatment is not necessary for this condition. While the exact mode of inheritance is still debated, it is known to be an autosomal recessive disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 17 - A 54-year-old man with dyspepsia is diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with dyspepsia is diagnosed with a duodenal ulcer and a positive CLO test. Which statement about the probable causative organism is incorrect?

      Your Answer: It preferentially colonises gastric type mucosa

      Correct Answer: In patients who are colonised there is commonly evidence of fundal gastritis on endoscopy

      Explanation:

      Duodenal ulceration cases can be caused by Helicobacter pylori infection, which can be diagnosed through serology, microbiology, histology, or CLO testing. Detecting the infection through endoscopy may not show any typical features, so the recommended approach is to take an antral biopsy for CLO testing during the endoscopy procedure.

      Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems

      Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.

      The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.

      The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 18 - A newborn rapidly becomes ill and develops jaundice 12 hours after birth. The...

    Correct

    • A newborn rapidly becomes ill and develops jaundice 12 hours after birth. The infant's blood tests show an unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. What is the precursor to bilirubin that is being excessively released, leading to this presentation?

      Your Answer: Haem

      Explanation:

      Bilirubin is formed when haem, a component of red blood cells, is broken down by macrophages. Albumin, a binding protein in blood, can bind to bilirubin but does not contribute to its production. Jaundice in newborns is often caused by the breakdown of red blood cells. Urobilinogen is a byproduct of bilirubin metabolism that can be excreted through the urinary system. Glutamate, an amino acid and neurotransmitter, is not involved in bilirubin synthesis.

      Understanding Bilirubin and Its Role in Jaundice

      Bilirubin is a chemical by-product that is produced when red blood cells break down heme, a component found in these cells. This chemical is also found in other hepatic heme-containing proteins like myoglobin. The heme is processed within macrophages and oxidized to form biliverdin and iron. Biliverdin is then reduced to form unconjugated bilirubin, which is released into the bloodstream.

      Unconjugated bilirubin is bound to albumin in the blood and then taken up by hepatocytes, where it is conjugated to make it water-soluble. From there, it is excreted into bile and enters the intestines to be broken down by intestinal bacteria. Bacterial proteases produce urobilinogen from bilirubin within the intestinal lumen, which is further processed by intestinal bacteria to form urobilin and stercobilin and excreted via the faeces. A small amount of bilirubin re-enters the portal circulation to be finally excreted via the kidneys in urine.

      Jaundice occurs when bilirubin levels exceed 35 umol/l. Raised levels of unconjugated bilirubin may occur due to haemolysis, while hepatocyte defects, such as a compromised hepatocyte uptake of unconjugated bilirubin and/or defective conjugation, may occur in liver disease or deficiency of glucuronyl transferase. Raised levels of conjugated bilirubin can result from defective excretion of bilirubin, for example, Dubin-Johnson Syndrome, or cholestasis.

      Cholestasis can result from a wide range of pathologies, which can be largely divided into physical causes, for example, gallstones, pancreatic and cholangiocarcinoma, or functional causes, for example, drug-induced, pregnancy-related and postoperative cholestasis. Understanding bilirubin and its role in jaundice is important in diagnosing and treating various liver and blood disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old female has received a pan proctocolectomy and ileoanal pouch due to...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female has received a pan proctocolectomy and ileoanal pouch due to familial adenomatous polyposis coli. What is the most frequent non-colonic manifestation of this condition?

      Your Answer: Duodenal polyps

      Explanation:

      Polyposis syndromes are a group of genetic disorders that cause the development of multiple polyps in the colon and other parts of the gastrointestinal tract. These polyps can increase the risk of developing cancer, and therefore, early detection and management are crucial. There are several types of polyposis syndromes, each with its own genetic defect, features, and associated disorders.

      Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is characterized by the development of over 100 colonic adenomas, with a 100% risk of cancer. Screening and management involve regular colonoscopies and resectional surgery if polyps are found. FAP is also associated with gastric and duodenal polyps and abdominal desmoid tumors.

      MYH-associated polyposis is caused by a biallelic mutation of the MYH gene and is associated with multiple colonic polyps and an increased risk of right-sided cancers. Attenuated phenotype can be managed with regular colonoscopies, while resection and ileoanal pouch reconstruction are recommended for those with multiple polyps.

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is caused by a mutation in the STK11 gene and is characterized by multiple benign intestinal hamartomas, episodic obstruction, and an increased risk of GI cancers. Screening involves annual examinations and pan-intestinal endoscopy every 2-3 years.

      Cowden disease is caused by a mutation in the PTEN gene and is characterized by macrocephaly, multiple intestinal hamartomas, and an increased risk of cancer at any site. Targeted individualized screening is recommended, with extra surveillance for breast, thyroid, and uterine cancers.

      HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) is caused by germline mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes and is associated with an increased risk of colorectal, endometrial, and gastric cancers. Colonoscopies every 1-2 years from age 25 and consideration of prophylactic surgery are recommended, along with extra colonic surveillance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 20 - A 57-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of urinary sepsis. He reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of urinary sepsis. He reports experiencing left iliac fossa pain repeatedly over the past few months and has noticed bubbles in his urine. A CT scan reveals a large inflammatory mass in the left iliac fossa, with no other abnormalities detected. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Ulcerative colitis
      12%

      Crohn's disease
      11%

      Mesenteric ischemia
      11%

      Diverticular disease
      53%

      Rectal cancer
      13%

      Explanation:

      Recurrent diverticulitis can lead to the formation of local abscesses that may erode into the bladder, resulting in urinary sepsis and pneumaturia. This presentation would be atypical for Crohn's disease, and rectal cancer would typically be located more distally, with evidence of extra colonic disease present if the cancer were advanced.

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Correct Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Colovesical fistula is frequently caused by diverticular disease.

      Repeated episodes of diverticulitis can lead to the formation of abscesses in the affected area. These abscesses may then erode into the bladder, causing urinary sepsis and pneumaturia. This presentation would be atypical for Crohn’s disease, and rectal cancer typically occurs in a more distal location. Additionally, if the case were malignant, there would likely be evidence of extra colonic disease and advanced progression.

      Understanding Diverticular Disease

      Diverticular disease is a common condition that involves the protrusion of the colon’s mucosa through its muscular wall. This typically occurs between the taenia coli, where vessels penetrate the muscle to supply the mucosa. Symptoms of diverticular disease include altered bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. Complications can arise, such as diverticulitis, haemorrhage, fistula development, perforation and faecal peritonitis, abscess formation, and diverticular phlegmon.

      To diagnose diverticular disease, patients may undergo a colonoscopy, CT cologram, or barium enema. However, it can be challenging to rule out cancer, especially in diverticular strictures. Acutely unwell surgical patients require a systematic investigation, including plain abdominal films and an erect chest x-ray to identify perforation. An abdominal CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast can help identify acute inflammation and local complications.

      Treatment for diverticular disease includes increasing dietary fibre intake and managing mild attacks with antibiotics. Peri colonic abscesses require drainage, either surgically or radiologically. Recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis requiring hospitalisation may indicate a segmental resection. Hinchey IV perforations, which involve generalised faecal peritonitis, require a resection and usually a stoma. This group has a high risk of postoperative complications and typically requires HDU admission. Less severe perforations may be managed by laparoscopic washout and drain insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 21 - A 48-year-old female patient complains of pain in the right hypochondrium. Upon palpation...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old female patient complains of pain in the right hypochondrium. Upon palpation of the abdomen, she experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant and reports that the pain worsens during inspiration. Based on the history and examination, the probable diagnosis is cholecystitis caused by a gallstone. If the gallstone were to move out of the gallbladder, which of the ducts would it enter first?

      Your Answer: Cystic duct

      Explanation:

      The biliary tree is composed of various ducts, including the cystic duct that transports bile from the gallbladder. The right and left hepatic ducts in the liver merge to form the common hepatic duct, which then combines with the cystic duct to create the common bile duct. The pancreatic duct from the pancreas also connects to the common bile duct, and they both empty into the duodenum through the hepatopancreatic ampulla (of Vater). The accessory duct, which may or may not exist, is a small supplementary duct(s) to the biliary tree.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 22 - A 59-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain,...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and swelling in the central abdomen.

      During his last visit to his family doctor two weeks ago, he experienced colicky abdominal pain and was diagnosed with gallstones after further testing. He was scheduled for an elective cholecystectomy in 8 weeks.

      The patient is administered pain relief and scheduled for an urgent abdominal X-ray (AXR).

      What is the most probable finding on the AXR that indicates a cholecystoenteric fistula?

      Your Answer: Pneumobilia

      Explanation:

      The presence of air in the gallbladder and biliary tree on an abdominal X-ray is most likely caused by a cholecystoenteric fistula. This is a serious complication of gallstones, particularly those larger than 2 cm, and can result in symptoms of small bowel obstruction such as severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and abdominal distension. While pneumoperitoneum may also be present in cases of cholecystoenteric fistula, it is not a specific finding and can be caused by other factors that weaken or tear hollow viscus organs. On the other hand, the presence of an appendicolith, a small calcified stone in the appendix, is highly indicative of appendicitis in patients with right iliac fossa pain and other associated symptoms, but is not seen in cases of cholecystoenteric fistula on an abdominal X-ray.

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis is usually made through abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm suspected bile duct stones. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and surgical management for stones in the common bile duct. ERCP may be used to remove bile duct stones, but carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old taxi driver presents with a six-month history of constipation and colicky...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old taxi driver presents with a six-month history of constipation and colicky suprapubic pain that varies in intensity without any apparent pattern. He has experienced occasional episodes of diarrhoea and fever. Although he drinks little alcohol and does not smoke, he consumes large amounts of coffee. On examination, there is mild tenderness in the suprapubic region, but no other abnormalities are detected. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Rectal Bleeding

      Rectal bleeding can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. While neoplasia may be a possible cause, diverticular disease is more common. To confirm the presence of diverticula, a barium enema should be performed, and a sigmoidoscopy should be done to rule out a tumor. Cystitis is rare in men and would present with symptoms such as urinary frequency, urgency, nocturia, and dysuria. Inflammatory bowel disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and often presents with weight loss, fever, malaise, and potentially arthralgia. However, the lack of systemic symptoms suggests an alternative diagnosis. Ulcerative colitis often causes rectal bleeding, while Crohn’s disease can cause rectal bleeding and inflammation from the mouth to anus. It is more commonly diagnosed in patients before the age of 30. It is important to consider these differential diagnoses when evaluating a patient with rectal bleeding to ensure appropriate management and treatment.

      Further Reading:
      Janes SE, Meagher A, Frizelle FA. Management of diverticulitis. BMJ. 2006;332:271-5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 24 - A 20-year-old male is having surgery to remove his appendix due to appendicitis....

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male is having surgery to remove his appendix due to appendicitis. Where is the appendix typically located in the body?

      Your Answer: Retrocaecal

      Explanation:

      The majority of appendixes are located in the retrocaecal position. In cases where removal of a retrocaecal appendix proves challenging, mobilizing the right colon can greatly enhance accessibility.

      Appendix Anatomy and Location

      The appendix is a small, finger-like projection located at the base of the caecum. It can be up to 10cm long and is mainly composed of lymphoid tissue, which can sometimes lead to confusion with mesenteric adenitis. The caecal taenia coli converge at the base of the appendix, forming a longitudinal muscle cover over it. This convergence can aid in identifying the appendix during surgery, especially if it is retrocaecal and difficult to locate. The arterial supply to the appendix comes from the appendicular artery, which is a branch of the ileocolic artery. It is important to note that the appendix is intra-peritoneal.

      McBurney’s Point and Appendix Positions

      McBurney’s point is a landmark used to locate the appendix during physical examination. It is located one-third of the way along a line drawn from the Anterior Superior Iliac Spine to the Umbilicus. The appendix can be found in six different positions, with the retrocaecal position being the most common at 74%. Other positions include pelvic, postileal, subcaecal, paracaecal, and preileal. It is important to be aware of these positions as they can affect the presentation of symptoms and the difficulty of locating the appendix during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 25 - A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abrupt abdominal pain....

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of abrupt abdominal pain. He reports the pain as cramping, with a severity of 6/10, and spread throughout his abdomen. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He used to smoke and has a smoking history of 40 pack years.

      What is the most probable part of the colon affected in this patient?

      Your Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Ischaemic colitis frequently affects the splenic flexure, which is a vulnerable area due to its location at the border of regions supplied by different arteries. Symptoms such as cramping and generalised abdominal pain, along with a history of smoking and hypertension, suggest a diagnosis of ischaemic colitis. While the rectosigmoid junction is also a watershed area, it is less commonly affected than the splenic flexure. Other regions of the large bowel are less susceptible to ischaemic colitis.

      Understanding Ischaemic Colitis

      Ischaemic colitis is a condition that occurs when there is a temporary reduction in blood flow to the large bowel. This can cause inflammation, ulcers, and bleeding. The condition is more likely to occur in areas of the bowel that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries, such as the splenic flexure.

      When investigating ischaemic colitis, doctors may look for a sign called thumbprinting on an abdominal x-ray. This occurs due to mucosal edema and hemorrhage. It is important to diagnose and treat ischaemic colitis promptly to prevent complications and ensure a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 26 - A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of persistent diarrhoea, abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old man presents to his GP with complaints of persistent diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and weight loss. He reports experiencing generalised pain and feeling extremely fatigued. The patient denies any blood in his stool and has a past medical history of type 1 diabetes mellitus.

      Upon investigation, the patient's tissue transglutaminase IgA (tTG-IgA) levels are found to be elevated. What is the most probable finding on duodenal biopsy for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Villous atrophy

      Explanation:

      Malabsorption occurs in coeliac disease due to villous atrophy, which is caused by an immune response to gluten in the gastrointestinal tract. This can lead to nutritional deficiencies in affected individuals. While coeliac disease is associated with a slightly increased risk of small bowel carcinoma, it is unlikely to occur in a young patient. Crypt hyperplasia, not hypoplasia, is a common finding in coeliac disease. Coeliac disease is associated with a decreased number of goblet cells, not an increased number. Non-caseating granulomas are typically seen in Crohn’s disease, not coeliac disease.

      Understanding Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the UK population. It is caused by sensitivity to gluten, a protein found in wheat, barley, and rye. Repeated exposure to gluten leads to villous atrophy, which causes malabsorption. Coeliac disease is associated with various conditions, including dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and autoimmune hepatitis. It is strongly linked to HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8.

      To diagnose coeliac disease, NICE recommends screening patients who exhibit signs and symptoms such as chronic or intermittent diarrhea, failure to thrive or faltering growth in children, persistent or unexplained gastrointestinal symptoms, prolonged fatigue, recurrent abdominal pain, sudden or unexpected weight loss, unexplained anemia, autoimmune thyroid disease, dermatitis herpetiformis, irritable bowel syndrome, type 1 diabetes, and first-degree relatives with coeliac disease.

      Complications of coeliac disease include anemia, hyposplenism, osteoporosis, osteomalacia, lactose intolerance, enteropathy-associated T-cell lymphoma of the small intestine, subfertility, and unfavorable pregnancy outcomes. In rare cases, it can lead to esophageal cancer and other malignancies.

      The diagnosis of coeliac disease is confirmed through a duodenal biopsy, which shows complete atrophy of the villi with flat mucosa and marked crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphocytosis, and dense mixed inflammatory infiltrate in the lamina propria. Treatment involves a lifelong gluten-free diet.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following hepatobiliary conditions is commonly linked with ulcerative colitis, typically...

    Correct

    • Which of the following hepatobiliary conditions is commonly linked with ulcerative colitis, typically seen in adult patients?

      Your Answer: Primary sclerosing cholangitis

      Explanation:

      The risk of developing liver cancer is higher in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and ulcerative colitis. However, the risk of malignant transformation is not increased in patients with Crohn’s disease. Impaired entero-hepatic circulation in Crohn’s disease is linked to the development of gallstones. Unlike PSC, ulcerative colitis does not elevate the risk of other liver lesions.

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about experiencing dark, tarry stools...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman visits her doctor with worries about experiencing dark, tarry stools for the past 4 days. She has a medical history of hypertension, which is well controlled with ramipril. Apart from ibuprofen, which she is taking for a recent skiing injury, she is not on any other regular medication. She casually mentions that she has lost some weight but denies having any abdominal pain. She is a non-smoker and drinks approximately 17 units of alcohol per week. On examination, there are no signs of chronic liver disease, but her conjunctiva appears pale. The doctor is concerned and decides to conduct several blood tests.

      Hb 10.1 g/l
      Platelets 202 * 109/l
      WBC 9.2 * 109/l
      Na+ 137 mmol/l
      K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      Urea 34 mmol/l
      Creatinine 105 µmol/l

      What is the most probable reason for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Peptic ulcer

      Explanation:

      An upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleed can lead to the formation of melaena, which is characterized by the passage of dark and tarry stool through the digestive tract. Peptic ulcer is a frequent cause of upper GI bleed, particularly in patients who have identifiable risk factors such as the use of NSAIDs, as seen in this patient.

      The blood tests reveal an elevated urea level without an increase in creatinine, which is a typical presentation in an upper GI bleed. Additionally, the presence of anemia is also suggestive of a bleed.

      Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The main symptoms include haematemesis (vomiting of blood), melena (passage of altered blood per rectum), and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The diagnosis can be determined by identifying the specific features associated with a particular condition, such as stigmata of chronic liver disease for oesophageal varices or abdominal pain for peptic ulcer disease.

      The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes. Oesophageal varices may present with a large volume of fresh blood, while gastric ulcers may cause low volume bleeds that present as iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal ulcers are usually posteriorly sited and may erode the gastroduodenal artery. Aorto-enteric fistula is a rare but important cause of major haemorrhage associated with high mortality in patients with previous abdominal aortic aneurysm surgery.

      The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation involves ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours. Treatment options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery for non-variceal bleeding, while terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients with variceal bleeding. Band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices, and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with upper abdominal pain that...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old male presents to the emergency department with upper abdominal pain that radiates to the back. This started a few hours previously and has been accompanied by some nausea and vomiting. The patient denies any alcohol intake recently.

      On examination, he has tenderness in the epigastric and right upper quadrant regions. He has a fever of 38.9°C. An ultrasound scan reveals no evidence of gallstones. The patient is given a preliminary diagnosis of acute pancreatitis and some blood tests are requested.

      What could be the cause of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps is a known cause of acute pancreatitis, but it has become rare since the introduction of the MMR vaccine. In 2018, there were only 1088 cases of mumps in the UK, which statistically translates to around 54 cases of acute pancreatitis secondary to mumps. Inflammatory bowel disease may also lead to pancreatitis, but it is usually caused by gallstones or medication used to treat IBD. While influenzae and gastroenteritis are not commonly associated with pancreatitis, there have been a few reported cases linking influenzae A to acute pancreatitis, although these occurrences are extremely rare.

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is primarily caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption in the UK. However, there are other factors that can contribute to the development of this condition. A popular mnemonic used to remember these factors is GET SMASHED, which stands for gallstones, ethanol, trauma, steroids, mumps, autoimmune diseases, scorpion venom, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperchylomicronaemia, hypercalcaemia, hypothermia, ERCP, and certain drugs. It is important to note that pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than sulfasalazine. CT scans can show diffuse parenchymal enlargement with oedema and indistinct margins in patients with acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 30 - A 63-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of blood in...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of blood in his stools. The blood is bright red and occurs during defecation, but it is not painful. He has been feeling more tired lately, but he has not experienced night sweats, weight loss, loss of appetite, or changes in bowel habits.

      The patient has a history of liver cirrhosis and underwent an oesophageal endoscopy two years ago, but he cannot recall the results. He is a known alcoholic and attends AA.

      Upon examination, the patient appears pale with conjunctival pallor, and ascites is present.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Explanation:

      Haemorrhoids in Portal Hypertension

      A likely diagnosis for a patient with a history of portal hypertension, ascites, endoscopy, and cirrhotic liver is haemorrhoids. Portal hypertension causes pressure to be passed on to the middle and inferior rectal veins, leading to their dilation and the development of haemorrhoids. While haemorrhoids are common in the general population, significant blood loss is rare. However, in patients with established cirrhosis, large amounts of blood can be lost through these varices.

      An anal fissure is unlikely in this case, as there is no history of straining or a low-fibre diet, and they are typically painful. While colorectal carcinoma is an important diagnosis to consider, painless bright fresh blood is more likely to be caused by haemorrhoids in patients with a strong history of portal hypertension. In malignancy, fresh blood is less common, and a change in bowel habit is often a prominent feature.

      A perianal haematoma is a thrombosed haemorrhoid that typically presents with severe pain, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this case. The patient’s presentation of painless bleeding further supports the diagnosis of haemorrhoids in the context of portal hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      8.1
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  • Question 31 - A 48-year-old man is under your care after being diagnosed with pneumonia. On...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man is under your care after being diagnosed with pneumonia. On the day before his expected discharge, he experiences severe diarrhea without blood and needs intravenous fluids. A request for stool culture is made.

      What would the microbiology report likely indicate as the responsible microbe?

      Your Answer: Gram-positive bacillus

      Explanation:

      Clostridium difficile is a type of gram-positive bacillus that can cause pseudomembranous colitis, particularly after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 32 - A 57-year-old man underwent a terminal ileum resection for his Crohn's disease. After...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man underwent a terminal ileum resection for his Crohn's disease. After two months, he reports having pale and bulky stools. During his visit to the gastroenterology clinic, he was diagnosed with a deficiency in vitamin A. What could be the reason for his steatorrhoea and vitamin deficiency?

      Your Answer: Bile acid malabsorption

      Explanation:

      Steatorrhoea and Vitamin A, D, E, K malabsorption can result from bile acid malabsorption.

      The receptors in the terminal ileum that are responsible for bile acid reabsorption are crucial for the enterohepatic circulation of bile acids. When these receptors are lost, the digestion and absorption of fat and fat-soluble vitamins are reduced, leading to steatorrhoea and vitamin A deficiency.

      While hepatopancreatobiliary cancer can cause pale stools due to decreased stercobilinogen, it does not result in steatorrhoea or vitamin A deficiency.

      Reduced intake of fat or vitamin A is not a cause of steatorrhoea.

      Understanding Bile-Acid Malabsorption

      Bile-acid malabsorption is a condition that can cause chronic diarrhea. It can be primary, which means that it is caused by excessive production of bile acid, or secondary, which is due to an underlying gastrointestinal disorder that reduces bile acid absorption. This condition can lead to steatorrhea and malabsorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K.

      Secondary causes of bile-acid malabsorption are often seen in patients with ileal disease, such as Crohn’s disease. Other secondary causes include coeliac disease, small intestinal bacterial overgrowth, and cholecystectomy.

      To diagnose bile-acid malabsorption, the test of choice is SeHCAT, which is a nuclear medicine test that uses a gamma-emitting selenium molecule in selenium homocholic acid taurine or tauroselcholic acid. Scans are done 7 days apart to assess the retention or loss of radiolabeled 75SeHCAT.

      The management of bile-acid malabsorption involves the use of bile acid sequestrants, such as cholestyramine. These medications can help to bind bile acids in the intestine, reducing their concentration and improving symptoms. With proper management, individuals with bile-acid malabsorption can experience relief from their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 33 - A 75-year-old woman with caecal carcinoma is having a right hemicolectomy done via...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman with caecal carcinoma is having a right hemicolectomy done via a transverse incision. During the procedure, the incision is extended medially by dividing the rectus sheath, and a brisk arterial hemorrhage occurs. What vessel is the source of the damage?

      Your Answer: Internal iliac artery

      Correct Answer: External iliac artery

      Explanation:

      The damaged vessel is the epigastric artery, which has its origin in the external iliac artery (as shown below).

      The Inferior Epigastric Artery: Origin and Pathway

      The inferior epigastric artery is a blood vessel that originates from the external iliac artery just above the inguinal ligament. It runs along the medial edge of the deep inguinal ring and then continues upwards to lie behind the rectus abdominis muscle. This artery is responsible for supplying blood to the lower abdominal wall and pelvic region. Its pathway is illustrated in the image below.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 34 - A 58-year-old woman diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma of the anus is preparing...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma of the anus is preparing for an abdominoperineal resection (APR). This surgical procedure involves the complete removal of the distal colon, rectum, and anal sphincter complex through both anterior abdominal and perineal incisions, resulting in a permanent colostomy. During the process, several arteries are ligated, including the one that supplies the anal canal below the levator ani. Can you identify the name of this artery and its branching point?

      Your Answer: Inferior rectal artery - a branches of internal circumflex artery

      Correct Answer: Inferior rectal artery - a branches of internal pudendal artery

      Explanation:

      The internal pudendal artery gives rise to the inferior rectal artery, which supplies the muscle and skin of the anal and urogenital triangle. The superior rectal artery, on the other hand, supplies the sigmoid mesocolon and not the lower part of the anal canal. The middle rectal artery is a branch of the internal pudendal artery and not the deep external pudendal artery, making the fifth option incorrect.

      Anatomy of the Rectum

      The rectum is a capacitance organ that measures approximately 12 cm in length. It consists of both intra and extraperitoneal components, with the transition from the sigmoid colon marked by the disappearance of the tenia coli. The extra peritoneal rectum is surrounded by mesorectal fat that contains lymph nodes, which are removed during rectal cancer surgery. The fascial layers that surround the rectum are important clinical landmarks, with the fascia of Denonvilliers located anteriorly and Waldeyers fascia located posteriorly.

      In males, the rectum is adjacent to the rectovesical pouch, bladder, prostate, and seminal vesicles, while in females, it is adjacent to the recto-uterine pouch (Douglas), cervix, and vaginal wall. Posteriorly, the rectum is in contact with the sacrum, coccyx, and middle sacral artery, while laterally, it is adjacent to the levator ani and coccygeus muscles.

      The superior rectal artery supplies blood to the rectum, while the superior rectal vein drains it. Mesorectal lymph nodes located superior to the dentate line drain into the internal iliac and then para-aortic nodes, while those located inferior to the dentate line drain into the inguinal nodes. Understanding the anatomy of the rectum is crucial for surgical procedures and the diagnosis and treatment of rectal diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 35 - A 56-year-old female patient who underwent tubal ligation presents to her general practitioner...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old female patient who underwent tubal ligation presents to her general practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain, flank pain, visible blood in her urine, and involuntary urinary leakage. She has a history of lithotripsy for renal calculi one year ago. A CT scan of her abdomen and pelvis reveals an intra-abdominal fluid collection. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ureter injury

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and CT findings suggest that they may have suffered iatrogenic damage to their ureters, which are retroperitoneal organs. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the retroperitoneal space, causing haematuria, abdominal/flank pain, and incontinence. While calculi and lithotripsy can damage the ureter mucosal lining, they are unlikely to have caused fluid accumulation in the intra-abdominal cavity, especially since the lithotripsy was performed a year ago. Pelvic inflammatory disease and urinary tract infections can cause similar symptoms, but their CT findings would be different.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      1.9
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  • Question 36 - A healthy 56-year-old woman attends her flexible sigmoidoscopy as part of the UK's...

    Correct

    • A healthy 56-year-old woman attends her flexible sigmoidoscopy as part of the UK's national screening program. While performing the procedure, the surgeon observes and biopsies several polyps for further analysis. Additionally, the patient has multiple hyperpigmented macules on her lips.

      During her follow-up visit, the patient is informed that the type of polyp found in her bowel increases her risk of developing cancers in other parts of her body.

      What is the name of the benign colorectal tumor that the patient has?

      Your Answer: Peutz-Jeghers polyps

      Explanation:

      Understanding Peutz-Jeghers Syndrome

      Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is characterized by the presence of numerous hamartomatous polyps in the gastrointestinal tract, particularly in the small bowel. In addition, patients with this syndrome may also have pigmented freckles on their lips, face, palms, and soles.

      While the polyps themselves are not cancerous, individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome have an increased risk of developing other types of gastrointestinal tract cancers. In fact, around 50% of patients will have died from another gastrointestinal tract cancer by the age of 60 years.

      Common symptoms of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome include small bowel obstruction, which is often due to intussusception, as well as gastrointestinal bleeding. Management of this condition is typically conservative unless complications develop. It is important for individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome to undergo regular screening and surveillance to detect any potential cancerous growths early on.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 37 - Samantha, a 52-year-old female, visits her doctor with a lump in her groin...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 52-year-old female, visits her doctor with a lump in her groin that becomes more prominent when she coughs. The lump is not painful, but the doctor notes that it is located inferior and lateral to the pubic tubercle during the examination. This leads to a diagnosis of a femoral hernia, where a portion of the bowel has entered the femoral canal and caused a bulge in the femoral triangle, an area in the upper thigh.

      What are the contents of this anatomical region from lateral to medial?

      Your Answer: Femoral artery, femoral vein, femoral nerve, empty space, lymphatics

      Correct Answer: Femoral nerve, femoral artery, femoral vein, empty space, lymphatics

      Explanation:

      To remember the contents of the femoral triangle from lateral to medial, use the acronym NAVEL: femoral NERVE, femoral ARTERY, femoral VEIN, EMPTY space, and LYMPHATICS. The femoral triangle is located in the anterior thigh and is bordered by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the medial border of the sartorius muscle laterally, and the medial border of the adductor longus muscle medially. A femoral hernia occurs when bowel enters the femoral ring and canal, which are located beneath the inguinal ligament, causing a bulge in the femoral triangle. The femoral nerve is located more laterally than the femoral artery and vein, while the femoral artery is more lateral than the femoral vein.

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle

      The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.

      The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.

      Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 38 - A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of diffuse abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of diffuse abdominal pain that has been ongoing for several hours. He reports passing bloody stool during a recent bowel movement. Upon examination, you observe an irregular pulse and a tender abdomen. After conducting tests, you diagnose the patient with ischaemic colitis affecting the transverse colon.

      What other organ receives blood supply from the same branch of the aorta at the vertebral level L1?

      Your Answer: 4th part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      The splenic flexure of the colon marks the boundary between the midgut and the hindgut.

      When a blood clot travels to the abdominal arteries and blocks the blood supply to a section of the gut, it can lead to ischaemic colitis. This condition is more prevalent in older individuals, and those with atrial fibrillation (as indicated by the patient’s irregular pulse) are at a higher risk. The area most commonly affected is the watershed region of the colon, where blood supply transitions from one artery to another. This region is the junction between the midgut and the hindgut.

      The superior mesenteric artery supplies the midgut, which includes the proximal transverse colon.

      The foregut-derived organs, such as the 1st part of the duodenum, spleen, and liver, are supplied by the coeliac trunk.

      The hindgut includes the descending colon, which is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      The Three Embryological Layers and their Corresponding Gastrointestinal Structures and Blood Supply

      The gastrointestinal system is a complex network of organs responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. During embryonic development, the gastrointestinal system is formed from three distinct layers: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. Each layer gives rise to specific structures and is supplied by a corresponding blood vessel.

      The foregut extends from the mouth to the proximal half of the duodenum and is supplied by the coeliac trunk. The midgut encompasses the distal half of the duodenum to the splenic flexure of the colon and is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. Lastly, the hindgut includes the descending colon to the rectum and is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      Understanding the embryological origin and blood supply of the gastrointestinal system is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By identifying the specific structures and blood vessels involved, healthcare professionals can better target their interventions and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 39 - A 72-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward due to concerns raised...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman is being evaluated on the ward due to concerns raised by the nursing staff regarding her altered bowel habits. The patient has been experiencing bowel movements approximately 12 times a day for the past two days and is experiencing crampy abdominal pain.

      The patient's blood test results are as follows:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb) level of 124 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160 g/L)
      - Platelet count of 175 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L)
      - White blood cell (WBC) count of 16.4 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L)

      Upon reviewing her medication chart, it is noted that she recently finished a course of ceftriaxone for meningitis.

      Based on the likely diagnosis, what would be the most probable finding on stool microscopy?

      Your Answer: Gram-positive bacilli

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient is a Clostridium difficile infection, which is a gram-positive bacillus bacteria. This infection is triggered by recent broad-spectrum antibiotic use, as seen in this patient who was prescribed ceftriaxone for meningitis. The patient’s symptoms of crampy abdominal pain and sudden onset diffuse diarrhoea, along with a marked rise in white blood cells, are consistent with this diagnosis. Gram-negative bacilli, gram-negative cocci, and gram-negative spirillum bacteria are unlikely causes of this patient’s symptoms.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 40 - A 50-year-old man has metastatic adenocarcinoma of the colon that has spread throughout...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has metastatic adenocarcinoma of the colon that has spread throughout his body. Which of the following tumor markers is expected to be elevated?

      Your Answer: Alpha Feto Protein

      Correct Answer: Carcinoembryonic antigen

      Explanation:

      Using CEA as a screening tool for colonic cancer is not justifiable. While it is true that CEA levels are elevated in colonic cancer, this is also the case in non-malignant conditions such as cirrhosis and colitis. Additionally, the highest levels of CEA are typically seen in cases of metastatic disease. Therefore, CEA should not be used to monitor colitis patients for the development of colonic cancer. This information is supported by a study published in the BMJ in 2009.

      Diagnosis and Staging of Colorectal Cancer

      Diagnosis of colorectal cancer is typically done through a colonoscopy, which is considered the gold standard as long as it is complete and provides good mucosal visualization. Other options for diagnosis include double-contrast barium enema and CT colonography. Once a malignant diagnosis is made, patients will undergo staging using chest, abdomen, and pelvic CT scans. Patients with rectal cancer will also undergo evaluation of the mesorectum with pelvic MRI scanning. For examination purposes, the Dukes and TNM systems are preferred.

      Tumour Markers in Colorectal Cancer

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is the main tumour marker in colorectal cancer. While not all tumours secrete CEA, it is still used as a marker for disease burden and is once again being used routinely in follow-up. However, it is important to note that CEA levels may also be raised in conditions such as IBD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 41 - What is not considered a risk factor for the development of oesophageal cancer?...

    Correct

    • What is not considered a risk factor for the development of oesophageal cancer?

      Your Answer: Blood group O

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus. The most common presenting symptom is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss, vomiting, and other possible features such as odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, and cough.

      To diagnose oesophageal cancer, upper GI endoscopy with biopsy is used, and endoscopic ultrasound is preferred for locoregional staging. CT scanning of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis is used for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT may be used for detecting occult metastases if metastases are not seen on the initial staging CT scans. Laparoscopy is sometimes performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.

      Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. In addition to surgical resection, many patients will be treated with adjuvant chemotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 42 - A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe left flank...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe left flank pain that comes and goes. The doctor suspects a kidney stone and refers him for a CT scan. However, before the scan, the stone ruptures through the organ wall and urine starts to leak. Which of the following organs is most likely to come into contact with the leaked urine?

      Your Answer: Tail of the pancreas

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The ureters are situated behind the peritoneum and any damage to them can result in the accumulation of fluid in the retroperitoneal space.

      Kidney stones are most likely to get stuck in the ureter, specifically at the uretopelvic junction, pelvic brim, or vesicoureteric junction. Since the entire ureter is located behind the peritoneum, any rupture could cause urine to leak into the retroperitoneal space. This space is connected to other organs behind the peritoneum, such as the inferior vena cava.

      All the other organs mentioned are located within the peritoneum.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 43 - A 35-year-old male is undergoing investigation for oral thrush. During the examination, which...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old male is undergoing investigation for oral thrush. During the examination, which two primary regions of the oral cavity are evaluated?

      Your Answer: Vestibule and oral cavity proper

      Explanation:

      The gastrointestinal system is accessed through the mouth, which serves as the entrance for food. The act of chewing and swallowing is initiated voluntarily. Once swallowed, the process becomes automatic. The oral cavity is divided into two main regions: the vestibule, which is located between the mucosa of the lips and cheeks and the teeth, and the oral cavity proper. These two regions are connected to each other at the back of the second molar tooth.

      Understanding Oesophageal Candidiasis

      Oesophageal candidiasis is a medical condition that is identified by the presence of white spots in the oropharynx, which can extend into the oesophagus. This condition is commonly associated with the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, immunosuppression, and immunological disorders. Patients with oesophageal candidiasis may experience oropharyngeal symptoms, odynophagia, and dysphagia.

      The treatment for oesophageal candidiasis involves addressing the underlying cause, which should be investigated by a medical professional. Additionally, oral antifungal agents are prescribed to manage the symptoms of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 44 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain and haematochezia. The patient localises the pain to the umbilical region. He has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation, stroke and is currently being treated for multiple myeloma.

      His observations show a heart rate of 122/min, a respiratory rate of 29/min, a blood pressure of 119/93 mmHg, an O2 saturation of 97%, and a temperature of 38.2 ºC. His chest is clear. Abdominal examination identify some mild tenderness with no guarding. An abdominal bruit is heard on auscultation.

      Which segment of the gastrointestinal tract is commonly affected in this condition?

      Your Answer: Splenic flexure

      Explanation:

      Ischaemic colitis most frequently affects the splenic flexure.

      Understanding Ischaemic Colitis

      Ischaemic colitis is a condition that occurs when there is a temporary reduction in blood flow to the large bowel. This can cause inflammation, ulcers, and bleeding. The condition is more likely to occur in areas of the bowel that are located at the borders of the territory supplied by the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries, such as the splenic flexure.

      When investigating ischaemic colitis, doctors may look for a sign called thumbprinting on an abdominal x-ray. This occurs due to mucosal edema and hemorrhage. It is important to diagnose and treat ischaemic colitis promptly to prevent complications and ensure a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 45 - A slender 65-year-old woman complains of sudden onset of abdominal pain. The pain...

    Correct

    • A slender 65-year-old woman complains of sudden onset of abdominal pain. The pain is diffuse but most severe in the upper abdomen. During examination, she is intentionally tensing her muscles and experiences extreme tenderness upon palpation. She has a medical history of left hip osteoarthritis, which she is treating with pain medication. Your coworker requests that you examine her chest x-ray while standing. What is the probable result in this situation?

      Your Answer: Free air under the diaphragm

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this woman is suffering from a perforated peptic ulcer, given her medical history of osteoarthritis and use of analgesics (possibly NSAIDs) which can lead to ulcer development. The presence of free air under the diaphragm on an upright chest x-ray is a typical indication of a perforated organ, indicating the presence of pneumoperitoneum (air in the peritoneal cavity).

      Exam Features of Conditions Causing Abdominal Pain

      Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important for medical students to be familiar with the characteristic exam features of each condition. Peptic ulcer disease, for example, can present with epigastric pain that is either relieved or worsened by eating, depending on whether it is a duodenal or gastric ulcer. Appendicitis, on the other hand, typically starts with pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa. Other conditions, such as acute pancreatitis, biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction, also have their own unique exam features.

      It is worth noting that some conditions causing abdominal pain may not be as common or may have unusual presentations. For instance, acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning can all cause abdominal pain, but they are not typically associated with it. Therefore, it is important for medical students to have a broad understanding of the possible causes of abdominal pain and to be able to recognize the characteristic exam features of each condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 46 - A 26-year-old male presented with weight loss, cramping abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male presented with weight loss, cramping abdominal pain, and bloody diarrhea. During colonoscopy, a diffusely red and friable mucosa was observed in the rectum and sigmoid colon, while the mucosa was normal in the proximal region. Over time, the disease progressed to involve most of the colon, except for the ileum. After several years, a colonic biopsy revealed high grade epithelial dysplasia. What was the probable initial diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Crohn's disease

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis advances from the distal to proximal regions in a progressive manner, leading to dysplastic changes over time. These endoscopic observations necessitate frequent endoscopic monitoring, and if a colonic mass is present, a pancproctocolectomy is typically recommended.

      Understanding Ulcerative Colitis

      Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 47 - A 15-year-old girl comes to the hospital complaining of severe right upper quadrant...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl comes to the hospital complaining of severe right upper quadrant pain and vomiting that started 4 hours ago. She has a medical history of depression and anemia and is currently taking iron supplements and the combined oral contraceptive pill. Upon examination, she appears confused and has yellow-tinted sclera. Her prothrombin time is 50 seconds, and her blood results show a pH of 7.1, albumin levels of 18g/L, ALT levels of 150 iu/L, ALP levels of 40 umol/L, bilirubin levels of 76 µmol/L, and yGT levels of 115 u/L. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of her presentation?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol overdose

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of liver failure in the UK is an overdose of paracetamol. This patient’s symptoms, including vomiting, severe pain in the upper right quadrant, jaundice, confusion, and prolonged prothrombin time, suggest acute liver failure. In this condition, ALT and bilirubin levels are significantly elevated, while yGT and ALP may be normal or elevated. Hypoalbuminemia is also a characteristic feature of acute liver failure.

      Given the patient’s history of depression, her risk of self-harm and suicide attempts is higher than that of the general population. However, acute fatty liver of pregnancy is unlikely to be the cause of her liver failure, as she takes the combined oral contraceptive pill, which reduces the chances of pregnancy.

      Alcohol is also an unlikely cause of her liver failure, as it takes many years of chronic alcohol abuse to develop alcohol-related liver failure, and this patient is very young.

      While testing for hepatitis B antibodies and antigens should be included in the liver screen, paracetamol overdose is a more likely cause of liver failure in the UK.

      Understanding Acute Liver Failure

      Acute liver failure is a condition characterized by the sudden onset of liver dysfunction, which can lead to various complications in the body. The causes of acute liver failure include paracetamol overdose, alcohol, viral hepatitis (usually A or B), and acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The symptoms of acute liver failure include jaundice, raised prothrombin time, hypoalbuminaemia, hepatic encephalopathy, and hepatorenal syndrome. It is important to note that liver function tests may not always accurately reflect the synthetic function of the liver, and it is best to assess the prothrombin time and albumin level to determine the severity of the condition. Understanding acute liver failure is crucial in managing and treating this potentially life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      4.3
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  • Question 48 - A 27-year-old man is stabbed in the groin and the area within the...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man is stabbed in the groin and the area within the femoral triangle needs to be examined. What forms the lateral wall of the femoral triangle?

      Your Answer: Conjoint tendon

      Correct Answer: Sartorius

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Anatomy of the Femoral Triangle

      The femoral triangle is an important anatomical region located in the upper thigh. It is bounded by the inguinal ligament superiorly, the sartorius muscle laterally, and the adductor longus muscle medially. The floor of the femoral triangle is made up of the iliacus, psoas major, adductor longus, and pectineus muscles, while the roof is formed by the fascia lata and superficial fascia. The superficial inguinal lymph nodes and the long saphenous vein are also found in this region.

      The femoral triangle contains several important structures, including the femoral vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve, deep and superficial inguinal lymph nodes, lateral cutaneous nerve, great saphenous vein, and femoral branch of the genitofemoral nerve. The femoral artery can be palpated at the mid inguinal point, making it an important landmark for medical professionals.

      Understanding the anatomy of the femoral triangle is important for medical professionals, as it is a common site for procedures such as venipuncture, arterial puncture, and nerve blocks. It is also important for identifying and treating conditions that affect the structures within this region, such as femoral hernias and lymphadenopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      6
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  • Question 49 - As a GP, you are evaluating a 35-year-old female patient who has been...

    Correct

    • As a GP, you are evaluating a 35-year-old female patient who has been experiencing a persistent burning sensation in her epigastrium that is temporarily relieved by eating meals. Your initial suspicion of H. pylori infection was ruled out by a negative serology test, and a two-week trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor and triple eradication therapy failed to alleviate her symptoms. An endoscopy revealed multiple duodenal ulcers, and upon further questioning, the patient disclosed that her mother has a pituitary tumor. Which hormone is most likely to be elevated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Gastrin

      Explanation:

      Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome and Gastrinoma

      Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a familial condition that predisposes individuals to benign or malignant tumors of the pituitary and pancreas with parathyroid hyperplasia causing hyperparathyroidism. This autosomal dominant inherited syndrome should be considered in patients who present with unusual endocrine tumors, especially if they are relatively young at diagnosis or have a relevant family history.

      One manifestation of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is the development of a pancreatic tumor called a gastrinoma, which secretes the hormone gastrin. Gastrin stimulates the release of hydrochloric acid from parietal cells in the stomach, which optimizes conditions for protein digesting enzymes. However, excessive production of gastrin can occur in gastrinomas, leading to excessive HCL production that can denature the mucosa and submosa of the gastrointestinal tract, causing symptoms, ulceration, and even perforation of the duodenum.

      While other pancreatic tumors can also produce hormones such as insulin or glucagon, the symptoms and clinical findings in this case suggest a diagnosis of gastrinoma. Cholecystokinin and somatostatin are hormones that have inhibitory effects on HCL secretion and do not fit with the clinical picture. Cholecystokinin also produces the feeling of satiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      7.6
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  • Question 50 - A 67-year-old male is undergoing an elective left colectomy for colon cancer on...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male is undergoing an elective left colectomy for colon cancer on the left side. The left colic artery is responsible for supplying blood to both the upper and lower portions of the descending colon.

      From which artery does the left colic artery originate?

      Your Answer: Inferior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      The inferior rectal artery is a branch of the inferior mesenteric artery. It provides blood supply to the anal canal and the lower part of the rectum. It originates from the inferior mesenteric artery and runs downwards towards the anus, where it divides into several smaller branches.

      The Inferior Mesenteric Artery: Supplying the Hindgut

      The inferior mesenteric artery (IMA) is responsible for supplying the embryonic hindgut with blood. It originates just above the aortic bifurcation, at the level of L3, and passes across the front of the aorta before settling on its left side. At the point where the left common iliac artery is located, the IMA becomes the superior rectal artery.

      The hindgut, which includes the distal third of the colon and the rectum above the pectinate line, is supplied by the IMA. The left colic artery is one of the branches that emerges from the IMA near its origin. Up to three sigmoid arteries may also exit the IMA to supply the sigmoid colon further down the line.

      Overall, the IMA plays a crucial role in ensuring that the hindgut receives the blood supply it needs to function properly. Its branches help to ensure that the colon and rectum are well-nourished and able to carry out their important digestive functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      5.6
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Gastrointestinal System (35/50) 70%
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