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  • Question 1 - You assess a 30-year-old woman with a background of bipolar disorder and prior...

    Correct

    • You assess a 30-year-old woman with a background of bipolar disorder and prior instances of hostile and aggressive conduct.
      What SINGLE factor has been demonstrated to heighten the likelihood of aggression?

      Your Answer: Coercive behaviour

      Explanation:

      There are several factors that are known to increase the risk of violence from patients. These include being male, being young (under 40 years old), having poor levels of self-care, exhibiting coercive behavior, having a history of prior violent episodes, making multiple attendances to the hospital, being intoxicated with alcohol, and experiencing organic psychosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      372.1
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  • Question 2 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency Department. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
      Which ONE of the following is considered to be a negative prognostic factor in schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Young age of onset

      Explanation:

      Poor prognostic factors in schizophrenia include an insidious onset, meaning that the symptoms gradually develop over time without any identifiable precipitating event. Additionally, a family history of schizophrenia, a young age of onset, and a history of previous episodes are also considered to be negative indicators for prognosis. Low intelligence, the absence of affective symptoms, and a loss of emotion are further factors that contribute to a poor prognosis. Delayed treatment and the absence of catatonic symptoms are also associated with a less favorable outcome in individuals with schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency Department. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
      Which ONE of the following is acknowledged as a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Blunted affect

      Explanation:

      The first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia, as described by Kurt Schneider, include auditory hallucinations such as hearing 3rd person voices discussing the patient, experiencing thought echo, and receiving commentary on one’s actions. Additionally, passivity phenomena may occur, such as thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, and feelings of thoughts and actions being under external control. Delusions, which can be primary or secondary, are also common in schizophrenia.

      On the other hand, chronic schizophrenia is characterized by negative symptoms. These include poor motivation and self-care, social withdrawal, depression, flat and blunted affect, emotional incongruity, decreased activity, and poverty of thought and speech. These symptoms are often present in individuals with chronic schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her family due to her recent...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her family due to her recent history of strange behavior. She is unable to recall events from a few years ago and also has difficulty answering questions about what has happened over the past few days. She attributes her poor memory to a recent car accident she was involved in. Her family reports that she drinks excessively. She also provides peculiar explanations to some other inquiries but remains friendly and polite during the consultation.
      Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Korsakoff syndrome

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff syndrome is a form of dementia that occurs due to a lack of thiamine (vitamin B1) in the body. This condition is most commonly observed in individuals who have a long history of alcoholism. The main features of Korsakoff syndrome include anterograde amnesia, patchy retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. Additionally, many patients also experience difficulties with language (aphasia), movement (apraxia), recognition (agnosia), or executive functioning. It is important to note that Korsakoff syndrome often coexists with Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is characterized by a triad of symptoms including ophthalmoplegia, altered mental state, and gait disturbance (ataxia). When both conditions are present, it is referred to as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (WKS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 5 - You review a patient with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing...

    Correct

    • You review a patient with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing acute psychosis. During the consultation, you observe that it is challenging to engage in effective communication with her as she frequently repeats words and statements. Additionally, you notice that everything she says appears to be excessively verbose.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Logorrhoea

      Explanation:

      Logorrhoea is a form of communication disorder characterized by an excessive use of words and repetitive speech patterns. This condition can result in challenges when it comes to effective communication and may lead to incoherent conversations. Logorrhoea is commonly observed in individuals with frontal lobe disorders and thalamic lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old female patient has presented to the Emergency Department intoxicated on multiple...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient has presented to the Emergency Department intoxicated on multiple occasions over the past few weeks. Throughout this period, she has experienced various minor injuries. You would like to screen her for alcohol misuse.
      What is the MOST SUITABLE course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Use AUDIT questionnaire

      Correct Answer: Use CAGE tool

      Explanation:

      CAGE, AUDIT, and T-ACE are all tools used to screen for alcohol misuse. The CAGE tool is the most commonly used by clinicians and consists of four simple questions. It is easy to remember and effective in identifying potential alcohol-related issues. The CAGE questionnaire asks if the individual has ever felt the need to cut down on their drinking, if others have criticized their drinking, if they have felt guilty about their drinking, and if they have ever had a drink first thing in the morning to alleviate a hangover or calm their nerves. A score of 2 or 3 suggests a high likelihood of alcoholism, while a score of 4 is almost diagnostic.

      T-ACE is specifically designed to screen for alcohol abuse in pregnant women. It helps identify potential issues and allows for appropriate intervention and support.

      The AUDIT tool is a more comprehensive questionnaire consisting of 10 points. It is typically used after initial screening and provides a more detailed assessment of alcohol consumption and potential dependency. The AUDIT-C, a simplified version of the AUDIT tool, is often used in primary care settings. It consists of three questions and is a quick and effective way to assess alcohol-related concerns.

      While asking patients about their alcohol intake can provide some insight into excessive drinking, the screening tools are specifically designed to assess alcohol dependence and hazardous drinking. They offer a more comprehensive evaluation and help healthcare professionals identify individuals who may require further intervention or support.

      It is important to note that advising patients on the harmful effects of alcohol is a valuable component of brief interventions. However, it is not as effective as using screening tools to identify potential alcohol-related issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old woman has been brought into the Emergency Department by the Police...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman has been brought into the Emergency Department by the Police with unusual behavior. She has been brought in under 'section'. She is known to suffer from bipolar disorder, but her friend states that she hasn't been taking her medications recently. She became agitated, violent, and aggressive after being approached by the Police and is now handcuffed. She is saying that she hears voices and that she can read people's minds. She is refusing oral medications.
      According to the NICE guidelines for short-term management of violent and aggressive patients, what should be used as the first-line for rapid tranquilization of this patient?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol plus promethazine

      Explanation:

      Rapid tranquillisation involves the administration of medication through injection when oral medication is not feasible or appropriate and immediate sedation is necessary. The current guidelines from NICE recommend two options for rapid tranquillisation in adults: intramuscular lorazepam alone or a combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine. The choice of medication depends on various factors such as advanced statements, potential intoxication, previous responses to these medications, interactions with other drugs, and existing physical health conditions or pregnancy.

      If there is insufficient information to determine the appropriate medication or if the individual has not taken antipsychotic medication before, intramuscular lorazepam is recommended. However, if there is evidence of cardiovascular disease or a prolonged QT interval, or if an electrocardiogram has not been conducted, the combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine should be avoided, and intramuscular lorazepam should be used instead.

      If there is a partial response to intramuscular lorazepam, a second dose should be considered. If there is no response to intramuscular lorazepam, then intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine should be considered. If there is a partial response to this combination, a further dose should be considered.

      If there is no response to intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine and intramuscular lorazepam has not been used yet, it should be considered. However, if intramuscular lorazepam has already been administered, it is recommended to arrange an urgent team meeting to review the situation and seek a second opinion if necessary.

      After rapid tranquillisation, the patient should be closely monitored for any side effects, and their vital signs should be regularly checked, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, temperature, hydration level, and level of consciousness. These observations should be conducted at least hourly until there are no further concerns about the patient’s physical health.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidance on violence and aggression: short-term management in mental health, health, and community settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 8 - A father brings his 3-year-old daughter to the Emergency Department. They have previously...

    Correct

    • A father brings his 3-year-old daughter to the Emergency Department. They have previously presented 8 times over the past nine months and on each occasion have been discharged. She has previously been investigated for multiple episodes of abdominal pain, and no cause found. Investigations have included routine blood tests, a negative ultrasound for appendicitis, and a negative CT scan. Four weeks ago, she presented with dad being concerned about the possibility of a urinary tract infection but was discharged without treatment, and dad had been reassured. Today she has presented having had several alleged episodes of diarrhea and vomiting at home. She has not been eating or drinking and has been spiking fevers. She appears undistressed and has had no witnessed vomiting episodes in the department. Her observations today are: temperature: 37.0°C, heart rate 110 bpm, SaO2 99% on air, RR 30, capillary refill time <2 seconds.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meadow syndrome

      Explanation:

      Meadow syndrome, formerly known as Munchausen syndrome by proxy, is the most likely diagnosis in this case. It involves a caregiver intentionally creating the appearance of health problems in another person, usually their own child. This can involve causing harm to the child or manipulating test results to make it seem like the child is sick or injured.

      There are several features that support a diagnosis of Meadow syndrome. These include symptoms or signs that only appear when the parent or guardian is present, symptoms that are only observed by the parent or guardian, and symptoms that do not respond to treatment or medication. Additionally, there may be a history of unlikely illnesses, such as a significant amount of blood loss without any change in physiological data. The parent or guardian may also seek multiple clinical opinions despite already receiving a definitive opinion, and they may persistently disagree with the clinical opinion.

      Another characteristic of Meadow syndrome is the significant impact it has on the child’s normal activities, such as frequent school absenteeism. The child may also use aids to daily living that are seemingly unnecessary, like a wheelchair. It is important to note that a principal risk factor for this condition is the parent having experienced a negative event or trauma during their own childhood, such as the death of a parent or being a victim of child abuse or neglect.

      It is crucial not to confuse Meadow syndrome with Munchausen syndrome, where an individual pretends to be ill or deliberately produces symptoms in themselves. Hypochondriasis is another condition where a person excessively worries about having a serious illness. Somatic symptom disorder, previously known as somatisation disorder, is characterized by an intense focus on physical symptoms that causes significant emotional distress and impairs functioning. Lastly, Ganser syndrome is a rare dissociative disorder that involves giving nonsensical or incorrect answers to questions and experiencing other dissociative symptoms like fugue, amnesia, or conversion disorder, often accompanied by visual pseudohallucinations and a decreased state of consciousness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her younger brother....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her younger brother. He states her behavior has been strange lately and that he is extremely concerned about her. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
      Which ONE of the following would indicate a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Emotional incongruity

      Explanation:

      Emotional incongruity, although not a primary symptom, is one of the negative symptoms that define chronic schizophrenia. These symptoms, as described by Kurt Schneider, are known as first-rank symptoms. They include auditory hallucinations such as hearing third-person voices discussing the patient, thought echo, and commentary on actions. Passivity phenomena, such as thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, and feelings of thoughts and actions being under external control, are also considered first-rank symptoms. Delusions, which can be primary or secondary, are another characteristic of schizophrenia.

      Chronic schizophrenia is primarily characterized by negative symptoms. These symptoms include poor motivation and self-care, social withdrawal, depression, flat and blunted affect, emotional incongruity, decreased activity, poverty of thought and speech. On the other hand, symptoms like loss of inhibitions, pressure of speech, and grandiose delusions are more indicative of mania. Increased anxiety in social circumstances is often associated with social anxiety disorder.

      In summary, emotional incongruity is a negative symptom of chronic schizophrenia, while the first-rank symptoms described by Kurt Schneider encompass auditory hallucinations, passivity phenomena, and delusions. It is important to differentiate these symptoms from those associated with mania or social anxiety disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man is admitted to the Clinical Decision Unit (CDU) in the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is admitted to the Clinical Decision Unit (CDU) in the early hours of the morning. He was brought in by the police as he’d been causing a disturbance in the street. They were concerned that he might have medical issues that need reviewing. He is well known to the department and has a long history of multiple attendances, usually related to substance abuse. He appeared intoxicated on admission, and the decision was made to observe him overnight. He is now fully alert and orientated, and is very apologetic about his behavior the previous night. He does not want to wait to be reviewed by the doctors and wants to go home.
      What is the best course of action for you to take? Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Refer the patient for follow up in the community by the alcohol outreach team

      Explanation:

      This question is assessing various aspects, such as your ability to make decisions, manage long-term conditions, and promote patient self-care.

      The most appropriate action would be to get in touch with the community alcohol outreach team to ensure that the patient receives proper follow-up care. Additionally, it is important to assess the patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) before considering self-discharge. However, this does not indicate the need for long-term follow-up.

      Asking a family member to monitor the patient is not a safe or suitable solution, and providing intravenous fluids and nutritional advice does not address the underlying long-term issues in this case. It would be potentially dangerous to suggest that the patient stops drinking immediately.

      Overall, contacting the community alcohol outreach team for follow-up care is the best course of action in this situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old combat veteran, Sarah, has been diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
    What...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old combat veteran, Sarah, has been diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
      What is the most suitable treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Eye Movement Desensitisation and Reprocessing

      Explanation:

      Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) and trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) are the primary treatment options for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). These therapies should be provided to individuals of all ages, including children, adolescents, and adults, regardless of the time that has passed since the traumatic event. The recommended number of sessions is typically 8-12, although additional sessions may be necessary in cases involving multiple traumas, chronic disability, comorbidities, or social difficulties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 12 - You review a 30-year-old woman with a history of a mental health disorder...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 30-year-old woman with a history of a mental health disorder and self-harming behavior. She is accompanied by the Police and has cut her arm with a sharp object. They would like you to assess her arm injuries and are concerned about her risk of future self-harm.
      When assessing this patient, which of the following features should your examination room have?

      Your Answer: An inward opening door

      Correct Answer: An internal inspection window

      Explanation:

      When evaluating a disturbed or violent patient, your own safety should be the top priority. It is essential that the room you use for the examination has certain features to ensure your well-being. Firstly, there should be an internal inspection window that allows the staff to regularly check on both you and the patient. Additionally, the room should have an unimpeded exit, preferably with an outward opening door that is easy to exit through. It is also crucial to choose a room that is close to well-staffed areas, as this can provide immediate assistance if needed.

      It is highly recommended to avoid examining patients in isolated areas, as it significantly increases the risk of harm to the assessor. While the room should be comfortable, it is unnecessary to have excessive furnishings. In fact, having too much furniture and unnecessary equipment can pose a threat, as they can be used as weapons by the patient. Therefore, it is ideal to remove any excess furniture and unnecessary equipment from the room. In this case, an examination couch is not required and should be avoided, as it could potentially be used as a weapon.

      A secure locking mechanism is not necessary for the room, and it should be easily accessible to other staff members during the assessment. It is important to note that the room should not be used as a detainment area for the patient, and they should never be locked inside. By following these guidelines and ensuring the room has the recommended features, you can prioritize your safety while examining disturbed or violent patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 13 - You review a child with a history of autism who is currently experiencing...

    Correct

    • You review a child with a history of autism who is currently experiencing severe communication difficulties. You attempt to engage in conversation with the child but find it challenging to comprehend their speech. Their language lacks coherence and seems to consist of random words and phrases.
      Which ONE of the following communication disorders is the child displaying?

      Your Answer: Word salad

      Explanation:

      A word salad refers to a jumbled or incomprehensible combination of seemingly arbitrary words and phrases. This phenomenon is frequently observed in individuals with schizophrenia and dementia.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 14 - A 45-year-old man presents with a history of anxiety and thoughts of self-harm....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a history of anxiety and thoughts of self-harm. You utilize the modified SAD PERSONS score to evaluate his risk.
      Which ONE of the following statements is accurate regarding this risk assessment tool?

      Your Answer: A history of divorce indicates increased risk

      Explanation:

      The modified SAD PERSONS scoring system is a valuable tool used to evaluate a patient’s risk of suicide. This scoring system consists of ten yes/no questions, and points are assigned for each affirmative answer. The points are distributed as follows: 1 point for being male, 1 point for being younger than 19 or older than 45 years, 2 points for experiencing depression or hopelessness, 1 point for having a history of previous suicidal attempts or psychiatric care, 1 point for excessive alcohol or drug use, 2 points for exhibiting a loss of rational thinking due to psychotic or organic illness, 1 point for being single, widowed, or divorced, 2 points for an organized or serious suicide attempt, 1 point for lacking social support, and 2 points for expressing future intent to repeat or being ambivalent about suicide.

      Based on the total score, the patient’s risk level can be determined. A score of 0-5 suggests that it may be safe to discharge the patient or provide outpatient management, depending on the circumstances. A score of 6-8 indicates that the patient probably requires psychiatric consultation. Finally, a score higher than 8 suggests that the patient likely requires hospital admission for further evaluation and care. This scoring system helps healthcare professionals make informed decisions regarding the appropriate level of intervention and support needed for patients at risk of suicide.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 15 - A teenager presents following a fall. You observe that they are dressed very...

    Correct

    • A teenager presents following a fall. You observe that they are dressed very casually and have a strong smell of alcohol. Looking at their medical records, you notice that they have had multiple similar presentations in the past few months. You decide to administer a screening questionnaire to assess for potential alcohol dependency.
      According to the current NICE guidelines, which of the following screening tests is recommended for this purpose?

      Your Answer: AUDIT

      Explanation:

      The Alcohol Use Disorder Identification Test (AUDIT) has been developed by the World Health Organization as a straightforward screening tool to detect early signs of hazardous and harmful drinking, as well as mild dependence. This assessment is more comprehensive than the CAGE questionnaire and is currently recommended by NICE for identifying alcohol misuse.

      NICE, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, suggests the use of specific assessment tools to evaluate the nature and severity of alcohol misuse. These tools include AUDIT for identification and as a routine outcome measure, SADQ or LDQ for assessing the severity of dependence, CIWA-Ar for evaluating the severity of withdrawal symptoms, and APQ for understanding the nature and extent of problems resulting from alcohol misuse.

      For more information on this topic, you can refer to the NICE guidance titled Alcohol-use disorders: diagnosis, assessment and management of harmful drinking and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 16 - A teenager comes to the Emergency Department, who is known to have a...

    Correct

    • A teenager comes to the Emergency Department, who is known to have a history of substance abuse. In the waiting area, they become aggressive and start demanding to be seen immediately. When this does not happen right away, they begin to shout and threaten some of the other patients in the waiting area.
      What steps should you take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Ask the reception staff to call security

      Explanation:

      In a clinical setting, the prioritization of patient safety and the safety of staff members is crucial. Violence against other patients and health professionals is not tolerated. However, it is important to consider that the patient in question may be intoxicated or experiencing delirium tremens, which could impair their insight into their own behavior.

      To address this situation, it would be wise to call local security as a precautionary measure. This action can serve as a backup if additional assistance is required. However, involving the police at this stage may escalate the situation unnecessarily and potentially agitate the patient further.

      Administering sedation to the patient without understanding their medical history or gathering more information would not be appropriate. It is essential to have a comprehensive understanding of the patient’s condition before considering any interventions.

      Similarly, asking the patient to leave the department immediately could potentially worsen the situation. It is important to approach the situation with caution and consider alternative strategies to de-escalate the situation effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of sleep disturbance (waking up early in...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of sleep disturbance (waking up early in the morning) and difficulty falling asleep, mood changes throughout the day, fatigue, and absence of menstrual periods.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, there are similarities between hypothyroidism and perimenopause in terms of their features. However, the most frequent cause of experiencing these symptoms together is depression. Therefore, it is necessary to delve deeper into this woman’s mood to rule out depression and provide appropriate management.

      To exclude hypothyroidism as a potential cause, a TSH blood test should be conducted. Additionally, it is important to inquire about other symptoms that may align with early menopause.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 18 - You evaluate a 25-year-old woman who is worried about her weight. She has...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 25-year-old woman who is worried about her weight. She has been attempting without success to shed pounds for the past year and believes her cravings are to blame. She has a previous medical history of depression and self-harm, which is managed with sertraline. During the examination, her body mass index is measured at 22, and you observe calluses on her knuckles. Additionally, there are multiple healed linear scars present on both forearms.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Bulimia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by purging. Unlike anorexia nervosa, most individuals with bulimia nervosa have a normal body mass index. The clinical features of bulimia nervosa include binge eating, vomiting after binge episodes, a preoccupation with weight and body image, an obsession with eating, an irresistible craving for food, periods of starvation, and the misuse of diuretics, laxatives, and thyroid hormones. Often, patients may develop calluses on their knuckles from scraping against their teeth while inducing vomiting. Repeated episodes of vomiting can also lead to dental enamel erosion. Additionally, there is a strong correlation between bulimia nervosa and depression as well as deliberate self-harm.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 19 - You assess a 42-year-old individual who is being admitted for alcohol detoxification. They...

    Correct

    • You assess a 42-year-old individual who is being admitted for alcohol detoxification. They have been prescribed Pabrinex by one of your colleagues.
      Which of the following vitamins is not included in Pabrinex?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Pabrinex is a supplement that includes a combination of essential vitamins. These vitamins are Thiamine (also known as vitamin B1), Riboflavin (commonly referred to as vitamin B2), Nicotinamide (which encompasses Vitamin B3, niacin, and nicotinic acid), Pyridoxine (known as vitamin B6), and Ascorbic acid (which is vitamin C). Each of these vitamins plays a crucial role in maintaining our overall health and well-being. By incorporating Pabrinex into our daily routine, we can ensure that our bodies receive the necessary nutrients to support various bodily functions.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of a severe headache. This individual is a known heavy drinker, consuming 15-20 units of alcohol daily. It is currently 3 pm, and the patient is visibly intoxicated. Despite the need for assessment, the patient adamantly refuses and insists on leaving.
      What course of action would be most suitable in this situation?

      Your Answer: Suggest a referral to the community drug and alcohol team

      Explanation:

      When considering the management of long-term conditions and promoting patient self-care, it is important to explore various factors. However, out of the given options, the only safe and viable choice is to refer the patient to the community drug and alcohol team. Without further information about the patient’s headache, a CT scan is not necessary. It would be unwise to advise the patient to stop drinking or to allow them to leave the department without assessing their capacity and obtaining their signature on a self-discharge form. At this point, there is insufficient information to make a referral to the medical team.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 21 - A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremors, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her vital...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremors, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her vital signs reveal an elevated heart rate of 119 bpm. She typically consumes 2-3 large bottles of strong cider daily but has recently run out of money and has not had an alcoholic beverage since the previous evening.
      Which ONE of the following medications, not belonging to the benzodiazepine class, is commonly prescribed in the UK for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are commonly used in the UK to manage symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Currently, only diazepam and chlordiazepoxide have been authorized for this purpose. Other benzodiazepines like alprazolam, clobazam, and lorazepam do not currently have authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms in the UK.

      Carbamazepine is also used in the UK to manage alcohol-related withdrawal symptoms, but it does not have official authorization for this use.

      Clomethiazole, on the other hand, does have UK marketing authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms, but it is only recommended for use in a hospital setting with close supervision. The product information for clomethiazole advises caution when prescribing it to individuals with a history of addiction or outpatient alcoholics. It is also not recommended for patients who continue to drink or abuse alcohol. Combining alcohol with clomethiazole, especially in alcoholics with cirrhosis, can lead to fatal respiratory depression even with short-term use. Therefore, clomethiazole should only be used in a hospital under close supervision or, in rare cases, by specialist units on an outpatient basis with careful monitoring of the daily dosage.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 22 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency Department. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
      Which ONE of the following is considered a positive prognostic factor in schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Acute precipitating event

      Explanation:

      Good prognostic factors in schizophrenia include an acute onset, which means that the symptoms appear suddenly and intensely. Additionally, the presence of a precipitating stressful event can also indicate a better prognosis. It is also beneficial if there is no family history of schizophrenia, but a family history of depression can be considered a positive factor. An older age of onset is another good prognostic factor, as it suggests a potentially milder course of the illness. Furthermore, if there is no history of previous episodes and the individual has normal intelligence, it can contribute to a better prognosis. A preponderance of affective symptoms, such as mood-related symptoms, is also considered favorable. It is important to note that the absence of loss of emotion and receiving prompt treatment are additional factors that can improve the prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 23 - A 14-year-old girl with a background of mental health issues is brought to...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl with a background of mental health issues is brought to the Emergency Department by law enforcement. She is currently being restrained and needs immediate sedation.
      According to the NICE guidelines for short-term management of violent and aggressive patients, what should be the first-line choice for rapid sedation in this patient?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Rapid tranquillisation involves administering medication through injection (typically into the muscle) when oral medication is not feasible or appropriate and immediate sedation is necessary. The current guidelines from NICE regarding the short-term management of violent and aggressive patients recommend the use of intramuscular lorazepam for rapid tranquillisation in children and young individuals. The dosage should be adjusted based on their age and weight. If there is only a partial response to intramuscular lorazepam, the dosage should be assessed according to the child or young person’s age and weight, and an additional dose may be considered.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE guidance on violence and aggression: short-term management in mental health, health, and community settings.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 24 - A young man arrives at the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol...

    Correct

    • A young man arrives at the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. He is seeking admission for 'inpatient detox' and expresses a desire for medication to alleviate his discomfort.
      Which ONE of the following medications will you administer to alleviate his symptoms during his stay in the Emergency Department?

      Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed in the UK to help manage symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Currently, only diazepam and chlordiazepoxide have been approved for this purpose. If you would like to learn more about the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal or the RCEM syllabus reference, please refer to the provided links. Additionally, information on alcohol and substance misuse can be found in the MHC1 section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 25 - A 60-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department by the Police. She...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department by the Police. She is handcuffed and has bitten one of the Police Officers accompanying her. She is very aggressive and violent and has a history of bipolar disorder. She has a history of hypertension and had a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction two years ago.

      According to the NICE guidelines for short-term management of violent and aggressive patients, what should be used as the first-line treatment for rapid tranquillisation of this patient?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Rapid tranquillisation involves the administration of medication through injection when oral medication is not feasible or appropriate and immediate sedation is necessary. The current guidelines from NICE recommend two options for rapid tranquillisation in adults: intramuscular lorazepam alone or a combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine. The choice of medication depends on various factors such as advanced statements, potential intoxication, previous responses to these medications, interactions with other drugs, and existing physical health conditions or pregnancy.

      If there is insufficient information to determine the appropriate medication or if the individual has not taken antipsychotic medication before, intramuscular lorazepam is recommended. However, if there is evidence of cardiovascular disease or a prolonged QT interval, or if an electrocardiogram has not been conducted, the combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine should be avoided, and intramuscular lorazepam should be used instead.

      If there is a partial response to intramuscular lorazepam, a second dose should be considered. If there is no response to intramuscular lorazepam, then intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine should be considered. If there is a partial response to this combination, a further dose should be considered.

      If there is no response to intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine and intramuscular lorazepam has not been used yet, it should be considered. However, if intramuscular lorazepam has already been administered, it is recommended to arrange an urgent team meeting to review the situation and seek a second opinion if necessary.

      After rapid tranquillisation, the patient should be closely monitored for any side effects, and their vital signs should be regularly checked, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, temperature, hydration level, and level of consciousness. These observations should be conducted at least hourly until there are no further concerns about the patient’s physical health.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidance on violence and aggression: short-term management in mental health, health, and community settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which her thoughts are heard as if they are being spoken aloud. She states that it feels almost as though her thoughts are ‘being echoed by a voice in her mind’.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she displaying?

      Your Answer: Thought echo

      Explanation:

      Thought echo is a phenomenon where a patient perceives their own thoughts as if they are being spoken out loud. When there is a slight delay in this perception, it is referred to as echo de la pensée. On the other hand, when the thoughts are heard simultaneously, it is known as Gedankenlautwerden.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 27 - You review a patient with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing...

    Correct

    • You review a patient with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing acute psychosis. He describes a sensation in which his train of thought is abruptly cut off completely. During the consultation, you observe that his speech is frequently interrupted by prolonged periods of silence, lasting for a minute or two.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is he exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Thought blocking

      Explanation:

      Thought blocking is a distressing phenomenon where one’s train of thought is abruptly halted. This occurrence is observed in various psychiatric disorders, such as schizophrenia. It manifests as sudden pauses in a person’s speech, lasting from a few seconds to even a minute or more.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old woman comes in with anxiety. She also exhibits symptoms of dry...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes in with anxiety. She also exhibits symptoms of dry mouth, coughing, lower body temperature, altered perception of time and space, and bloodshot eyes. What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cannabis use

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of cannabis use encompass various aspects. Firstly, it can amplify pre-existing mood states, leading to feelings of euphoria, depression, or anxiety. Additionally, cannabis can distort one’s perception of time and space, creating a sense of disorientation. It also enhances the enjoyment of aesthetic experiences, making them more pleasurable. Visual hallucinations may also occur as a result of cannabis use. Physiological effects include dry mouth, coughing, and irritation of the respiratory tract. Furthermore, cannabis use often leads to an increased appetite and a decrease in body temperature. Reddened eyes and respiratory tract irritation are also common symptoms associated with cannabis use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 29 - You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)...

    Incorrect

    • You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) who is currently experiencing hyperactive symptoms. During the evaluation, you observe that he is constantly repeating words. The repetitions do not appear to have any meaningful connection, but the words have similar sounds.
      Which ONE of the following symptoms is he displaying?

      Your Answer: Logorrhoea

      Correct Answer: Clang association

      Explanation:

      Clang associations refer to the grouping of words, typically rhyming words, that share similar sounds but lack any logical connection. These associations are commonly observed in individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia and bipolar disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      47.6
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  • Question 30 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which her thoughts are heard as if they are being spoken aloud. She states that it feels almost as though her thoughts are ‘being echoed by a voice in her mind’. She hears the voice at the exact same time as thinking the thoughts.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she displaying?

      Your Answer: Gedankenlautwerden

      Explanation:

      Thought echo is a phenomenon where a patient perceives their own thoughts as if they are being spoken out loud. When there is a slight delay in this perception, it is referred to as echo de la pensée. On the other hand, when the thoughts are heard simultaneously, it is known as Gedankenlautwerden.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 31 - You assess a 42-year-old individual who is being admitted for alcohol detoxification. They...

    Correct

    • You assess a 42-year-old individual who is being admitted for alcohol detoxification. They have been prescribed Pabrinex by one of your colleagues.
      What vitamin is included in Pabrinex?

      Your Answer: Vitamin C

      Explanation:

      Pabrinex is a supplement that includes a combination of essential vitamins. These vitamins are Thiamine (also known as vitamin B1), Riboflavin (commonly referred to as vitamin B2), Nicotinamide (which encompasses Vitamin B3, niacin, and nicotinic acid), Pyridoxine (known as vitamin B6), and Ascorbic acid (which is vitamin C). Each of these vitamins plays a crucial role in maintaining our overall health and well-being. By incorporating Pabrinex into our daily routine, we can ensure that our bodies receive the necessary nutrients to support various bodily functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 32 - A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol...

    Correct

    • A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. He is requesting admission for ‘inpatient detox’ and states he would like some ‘medication to alleviate his symptoms’.

      Which of the following is a reason for admitting this patient?

      Your Answer: Age under 16

      Explanation:

      NICE provides a list of reasons for admitting patients with acute alcohol withdrawal. These include individuals who are deemed to be at risk of experiencing withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens. Additionally, young people under the age of 16 who are going through acute alcohol withdrawal may also require admission. Furthermore, vulnerable individuals, such as those who are frail, have cognitive impairment or multiple comorbidities, lack social support, or have learning difficulties, may also benefit from being admitted for acute alcohol withdrawal. For more information, please refer to the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 33 - You evaluate a 42-year-old woman with a long-standing history of alcohol abuse. She...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 42-year-old woman with a long-standing history of alcohol abuse. She is determined to quit drinking and has the complete backing of her family. Currently, she consumes 20-30 units of alcohol daily. You opt to utilize a screening questionnaire to evaluate the extent of her dependency before referring her to specialized alcohol services.
      Which of the subsequent screening tests is endorsed by the current NICE guidance for this situation?

      Your Answer: SADQ

      Explanation:

      The Severity of Alcohol Dependence Questionnaire (SADQ) is a brief, self-administered questionnaire consisting of 20 items. It was developed by the World Health Organisation with the aim of assessing the severity of alcohol dependence. Another assessment tool recommended by NICE is the Leeds Dependence Questionnaire (LDQ), which is a self-completion questionnaire comprising of 10 items. The LDQ is designed to measure dependence on various substances. Both the SADQ and LDQ are considered useful in evaluating the severity of alcohol misuse.

      NICE suggests the use of specific assessment tools to effectively evaluate the nature and severity of alcohol misuse. The AUDIT is recommended for identification purposes and as a routine outcome measure. For assessing the severity of dependence, the SADQ or LDQ are recommended. To evaluate the severity of withdrawal symptoms, the Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment of Alcohol Scale, revised (CIWA-Ar) is recommended. Lastly, the APQ is recommended for assessing the nature and extent of problems arising from alcohol misuse.

      to the NICE guidance on the diagnosis, assessment, and management of harmful drinking and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 34 - What is the underlying cause of Korsakoff's psychosis in a 45-year-old man with...

    Correct

    • What is the underlying cause of Korsakoff's psychosis in a 45-year-old man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse?

      Your Answer: Thiamine deficiency

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a classic triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination and balance). Additional possible features of this condition may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. In the majority of cases, peripheral neuropathy (nerve damage) is also observed, typically affecting the legs.

      The condition is marked by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized using MRI scanning, while CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (difficulty remembering past events), an inability to memorize new information, disordered time appreciation, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 35 - A 25-year-old woman with a known history of generalized anxiety disorder presents hyperventilating....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with a known history of generalized anxiety disorder presents hyperventilating. You suspect that she is experiencing a panic attack. She was seen by a resident physician shortly before your assessment, and an arterial blood gas was taken.
      What type of acid-base disorder would you anticipate being caused by hyperventilation secondary to anxiety?

      Your Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.

      Respiratory acidosis is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or life-threatening asthma. Other causes include pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or certain medications.

      Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to vomiting, potassium depletion (often caused by diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.

      Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can be caused by conditions like lactic acidosis (which can result from hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction) or ketoacidosis (commonly seen in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess). Other causes include renal failure or poisoning (such as late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, or ethylene glycol).

      Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be attributed to conditions like renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 36 - A 35-year-old man is involved in a car crash in which his wife...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is involved in a car crash in which his wife is killed. He is uninjured and was released from the hospital after an evaluation the same evening as the accident. He comes back three days later with significant symptoms of anxiety and difficulty remembering the details of the accident. He describes feeling out of it and disoriented. He also reports feeling emotionally detached from the events at this point.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Explanation:

      This woman has been exposed to a highly traumatic event that likely caused intense fear and helplessness. She also witnessed the shocking death of her spouse. As a result, it is highly likely that she will develop acute stress disorder.

      Common features of acute stress disorder include a subjective feeling of detachment and a lack of emotional responsiveness. Individuals may also experience a reduction in awareness of their surroundings, often described as being in a daze. Additionally, derealization and depersonalization may occur, where individuals feel disconnected from reality or their own sense of self.

      Another symptom of acute stress disorder is dissociative amnesia, where individuals have difficulty remembering the traumatic events. They may also experience flashbacks and dreams about the event, which can be distressing and intrusive. Symptoms of anxiety or increased arousal, such as restlessness or hypervigilance, are also common.

      Typically, acute stress disorder lasts between two days and four weeks after the traumatic event. It is important to note that it usually occurs within four weeks of the traumatic event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 37 - A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremors, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her vital...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremors, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her vital signs reveal an elevated heart rate of 119 bpm. She typically consumes 2-3 large bottles of strong cider daily but has recently run out of money and has not had an alcoholic beverage since the previous evening.
      Which ONE of the following benzodiazepine medications is currently approved for use in clinical practice in the UK for treating symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?

      Your Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are commonly used in the UK to manage symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Currently, only diazepam and chlordiazepoxide have been authorized for this purpose. Other benzodiazepines like alprazolam, clobazam, and lorazepam do not currently have authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms in the UK.

      Carbamazepine is also used in the UK to manage alcohol-related withdrawal symptoms, but it does not have official authorization for this use.

      Clomethiazole, on the other hand, does have UK marketing authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms, but it is only recommended for use in a hospital setting with close supervision. The product information for clomethiazole advises caution when prescribing it to individuals with a history of addiction or outpatient alcoholics. It is also not recommended for patients who continue to drink or abuse alcohol. Combining alcohol with clomethiazole, especially in alcoholics with cirrhosis, can lead to fatal respiratory depression even with short-term use. Therefore, clomethiazole should only be used in a hospital under close supervision or, in rare cases, by specialist units on an outpatient basis with careful monitoring of the daily dosage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 38 - You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)...

    Correct

    • You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) who is currently experiencing severe symptoms. He hands you a note to read that expresses his thoughts about his condition. However, you struggle to comprehend it as it is excessively verbose and highly disorganized.
      Which ONE of the following cognitive impairments is he exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Graphorrhea

      Explanation:

      Graphorrhoea is a communication disorder characterized by an excessive use of words and a tendency to ramble in written work. It is similar to word salad, but specifically occurs in written form. This condition is often observed in individuals with schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 39 - A 25-year-old woman has a history of unstable relationships, excessive anger, fluctuating moods,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman has a history of unstable relationships, excessive anger, fluctuating moods, uncertainty about her personal identity, self-harm, and impulsive behavior that causes harm.
      Which of the following is the SINGLE MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Borderline personality disorder is characterized by a range of clinical features. These include having unstable relationships, experiencing undue anger, and having variable moods. Individuals with this disorder often struggle with chronic boredom and may have doubts about their personal identity. They also tend to have an intolerance of being left alone and may engage in self-injury. Additionally, they exhibit impulsive behavior that can be damaging to themselves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which she feels that other people can hear what she is thinking. She is finding the sensation very distressing.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Thought broadcast

      Explanation:

      Thought broadcast is one of the primary symptoms of schizophrenia identified by Schneider. This symptom refers to the patient’s belief that their thoughts can be perceived by others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 41 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency Department. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
      Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE regarding schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: 10% of patients go on to commit suicide

      Explanation:

      The occurrence of schizophrenia is consistent across all social classes. It affects individuals from all walks of life without discrimination. The likelihood of developing schizophrenia over one’s lifetime is 1%, and this probability remains the same for both men and women. However, it is worth noting that men tend to experience the onset of symptoms at a younger age compared to women, with the average age of onset falling between 15 and 45 years.

      There is a recognized genetic predisposition for schizophrenia, meaning that certain individuals may have a higher likelihood of developing the condition due to their genetic makeup. The risk of schizophrenia affecting first-degree relatives, such as siblings or parents, is approximately 10%. Furthermore, the risk of children being affected by schizophrenia increases to 40%.

      When considering the impact of genetics on schizophrenia, it is interesting to note that monozygotic twins, who share identical genetic material, have a concordance rate of around 50%. This suggests that genetic factors play a significant role in the development of the condition.

      Tragically, approximately 10% of individuals suffering from schizophrenia ultimately die by suicide, particularly during the early stages of the illness. This highlights the importance of providing appropriate support and intervention to individuals with schizophrenia to prevent such devastating outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency Department. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
      Which ONE of the following is acknowledged as a primary symptom of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Emotional incongruity

      Correct Answer: Thought echo

      Explanation:

      The first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia, as described by Kurt Schneider, include auditory hallucinations such as hearing 3rd person voices discussing the patient, experiencing thought echo, and receiving commentary on one’s actions. Additionally, passivity phenomena may occur, such as thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, and feelings of thoughts and actions being under external control. Delusions, which can be primary or secondary, are also common in schizophrenia.

      On the other hand, chronic schizophrenia is characterized by negative symptoms. These include poor motivation and self-care, social withdrawal, depression, flat and blunted affect, emotional incongruity, decreased activity, and poverty of thought and speech. These negative symptoms often persist in individuals with chronic schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 43 - A 32-year-old musician is currently participating in a community withdrawal program for a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old musician is currently participating in a community withdrawal program for a substance misuse issue. He has been attempting to quit for more than a year and consistently attends a community support group for his problem. The healthcare team in charge of his treatment have prescribed him Acamprosate to aid with his withdrawal.
      What substance is he most likely trying to withdraw from?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Acamprosate, also known as Campral, is a medication used in the treatment of alcohol dependence. It is believed to work by stabilizing a chemical pathway in the brain that is disrupted during alcohol withdrawal. For optimal results, Acamprosate should be used alongside psychosocial support, as it helps reduce alcohol consumption and promote abstinence.

      When starting treatment with Acamprosate, it is important to begin as soon as possible after assisted withdrawal. The typical dosage is 1998 mg (666 mg three times a day), unless the patient weighs less than 60 kg, in which case a maximum of 1332 mg per day should be prescribed.

      Generally, Acamprosate is prescribed for up to 6 months. However, for those who benefit from the medication and wish to continue, it can be taken for a longer duration. If drinking persists 4-6 weeks after starting the drug, it should be discontinued.

      Patients who are prescribed Acamprosate should be closely monitored, with regular check-ins at least once a month for the first six months. If the medication is continued beyond six months, the frequency of check-ins can be reduced but should still occur at regular intervals.

      While routine blood tests are not mandatory, they can be considered if there is a need to monitor liver function recovery or as a motivational tool to show patients their progress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 44 - You assess a client who has recently developed severe depression and contemplate the...

    Correct

    • You assess a client who has recently developed severe depression and contemplate the potential presence of an underlying physiological factor contributing to this condition.
      Which ONE of the following is NOT a potential physiological cause for depression?

      Your Answer: Thiamine deficiency

      Explanation:

      Thiamine deficiency is linked to episodes of acute confusion, but it is not typically associated with depression. On the other hand, depression is commonly seen in individuals with hypercalcemia. Chronic diseases like Parkinson’s disease and COPD are strongly correlated with depression. Additionally, both psychosis and depression can be associated with the use of steroids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 45 - You assess a client who has recently developed severe depression and contemplate the...

    Correct

    • You assess a client who has recently developed severe depression and contemplate the potential presence of an underlying organic factor contributing to this condition.

      Which ONE of the following could be a potential organic factor leading to depression?

      Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia is often linked to feelings of sadness and low mood, while hypocalcaemia does not typically have this association. Temporal arteritis is known to cause sudden episodes of psychosis, but it is not commonly associated with depression. On the other hand, hyperkalaemia does not have a connection to depression. Lastly, when someone experiences a deficiency in thiamine, they may exhibit symptoms of acute confusion, but depression is not typically one of these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 46 - A 45-year-old woman has visited her primary care physician and the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman has visited her primary care physician and the Emergency Department a combined total of 60 times over the past six years with various complaints. In the past, she has experienced multiple episodes of pain that have affected different parts of her body. No clear cause has ever been found for any of these episodes. Last year she had a strange episode where she lost her sense of taste and smell. She was subsequently referred to a Neurologist and had a normal MRI scan of her brain. This episode resolved without explanation. Today she has presented with concerns about a tingling sensation on the right side of her body, which she would like investigated. Her only past medical history of note is migraines, for which she takes sumatriptan and ibuprofen.

      What is the single MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Somatic symptom disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by the presence of recurrent, unexplained clinical symptoms that occur in multiple areas of the body. These symptoms typically begin before the age of 30 and persist for several years. In order to diagnose somatic symptom disorder, the following criteria must be met: experiencing pain in at least four different locations in the body, encountering at least two gastrointestinal issues, encountering one sexual dysfunction, and experiencing one pseudoneurological symptom.

      Hypochondriasis, on the other hand, involves an excessive preoccupation with the belief of having a serious illness, such as cancer. Despite undergoing thorough medical investigations and receiving reassurance from healthcare professionals, individuals with hypochondriasis continue to have an unwarranted concern about their physical health. This preoccupation is often accompanied by self-examination, self-diagnosis, and a lack of trust in the diagnoses provided by doctors.

      Munchausen syndrome is characterized by individuals intentionally feigning illness or disease in order to gain attention and sympathy from others. Unlike somatisation disorder and hypochondriasis, individuals with Munchausen syndrome deliberately produce their symptoms.

      Dissociative disorder, previously known as multiple personality disorder, encompasses a group of conditions that involve disruptions in memory, awareness, identity, and perception. The most extreme manifestation of this disorder is dissociative identity disorder, in which individuals have at least two distinct identities or personalities.

      Malingering refers to the deliberate exaggeration or fabrication of symptoms of a disease for various potential secondary gains. This behavior is often associated with seeking financial benefits, such as committing benefits fraud, or engaging in drug-seeking behaviors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 47 - A 35-year-old homeless woman with a history of mental health issues and substance...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old homeless woman with a history of mental health issues and substance abuse comes to the Emergency Department with symptoms of tremors, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her vital signs reveal an elevated heart rate of 123 bpm. After establishing an IV line, blood samples are sent to the laboratory. She typically consumes a bottle of whiskey daily but has not had any alcohol since the previous evening. To alleviate her symptoms, you administer a dose of chlordiazepoxide.
      What other medication will you administer to her during her stay in the Emergency Department?

      Your Answer: Intravenous Pabrinex

      Explanation:

      Thiamine deficiency is frequently seen in individuals who are dependent on alcohol. This is primarily due to their inadequate diet, the presence of gastritis which affects thiamine absorption, and the fact that thiamine is involved in alcohol metabolism as a coenzyme. If left untreated, thiamine deficiency can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which can further progress to Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      It is important to note that administering glucose-containing intravenous fluids without thiamine to a patient with chronic thiamine deficiency can trigger Wernicke’s encephalopathy. Therefore, individuals undergoing detoxification should receive parenteral high-potency B complex vitamins (Pabrinex) as a preventive treatment. However, it is crucial to have resuscitation facilities available during administration due to the risk of anaphylaxis. The risk of anaphylaxis is lower when the drug is given intramuscularly (IM). A daily dose of one pair of ampoules of Pabrinex, containing 250 mg of thiamine, should be administered IM or intravenously (IV) for a period of three to five days.

      Once the 3-5 day course of Pabrinex is completed, the patient should transition to oral vitamin B Compound-strong and oral thiamine tablets for continued treatment.

      For more information, please refer to the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 48 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of severe depression and previous episodes of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of severe depression and previous episodes of self-harm presents with suicidal thoughts. She is also known to suffer from generalized anxiety disorder. She admits to heavy drinking and occasional cocaine use.

      Which of the following factors in her history is associated with the highest risk of suicide?

      Your Answer: Previous episode of self-harm

      Explanation:

      Every year in the UK, 5,000 individuals lose their lives to suicide. Shockingly, only 25% of these individuals were known to receive specialized mental health services. The demographic with the highest suicide rates is men aged between 30 and 60, but there is a concerning increase in rates among teenagers aged 15 to 19.

      It is crucial for doctors to be able to identify and provide support to patients who suffer from severe depression or other mental health issues, as they are at a higher risk of suicide. Certain factors significantly increase the risk of suicide, including a history of self-harm, previous mental illness, being male, experiencing severe depression, and substance abuse. It is important to note that combinations of these risk factors are more significant than individual factors alone.

      Despite the belief that hospital admission provides a safe environment, the risk of suicide remains high for inpatients. Additionally, the risk remains elevated in the months following discharge from the hospital.

      On the other hand, there are protective factors that decrease the likelihood of suicide. These include having dependent children, having family members who would be deeply affected by the loss, and having religious beliefs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 49 - You assess a client who has recently experienced a significant decline in mood...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a client who has recently experienced a significant decline in mood and has been contemplating self-harm. Which ONE of the following characteristics is NOT indicative of depression?

      Your Answer: Antipathy

      Correct Answer: Increased reactivity

      Explanation:

      Loss of reactivity, in contrast to heightened reactivity, is a common trait seen in individuals with depression. The clinical manifestations of depression encompass various symptoms. These include experiencing a persistent low mood, which may fluctuate throughout the day. Another prominent feature is anhedonia, which refers to a diminished ability to experience pleasure. Additionally, individuals with depression often exhibit antipathy, displaying a lack of interest or enthusiasm towards activities or people. Their speech may become slow and have a reduced volume. They may also struggle with maintaining attention and concentration. Furthermore, depression can lead to a decrease in self-esteem, accompanied by thoughts of guilt and worthlessness. Insomnia, particularly early morning waking, is a classic symptom of depression. Other common signs include a decrease in libido, low energy levels, increased fatigue, and a poor appetite resulting in weight loss.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 50 - You assess a client with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing...

    Correct

    • You assess a client with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing acute psychosis. He reports a sensation in which he believes that individuals in close proximity to him are inserting their thoughts into his mind.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is he exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Thought insertion

      Explanation:

      Thought insertion is one of the primary symptoms identified by Schneider in schizophrenia. This symptom refers to the patient’s belief that their thoughts are being controlled or influenced by external sources, such as other individuals or entities. In some cases, they may even experience auditory hallucinations, hearing distinct voices.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 51 - A 60-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a deep cut on...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency Department with a deep cut on their leg. They have a history of alcoholism and typically consumes 10-12 drinks daily. Despite previous attempts at sobriety, they have consistently relapsed within a few days. It is currently 11 am, and they have already consumed alcohol today.
      What would be the most suitable course of action to pursue?

      Your Answer: Explore the reasons behind their previous relapses and the methods they have used to stop drinking in the past

      Explanation:

      When addressing the management of long-term alcohol abuse and promoting self-care, it is important to start by exploring the reasons behind the patient’s previous relapses. This will help understand her beliefs and understanding of her condition and identify any simple, supportive measures that can aid in her efforts to stop drinking.

      Referral to the Community Drug and Alcohol Team (CDAT) may be necessary at some point. Depending on the severity and duration of her alcohol abuse, she may be suitable for outpatient or community detox. However, if her drinking has been sustained and heavy for many years, she may require admission for additional support. It is important to note that there is often a long wait for available beds, so it would be more prudent to thoroughly explore her history before making this referral.

      While arranging for her liver function to be tested could be part of the general work-up, it is unlikely to be necessary for a leg laceration. It is crucial to avoid suddenly abstaining or prescribing chlordiazepoxide, as these actions can be potentially dangerous. Abrupt detoxification may lead to delirium tremens, which can have catastrophic effects. Chlordiazepoxide may be used under the supervision of experienced professionals, but close monitoring and regular appointments with a GP or specialist are essential.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 52 - You evaluate a 35-year-old combat veteran named Mark, who was recently discharged from...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 35-year-old combat veteran named Mark, who was recently discharged from service after being discovered to be under the influence of drugs and alcohol during a training exercise. He completed three tours of duty in Iraq and witnessed the death of a close comrade during his final deployment. Mark acknowledges experiencing frequent flashbacks and nightmares and often feels on edge. His spouse has accused him of being emotionally distant and lacking feelings, resulting in their separation. Lately, he has been heavily relying on alcohol as a coping mechanism.
      What is the SINGLE MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-traumatic stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) develops after experiencing an extremely threatening or catastrophic event that would cause distress in almost anyone. It is important to note that PTSD does not develop from everyday upsetting situations like divorce, job loss, or failing an exam.

      The most common symptom of PTSD is re-experiencing the traumatic event involuntarily and vividly. This can manifest as flashbacks, nightmares, repetitive distressing images or sensations, and physical symptoms such as pain, sweating, nausea, or trembling. Other notable features of PTSD include avoidance, rumination, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, irritability, and insomnia.

      It is common for individuals with PTSD to also experience other mental health problems such as depression, anxiety, phobias, self-harming behaviors, and substance abuse.

      The recommended treatments for PTSD are Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing (EMDR) and Trauma-focused Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT). These treatments should be offered to individuals of all ages, regardless of the time that has passed since the traumatic event. Typically, 8-12 sessions are recommended, but more may be necessary in cases involving multiple traumas, chronic disability, comorbidities, or social problems.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 53 - A 25-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department by the Security Guards....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is brought into the Emergency Department by the Security Guards. She is restrained and has scratched one of the Security Guards accompanying her. She is highly agitated and combative and has a history of bipolar disorder. She is given an initial dose of intramuscular olanzapine combined with intramuscular lorazepam. However, she shows no response and remains highly agitated and combative.

      According to the NICE guidelines for short-term management of highly agitated and combative patients, which of the following drugs should be used next?

      Your Answer: Fentanyl

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      Rapid tranquillisation involves the administration of medication through injection when oral medication is not feasible or appropriate and immediate sedation is necessary. The current guidelines from NICE recommend two options for rapid tranquillisation in adults: intramuscular lorazepam alone or a combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine. The choice of medication depends on various factors such as advanced statements, potential intoxication, previous responses to these medications, interactions with other drugs, and existing physical health conditions or pregnancy.

      If there is insufficient information to determine the appropriate medication or if the individual has not taken antipsychotic medication before, intramuscular lorazepam is recommended. However, if there is evidence of cardiovascular disease or a prolonged QT interval, or if an electrocardiogram has not been conducted, the combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine should be avoided, and intramuscular lorazepam should be used instead.

      If there is a partial response to intramuscular lorazepam, a second dose should be considered. If there is no response to intramuscular lorazepam, then intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine should be considered. If there is a partial response to this combination, a further dose should be considered.

      If there is no response to intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine and intramuscular lorazepam has not been used yet, it should be considered. However, if intramuscular lorazepam has already been administered, it is recommended to arrange an urgent team meeting to review the situation and seek a second opinion if necessary.

      After rapid tranquillisation, the patient should be closely monitored for any side effects, and their vital signs should be regularly checked, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, temperature, hydration level, and level of consciousness. These observations should be conducted at least hourly until there are no further concerns about the patient’s physical health.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidance on violence and aggression: short-term management in mental health, health, and community settings.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 54 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department because she is extremely anxious...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department because she is extremely anxious about various symptoms she is experiencing. She has been feeling more panicky than usual and constantly worries about her health. She is experiencing headaches and difficulty swallowing, which she is very concerned might indicate a serious underlying condition. She also has occasional panic attacks. She avoids certain situations that she believes could harm her health and even tries to avoid social and work situations, although others don't seem to understand her concerns.

      What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder

      Correct Answer: Generalised anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is the most probable diagnosis in this case.

      The primary distinction between GAD and panic disorder lies in their symptoms. GAD is primarily characterized by anxiety, whereas panic disorder is characterized by panic attacks. Individuals with GAD typically do not experience frequent panic attacks, although they may occasionally occur. In this patient’s case, while he did experience occasional panic attacks, they were not his main symptom, and his anxiety was not centered around these episodes.

      GAD is associated with persistent physical symptoms such as muscle tension, aches, headaches, fatigue, trembling, twitching, irritability, difficulty swallowing, and the sensation of a lump in the throat.

      On the other hand, panic disorder primarily revolves around the panic attacks themselves. A panic attack is a brief and intense episode characterized by overwhelming feelings of dread and fear, which may or may not be triggered by a specific situation. Common physical symptoms experienced during panic attacks include dizziness, sweating, chills, nausea, trembling, shaking, abdominal cramps, throat tightness, shortness of breath, numbness in the extremities, rapid heartbeat, palpitations, and chest pain.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 55 - A 35-year-old woman with bipolar disorder describes a feeling in which a voice...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with bipolar disorder describes a feeling in which a voice in her mind appears to vocalize her thoughts to her immediately after the thought has been generated.
      Which of the following psychological symptoms is she encountering?

      Your Answer: Thought withdrawal

      Correct Answer: Écho de la pensée

      Explanation:

      Écho de la pensée, also known as thought echo, is a psychiatric symptom characterized by the perception of a voice in one’s mind that appears to vocalize thoughts immediately after they are generated.

      Thought withdrawal, on the other hand, is a delusional belief where individuals feel that their thoughts have been removed from their own consciousness without their control or consent.

      In contrast, thought insertion is a delusional conviction that someone else is influencing or manipulating their thoughts, causing difficulty in distinguishing between their own thoughts and those that have been inserted by another person.

      Folie à deux, also referred to as induced psychosis, is a specific type of delusional disorder that is shared by two or more individuals who have a close emotional relationship.

      Lastly, echophonia refers to the replication of the voice that can sometimes be heard when listening to the chest during auscultation.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 56 - A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremor, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her observations...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremor, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her observations reveal an elevated heart rate of 119 bpm. She typically consumes 2-3 large bottles of strong cider daily but has recently run out of money and hasn't had an alcoholic drink since the previous night.
      Which assessment scale should be utilized to guide the treatment of this woman's alcohol withdrawal? Select ONE option.

      Your Answer: CIWA scale

      Explanation:

      The CIWA scale, also known as the Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol scale, is a scale consisting of ten items that is utilized in the evaluation and management of alcohol withdrawal. It is currently recommended by both NICE and the Royal College of Emergency Medicine for assessing patients experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. The maximum score on the CIWA scale is 67, with scores indicating the severity of withdrawal symptoms. A score of less than 5 suggests mild withdrawal, while a score between 6 and 20 indicates moderate withdrawal. Any score above 20 is considered severe withdrawal. The ten items evaluated on the scale encompass common symptoms and signs of alcohol withdrawal, such as nausea/vomiting, tremors, sweating, anxiety, agitation, sensory disturbances, and cognitive impairments.

      In addition to the CIWA scale, there are other screening tools available for assessing various conditions. The CAGE questionnaire is commonly used to screen for alcohol-related issues. The STEPI is utilized as a screening tool for early symptoms of the schizophrenia prodrome. The EPDS is an evidence-based questionnaire that can be employed to screen for postnatal depression. Lastly, the SCOFF questionnaire is a screening tool used to identify the possible presence of eating disorders.

      For further information on the assessment and management of acute alcohol withdrawal, the NICE pathway is a valuable resource. The RCEM syllabus also provides relevant information on this topic. Additionally, the MHC1 module on alcohol and substance misuse offers further reading material for those interested in this subject.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 57 - You assess a 30-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder and previous...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 30-year-old woman with a history of bipolar disorder and previous episodes of self-harm and suicidal behavior.
      Which ONE of the following factors has NOT been demonstrated to elevate the likelihood of violence?

      Your Answer: Male gender

      Correct Answer: Anxiety disorder

      Explanation:

      Anxiety disorder does not have a connection with a higher likelihood of engaging in violent behavior. However, there are several factors that are acknowledged to increase the risk of violence among patients. These factors include being male, being young (under 40 years old), having poor levels of self-care, exhibiting coercive behavior, having a history of previous violent episodes, making multiple visits to the hospital, being intoxicated with alcohol, and experiencing organic psychosis.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 58 - A middle-aged patient with a long-standing history of alcohol abuse presents feeling extremely...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged patient with a long-standing history of alcohol abuse presents feeling extremely ill. He has been on a week-long drinking spree and has consumed very little food during that time. After conducting tests, you diagnose him with alcoholic ketoacidosis.
      What type of acid-base disorder would you anticipate in a patient with alcoholic ketoacidosis?

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Raised anion gap metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.

      Respiratory acidosis is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) or life-threatening asthma. Other causes include pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or certain medications.

      Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to vomiting, potassium depletion (often caused by diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.

      Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can be caused by conditions like lactic acidosis (which can result from hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction) or ketoacidosis (commonly seen in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess). Other causes include renal failure or poisoning (such as late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol, or ethylene glycol).

      Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be attributed to conditions like renal tubular acidosis, diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 59 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Korsakoff's psychosis. You have been requested to assess the patient and report your observations.
      Which of the following symptoms is typically observed in individuals with Korsakoff's psychosis?

      Your Answer: Word salad

      Correct Answer: Disordered time appreciation

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a classic triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination and balance). Additional possible features of this condition may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. In the majority of cases, peripheral neuropathy (nerve damage) is also observed, typically affecting the legs.

      The condition is marked by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized using MRI scanning, while CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (difficulty remembering past events), an inability to memorize new information, disordered time appreciation, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 60 - A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol...

    Correct

    • A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. He is requesting admission for ‘inpatient detox’ and states he would like some ‘medication to alleviate his symptoms’.
      Which of the following is NOT a reason for admitting this patient?

      Your Answer: Previous successful inpatient detox

      Explanation:

      NICE provides a list of reasons for admitting patients with acute alcohol withdrawal. These include individuals who are deemed to be at risk of experiencing withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens. Additionally, young people under the age of 16 who are going through acute alcohol withdrawal may also require admission. Furthermore, vulnerable individuals, such as those who are frail, have cognitive impairment or multiple comorbidities, lack social support, or have learning difficulties, may also benefit from being admitted for acute alcohol withdrawal. For more information, please refer to the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal.

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      • Mental Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Mental Health (55/60) 92%
Passmed