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  • Question 1 - A 52-year-old man has been diagnosed with type two diabetes and prescribed medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has been diagnosed with type two diabetes and prescribed medication by his GP. The medication functions by binding to its receptor and closing the potassium ion channels, which reduces potassium efflux from the cell and causes depolarization. This, in turn, leads to calcium ion influx and insulin release. What medication has the patient been prescribed?

      Your Answer: Rosiglitazone

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Sulfonylureas attach to a KATP channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells that is dependent on ATP.

      Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.

      One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and occasional breast discharge. She has never...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and occasional breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for the past year. She is not on any regular medications and has had regular menstrual cycles in the past. On breast examination, there are no palpable abnormalities and she has normal secondary sexual characteristics. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Correct Answer: Prolactin level

      Explanation:

      Investigating Hyperprolactinaemia: Tests and Imaging

      Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin, often caused by a microadenoma in the pituitary gland. While no single test can determine the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, a prolactinoma is likely if the prolactin level is above 250 ng/ml. Inhibitory effects of raised prolactin may result in low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), but this is not diagnostic. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging technique for investigating the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, rather than a skull computed tomography (CT) or X-ray, which may only show enlarged pituitary fossa with large adenomas. Additionally, thyroid function tests may be necessary to investigate mildly raised prolactin levels in the absence of pituitary pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man comes in for his annual check-up for type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes in for his annual check-up for type 2 diabetes mellitus. During the review, his HbA1c level is found to be 58 mmol/mol. The patient is currently taking metformin 1g twice daily and is fully compliant. He has no allergies and is not taking any other medications. The patient had a transurethral resection for bladder cancer five years ago and is still under urology follow-up with no signs of disease recurrence. He has no other medical history, exercises regularly, and maintains a healthy diet. The patient's BMI is 25kg/m².

      What would be the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Add empagliflozin

      Correct Answer: Add gliclazide

      Explanation:

      For a patient with T2DM who is on metformin and has an HbA1c level of 58 mmol/mol, the most appropriate choice for a second antidiabetic agent is gliclazide, according to NICE guidelines and the patient’s clinical factors. Pioglitazone is not recommended due to the patient’s history of bladder cancer, and SGLT-2 inhibitors and GLP-1 receptor agonists are not appropriate in this case. Modified-release metformin is not recommended for improving HbA1c control. Dual therapy with a sulfonylurea, DPP-4 inhibitor, or pioglitazone is recommended by NICE once HbA1c is 58 mmol/mol or over on metformin, but the choice of agent depends on the individual clinical scenario.

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      423.5
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious by her husband. He claims she has been increasingly depressed and tired over the last few weeks. Past medical history includes coeliac disease, for which she follows a strict gluten-free diet, and vitiligo. She is on no medical treatment. On examination, she is responsive to pain. Her pulse is 130 bpm and blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. She is afebrile. Pigmented palmar creases are also noted. Basic blood investigations reveal:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Hb 121 g/l 135–180 g/l
      WCC 6.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 233 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Na+ 129 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      K+ 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 93 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glucose 2.7 mmol/l <11.1 mmol/l (random)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions and Differential Diagnosis

      Addisonian Crisis: A condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, often due to autoimmune disease, TB, metastases, or adrenal haemorrhage. Symptoms include vague complaints such as depression, anorexia, and GI upset, as well as tanned skin and pigmented palmar creases. Diagnosis is confirmed through a short ACTH stimulation test. Emergency treatment involves IV hydrocortisone and fluids, while long-term treatment involves oral cortisol and mineralocorticoid.

      Other Differential Diagnoses: Meningococcal septicaemia, insulin overdose, paracetamol overdose, and salicylate overdose. However, the clinical features described in the scenario are not suggestive of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and lethargy....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and lethargy. He has areas of skin hyperpigmentation and hypopigmentation consistent with vitiligo. His blood pressure is 96/58 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal the following results, and treatment is initiated.
      Hemoglobin: 138 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      Platelets: 210 * 109/L (150-400)
      White blood cells: 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      Sodium: 133 mmol/L (135-145)
      Potassium: 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      Urea: 6.5 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      Creatinine: 95 µmol/L (55-120)
      C-reactive protein: 4 mg/L (<5)
      Fasting blood sugar: 4.4 mmol/L (4-7)

      What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Overnight dexamethasone suppression test

      Correct Answer: Short synacthen test

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease based on their clinical presentation of hypotension, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, and electrolyte abnormalities. Immediate treatment with intravenous fluids and glucocorticoids is necessary. The best test to confirm the diagnosis is the short synacthen test, which measures cortisol levels after administering a stimulating hormone. The aldosterone renin ratio and overnight dexamethasone suppression test are not useful in this scenario. While the serum ACTH level can aid in the diagnosis, dynamic testing with suppression/stimulation is more accurate in endocrine conditions.

      Investigating Addison’s Disease: ACTH Stimulation Test and Serum Cortisol Levels

      When a patient is suspected of having Addison’s disease, the definitive investigation is an ACTH stimulation test, also known as a short Synacthen test. This involves measuring plasma cortisol levels before and 30 minutes after administering Synacthen 250ug IM. Adrenal autoantibodies, such as anti-21-hydroxylase, may also be demonstrated.

      However, if an ACTH stimulation test is not readily available, a 9 am serum cortisol level can be useful. A level of over 500 nmol/l makes Addison’s disease very unlikely, while a level of less than 100 nmol/l is definitely abnormal. A level between 100-500 nmol/l should prompt an ACTH stimulation test to be performed.

      It is important to note that around one-third of undiagnosed patients with Addison’s disease may also have associated electrolyte abnormalities, such as hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate these patients thoroughly to ensure a proper diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 6 - A 54-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology clinic after experiencing a heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man is seen in the Cardiology clinic after experiencing a heart attack a year ago. He was diagnosed with hypertension and diabetes during his hospitalization. The patient reports gaining 5kg in the last 6 months and wonders if any of his medications could be causing this weight gain. Which of his prescribed drugs may be contributing to his recent weight gain?

      Your Answer: Simvastatin

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Weight gain is a common side effect of sulfonylureas.

      Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.

      One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      52.6
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of weight gain, hair...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female presents to her GP with complaints of weight gain, hair thinning, fatigue, and dry skin. What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Primary hypoparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Endocrine Disorders: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Hypothyroidism, adrenal insufficiency, Cushing syndrome, primary hypoparathyroidism, and secondary hypoparathyroidism are all endocrine disorders that can present with various symptoms. Hypothyroidism may cause cerebellar ataxia, myxoedema, and congestive cardiac failure, and is treated with replacement of thyroid hormone. Adrenal insufficiency may cause tiredness, weakness, and postural hypotension, among other symptoms. Cushing syndrome may present with central obesity, skin and muscle atrophy, and osteoporosis. Primary hypoparathyroidism may cause hypocalcaemia symptoms, while secondary hypoparathyroidism may also present with hypocalcaemia symptoms. Treatment options vary depending on the specific disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      16.9
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman with suspected diabetes mellitus undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with suspected diabetes mellitus undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test using the standard WHO protocol. The results are as follows:
      Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
      0 5.9
      2 8.4

      What is the interpretation of these findings?

      Your Answer: Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance

      Correct Answer: Impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

      In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.

      There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).

      Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old man is being evaluated for possible diabetes mellitus and undergoes an...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is being evaluated for possible diabetes mellitus and undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test using the standard WHO protocol. The results are as follows:

      Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
      0 5.9
      2 8.2

      What is the interpretation of these findings?

      Your Answer: Impaired fasting glucose and impaired glucose tolerance

      Correct Answer: Normal

      Explanation:

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

      In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.

      There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).

      Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus presents at...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus presents at the emergency department complaining of vomiting and abdominal pain. Upon examination, she appears dehydrated. The following are some of her blood test results:
      pH 7.23 (7.35-7.45)
      pCO2 2.1 kPa (4.5-6.0)
      pO2 11.2 kPa (10-14)
      Na+ 135 mmol/L (135-145)
      K+ 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      Bicarbonate 13 mmol/L (22-28)
      Glucose 22.4 mmol/L (<11.1)
      Ketones 3.6 mmol/L (<0.6)

      Question: What should be done with her regular insulin during her treatment?

      Your Answer: Continue both long-acting and short-acting insulin

      Correct Answer: Continue long-acting insulin and stop short-acting insulin

      Explanation:

      In the management of DKA, it is important to continue the patient’s regular long-acting insulin while stopping their short-acting insulin. Fixed-rate insulin and fluids should also be administered. Continuing short-acting insulin may lead to hypoglycaemia, so it should be stopped until the patient is stable. Increasing the dose of both long-acting and short-acting insulin is not recommended.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with generalised fatigue and polyuria....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with generalised fatigue and polyuria. These symptoms started three months ago but became much more pronounced in the preceding hour.
      At the clinic, she also starts complaining of extreme thirst and mild lower back pain. She is noted to be breathing heavily, with her breath smelling of acetone.
      Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of general fatigue and polyuria suggest the possibility of type I diabetes, which can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA can occur as a complication of existing type I diabetes or as the first presentation of the disease. In rare cases, extreme stress can also cause DKA in patients with type II diabetes. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in excess free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. Common triggers include infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction.

      Anxiety attacks can cause heavy breathing and abdominal pain, but they do not explain the polyuria, polydipsia, and pear-drops-smelling breath. Symptoms of anxiety attacks include chest pain, palpitations, nausea and vomiting, sweating, insomnia, flushing, tremor, and urinary frequency.

      Acute pancreatitis should be ruled out in cases of central abdominal pain. Symptoms of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, vomiting, epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Cullen’s sign and Grey-Turner’s sign are rare.

      Addison’s disease, the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, can present similarly to this case with general fatigue and abdominal pain. Other symptoms of Addison’s disease include anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, salt-craving, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia.

      Hyperparathyroidism can also cause polyuria, polydipsia, and abdominal pain, but the Kussmaul respiration and pear-drops-smelling breath suggest a likely diagnosis of DKA. Symptoms of hyperparathyroidism include bone pain, osteopenia and osteoporosis, increased risk of kidney stones, constipation, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain, and fatigue, depression, and memory impairment, all of which are symptoms of underlying hypercalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 12 - A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute cholecystitis and is set to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute cholecystitis and is set to undergo a cholecystectomy in 4 days. She is currently managing her type 1 diabetes with a daily dose of 20 units of long acting insulin in the morning. What is the appropriate once-daily dose of insulin for her to take the day before her surgery?

      Your Answer: 40 Units

      Correct Answer: 16 Units

      Explanation:

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old primigravida visits her General Practitioner at 25 weeks of gestation after...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old primigravida visits her General Practitioner at 25 weeks of gestation after her midwife detected glucose in a routine urinalysis. The patient's results are as follows:
      - Blood pressure: 129/89 mmHg
      - Fundal height: 25.5 cm
      - Fasting plasma glucose: 6.8 mmol/L

      What treatment option should be provided to this patient?

      Your Answer: Home monitoring of blood glucose for 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Trial of diet and exercise for 1-2 weeks

      Explanation:

      For a patient presenting with elevated fasting plasma glucose (6.8 mmol/L), indicating possible gestational diabetes, the recommended initial management is a trial of diet and exercise to control blood glucose without medication. The patient should be advised to consume a high-fibre diet with minimal refined sugars and monitor their blood glucose regularly. If the patient’s blood glucose remains elevated despite lifestyle interventions, insulin should be started if the initial fasting plasma glucose is 7 mmol/L or more. If there is no improvement within 1-2 weeks, metformin may be added, and if still inadequate, insulin may be required. It is important to note that pregnant women should not aim to lose weight and should maintain a balanced diet. Advising the patient to only monitor blood glucose without any interventions is inappropriate as lifestyle changes are necessary to manage gestational diabetes.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 14 - A 57-year-old male patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old male patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is admitted to a surgical ward for a routine cholecystectomy. He is currently taking metformin 500mg BD, gliclazide 120 mg BD, ramipril 5mg, and atorvastatin 20 mg. The nurse on the morning drug round asks the doctor if they should administer the morning dose of gliclazide, as the surgery is scheduled for 9 am. What should the doctor advise the nurse?

      Your Answer: The morning dose of gliclazide should be held but the afternoon dose can be given

      Explanation:

      On the day of surgery, sulfonylureas should be omitted, except for patients who take them twice a day. In this case, the morning dose should be withheld, and the afternoon dose given after the surgery. This is because there is a risk of hypoglycemia in the fasted state before surgery. Withholding both doses or withholding for 24 or 48 hours is incorrect. The BNF website provides a comprehensive guide for managing diabetic patients on insulin and anti-diabetic drugs during surgery, including information on when to introduce variable rate insulin infusions and withholding anti-diabetic medications.

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      12.5
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  • Question 15 - A 42-year-old man presents with a six-month history of anorexia and weight loss,...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a six-month history of anorexia and weight loss, excess pigmentation and dizziness on standing. He has a previous history of autoimmune hypothyroidism that is managed with thyroxine.
      Examination reveals postural hypotension and skin discolouration. Initial investigations reveal hyponatraemia: Na+ 118 mmol/l (135-145 mmol/l) and hyperkalaemia: K+ 5.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.6-5.2 mmol/l).
      Which of the following tests will be most useful to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Correct Answer: Short Synacthen® test

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Adrenal Failure: The Short Synacthen® Test

      Adrenal failure is a condition characterized by multiple signs and symptoms and abnormal biochemistry. The diagnosis of adrenal failure is established by a failure of the plasma cortisol concentration to increase in response to adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The short corticotropin test is the gold standard diagnostic tool for this condition. If this test is not possible, an initial screening procedure comprising the measurement of morning plasma ACTH and cortisol levels is recommended. Diagnosis of the underlying cause should include a validated assay of autoantibodies against 21-hydroxylase. Treatment involves once-daily fludrocortisone and hydrocortisone or prednisolone. Follow-up should aim at monitoring appropriate dosing of corticosteroids and associated autoimmune diseases, particularly autoimmune thyroid disease. Serum urea and ESR may not be diagnostic, while serum calcium and thyroid function tests can be abnormal in untreated Addison’s disease. This article discusses the diagnosis and management of adrenal failure, with a focus on the short Synacthen® test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old woman has recently undergone blood monitoring for hypothyroidism. She is currently...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has recently undergone blood monitoring for hypothyroidism. She is currently on a 100 micrograms dose of levothyroxine and her last blood tests showed normal levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free thyroxine (ft4). However, her TSH has now risen to 8mU/L with ft4 slightly below the reference range. The patient confirms that she has been taking her levothyroxine as prescribed. You decide to review her recent medications to identify any potential causes for the suboptimal hypothyroidism treatment. What new medication could be responsible for this?

      Your Answer: Cyanocobalamin

      Correct Answer: Ferrous sulphate

      Explanation:

      To avoid reducing the absorption of levothyroxine, it is important to give iron/calcium carbonate tablets at least four hours apart from the medication. Ferrous sulphate is the medication that can affect the absorption of levothyroxine and should also be given four hours apart. Patients should be advised to separate doses of calcium carbonate or antacids containing aluminium and magnesium from levothyroxine by at least four hours. It is recommended to review potential drug interactions before increasing treatment doses and refer to The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) clinical knowledge summaries for a detailed list of potential drug interactions. The other medications listed do not have a known effect on the absorption of levothyroxine.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.

      Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 17 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism is admitted to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hypothyroidism is admitted to the Emergency Department after experiencing chest pain. He is diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome and iron-deficiency anemia. A percutaneous coronary intervention is performed, and a coronary artery stent is inserted. Endoscopies of the upper and lower gastrointestinal tract are performed and reported as normal. Upon discharge, he is prescribed aspirin, clopidogrel, ramipril, lansoprazole, simvastatin, and ferrous sulfate in addition to his regular levothyroxine. Six weeks later, he reports feeling constantly fatigued to his GP, who orders routine blood tests. The results show a TSH level of 8.2 mu/l, which is elevated compared to the patient's previous two years of TSH levels within range. Which of the newly prescribed drugs is most likely responsible for the raised TSH?

      Your Answer: Ferrous sulphate

      Explanation:

      To avoid reduced absorption of levothyroxine, iron/calcium carbonate tablets should be administered four hours apart.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.

      Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old man has been referred by his GP due to a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man has been referred by his GP due to a history of uncontrolled hypertension. He has come in today to undergo an aldosterone: renin ratio test. The results indicate high levels of aldosterone and low levels of renin. Additionally, a CT scan has revealed bilateral adrenal gland hyperplasia.

      What is the recommended management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from primary hyperaldosteronism, which is caused by bilateral adrenal gland hyperplasia. This condition leads to elevated aldosterone levels, resulting in increased sodium retention and negative feedback to renin release. The most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism is bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, which can be treated with spironolactone, an aldosterone receptor antagonist, for four weeks. Adrenalectomy is only recommended for unilateral adrenal adenoma, which is not the case for this patient. Fludrocortisone and hydrocortisone are not appropriate treatments for hyperaldosteronism as they act on mineralocorticoid receptors, exacerbating the condition. Reassurance and discharge are not recommended as untreated primary hyperaldosteronism can lead to chronic elevation of blood pressure, increasing the risk of cardiovascular disease, stroke, and kidney damage.

      Understanding Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that was previously believed to be caused by an adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the cause in up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two as this determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      The common features of primary hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness, but this is seen in only 10-40% of patients. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone.

      If the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is high, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia. The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is treated with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.

      In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that can be caused by adrenal adenoma, bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, or adrenal carcinoma. It is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Diagnosis involves a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio, high-resolution CT abdomen, and adrenal vein sampling. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve surgery or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 19 - As a foundation doctor in the endocrine department, if you were to assess...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in the endocrine department, if you were to assess a patient with hypoparathyroidism resulting in hypocalcaemia, what findings may you discover during your investigation?

      Your Answer: Chvostek's sign: percussion over the facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs

      Hypocalcaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. Since calcium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function, many of the symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia are related to neuromuscular excitability. The most common features of hypocalcaemia include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. In chronic cases, patients may experience depression and cataracts.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show a prolonged QT interval, while Trousseau’s sign may be present when the brachial artery is occluded by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining pressure above systolic. This causes wrist flexion and fingers to be drawn together, and is seen in around 95% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 1% of normocalcaemic people. Chvostek’s sign, which is seen in around 70% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 10% of normocalcaemic people, involves tapping over the parotid gland to cause facial muscles to twitch.

      In summary, hypocalcaemia can cause a range of symptoms and signs related to neuromuscular excitability, including muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia, depression, and cataracts. Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign are also commonly observed in patients with hypocalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman has been referred by her General Practitioner (GP), as she...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been referred by her General Practitioner (GP), as she is passing a substantial volume of urine. She complains that she is continuously thirsty.
      Random plasma reveals the following:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Sodium (Na+) 155 mmol
      Osmolality 300 mOsmol/kg
      Glucose 4.5 mmol
      Urine analysis reveals the following:
      Investigation Result
      Osmolality 90 mOsmol/kg
      Glucose 0.1 mmol/l
      In healthy patients, the urine : plasma osmolality ratio is > 2.
      A water deprivation test reveals the following:
      After 6.5 hours of fluid deprivation, the patient’s weight had dropped by > 3%, and the serum osmolality was 310 mOsmol/kg. Urine osmolality at this stage was 210 mOsmol/kg. The patient was then given desmopressin intramuscularly (IM) and allowed to drink. The urine osmolality increased to 700 mOsmol/kg, and her plasma osmolality was 292 mOsmol/kg.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: A pituitary tumour

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Cranial Diabetes Insipidus: A Pituitary Tumour as the Likely Cause

      Cranial diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb free water, resulting in excessive water loss. The most likely cause of this condition is reduced antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion, which can be caused by a pituitary tumour. In this case, the patient’s low urine osmolality and reduced response to the water deprivation test confirm the presence of cranial DI.

      Chronic renal disease and lithium therapy can also cause nephrogenic DI, but the patient’s response to desmopressin im excludes these as potential causes. Diabetes mellitus may cause polydipsia and polyuria, but it also presents with glycosuria and hyperglycaemia. Primary polydipsia, characterized by a compulsive desire to drink, can cause low urine osmolality, but the patient’s ability to concentrate urine to some extent excludes this as a likely cause.

      In conclusion, a pituitary tumour is the most likely cause of the patient’s cranial DI, as confirmed by the water deprivation test and response to desmopressin im.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman has Addison’s disease.
    Which of the following medications is she likely...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman has Addison’s disease.
      Which of the following medications is she likely to be taking long term?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Common Medications for Adrenal Disorders

      Adrenal disorders such as Addison’s disease and Cushing’s syndrome require specific medications for treatment. Here are some commonly used drugs and their indications:

      Hydrocortisone and Fludrocortisone: These are the mainstays of treatment for Addison’s disease, as they replace the deficient glucocorticosteroids and mineralocorticoids.

      Phenoxybenzamine: This medication is used to treat phaeochromocytoma before surgery.

      Metyrapone: It can be used to diagnose or treat Cushing’s syndrome by reducing the amount of aldosterone and cortisol in the body.

      Prednisolone and Levothyroxine: Prednisolone can be used instead of hydrocortisone in Addison’s disease to avoid peaks and troughs. However, levothyroxine is not used to treat Addison’s disease, but it’s important to check for concurrent thyroid disease.

      Spironolactone: It’s used to treat Conn’s disease, which causes hyperaldosteronism. It’s not appropriate for Addison’s disease treatment, as both can cause hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman has been referred by her doctor for thyrotoxicosis treatment. After...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has been referred by her doctor for thyrotoxicosis treatment. After discussing the available options, she chooses to undergo radioiodine therapy. What is the most probable side effect of this treatment?

      Your Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Thyroid eye disease can be triggered by radioiodine therapy, as has been extensively recorded, but most patients will ultimately need to undergo thyroxine replacement.

      Management of Graves’ Disease

      Despite numerous attempts, there is no clear consensus on the best way to manage Graves’ disease. The available treatment options include anti-thyroid drugs (ATDs), radioiodine treatment, and surgery. In recent years, ATDs have become the most popular first-line therapy for Graves’ disease. This is particularly true for patients who have significant symptoms of thyrotoxicosis or those who are at a high risk of hyperthyroid complications, such as elderly patients or those with cardiovascular disease.

      To control symptoms, propranolol is often used to block the adrenergic effects. NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend that patients with Graves’ disease be referred to secondary care for ongoing treatment. If a patient’s symptoms are not controlled with propranolol, carbimazole should be considered in primary care.

      ATD therapy involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and gradually reducing it to maintain euthyroidism. This treatment is typically continued for 12-18 months. The major complication of carbimazole therapy is agranulocytosis. An alternative regime, known as block-and-replace, involves starting carbimazole at 40mg and adding thyroxine when the patient is euthyroid. This treatment typically lasts for 6-9 months. Patients following an ATD titration regime have been shown to suffer fewer side-effects than those on a block-and-replace regime.

      Radioiodine treatment is often used in patients who relapse following ATD therapy or are resistant to primary ATD treatment. However, it is contraindicated in pregnancy (should be avoided for 4-6 months following treatment) and in patients under the age of 16. Thyroid eye disease is a relative contraindication, as it may worsen the condition. The proportion of patients who become hypothyroid depends on the dose given, but as a rule, the majority of patients will require thyroxine supplementation after 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 23 - A 75-year-old man with known type 2 diabetes presents with a 1-week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with known type 2 diabetes presents with a 1-week history of polydipsia, feeling generally unwell and drowsy. On examination, he looks very dehydrated and is difficult to rouse. He appears confused when he does talk to you.

      Admission bloods show:
      Na+ 149 mmol/l
      K+ 5.2 mmol/l
      Urea 22.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 254 µmol/l
      His blood glucose is 36 mmol/L.

      What is the most important initial step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give calcium gluconate due to hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Rehydrate with 0.9% Saline

      Explanation:

      Complications of the hyperosmolar state, such as rhabdomyolysis, venous thromboembolism, lactic acidosis, hypertriglyceridemia, renal failure, stroke, and cerebral edema, contribute to the mortality of HONK. Identifying precipitants, such as a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, infection, high-dose steroids, myocardial infarction, vomiting, stroke, thromboembolism, and poor treatment compliance, is crucial.

      Supportive care and slow metabolic resolution are the mainstays of HONK management. Patients with HONK often have a fluid deficit of over 8 liters, and caution should be exercised to avoid rapid fluid replacement, which can cause cerebral edema due to rapid osmolar shifts. In this scenario, fluid resuscitation should be the top priority, followed closely by initiating a sliding scale. Some experts recommend waiting for an hour before starting insulin to prevent rapid changes and pontine myelinolysis. However, the fluid alone can lower blood sugar levels, and some argue that administering insulin immediately can cause a precipitous drop in osmolality.

      Understanding Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic State

      Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS) is a medical emergency that can be life-threatening and difficult to manage. It is characterized by severe dehydration, electrolyte deficiencies, and osmotic diuresis resulting from hyperglycaemia. HHS typically affects elderly individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM).

      The pathophysiology of HHS involves hyperglycaemia leading to increased serum osmolality, osmotic diuresis, and severe volume depletion. Precipitating factors include intercurrent illness, sedative drugs, and dementia. Clinical features of HHS include polyuria, polydipsia, signs of dehydration, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, altered level of consciousness, and focal neurological deficits.

      Diagnosis of HHS is based on the presence of hypovolaemia, marked hyperglycaemia, significantly raised serum osmolarity, no significant hyperketonaemia, and no significant acidosis. Management of HHS involves fluid replacement with IV 0.9% sodium chloride solution, potassium monitoring, and insulin administration only if blood glucose stops falling while giving IV fluids. Patients with HHS are at risk of thrombosis due to hyperviscosity, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis is recommended.

      Complications of HHS include vascular complications such as myocardial infarction and stroke. It is important to recognize the clinical features of HHS and manage it promptly to prevent mortality.

      Overall, HHS is a serious medical condition that requires urgent attention and management. Understanding its pathophysiology, clinical features, and management is crucial in providing appropriate care to patients with HHS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 24 - A 75-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening....

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old patient presents for a follow-up appointment after undergoing private health screening. The patient has been advised to seek medical attention regarding her thyroid function tests (TFTs).
      TSH levels are at 9.2 mU/L and free thyroxine levels are at 14 pmol/L. Despite her age, the patient is currently in good health and shows no symptoms. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Order a thyroid ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Repeat TFTs in a few months time

      Explanation:

      According to the guidelines recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries, this patient with subclinical hypothyroidism should be monitored at present based on both TSH and age criteria.

      Understanding Subclinical Hypothyroidism

      Subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is elevated, but the levels of T3 and T4 are normal, and there are no obvious symptoms. However, there is a risk of the condition progressing to overt hypothyroidism, especially in men, with a 2-5% chance per year. This risk is further increased if thyroid autoantibodies are present.

      Not all patients with subclinical hypothyroidism require treatment, and guidelines have been produced by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS) to help determine when treatment is necessary. If the TSH level is above 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, levothyroxine may be offered. If the TSH level is between 5.5 – 10mU/L and the free thyroxine level is within the normal range, a 6-month trial of levothyroxine may be considered if the patient is under 65 years old and experiencing symptoms of hypothyroidism. For older patients, a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used, and asymptomatic patients may simply have their thyroid function monitored every 6 months.

      In summary, subclinical hypothyroidism is a condition that requires careful monitoring and consideration of treatment options based on individual patient factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 25 - You are asked to assess a 76-year-old man on the surgical ward. The...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to assess a 76-year-old man on the surgical ward. The nursing staff has documented his blood glucose level at 2.4mmol/L. He is recuperating after undergoing surgery for a hip fracture. He has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and chronic kidney disease.

      During your examination, he appears somewhat restless but coherent enough to respond to your inquiries. His heart rate is 78 bpm, and his blood pressure is 134/82 mmHg.

      What would be the most appropriate initial treatment?

      Your Answer: 20% dextrose IV

      Correct Answer: Glucogel, orally

      Explanation:

      Dextrose IV is not the recommended treatment for correcting hypoglycemia. If the patient is conscious, a fast-acting glucose liquid should be given. However, if the patient is unconscious or unable to swallow, subcutaneous or intramuscular injection of glucagon may be necessary. While a sandwich can be helpful after treating the hypoglycemic episode, it is not a quick-acting carbohydrate and should not be used in the acute phase.

      Understanding Hypoglycaemia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Hypoglycaemia is a condition characterized by low blood sugar levels, which can lead to a range of symptoms and complications. There are several possible causes of hypoglycaemia, including insulinoma, self-administration of insulin or sulphonylureas, liver failure, Addison’s disease, and alcohol consumption. The physiological response to hypoglycaemia involves hormonal and sympathoadrenal responses, which can result in a range of symptoms such as sweating, shaking, hunger, weakness, confusion, and even convulsions or coma in severe cases.

      It is important to note that blood glucose levels and the severity of symptoms are not always correlated, especially in patients with diabetes. Blood glucose concentrations below 3.3 mmol/L can cause autonomic symptoms, while concentrations below 2.8 mmol/L can cause neuroglycopenic symptoms. Management of hypoglycaemia depends on the severity of the symptoms and the setting in which it occurs. In the community, oral glucose or quick-acting carbohydrates may be given, while in a hospital setting, subcutaneous or intramuscular injection of glucagon or intravenous glucose solution may be necessary.

      In summary, hypoglycaemia is a serious condition that requires prompt recognition and management to prevent complications. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and appropriate management strategies can help individuals with diabetes and healthcare professionals to effectively manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old woman presents to a walk-in clinic with complaints of fatigue and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to a walk-in clinic with complaints of fatigue and feeling cold for the past two months. She has become increasingly distressed by these symptoms and reports a recent weight gain of approximately 5kg. Which of her regular medications could potentially be causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism can be caused by long-term use of lithium.

      The patient’s symptoms suggest hypothyroidism, and the only medication on the list that can lead to this condition is lithium. While the other drugs listed may cause individual side effects that could contribute to the patient’s presentation, none of them would produce all of the symptoms described.

      Amlodipine may cause weight gain due to fluid retention, but it is unlikely to cause as much as 5 kg, and it would not cause mood changes or fatigue to the extent described. Bisoprolol can cause significant fatigue, but it would not cause weight gain. Citalopram may cause significant weight gain and mood changes, but it is unlikely to cause the patient to feel cold. Atorvastatin can also cause weight gain, but this is rare.

      Understanding the Causes of Hypothyroidism

      Hypothyroidism is a condition that affects a small percentage of women in the UK, with females being more susceptible than males. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, an autoimmune disease that may be associated with other conditions such as IDDM, Addison’s or pernicious anaemia. Other causes of hypothyroidism include subacute thyroiditis, Riedel thyroiditis, thyroidectomy or radioiodine treatment, drug therapy, and dietary iodine deficiency. It is important to note that some of these causes may have an initial thyrotoxic phase.

      In rare cases, hypothyroidism may also be caused by pituitary failure, which is known as secondary hypothyroidism. Additionally, there are certain conditions that may be associated with hypothyroidism, such as Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome, and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old female presents to the GP with a two-week history of feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old female presents to the GP with a two-week history of feeling generally unwell. She reports experiencing hot flashes and sweating, as well as difficulty sleeping at night. Her husband has also noticed that she seems more agitated and on edge than usual. The patient has no significant medical history but reports having had flu-like symptoms six weeks ago that have since resolved. On examination, there is a tender goitre present. Thyroid function tests reveal a TSH level of 0.5 mU/L (normal range 0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 21 pmol/L (normal range 9.0-18). What is the first-line management for the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Thyroxine

      Correct Answer: Conservative management with ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis is the likely cause of this patient’s hyperthyroidism, as evidenced by symptoms such as heat intolerance, insomnia, and agitation, as well as a normal TSH and high T4 level. The presence of a tender goitre and recent viral illness further support this diagnosis. Conservative management, including observation and NSAIDs for pain relief, is the most appropriate course of action as subacute thyroiditis is typically self-limiting. Antithyroid drugs such as carbimazole and propylthiouracil are not indicated for this condition, as they are used to treat chronic hyperthyroidism such as Grave’s disease. Radioactive iodine therapy is also not appropriate for subacute thyroiditis.

      Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases

      Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.

      To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.

      It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old woman has recently discovered that she is expecting her second child....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has recently discovered that she is expecting her second child. During her first pregnancy, she experienced gestational diabetes. However, after giving birth, she was informed that she no longer had diabetes. What is the best course of action for her current pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Check HbA1c immediately

      Correct Answer: Do oral glucose tolerance test as soon as possible after booking

      Explanation:

      The guidelines of NICE have been revised, stating that women who are at risk of gestational diabetes should undergo an oral glucose tolerance test immediately after booking, instead of waiting until 16-18 weeks as previously recommended.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old woman presented with complaints of constant fatigue and underwent blood tests....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presented with complaints of constant fatigue and underwent blood tests. All results were within normal limits except for her thyroid function test (TFT) which revealed:
      TSH 12.5 mU/l
      Free T4 7.5 pmol/l
      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Levothyroxine

      Explanation:

      The TFTs indicate a diagnosis of hypothyroidism, which can be treated with levothyroxine. Carbimazole is not suitable for this condition as it is used to treat hyperthyroidism. To ensure proper absorption, levothyroxine should be taken 30 minutes before consuming food, caffeine, or other medications.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.

      Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 30 - A 48-year-old woman is seen in the diabetes clinic with poorly controlled type...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman is seen in the diabetes clinic with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus (HbA1c 63 mmol/mol). She had to discontinue gliclazide due to recurrent hypoglycaemia and is currently on maximum dose metformin. Her BMI is 26 kg/m^2. What is the best course of action for further management?

      Your Answer: Refer her for a laparoscopic gastric band

      Correct Answer: Add either pioglitazone, a DPP-4 inhibitor or a SGLT-2 inhibitor

      Explanation:

      NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (8/30) 27%
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