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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman comes to see her GP with persistent tinnitus and hearing...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to see her GP with persistent tinnitus and hearing loss in both ears. This is her first time experiencing these symptoms, but she mentions that her older sister has had similar issues. During the examination, the doctor notices a pinkish hue to her eardrums. Audiometry tests confirm that she has conductive deafness. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Correct Answer: Otosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Nausea and vomiting often accompany migraines, which are characterized by severe headaches that can last for hours or even days. Other symptoms may include sensitivity to light and sound, as well as visual disturbances such as flashing lights or blind spots. Migraines can be triggered by a variety of factors, including stress, certain foods, hormonal changes, and changes in sleep patterns. Treatment options may include medication, lifestyle changes, and alternative therapies.

      Understanding Otosclerosis: A Progressive Conductive Deafness

      Otosclerosis is a medical condition that occurs when normal bone is replaced by vascular spongy bone. This condition leads to a progressive conductive deafness due to the fixation of the stapes at the oval window. It is an autosomal dominant condition that typically affects young adults, with onset usually occurring between the ages of 20-40 years.

      The main features of otosclerosis include conductive deafness, tinnitus, a normal tympanic membrane, and a positive family history. In some cases, patients may also experience a flamingo tinge, which is caused by hyperemia and affects around 10% of patients.

      Management of otosclerosis typically involves the use of a hearing aid or stapedectomy. A hearing aid can help to improve hearing, while a stapedectomy involves the surgical removal of the stapes bone and replacement with a prosthesis.

      Overall, understanding otosclerosis is important for individuals who may be at risk of developing this condition. Early diagnosis and management can help to improve hearing and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 59-year-old man comes to you with a dry cough that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man comes to you with a dry cough that has been going on for three months and recent episodes of haemoptysis. He stopped smoking five years ago and has had two bouts of pneumonia in his left lower lobe in the last year. On examination, he is apyrexial and there are no notable findings.

      What would be your first step in investigating this patient?

      Your Answer: Blood cultures

      Correct Answer: Chest x ray

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Bronchial Carcinoma

      The patient’s medical history indicates the possibility of bronchial carcinoma. The most appropriate initial investigation to confirm this diagnosis is a chest x-ray. Other tests such as blood cultures may not be useful for an apyrexial patient. However, additional investigations may be considered after the chest x-ray. It is important to prioritize the chest x-ray as the first line investigation to detect any abnormalities in the lungs. Proper diagnosis is crucial for timely treatment and management of bronchial carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      5.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old woman comes to your general practice complaining of hearing difficulties for...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman comes to your general practice complaining of hearing difficulties for the past month. She was previously diagnosed with tinnitus by one of your colleagues at the practice 11 months ago. The patient reports that she can hear better when outside but struggles in quiet environments. Upon otoscopy, no abnormalities are found. Otosclerosis is one of the differential diagnoses for this patient, which primarily affects the ossicle that connects to the cochlea. What is the name of the ossicle that attaches to the cochlea at the oval window?

      Your Answer: Stapes

      Explanation:

      The stapes bone is the correct answer.

      The ossicles are three bones located in the middle ear. They are arranged from lateral to medial and include the malleus, incus, and stapes. The malleus is the most lateral bone and its handle and lateral process attach to the tympanic membrane, making it visible on otoscopy. The head of the malleus articulates with the incus. The stapes bone is the most medial of the ossicles and is also known as the stirrup.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of severe abdominal pain, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Upon examination, she has a distended abdomen that is tender to the touch, and bowel sounds are infrequent. Her medical history includes a hysterectomy and cholecystectomy. A CT scan is ordered, which reveals a bowel obstruction at the L1 level. What is the most likely affected area?

      Your Answer: Transverse colon

      Correct Answer: Duodenum

      Explanation:

      The 2nd segment of the duodenum is situated at the transpyloric plane, which corresponds to the level of L1 and is a significant anatomical reference point.

      The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks

      The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.

      Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.

      In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.

      Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following organisms is not a common cause of respiratory tract...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organisms is not a common cause of respiratory tract infections in elderly patients, with cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: Burkholderia cepacia

      Correct Answer: Strongyloides stercoralis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.

      Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother, complaining of ear...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother, complaining of ear pain that started last night. He has been unable to sleep due to the pain and has not been eating well. His mother reports that he seems different than his usual self. The affected side has muffled sounds, and he has a fever. Otoscopy reveals a bulging tympanic membrane with visible fluid-level. What is the structure that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx?

      Your Answer: Eustachian tube

      Explanation:

      The pharyngotympanic tube, also known as the Eustachian tube, is responsible for connecting the middle ear and the nasopharynx, allowing for pressure equalization in the middle ear. It opens on the anterior wall of the middle ear and extends anteriorly, medially, and inferiorly to open into the nasopharynx. The palatovaginal canal connects the pterygopalatine fossa with the nasopharynx, while the pterygoid canal runs from the anterior boundary of the foramen lacerum to the pterygopalatine fossa. The semicircular canals are responsible for sensing balance, while the greater palatine canal transmits the greater and lesser palatine nerves, as well as the descending palatine artery and vein. In the case of ear pain, otitis media is a likely cause, which can be confirmed through otoscopy. The pharyngotympanic tube is particularly important in otitis media as it is the only outlet for pus or fluid in the middle ear, provided the tympanic membrane is intact.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father, who is...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his father, who is worried about his son's hearing. The father has noticed that his son frequently asks him to repeat himself and tends to turn up the volume on the TV. During Weber's test, the patient indicates that the sound is louder on the right side. What conclusion can be drawn from this finding?

      Your Answer: Can not tell which side is affected.

      Explanation:

      The Weber test alone cannot determine which side of the patient’s hearing is affected. The test involves placing a tuning fork on the forehead and asking the patient to report if the sound is symmetrical or louder on one side. If the sound is louder on the left side, it could indicate a conductive hearing loss on the left or a sensorineural hearing loss on the right. To obtain more information, the Weber test should be performed in conjunction with the Rinne test, which involves comparing air conduction and bone conduction.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A father brings his 9-year-old daughter to your general practice, as he is...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 9-year-old daughter to your general practice, as he is worried about her hearing. He notices that he has to repeat himself when talking to her, and thinks she is often 'in her own little world'. During the examination, the Rinne test is positive on the left and negative on the right. What conclusions can be drawn from this?

      Your Answer: Can not tell if both sides are affected.

      Explanation:

      The Rinne and Weber tests are used to diagnose hearing loss. The Rinne test involves comparing air and bone conduction, with a positive result indicating a healthy or sensorineural loss and a negative result indicating a conductive loss. The Weber test involves placing a tuning fork on the forehead and determining if the sound is symmetrical or louder on one side, with a conductive loss resulting in louder sound on the affected side and a sensorineural loss resulting in louder sound on the non-affected side. When used together, these tests can provide more information about the type and affected side of hearing loss.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. He is currently taking sodium valproate as his only medication. A venous blood gas is obtained immediately.

      What are the expected venous blood gas results for this patient?

      Your Answer: High pH, normal lactate, low SaO2

      Correct Answer: Low pH, high lactate, low SaO2

      Explanation:

      Acidosis shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, which enhances oxygen delivery to the tissues by causing more oxygen to dissociate from Hb. postictal lactic acidosis is a common occurrence in patients with tonic-clonic seizures, and it is typically managed by monitoring for spontaneous resolution. During a seizure, tissue hypoxia can cause lactic acidosis. Therefore, a venous blood gas test for this patient should show low pH, high lactate, and low SaO2.

      If the venous blood gas test shows a high pH, normal lactate, and low SaO2, it would not be consistent with postictal lactic acidosis. This result indicates alkalosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal losses, renal losses, or Cushing syndrome.

      A high pH, normal lactate, and normal SaO2 would also be inconsistent with postictal lactic acidosis because tissue hypoxia would cause an increase in lactate levels.

      Similarly, low pH, high lactate, and normal SaO2 would not be expected in postictal lactic acidosis because acidosis would shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin.

      Finally, normal pH, normal lactate, and normal SaO2 are unlikely to be found in this patient shortly after a seizure. However, if the venous blood gas test was taken days after the seizure following an uncomplicated clinical course, these findings would be more plausible.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 57-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing. She has a medical history of idiopathic interstitial lung disease. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.1ºC, oxygen saturation is 76% on air, heart rate is 106 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 116/60 mmHg.

      What pulmonary alteration would take place in response to her low oxygen saturation?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary artery vasodilation

      Correct Answer: Pulmonary artery vasoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Hypoxia causes vasoconstriction in the pulmonary arteries, which can lead to pulmonary artery hypertension in patients with chronic lung disease and chronic hypoxia. Diffuse bronchoconstriction is not a response to hypoxia, but may cause hypoxia in conditions such as acute asthma exacerbation. Hypersecretion of mucus from goblet cells is a characteristic finding in chronic inflammatory lung diseases, but is not a response to hypoxia. Pulmonary artery vasodilation occurs around well-ventilated alveoli to optimize oxygen uptake into the blood.

      The Effects of Hypoxia on Pulmonary Arteries

      When the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood decreases, the pulmonary arteries undergo vasoconstriction. This means that the blood vessels narrow, allowing blood to be redirected to areas of the lung that are better aerated. This response is a natural mechanism that helps to improve the efficiency of gaseous exchange in the lungs. By diverting blood to areas with more oxygen, the body can ensure that the tissues receive the oxygen they need to function properly. Overall, hypoxia triggers a physiological response that helps to maintain homeostasis in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 27-year-old woman is expecting her first baby. During routine midwife appointments, it...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman is expecting her first baby. During routine midwife appointments, it was discovered that she has hypertension and proteinuria, which are signs of pre-eclampsia. To prevent respiratory distress syndrome, a complication of prematurity caused by inadequate pulmonary surfactant production, she will require steroid doses before induction of preterm labor. Which cell type is being targeted by corticosteroids in this patient?

      Your Answer: Type 2 pneumocytes

      Explanation:

      Types of Pneumocytes and Their Functions

      Pneumocytes are specialized cells found in the lungs that play a crucial role in gas exchange. There are two main types of pneumocytes: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 pneumocytes are very thin squamous cells that cover around 97% of the alveolar surface. On the other hand, type 2 pneumocytes are cuboidal cells that secrete surfactant, a substance that reduces surface tension in the alveoli and prevents their collapse during expiration.

      Type 2 pneumocytes start to develop around 24 weeks gestation, but adequate surfactant production does not take place until around 35 weeks. This is why premature babies are prone to respiratory distress syndrome. In addition, type 2 pneumocytes can differentiate into type 1 pneumocytes during lung damage, helping to repair and regenerate damaged lung tissue.

      Apart from pneumocytes, there are also club cells (previously termed Clara cells) found in the bronchioles. These non-ciliated dome-shaped cells have a varied role, including protecting against the harmful effects of inhaled toxins and secreting glycosaminoglycans and lysozymes. Understanding the different types of pneumocytes and their functions is essential in comprehending the complex mechanisms involved in respiration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Mrs. Johnson is an 82-year-old woman who visited her General practitioner complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • Mrs. Johnson is an 82-year-old woman who visited her General practitioner complaining of gradual worsening shortness of breath over the past two months. During the medical history, it was discovered that she has had Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) for 20 years.

      Upon examination, there are no breath sounds at both lung bases and a stony dull note to percussion over the same areas. Based on this clinical scenario, what is the probable cause of her recent exacerbation of shortness of breath?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary oedema secondary to heart failure

      Correct Answer: Pleural transudate effusion secondary to cor pulmonale

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of a pleural transudate is heart failure. This is due to the congestion of blood into the systemic venous circulation, which can result from long-standing COPD and increase in pulmonary vascular resistance leading to right-sided heart failure or cor pulmonale. Other options such as infective exacerbation of COPD or pulmonary edema secondary to heart failure are less likely to explain the clinical signs. Pleural exudate effusion secondary to cor pulmonale is also not the most appropriate answer as it would cause a transudate pleural effusion, not an exudate.

      Understanding the Causes and Features of Pleural Effusion

      Pleural effusion is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which is the area between the lungs and the chest wall. The causes of pleural effusion can be classified into two types: transudate and exudate. Transudate is characterized by a protein concentration of less than 30g/L and is commonly caused by heart failure, hypoalbuminemia, liver disease, and other conditions. On the other hand, exudate is characterized by a protein concentration of more than 30g/L and is commonly caused by infections, pneumonia, tuberculosis, and other conditions.

      The symptoms of pleural effusion may include dyspnea, non-productive cough, and chest pain. Upon examination, patients may exhibit dullness to percussion, reduced breath sounds, and reduced chest expansion. It is important to identify the underlying cause of pleural effusion to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve the patient’s overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the GP with a 72-hour history...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the GP with a 72-hour history of left ear pain. She has had a cough with coryzal symptoms for the past four days. She has no past medical history, allergies or current medications, and she is up-to-date with her vaccinations. Her temperature is 38.5ºC. No abnormality is detected on examination of the oral cavity. Following otoscopy, what is the most likely causative pathogen for her diagnosis of otitis media?

      Your Answer: Rhinovirus

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Otitis media is primarily caused by bacteria, with viral URTIs often preceding the infection. The majority of cases are secondary to bacterial infections, with the most common culprit being…

      Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      5.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 26-year-old man has been experiencing a chronic cough and wheeze since starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man has been experiencing a chronic cough and wheeze since starting a new job. He has noticed that his peak flow measurements are significantly reduced while at work but improve on the weekends. What substance is commonly linked to this type of asthma?

      Your Answer: Organophosphates (insecticides)

      Correct Answer: Isocyanates

      Explanation:

      Occupational Asthma: Causes and Symptoms

      Occupational asthma is a type of asthma that is caused by exposure to certain chemicals in the workplace. Patients may experience worsening asthma symptoms while at work or notice an improvement in symptoms when away from work. The most common cause of occupational asthma is exposure to isocyanates, which are found in spray painting and foam moulding using adhesives. Other chemicals associated with occupational asthma include platinum salts, soldering flux resin, glutaraldehyde, flour, epoxy resins, and proteolytic enzymes.

      To diagnose occupational asthma, it is recommended to measure peak expiratory flow at work and away from work. If there is a significant difference in peak expiratory flow, referral to a respiratory specialist is necessary. Treatment may include avoiding exposure to the triggering chemicals and using medications to manage asthma symptoms. It is important for employers to provide a safe working environment and for employees to report any concerns about potential exposure to harmful chemicals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. After early...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. After early treatment, an arterial blood gas is taken, which shows the following results.

      ABG result - temperature 35.0 ºC:

      pH 7.30 (7.35 - 7.45)
      PaCO2 3.5 kPa (4.7 - 6.0)
      PaO2 10 kPa (11 - 13)
      HCO3- 16 mEq/L (22 - 26)
      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 3.3 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      What physiological change is occurring in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis is causing a decreased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen

      Explanation:

      In acidosis, the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve shifts to the right, indicating a decrease in affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen. This is due to an increase in the number of [H+] ions, reflecting greater metabolic activity. Low [H+] levels cause a shift to the left. The low HCO3- in this patient can be explained by metabolic acidosis, but it does not cause a shift in the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve. Hypokalaemia may be a result of treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis, but it does not cause a shift in the oxygen dissociation curve. When temperature increases, the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve also shifts to the right, causing a decrease in haemoglobin affinity for oxygen. Hypothermia causes a shift to the left, indicating an increased affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 19-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of breathing difficulty....

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of breathing difficulty. Upon examination, his chest appears normal, but his respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute. The medical team suspects he may be experiencing a panic attack and subsequent hyperventilation. What impact will this have on his blood gas levels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a respiratory alkalosis due to their hyperventilation, which is causing a decrease in carbon dioxide levels and resulting in an alkaline state.

      Respiratory Alkalosis: Causes and Examples

      Respiratory alkalosis is a condition that occurs when the blood pH level rises above the normal range due to excessive breathing. This can be caused by various factors, including anxiety, pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders, altitude, and pregnancy. Salicylate poisoning can also lead to respiratory alkalosis, but it may also cause metabolic acidosis in the later stages. In this case, the respiratory centre is stimulated early, leading to respiratory alkalosis, while the direct acid effects of salicylates combined with acute renal failure may cause acidosis later on. It is important to identify the underlying cause of respiratory alkalosis to determine the appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent complications and improve the patient’s overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old man is admitted to the ICU after emergency surgery for an...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is admitted to the ICU after emergency surgery for an abdominal aortic aneurysm. He presents with abdominal pain and diarrhea and is in a critical condition. Despite the absence of peritonism, which of the following arterial blood gas patterns is most likely to be observed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pH 7.20, pO2 9.0, pCO2 3.5, Base excess -10, Lactate 8

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual is experiencing metabolic acidosis as a result of a mesenteric infarction.

      Disorders of Acid-Base Balance

      The acid-base nomogram is a useful tool for categorizing the various disorders of acid-base balance. Metabolic acidosis is the most common surgical acid-base disorder, characterized by a reduction in plasma bicarbonate levels. This can be caused by a gain of strong acid or loss of base, and is classified according to the anion gap. A normal anion gap indicates hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, renal tubular acidosis, drugs, or Addison’s disease. A raised anion gap indicates lactate, ketones, urate, or acid poisoning. Metabolic alkalosis, on the other hand, is usually caused by a rise in plasma bicarbonate levels due to a loss of hydrogen ions or a gain of bicarbonate. It is mainly caused by problems of the kidney or gastrointestinal tract. Respiratory acidosis is characterized by a rise in carbon dioxide levels due to alveolar hypoventilation, while respiratory alkalosis is caused by hyperventilation resulting in excess loss of carbon dioxide. These disorders have various causes, such as COPD, sedative drugs, anxiety, hypoxia, and pregnancy.

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  • Question 18 - A senior woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) arrives...

    Incorrect

    • A senior woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) arrives at the hospital complaining of worsening shortness of breath and a productive cough. As part of the initial evaluation, a chest X-ray is requested.

      What radiographic feature would you anticipate observing on her chest X-ray?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Flattened diaphragm

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm of patients with COPD often appears flattened on a chest X-ray due to the chronic expiratory airflow obstruction causing dynamic hyperinflation of the lungs. Pleural effusions are commonly associated with infection, malignancy, or heart failure, while empyema is a result of pus accumulation in the pleural space caused by an infection.

      Understanding COPD: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common medical condition that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Smoking is the leading cause of COPD, and patients with mild disease may only need occasional use of a bronchodilator, while severe cases may result in frequent hospital admissions due to exacerbations. Symptoms of COPD include a productive cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and in severe cases, right-sided heart failure leading to peripheral edema.

      To diagnose COPD, doctors may recommend post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, a chest x-ray to check for hyperinflation, bullae, and flat hemidiaphragm, and to exclude lung cancer. A full blood count may also be necessary to exclude secondary polycythemia, and body mass index (BMI) calculation is important. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with a ratio of less than 70% indicating airflow obstruction. The grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 – mild now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but with a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.7. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction.

      In summary, COPD is a common condition caused by smoking that can result in a range of symptoms and severity. Diagnosis involves various tests to check for airflow obstruction, exclude lung cancer, and determine the severity of the disease.

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  • Question 19 - A 15-year-old boy presents to his GP with a painless swelling in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents to his GP with a painless swelling in his neck. The mass is located centrally just below the hyoid bone and does not cause any difficulty in swallowing or breathing. Upon examination, the GP notes that the mass moves with protrusion of the tongue and with swallowing. The GP diagnoses the boy with a benign thyroglossal cyst, which is caused by a persistent thyroglossal duct, and advises surgical removal. Where is the thyroglossal duct attached to the tongue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Foramen cecum

      Explanation:

      The thyroglossal duct connects the thyroid gland to the tongue via the foramen caecum during embryonic development. The terminal sulcus, median sulcus, palatoglossal arch, and epiglottis are not connected to the thyroid gland.

      Understanding Thyroglossal Cysts

      Thyroglossal cysts are named after the thyroid and tongue, which are the two structures involved in their development. During embryology, the thyroid gland develops from the floor of the pharynx and descends into the neck, connected to the tongue by the thyroglossal duct. The foramen cecum is the point of attachment of the thyroglossal duct to the tongue. Normally, the thyroglossal duct atrophies, but in some people, it may persist and give rise to a thyroglossal duct cyst.

      Thyroglossal cysts are more common in patients under 20 years old and are usually midline, between the isthmus of the thyroid and the hyoid bone. They move upwards with protrusion of the tongue and may be painful if infected. Understanding the embryology and presentation of thyroglossal cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman undergoes an ABG test. What is the anticipated outcome...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman undergoes an ABG test. What is the anticipated outcome for a healthy pregnant woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Compensated respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, a woman’s increased tidal volume leads to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels, resulting in alkalosis. This is because carbon dioxide generates acid, and reduced levels of it lead to a decrease in acid. The kidneys eventually adapt to this change by reducing the amount of alkaline bicarbonate in the body. Therefore, pregnancy causes a compensated respiratory alkalosis.

      If a woman’s bicarbonate levels remain normal, she would have simple respiratory alkalosis.

      On the other hand, if a woman produces excess acid, she would have metabolic acidosis, which is the opposite of what occurs during pregnancy.

      Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation: A 5-Step Approach

      Arterial blood gas interpretation is a crucial aspect of patient care, particularly in critical care settings. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a 5-step approach to interpreting arterial blood gas results. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, with a PaO2 on air of less than 10 kPa. The third step is to assess if the patient is acidaemic (pH <7.35) or alkalaemic (pH >7.45).

      The fourth step is to evaluate the respiratory component of the arterial blood gas results. A PaCO2 level greater than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth step is to assess the metabolic component of the arterial blood gas results. A bicarbonate level less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess less than -2mmol/l suggests metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level greater than 26 mmol/l or a base excess greater than +2mmol/l suggests metabolic alkalosis.

      To remember the relationship between pH, PaCO2, and bicarbonate, the acronym ROME can be used. Respiratory acidosis or alkalosis is opposite to the pH level, while metabolic acidosis or alkalosis is equal to the pH level. This 5-step approach and the ROME acronym can aid healthcare professionals in interpreting arterial blood gas results accurately and efficiently.

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