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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 84-year-old woman falls at home and presents to the emergency department four days later after being referred by her GP. She reports experiencing continuous, agonizing pain since the fall. Despite being able to weight bear, there is no positional deformity of the limb. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pain from osteosarcoma exacerbated by fall
Correct Answer: Incomplete neck of femur fracture
Explanation:Patients who have non-displaced or incomplete fractures of the neck of the femur may be able to bear weight.
Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures are classified based on their location, either intracapsular or extracapsular. The Garden system is a commonly used classification system that categorizes fractures into four types based on stability and displacement. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV.
Undisplaced intracapsular fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures require replacement arthroplasty, with total hip replacement being preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with no more than a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular fractures are managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures and an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Correct
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Which muscle is not a part of the rotator cuff?
Your Answer: Deltoid
Explanation:Understanding the Rotator Cuff Muscles
The rotator cuff muscles are a group of four muscles that are responsible for the movement and stability of the shoulder joint. These muscles are known as the SItS muscles, which stands for Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, teres minor, and Subscapularis. Each of these muscles has a specific function in the movement of the shoulder joint.
The Supraspinatus muscle is responsible for abducting the arm before the deltoid muscle. It is the most commonly injured muscle in the rotator cuff. The Infraspinatus muscle rotates the arm laterally, while the teres minor muscle adducts and rotates the arm laterally. Lastly, the Subscapularis muscle adducts and rotates the arm medially.
Understanding the functions of each of these muscles is important in diagnosing and treating rotator cuff injuries. By identifying which muscle is injured, healthcare professionals can develop a treatment plan that targets the specific muscle and promotes healing. Overall, the rotator cuff muscles play a crucial role in the movement and stability of the shoulder joint.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy presents to the orthopaedic clinic with complaints of right knee pain. He has been experiencing pain for the past 4 months, which usually lasts for a few hours. During examination, he displays an antalgic gait and appears to have a shortened right leg. While the right knee appears normal, he experiences pain on internal and external rotation of the right hip. Imaging reveals flattening of the femoral head. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Perthes disease
Explanation:Understanding Perthes’ Disease
Perthes’ disease is a condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, leading to bone infarction and degeneration. Boys are five times more likely to develop this condition, and around 10% of cases are bilateral. Symptoms include hip pain, limping, stiffness, and reduced range of hip movement. Early changes can be seen on x-rays, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.
Diagnosis is typically made through a plain x-ray, but a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary if symptoms persist despite a normal x-ray. Complications of Perthes’ disease can include osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.
The Catterall staging system is used to classify the severity of the disease, with Stage 1 being the mildest and Stage 4 being the most severe. Management options include casting or bracing to keep the femoral head within the acetabulum, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical intervention for severe deformities in older children.
Overall, most cases of Perthes’ disease will resolve with conservative management, and early diagnosis can improve outcomes. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they suspect a child may be affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Correct
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You are a doctor in the emergency department. A 33-year-old man comes in with weakness in his hand. He was playing basketball with his friends and fell on his hand an hour ago. During the examination, it is observed that the patient cannot extend his forearm, wrist, and fingers, and there is unopposed flexion of the wrist.
Which nerve is most likely affected?Your Answer: Radial
Explanation:A patient with a humeral midshaft fracture is experiencing wrist drop, which is indicative of radial nerve injury. This is characterized by the inability to extend the forearm, wrist, and fingers, and unopposed flexion of the wrist. It is important to note that injury to the axillary nerve results in flattened deltoid, while median nerve injury can cause paralysis of the thenar muscles or loss of pronation of the forearm and weak wrist flexion. Musculocutaneous nerve injury primarily affects elbow flexion and supination and is unlikely to affect the movements of the forearm, wrist, and fingers. Ulnar nerve injury, on the other hand, leads to a claw hand rather than wrist drop.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is seen on the geriatrics ward 3 days after a hip replacement surgery for a fractured hip. The doctor decides to initiate a RANK ligand inhibitor for the secondary prevention of osteoporosis.
What medication will be started?Your Answer: Letrozole
Correct Answer: Denosumab
Explanation:Denosumab is a medication used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting the development of osteoclasts through RANKL inhibition. It is administered via subcutaneous injection every six months and can also be given in larger doses to prevent pathological fractures in patients with bone metastases. However, denosumab may cause hypocalcaemia, so patients should have their vitamin D levels checked and replaced if necessary before starting treatment. Raloxifene, a selective oestrogen receptor modulator, is another option for osteoporosis management, but it carries an increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Bisphosphonates, such as alendronate or risedronate, are typically the first-line treatment for osteoporosis.
Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns
Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.
The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.
Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl is referred to a paediatrician by her dentist due to dental imperfections. The child has a history of multiple fractures from minor injuries.
During the examination, the paediatrician observes blue sclera in the child.
The mother is informed of the diagnosis and the potential complications associated with it.
What is a recognized complication of this condition?Your Answer: Fragile skin
Correct Answer: Deafness
Explanation:Patients with osteogenesis imperfecta typically develop the condition during childhood, with a medical history of multiple fractures from minor trauma and potential dental problems. Blue sclera is a common characteristic. Additionally, these patients may experience deafness due to otosclerosis.
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is characterized by hyperflexible joints, stretchy skin, and fragility.
Wide spaced nipples are not typically associated with osteogenesis imperfecta, but rather with Turner syndrome.
Understanding Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides.
This condition typically presents in childhood, with individuals experiencing fractures following minor trauma. Other common features include blue sclera, deafness secondary to otosclerosis, and dental imperfections. Despite these symptoms, adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal in individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of osteogenesis imperfecta is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 7
Correct
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A 23-year-old individual presents to the emergency department with a gym-related injury. While lifting a heavy barbell off the floor, they experienced a hamstring pull. Upon examination, the doctor notes weak knee flexion facilitated by the biceps femoris muscle. The doctor suspects nerve damage to the nerves innervating the short and long head of biceps femoris. Which nerve specifically provides innervation to the short head of biceps femoris?
Your Answer: Common peroneal branch of sciatic nerve
Explanation:The short head of biceps femoris receives innervation from the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve. The superior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus medius and minimus, while the inferior gluteal nerve supplies the gluteus maximus. The perineum is primarily supplied by the pudendal nerve.
The Biceps Femoris Muscle
The biceps femoris is a muscle located in the posterior upper thigh and is part of the hamstring group of muscles. It consists of two heads: the long head and the short head. The long head originates from the ischial tuberosity and inserts into the fibular head. Its actions include knee flexion, lateral rotation of the tibia, and extension of the hip. It is innervated by the tibial division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the profunda femoris artery, inferior gluteal artery, and the superior muscular branches of the popliteal artery.
On the other hand, the short head originates from the lateral lip of the linea aspera and the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur. It also inserts into the fibular head and is responsible for knee flexion and lateral rotation of the tibia. It is innervated by the common peroneal division of the sciatic nerve and supplied by the same arteries as the long head.
Understanding the anatomy and function of the biceps femoris muscle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of injuries and conditions affecting the posterior thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Correct
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A 55-year-old male was diagnosed with gout six months ago. Since then, he has had two episodes. The last episode was three weeks back. He was treated with indomethacin during each episode. Today, he has no symptoms. Hypertension was diagnosed four years ago, which is well-controlled with a thiazide. He also takes pantoprazole occasionally for acid reflux.
What should be taken into consideration for this patient?Your Answer: Stop thiazide
Explanation:Patients with gout should be evaluated for the discontinuation of precipitating drugs, such as thiazides. In cases where hypertension is also present, losartan may be a suitable alternative due to its uricosuric action. During acute management of gout, medications such as colchicine, indomethacin, and steroids may be prescribed. However, since this patient has been symptom-free for three weeks, these medications are not currently necessary. The occasional use of pantoprazole does not require cessation.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old athlete presents to the orthopaedic clinic complaining of pain and swelling on the medial side of the knee joint. The pain is experienced while climbing stairs, but not while walking on level ground. On clinical examination, there is tenderness over the proximal medial tibia and the McMurray test is negative. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Medial meniscus injury
Correct Answer: Pes Anserinus Bursitis
Explanation:The Pes Anserinus, also known as the goose’s foot, is formed by the combination of the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinous muscles as they insert into the anteromedial proximal tibia.
Overuse injuries can lead to Pes Anserinus Bursitis, which is frequently seen in athletes. The primary symptom is pain in the medial proximal tibia. A negative McMurray test can rule out medial meniscal injury.
The Sartorius Muscle: Anatomy and Function
The sartorius muscle is the longest strap muscle in the human body and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most superficial muscle in this region and has a unique origin and insertion. The muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts on the medial surface of the body of the tibia, anterior to the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles. The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2,3).
The primary action of the sartorius muscle is to flex the hip and knee, while also slightly abducting the thigh and rotating it laterally. It also assists with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur, which is important for movements such as crossing one leg over the other. The middle third of the muscle, along with its strong underlying fascia, forms the roof of the adductor canal. This canal contains important structures such as the femoral vessels, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis.
In summary, the sartorius muscle is a unique muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh that plays an important role in hip and knee flexion, thigh abduction, and lateral rotation. Its location and relationship to the adductor canal make it an important landmark for surgical procedures in the thigh region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Correct
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A man in his early 50s arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and haematemesis. Upon diagnosis, he is found to have a peptic ulcer. During resuscitation, he reveals that he has been taking ibuprofen for several years. His physician informs him that this could be the reason for the bleeding. What is the explanation for this?
Your Answer: Reduced prostaglandin synthesis
Explanation:The mechanism of action of NSAIDs like ibuprofen, which involves inhibiting COX enzymes and reducing prostaglandin synthesis, increases the risk of peptic ulcers. This is because prostaglandins play a crucial role in gastroprotection by stimulating gastric mucus production, and lower levels of prostaglandins make individuals more susceptible to peptic ulcers.
It is important to note that increased prostaglandin breakdown does not have the same effect as NSAIDs, and increased prostaglandin synthesis is actually gastroprotective.
While Helicobacter pylori is often found in patients with ulcers and is treated, NSAIDs do not have any effect on the levels of this bacterium.
Understanding Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 Selective NSAIDs
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that work by inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase enzymes, which are responsible for producing key mediators involved in inflammation such as prostaglandins. By reducing the production of these mediators, NSAIDs can help alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. Examples of NSAIDs include ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen, and aspirin.
However, NSAIDs can also have important and common side-effects, such as peptic ulceration and exacerbation of asthma. To address these concerns, COX-2 selective NSAIDs were developed. These medications were designed to reduce the incidence of side-effects seen with traditional NSAIDs, particularly peptic ulceration. Examples of COX-2 selective NSAIDs include celecoxib and etoricoxib.
Despite their potential benefits, COX-2 selective NSAIDs are not widely used due to ongoing concerns about cardiovascular safety. This led to the withdrawal of rofecoxib (‘Vioxx’) in 2004. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential risks and benefits of NSAIDs and COX-2 selective NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Correct
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A 67-year-old retired firefighter visits the clinic complaining of recurring burning chest pain. He reports that the pain worsens after consuming take-away food and alcohol, and he experiences increased belching. The patient has a medical history of high cholesterol, type two diabetes, and osteoarthritis. He is currently taking atorvastatin, metformin, gliclazide, naproxen, and omeprazole, which he frequently forgets to take. Which medication is the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Naproxen
Explanation:Peptic ulcers can be caused by the use of NSAIDs as a medication. Symptoms of peptic ulcer disease include a burning pain in the chest, which may be accompanied by belching, alcohol consumption, and high-fat foods. However, it is important to rule out any cardiac causes of the pain, especially in patients with a medical history of high cholesterol and type two diabetes.
Other medications that can cause peptic ulcer disease include aspirin and corticosteroids. Each medication has its own specific side effects, such as myalgia with atorvastatin, hypoglycemia with gliclazide, abdominal pain with metformin, and bradycardia with propranolol.
Understanding Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 Selective NSAIDs
Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are medications that work by inhibiting the activity of cyclooxygenase enzymes, which are responsible for producing key mediators involved in inflammation such as prostaglandins. By reducing the production of these mediators, NSAIDs can help alleviate pain and reduce inflammation. Examples of NSAIDs include ibuprofen, diclofenac, naproxen, and aspirin.
However, NSAIDs can also have important and common side-effects, such as peptic ulceration and exacerbation of asthma. To address these concerns, COX-2 selective NSAIDs were developed. These medications were designed to reduce the incidence of side-effects seen with traditional NSAIDs, particularly peptic ulceration. Examples of COX-2 selective NSAIDs include celecoxib and etoricoxib.
Despite their potential benefits, COX-2 selective NSAIDs are not widely used due to ongoing concerns about cardiovascular safety. This led to the withdrawal of rofecoxib (‘Vioxx’) in 2004. As with any medication, it is important to discuss the potential risks and benefits of NSAIDs and COX-2 selective NSAIDs with a healthcare provider before use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Correct
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A 60-year-old man comes to the dermatology clinic complaining of a rash. During the examination, the doctor observes a linear rash on the lateral thigh of the left leg. The patient reports having undergone a left hip replacement surgery recently, and the rash has developed over the surgical scar.
What skin condition is most likely responsible for this presentation?Your Answer: Psoriasis
Explanation:The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Lesions at the Site of Injury
The Koebner phenomenon refers to the occurrence of skin lesions at the site of injury. This phenomenon is commonly observed in various skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, warts, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and molluscum contagiosum. In other words, if a person with any of these skin conditions experiences trauma or injury to their skin, they may develop new lesions in the affected area.
This phenomenon is named after Heinrich Koebner, a German dermatologist who first described it in 1876. The exact mechanism behind the Koebner phenomenon is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the immune system’s response to injury. In some cases, the injury may trigger an autoimmune response, leading to the development of new lesions.
The Koebner phenomenon can be a frustrating and challenging aspect of managing skin conditions. It is important for individuals with these conditions to take precautions to avoid injury to their skin, such as wearing protective clothing or avoiding activities that may cause trauma. Additionally, prompt treatment of any new lesions that develop can help prevent further spread of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with non-reconstructible arterial disease is having an above knee amputation. The posterior compartment muscles are being separated. Which muscle is not located in the posterior compartment of the thigh?
Your Answer: Quadriceps femoris
Explanation:The anterior compartment contains the quadriceps femoris.
Fascial Compartments of the Leg
The leg is divided into compartments by fascial septae, which are thin layers of connective tissue. In the thigh, there are three compartments: the anterior, medial, and posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the femoral nerve and artery, as well as the quadriceps femoris muscle group. The medial compartment contains the obturator nerve and artery, as well as the adductor muscles and gracilis muscle. The posterior compartment contains the sciatic nerve and branches of the profunda femoris artery, as well as the hamstrings muscle group.
In the lower leg, there are four compartments: the anterior, posterior (divided into deep and superficial compartments), lateral, and deep posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the deep peroneal nerve and anterior tibial artery, as well as the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneus tertius muscles. The posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the deep and superficial muscles. The lateral compartment contains the superficial peroneal nerve and peroneal artery, as well as the peroneus longus and brevis muscles. The deep posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior, and popliteus muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Correct
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Which of the following poses the lowest risk of developing osteoporosis for individuals in their 20s?
Your Answer: Obesity
Explanation:Osteoporosis is more likely to occur in individuals with low body weight.
Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.
If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is true in relation to the sartorius muscle?
Your Answer: Causes extension of the knee
Correct Answer: Forms the Pes anserinus with Gracilis and semitendinous muscle
Explanation:The superficial branch of the femoral nerve provides innervation to it. It is a constituent of the pes anserinus.
The Sartorius Muscle: Anatomy and Function
The sartorius muscle is the longest strap muscle in the human body and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh. It is the most superficial muscle in this region and has a unique origin and insertion. The muscle originates from the anterior superior iliac spine and inserts on the medial surface of the body of the tibia, anterior to the gracilis and semitendinosus muscles. The sartorius muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve (L2,3).
The primary action of the sartorius muscle is to flex the hip and knee, while also slightly abducting the thigh and rotating it laterally. It also assists with medial rotation of the tibia on the femur, which is important for movements such as crossing one leg over the other. The middle third of the muscle, along with its strong underlying fascia, forms the roof of the adductor canal. This canal contains important structures such as the femoral vessels, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to vastus medialis.
In summary, the sartorius muscle is a unique muscle in the anterior compartment of the thigh that plays an important role in hip and knee flexion, thigh abduction, and lateral rotation. Its location and relationship to the adductor canal make it an important landmark for surgical procedures in the thigh region.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man has been experiencing mechanical back pain for a few years. Upon waking up one morning, he experiences a sudden onset of pain in his back that travels down his left leg. What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Rupture of the ligamentum flavum
Correct Answer: Prolapse of nucleus pulposus
Explanation:The cause of the symptoms is likely to be intervertebral disk prolapse, which occurs when the nucleus pulposus herniates.
Intervertebral Discs
Intervertebral discs are composed of two main parts: the outer annulus fibrosus and the inner nucleus pulposus. The annulus fibrosus is made up of multiple layers of fibrocartilage, while the nucleus pulposus contains loose fibers suspended in a mucoprotein gel with a jelly-like consistency. The nucleus of the disc acts as a shock absorber, and pressure on the disc can cause the posterior protrusion of the nucleus pulposus. This is most commonly seen in the lumbrosacral and lower cervical areas.
The discs are separated by hyaline cartilage, and there is one disc between each pair of vertebrae, except for C1/2 and the sacrococcygeal vertebrae. Understanding the structure and function of intervertebral discs is important in the diagnosis and treatment of spinal conditions. By providing support and cushioning to the spine, these discs play a crucial role in maintaining spinal health and mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of a painful rash on his face after experiencing lethargy and headache for 3 days. The man's vital signs are within normal limits. Upon examination, a distinct line of blisters is observed on the upper left side of his face.
What is the most frequent complication associated with this condition in the elderly population?Your Answer: Cranial or peripheral nerve palsy
Correct Answer: Neuralgia
Explanation:The most common complication of shingles is post-herpetic neuralgia, which is characterized by a burning pain in the affected dermatome. This condition is likely to occur in older individuals, who are also at risk of experiencing more severe and prolonged pain. While bacterial superinfection of cutaneous lesions can occur, it is typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or group A streptococcal species. Shingles can also lead to complications such as pneumonia, meningoencephalitis, hepatitis, and acute retinal necrosis if it affects internal organs.
Shingles is a painful blistering rash caused by reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus. It is more common in older individuals and those with immunosuppressive conditions. The diagnosis is usually clinical and management includes analgesia, antivirals, and reminding patients they are potentially infectious. Complications include post-herpetic neuralgia, herpes zoster ophthalmicus, and herpes zoster oticus. Antivirals should be used within 72 hours to reduce the incidence of post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man acquires an infection in the pulp of his pinky finger. What is the closest location to which this infection can spread?
Your Answer: The distal interphalangeal joint
Correct Answer: Proximal to the flexor retinaculum
Explanation:The tendon sheath that runs from the little finger to the proximal part of the carpal tunnel poses a considerable risk of facilitating the spread of infections towards the proximal direction.
Anatomy of the Hand: Fascia, Compartments, and Tendons
The hand is composed of bones, muscles, and tendons that work together to perform various functions. The bones of the hand include eight carpal bones, five metacarpals, and 14 phalanges. The intrinsic muscles of the hand include the interossei, which are supplied by the ulnar nerve, and the lumbricals, which flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joint. The thenar eminence contains the abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and flexor pollicis brevis, while the hypothenar eminence contains the opponens digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and abductor digiti minimi.
The fascia of the palm is thin over the thenar and hypothenar eminences but relatively thick elsewhere. The palmar aponeurosis covers the soft tissues and overlies the flexor tendons. The palmar fascia is continuous with the antebrachial fascia and the fascia of the dorsum of the hand. The hand is divided into compartments by fibrous septa, with the thenar compartment lying lateral to the lateral septum, the hypothenar compartment lying medial to the medial septum, and the central compartment containing the flexor tendons and their sheaths, the lumbricals, the superficial palmar arterial arch, and the digital vessels and nerves. The deepest muscular plane is the adductor compartment, which contains adductor pollicis.
The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) enter the common flexor sheath deep to the flexor retinaculum. The tendons enter the central compartment of the hand and fan out to their respective digital synovial sheaths. The fibrous digital sheaths contain the flexor tendons and their synovial sheaths, extending from the heads of the metacarpals to the base of the distal phalanges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy is presented to the GP by his father. He has developed a rash around his mouth and nose over the past few days. It started as a flat red patch at the corner of his mouth but quickly progressed to a blistering rash that oozes fluid. During today's examination, the rash appears to have a crusty, golden appearance on the surface. The child is healthy otherwise and has no prior history of skin problems. Based on this history and examination, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Impetigo
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis based on the history and examination is impetigo or eczema herpeticum, which can have similar presentations and are difficult to differentiate clinically. However, since the child has no prior history of skin conditions, eczema herpeticum is less probable. Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.
Option 1: Atopic eczema would not manifest with a yellowish crust.
Option 3: Chickenpox would not exhibit this particular progression.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.
The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.
Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.
Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following his first dose of allopurinol for gout management. He displays redness covering 40% of his skin, with skin separation upon pressure. The patient also exhibits pyrexia and tachycardia.
What are the acute complications that require close monitoring by the healthcare team in this case?Your Answer: Hyperthermia, cardiac arrhythmias
Correct Answer: Fluid loss, electrolyte derangement
Explanation:Both frostbite and necrotizing fasciitis can lead to complications similar to those seen in burn patients, including volume loss, electrolyte imbalances, hypothermia, and secondary infections. Despite the initial fever, the break in the skin can cause hypothermia.
Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. The condition causes the skin to appear scalded over a large area and is considered by some to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include feeling unwell, a high temperature, and a rapid heartbeat. Additionally, the skin may separate with mild lateral pressure, a sign known as Nikolsky’s sign.
Several drugs are known to cause TEN, including phenytoin, sulphonamides, allopurinol, penicillins, carbamazepine, and NSAIDs. If TEN is suspected, the first step is to stop the use of the drug that is causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Electrolyte derangement and volume loss are potential complications that need to be monitored. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment that has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents such as cyclosporine and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.
In summary, TEN is a severe skin disorder that can be caused by certain drugs. It is important to recognize the symptoms and stop the use of the drug causing the reaction. Supportive care is often required, and patients may need to be treated in an intensive care unit. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment, and other options include immunosuppressive agents and plasmapheresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 21
Correct
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An 81-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with a Colles fracture in her left wrist. Upon conducting a bone scan, it is revealed that she has osteoporosis. The medical team decides to initiate treatment. What category of medications is recommended?
Your Answer: Bisphosphonates
Explanation:Bisphosphonates, particularly alendronate, are the recommended treatment for fragility fractures in postmenopausal women. Additionally, calcium and vitamin D supplementation should be considered, along with lifestyle advice on nutrition, exercise, and fall prevention.
Bisphosphonates: Uses, Adverse Effects, and Patient Counselling
Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, the cells responsible for breaking down bone tissue. Bisphosphonates are commonly used to prevent and treat osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.
However, bisphosphonates can cause adverse effects such as oesophageal reactions, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which includes fever, myalgia, and arthralgia following administration. Hypocalcemia may also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually clinically unimportant.
To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or another oral medication and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment. However, calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate when starting bisphosphonate treatment for osteoporosis. Vitamin D supplements are usually given.
The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the level of risk. Some experts recommend stopping bisphosphonates after five years if the patient is under 75 years old, has a femoral neck T-score of more than -2.5, and is at low risk according to FRAX/NOGG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Correct
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A 78-year-old man presents with symptoms of claudication. It is decided to assess his ankle brachial pressure index. Using a handheld doppler device, the signal from the dorsalis pedis artery is detected. Which vessel does this artery continue from?
Your Answer: Anterior tibial artery
Explanation:The anterior tibial artery continues as the dorsalis pedis.
The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 23
Correct
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A 48-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of tiredness, increased urinary frequency, constipation, and low back pain for the past 3 months. She has a 20-year history of smoking 1 pack of cigarettes per day and drinks socially. Her family is concerned about depression. On examination, her pulse is 72/min, and her blood pressure is 160/90 mmHg.
The following are her lab results:
- Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Urea 2.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 75 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- PTH 19 pmol/L (0.8 - 8.5)
- Vitamin D 35 nmol/L (> 25)
- Serum calcium (corrected) X mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
- Serum phosphate Y mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
- Alkaline phosphatase Z umol/L (30-100)
What are the possible values for X, Y, and Z in this patient?Your Answer: X = 3.7; Y = 0.4; Z = 175
Explanation:Primary hyperparathyroidism is indicated by elevated levels of serum calcium, decreased levels of serum phosphate, increased levels of ALP, and increased levels of PTH.
Lab Values for Bone Disorders
When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information about the condition. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically normal. However, in osteomalacia, calcium and phosphate levels are decreased while ALP and PTH levels are increased. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can result in secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is marked by decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels. Paget’s disease, on the other hand, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels but increased ALP levels. Finally, osteopetrosis is associated with normal levels of calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH. By analyzing these lab values, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat bone disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old male presents to the GP with fatigue and shortness of breath. He states that he is taking methotrexate for psoriasis. The GP takes some bloods, and finds the following results in his full blood count (FBC):
Hb 90 g/L
MCV 90 fL
Platelets 70 * 109/L
WBC 2.5 * 109/L
Neuts 1.5 * 109/L)
Lymphs 0.7 * 109/L
Mono 0.2 * 109/L
Eosin 0.1 * 109/L
The GP suspects this to be an adverse effect of methotrexate.
What adverse effect is indicated by these results?Your Answer: Agranulocytosis
Correct Answer: Pancytopaenia
Explanation:The patient’s blood test indicates a decrease in red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, which is known as pancytopenia. This condition is caused by severe bone marrow suppression, which is a common side effect of methotrexate. Anemia, on the other hand, would only result in a low hemoglobin level and cannot account for the low platelet and white blood cell counts.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Correct
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Which of these nerves passes through the greater and lesser sciatic foramina?
Your Answer: Pudendal nerve
Explanation:The structures passing through the lesser and greater sciatic foramina, from medial to lateral, are the pudendal nerve, internal pudendal artery, and nerve to obturator internus. The pudendal nerve originates from the ventral rami of the second, third, and fourth sacral nerves and passes through the greater sciatic foramen before crossing the spine of the ischium and reentering the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen. It gives off the inferior rectal nerves and terminates into the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris.
The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents
The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.
In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents at the outpatient clinic after a routine surgery and reports reduced sensation on the dorso-lateral aspect of her foot. Which nerve is the most probable cause of this issue?
Your Answer: Deep peroneal
Correct Answer: Sural
Explanation:The lateral aspect of the foot is innervated by the sural nerve, which travels parallel to the short saphenous vein. During surgery on the short saphenous vein, there is a risk of damaging the sural nerve.
Cutaneous Sensation in the Foot
Cutaneous sensation in the foot is the ability to feel touch, pressure, temperature, and pain on the skin of the foot. Different regions of the foot are innervated by different nerves, which are responsible for transmitting sensory information to the brain. The lateral plantar region is innervated by the sural nerve, while the dorsum (excluding the 1st web space) is innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. The 1st web space is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve, and the extremities of the toes are innervated by the medial and lateral plantar nerves. The proximal plantar region is innervated by the tibial nerve, while the medial plantar region is innervated by the medial plantar nerve and the lateral plantar region is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve. Understanding the innervation of the foot is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect cutaneous sensation in this area.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 27
Correct
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Which of the following bones is associated with the distal articular surface of the cuboid?
Your Answer: 5th metatarsal
Explanation:The cuboid bone is situated on the outer side of the foot, positioned between the heel bone at the back and the fourth and fifth toe bones towards the front.
The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 28
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman with a bony Bankart lesion who suffers from recurrent dislocations is scheduled to have a Laterjet procedure. Your consultant has asked you to scrub in and assist with the procedure. During your pre-operative conversation with the patient, she inquires about the procedure. You explain that the surgery involves relocating the coracoid process, along with its associated muscles, to the front of the glenoid where the bony Bankart lesion is located. Which of the subsequent structures do not connect to the coracoid process?
Your Answer: Long head of biceps brachii
Explanation:The correct answer is the long head of biceps brachii, which originates from the supraglenoid tubercle. The coracoid process of the scapula serves as the site of origin for coracobrachialis and the short head of biceps brachii, as well as the site of insertion for pectoralis minor. Additionally, it serves as the attachment site for the coracoclavicular, coracoacromial, and coracohumeral ligaments.
During the Laterjet procedure, a portion of the coracoid process and its attached muscles are removed and repositioned to the front of the glenoid. This helps to prevent dislocation by using the coracoid as a block and reinforcing the front of the shoulder capsule. This procedure is typically performed to treat a bony Bankart lesion, which is a bone lesion in the anterior glenoid fossa that can cause anterior dislocation of the shoulder joint.
The shoulder joint is a shallow synovial ball and socket joint that is inherently unstable but capable of a wide range of movement. Stability is provided by the muscles of the rotator cuff. The glenoid labrum is a fibrocartilaginous rim attached to the free edge of the glenoid cavity. The fibrous capsule attaches to the scapula, humerus, and tendons of various muscles. Movements of the shoulder joint are controlled by different muscles. The joint is closely related to important anatomical structures such as the brachial plexus, axillary artery and vein, and various nerves and vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A woman is undergoing excision of a sub mandibular gland. During the procedure, a vessel is damaged that is located between the gland and the mandible. What is the most probable identity of this vessel?
Your Answer: Lingual artery
Correct Answer: Facial artery
Explanation:Stone formation is favored by the thick consistency of submandibular gland secretions. Additionally, the majority of stones are visible on radiographs. During gland removal surgery, the facial artery is typically tied off as it runs between the gland and mandible. The lingual artery may also be encountered later in the procedure when Wharton’s duct is being moved.
Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland
The submandibular gland is located beneath the mandible and is surrounded by the superficial platysma, deep fascia, and mandible. It is also in close proximity to various structures such as the submandibular lymph nodes, facial vein, marginal mandibular nerve, cervical branch of the facial nerve, deep facial artery, mylohyoid muscle, hyoglossus muscle, lingual nerve, submandibular ganglion, and hypoglossal nerve.
The submandibular duct, also known as Wharton’s duct, is responsible for draining saliva from the gland. It opens laterally to the lingual frenulum on the anterior floor of the mouth and is approximately 5 cm in length. The lingual nerve wraps around the duct, and as it passes forward, it crosses medial to the nerve to lie above it before crossing back, lateral to it, to reach a position below the nerve.
The submandibular gland receives sympathetic innervation from the superior cervical ganglion and parasympathetic innervation from the submandibular ganglion via the lingual nerve. Its arterial supply comes from a branch of the facial artery, which passes through the gland to groove its deep surface before emerging onto the face by passing between the gland and the mandible. The anterior facial vein provides venous drainage, and the gland’s lymphatic drainage goes to the deep cervical and jugular chains of nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 30
Correct
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A 42 year old woman comes to your general practice with a complaint of right wrist pain that has been bothering her for a year. The pain worsens with flexion and she rates it as a 7 on the pain scale. She has tried pain medication but with little success. Upon examination, there is no indication of synovitis, but a small effusion is present in the right wrist. Onycholysis is also observed. Purple plaques are present on the extensor surfaces of the elbows bilaterally. What is the clinical diagnosis?
Your Answer: Psoriatic arthritis
Explanation:Psoriatic arthritis is strongly linked to psoriasis, with skin and nail bed changes serving as indicators of this related pathological process. Diagnosis is made through clinical evaluation. For comprehensive information on these conditions, Arthritis Research UK is a valuable resource.
Psoriatic arthropathy is a type of inflammatory arthritis that is associated with psoriasis. It is classified as one of the seronegative spondyloarthropathies and is characterized by joint inflammation that often precedes the development of skin lesions. While it affects both males and females equally, only 10-20% of patients with psoriasis develop this condition. The presentation of psoriatic arthropathy can vary, with the most common types being symmetric polyarthritis and asymmetrical oligoarthritis. Other signs include psoriatic skin lesions, periarticular disease, and nail changes. X-rays may show erosive changes and new bone formation, as well as a pencil-in-cup appearance. Treatment is similar to that of rheumatoid arthritis, but mild cases may only require NSAIDs and newer monoclonal antibodies may be used. Overall, psoriatic arthropathy has a better prognosis than RA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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